#point-set-topology
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and X completely regular should imply those
a problem here is I think that if X is indiscrete then it may be initial for those
yeah because if X is indiscrete the only continuous functions from X to R are constant
and the coarsest topology making constants continuous should just be the indiscrete topology
That's completely regular (I'm using the definition that doesn't include the Hausdorff assumption)
Oh yeah true
I guess completely regular is separating points and closed sets by continuous functions and if the only closed sets are empty and everything then ofc
so I guess suppose the topology is initial. Let x be a point in X and F a closed set not containing x. Find a continuous function f and a closed subset C of the reals with f^{-1}(C)=F
then you should be done
Thanks
I guess there is some work in showing you can find such f.
Since a priori F could be the intersection of such sets
Oh true
I think you can mess with it though
It would be the union though because it's closed no?
How might I go about proving "$X$ is normal if and only if it has a compactification $Y$ such that any two disjoint closed sets in $X$ have disjoint closures in $Y$. Any such space $Y$ can be identified with $\beta X$."
supimed
It's exercise 6C.3 in Rings of Continuous Functions.
Hi, for proving homemorphism for a function f, is it valid to just proof that $f^{-1}$ is continous. Or do I have to proof that f is continous and biyective?
Thanks in advance
S0S4 - Feel free to ping
f^-1 only makes sense if f is bijective, so you'll need to prove that.
And you do also need f to be continuous, though I guess in most contexts that's more or less given.
Fine, thanks đ
yeah, my only point-set topology application so far was analysis. Hope to see more motivations when I study some geometry and topology in the future.
Oh, actually I was kinda curious about the notion of nets. So I first encountered nets while studying Folland's chapter 4, but then he didn't really use it so far (I'm currently reading chapter 6 L^p spaces). Are nets useful in analysis in the sense of sequential approximation or something similar?
I found it interesting that they provide sequence-like characterizations of compactness, generalize statements that fail for sequences in general topological spaces, and also allow one to characterize topology via net convergence, which does not work if one only uses sequences. But wondering whether this is used and applied a lot in analysis.
You need to use nets when you work topologies that can't be described by sequences basically
and they're useful for the same reason as sequences, often it's easier to prove that a function is continuous using nets rather than messing with open sets
same for proving sets are closed
most of the time for those two applications the use of nets is identical to the use of sequences really and you don't even notice they are nets
The most common examples would be the weak and weak-* topologies in functional analysis I'd say
At least the most common in the areas I'm interested in
I see. Sounds very interesting. So far, the spaces that I've encountered so far while studying analysis are mostly metrizable lol.
Sounds like that will at least depend on which properties/definition of the function you already have to base the proof on.
yeah
oh, the FA book that I'm currently reading discusses weak and weak* topologies in the next chapter. Maybe I can see some applications of nets there.
hope to see some
here's like a random example where nets are conceptually nice
though not strictly necessary
since the set of group homomorphisms is just $\bigcap_{s,t\in\Gamma}{\varphi\colon\Gamma\to\mathbb{T}:\varphi(st)=\varphi(s)\varphi(t)}$ which is an intersection of closed sets
Blake
but especially with more complicated examples, the arguments using sets can get convoluted
if you have a ton of intersections of various sets flying around
What is \mathbb{T}?
circle group
interesting
convergence is also typically easiest to picture in your head using nets
for instance the product topology is just the topology of pointwise convergence
which is more concrete to think about rather than having to think about exactly what the open sets look like
Nets provide a relatively easy proof of Tychonoff theorem
A set is compact iff âevery ultranet convergesâ
oh yeah I saw that in Folland's chp 4, which was much easier than that of Munkres using FIP of compactness
Nets in a product topology converge iff their components do
That being said Iâm scared of nets
And I try to avoid them where possible
Because often youâre working with a non sequential topology on something and you just prove something with nets and itâs completely unclear how the proof is different than if you had used sequences
This happens to me a lot in functional analysis
Cause there are many topologies in functional analysis which are just categorically never metrizable
And you do some proof with nets and youâre like huh I literally donât see how this proof would fail eg for a set that is sequentially closed but not closed
lol I just started studying more functional analysis after Folland's chp 5 (which was very brief on FA). Hope to see those kind of net applications in the FA book I'm reading tho not sure if this book is advanced enough to cover them lol.
what's wrong with this
this is the good thing about nets
the only time that nets are scary are when you need to really work with the specific index set in a nontrivial way
for instance there's a proof of tychnonoff that goes by diagonalizing a net which sounds painful
It feels too powerful
It's not really too powerful, the complexity of the topology is captured by the fact that nets are way way more general than sequences
my favorite example is that it's trivial to construct a net of functions from R to R such that each function is zero except on a finite number of points but the net converges pointwise to 1
whereas if you use sequences of course the limit can only be 1 on a countable set
Insert obligatory mention of ultrafilters
Does this notion of convergence with nets correspond to the product topology on R^R?
Wdym?
Oh sorry lol didn't see above
Yeah if you take the poset of all finite subsets of R, and then let the net be the indicator functions then this converges to the constant function in the product topology.
In general if x is in the closure of A then there's a net with values in A converging to x
yeah the product topology is the topology of pointwise net convergence
when you think about a product as a space of functions
OK, so the take-home here is something like the functions with finite support are dense in R^R with the product topology, and every function has a net of finite-support functions that converges to it, but not always a sequence that does.
is it ever useful to consider a notion like a \kappa-compact topological space for some (probably want regular) cardinal \kappa? This would be a space where open covers admit subcovers of cardinality < \kappa. Equivalently, the space X is \kappa-compact in the sense of category theory in its poset category of open subsets. the usual notion of compactness corresponds to \kappa = aleph_0 here
there's lindelof spaces which is just compact with countable subcovers
past that I don't think it's too useful
we have a huge reason to care about finite things and a pretty big reason to care about countable things
But for higher cardinals it would only be useful if there was something you could do with say sets of continuum cardinality but not larger ones
yeah makes sense. i gave this some thought as well and couldnt think of anything that uses compactness that could have used non-finite-ness lol
thats kappa-lindelofness
but since every space is kappa lindelof for some kappa you instead talk about the lindelof number for that space
there are like cardinal inequalities for it and stuff
Hi, Is there a better to proof inyectivity on this homeomorphism than doing the typical: $\frac{x_1}{1-y_1} = \frac{x_2}{1-y_1}$?
This is the function:
$\f: S \backslash {N} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} \ f:(x,y) = ((\frac{x}{1-y},0), x \neq 0$
S0S4 - Feel free to ping
is the homeomorphism for the stereographic proyection
yea, just construct the inverse and show that composing them yields the identity
I already did what I said there, but I'll try that approach because the calculations for proving It on my way were insanely large
I guess there's also the geometric argument: the circle is convex so a line insects it in at most 2 points
But, for doing It this way shouldn't I first proof that the inverse exists and so, proof for biyectivity?
Giving the inverse would be a proof of its existence
Thats a nice point
the geometric picutre is how you construct the inverse
imagine the real line as the x-axis in R^2
Yeah, i have drawed it
the circle minus the north pole is afixed such that the south pole is touching zero
for a point x_0 on the real line, find the point on the line from N to (x_0,0) that intersects the circle
oh i guess this could be a slightly incorrect variant of the picture. may be off by a factor of 2 somewhere
Ill have It mind, I thinked I had to proof that the function is biyective for then using the inverse
either the circle is sitting like how i described it before, shifted upwards, or it hasn't moved and is sitting in R^2 as the usual unit circle
For this exercise is the unit circle
With N=(0,1)
okay, yea, then the same idea applies
its easier now since you can just take the equation of this line
and find where on the line the norm is equal to 1
Thank you very much, tomorrow Ill work on It and maybe send some more questions heređ
@limber wyvern
Thanks for all the ideas
i assume you can just pick kappa to be the cardinality of the set of open sets? lmao
well yeah that should work
I guess technically any larger cardinality
oh yeah lol
well depends how you define it apparently
wikipedia says some authors define the lindelof number to be st open covers admit subcovers of <= lindelof numbers
True just I guess it seems most reasonable for kappa compact to mean "for any cover of cardinality < kappa" ...
Oh lol
yeah i agree thats what it should mean
Sure yeah I didn't think about the Lindelöf stuff
also i realized i was never actually shown a proof of this fact that compact topological space = compact in its poset category Op(X) of opens lol
It is immediate if you think about what filtered colimits and homs mean
Just a lil weird lol
yeee i worked this out earlier today
Gg
No re
the forward direction is like, take a finite subdiagram that also covers X and then it has a cocone so youre done
for the backwards direction you define a filtered diagram of like, n-fold unions of things in your cover and then by the hom thingy one of those must be all of X
in that if none of them are then Hom(X, U_i) = \emptyset and then the colimit is empty despite Hom(X, X) = *
Yee
I guess also like u have the map colim Hom(X, U_i) -> Hom(X, U). This always being an iso is equivalent to saying that you can't have LHS empty and RHS nonempty, which is equivalent to compsctness
Hi:
I have the following question from my exam (worded from memory, so may be slightly inaccurate).
Let: [ F(u(t), t) = -2 + \int_0^t \sin(3u(s)) , ds ] Find the value of $\varepsilon$ such that $F: \mathcal{C}([-\varepsilon, \varepsilon], \mathbb{R}) \to \mathcal{C}([-\varepsilon, \varepsilon], \mathbb{R})$ is a contraction. \
I was told that you can do this question using MVT, but I am not sure how to set it up. Can someone give me any guiders? Thanks. For context, I have another proof that doesn't require MVT, but I am curious as to this method.
Average Maths Student
All I have is that:
[ |F(u, t) - F(v, t)| = |\sin\left(3u\left(t_0\right)\right) | |3u - 3v| ]
But I don't know how to simplify the trig term.
Average Maths Student
My application of MVT here is funny because the fact that I already have sine out the front seems to me that this is a contraction no matter what t or u are, so I probably haven't applied it correctly anyway.
Now that I look at it, the function notation should really be $F_t(u)$ rather than $F(u, t)$.
Average Maths Student
I think u can apply MVT to the difference |sin(3u(s)) - sin(3v(s))| for each s, which gives 3|cos(c)||u(s) - v(s)| for some c, where |cos(c)| \leq 1. This quantity is easy to deal with to get the upper bound since u can just take it outside of the integral. Also, you can bound the remaining difference |u(s) - v(s)| inside the integral by its sup norm.
Actually, this one is a real analysis question lol
Ohhhh inside the integral? Okay okay
Yes that makes more sense
yeah
Wait, if we apply MVT with respect to s, wouldn't we have to use chain rule? I.e derivative of sin(3u(t)) is 3u'cos(3u(t))?
Hmmm actually
The setup for MVT would be F(u) - F(v), so it would be with respect to the function (i.e u or v). But this seems a little strange at first glance - taking the derivative with respect to a function?
oh like treat u(s) and v(s) as two numbers on an interval for each s. What I mean by that is apply the MVT to the function |sin(y) - sin(x)|, which gives |sin(3y) - sin(3x)| \leq 3|x-y| for every pair x,y of numbers. Now substitute u(s) and v(s) inside this inequality
contraction with respect to what metric on C([-e,e], R)?
is it the (\ell^1) metric? [
d(u,v) = \int_0^\epsilon |u - v| , ds
]
josemom2
I thought it's sup metric lol
that would make sense too
yeah, it gives a nice inequality if I assume sup metric.
|| you end up needing t < 1/3 right? ||
||yeah ||
What's the "right" way of completing uniform spaces? Willard/Kelley do it by embedding X into a product of semimetric spaces (metric if X is Hausdorff), Bourbaki does it via filters, but their completion is always Hausdorff (which the Willard/Kelley one isn't).
iirc if you lack hausdorff-ness then the completion isn't unique
I don't know about for general uniform spaces but I'm familiar with the completion for tvs's
cleanest I think is probably using filters
Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space. Let $D$ be a dense subset such that $ d(x,y) \leq \max{d(x,z),d(z,y)} \forall x,y,z \in D$. Prove that $X$ is ultrametric \
I suppose we can just take successions $x_n, y_n, z_n \in D$ that converge to any $x,y,z \in X$ and then since the metric is a continuous function the ultrametric inequality holds,i wanted to prove in another way though but couldnt. Any ideas?
Sigfripro
That's basically the way you prove it, any other proof will be a different version of that more or less
you could say like, take the function f(x,y,z)=max(d(x,y),d(z,y))-d(x,y)
then the pre-image of [0,\infty) is a closed subset of X\times X\times X that contains D\times D\times D
so it must be everything by density
but I think sequences is honestly just more clear
Let $K$ be a compact subset of $\mathbb{R}$, and ${I_\alpha : \alpha \in J}$ a cover by open intervals. How do I show that there is a finite subcover where only consecutive intervals in the cover have intersecting closures?
Luka.s
I think the condition of intersecting closures isn't really stronger at all, so you can just ask for only consecutive intervals intersecting.
I am trying to do some sort of greedy algorithm proof. At stage k, let x_k be the smallest point in K not yet covered, and let I_k be the interval with the largest right endpoint among those not yet picked that also contain x_k.
But I don't know how to prove this works. I've drawn some pictures that I think it should. But I'm stuck in the technicalities.
by compactness we can assume J is finite
sort intervals by uhh left endpoint
have a set of intervals youve already taken, when looking at the new interval, check if it adds new points, and if so, remove all the intervals from the set fully covered by the new interval and add it
alternatively, proof by induction, remove leftmost interval from the set, induction on the truncated K, then add it to the answer
forgive me for the stupid question but I'm unsure of what a neighborhood of x in X is actually supposed to be
the name doesn't make sense at all for me
neighborhood makes it sound like it's a "close" set but it doesn't contain the Thing in question
why would I consider a subset of U (the neighborhood) and not the set itself
If a subset of U contains x, then U itself will also contain it, right??
Open sets are nice
Yes
then what's the point of the definition? am I missing something
I'm also not very sure what Open means in this context
What definition of neighborhood are you using
I'm coming at it from an analysis approach where it just means the boundary isn't part of a set
I assume itâs the âa neighborhood of a point x is a set V which contains an open subset U containing xâ
$U \subset X$ is called a neighborhood of $x \in X$ if there is an open set $V$ with $x \in V \subset U$
ooops
Saarker
I'm also not really sure about the definition of a point being on a boundary of a subset
I think your confusion just comes from not knowing the definitions
You can read the wikipedia page or something for these things, it would probably help
I'm reading the definitions like Right now
the textbook is sitting in front of me
I'm a bit confused about where this is going
In my mind, the motivation for neighborhoods is that studying something globally (ie on the whole space) is hard
Looking at an open neighborhood of a point lets you study something locally, which is less hard
(Also take this with a grain of salt but i have really only seen people talk about open neighborhoods, which is just an open set containing a point)
I suppose one can think of open/closed sets in a topology as being some (very wide) generalization of open/closed intervals in R
that's kind of what I was thinking about
(again coming from analysis lol)
Yeah
I think the intuition for limit points helps you get an idea of everything
Eventually you can define a topology on a set by exactly saying what the open sets are, as long as they satisfy the required axioms
so im guessing the advantage is the same as in analysis, it just gives you a general idea of the locality of your point
whereas some points are "reachable" by some sets, some aren't
I guess intervals in this case
Not quite sure i understand what you mean by this, but i agree with the previous one
Maybe another helpful example of neighborhoods is the idea of (real) manifolds, which (in some sense) generalize R^n
Like the generalization should be something like âthis object locally looks like R^n for some nâ
And the precise phrasing is âevery point has a neighborhood homeomorphic to an open subset of R^n for some nâ
Homeomorphic just means like âtopologically equivalentâ
If you don't understand the point of definitions, see the proofs of the theorems they end up making an entrance in
Or just accept for the time being that you don't get the point and you'll eventually find it out. Although the motivation for the definition of neighbourhood should be very clear if you have done analysis
is it even useful to just read the proof and grasp its idea then move on and read it every now and then in order not to forget it
or is it better not to move on unless you prove each property by yourself even if it takes 2 hours for example
To me "grasp the idea" means that I will be able to reproduce a full proof on my own (maybe not for some of the proofs that are very technical, there you just remember the "key ideas", but this discussion is about quite basic concepts)
you should understand the theoremâs statement, its hypothesis, and the conclusion it makes first
and its useful to relax the hypothesis to see what breaks
Hi, can a subset of a dense set be also dense?
yes
why not?
even demanding proper subsets
consider $\mathbb{Q} \setminus \mathbb{Z} \subset \mathbb{Q} \subset \mathbb{R}$
ManifoldCuriosity
both smaller sets are dense in R
Or do R minus 1 point, R minus 2 points, ...
yup
or just R...
I mean, I though that for a set to be dense the clausure have to be all the space X
but if I take a subset of that subset
wouldn't it not be dense?
no? a dense subset means the closure equals the whole space
the majority of actually useful dense subsets are not equal to the whole space
yeah
writing it make me see it xD
even though a set is a subset of another, if their closure is the same
they are both dense
I see
xd
there are multiple examples showing that this intuition is false, see above
Hi. Can anyone explain what I need to show in this question?
For a space to be separable, there needs to exist a countable and dense subset of this space.
I'm not really sure how you do that for this space, however.
I was reading this answer, but I did not understand the rationale behind it: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/487319/prove-that-sequence-space-ell-p-mathbb-r-is-separable
Namely, they don't find a countable and dense subset? That is, they instead show l^p is dense in the set of all sequences? Isn't this the wrong way around - we need to find a set inside l^p, not a set that contains l^p?
im not sure what you mean. what the answers say is that you can construct a set M that is dense inside l^p (R). M will consist of those sequences with finitely many rational numbers and 0s everywhere else. you just need to check M is countable and dense
Ohh, I see. Yeah I was thinking of it the wrong way around
I thought it was proving l^p was dense in M. Thanks.
Yeah, it's finite sequences with rational entries right?
yup
Yeah, I probably should have read that bit
I was confused because I didn't actually know what the dense subset was
just wanted to clarify since you said l^p is dense in all sequences (there isn't really a notion of density for the set of all sequences, because the l^p norm of an arbitrary sequence need not be finite)
I had an idea and wanted to know if it might interest you: I could post weekly point set topology challenges every Monday. Each problem would require a proof, and I would publish a full solution every Sunday
sure, if you've got some good problems banked it could be interesting
im interested.
sounds fun, although im curious what level you are aiming at
I think I'll adjust the difficulty level based on how quickly the answers are provided
I can suggest this as the first challenge; it might be easy, but you'll need to be a little creative.
I would assume a lot of people have seen this question before
I mean are you asking me to prove the borsuk-ulam theorem or just cite it
I think just citing it is enough, but there are resolutions that don't refer to it
sure
iirc the proof in 1D isnt bad, ||f(x) - f(-x) is continuous and either constantly zero or has a sign change so by IVT has a zero|| should be fine
That's fine; I'll try to come up with some harder and more unusual problems for the coming weeks.
itâs been too long since last i stopped by this channel đ„ș
Lol yeah
today for funsies ive been looking in detail at the iso of categories of preordered sets and of alexandrov topologies 
whats the answer tho?
this is super cool
the last leg of the triangle of this is the connection to simplicial complexes
in particular, given any simplicial complex there is a T0 topological space weakly homotopy equivalent to it. The space can be chosen to have a finite underlying set/finite poset corresponding to it if the simplicial complex is a finite simplicial complex
so in principle algebraic topology of simplicial complexes can be studied purely combinatorially
There is a book "Algebraic Topology of Finite Topological Spaces and Applications" by Barmak that seems hella cool to me/that I want to read
May also has some notes on this
I am thinking that when Im a PhD student I will try to do a DRP with some undergrad on this as a good excuse to have the time to read this book
For a while I was trying to think if there was a way to define homotopy groups using a finite topological space as the model of the sphere as the domain and then in principle itâs super computable for CW complexes
But I think you canât really do this
In particular I think that thereâs no good map crushing the equator for a finite model of the sphere (IE thereâs no good comultiplication)
Which is sad
breaking news: munkres does not capitalize Cartesian (i.e., he does not respect rene descartes)
based???
cocartesian coproduct
i think it's a sign of respect to not capitalize a mathematician's name if enough time has passed
like abelian groups
it means you've become so important to some theory that your name is inseparable from that of some critical construction
no way
id feel more disrespected if i was no longer capitalized
i also know literally no other example
besides boolean ig
well, i am certainly not doing this one
tbh ive definitely done almost all of those at some point on problem sets
if you haven't done something like it before, or if it's only your 2nd or 1.5th time doing it, you should do it
also sometimes even when a question looks obvious youll hit a step that you dont actually see immediately so its nice to catch that
just pick some of them
x/y + w/z = xy^-1 + wz^-1
umm
we want (xz + wy)(yz)^-1 = (xz + wy) y^-1 z^-1
[its easy to show y^-1 z^-1 = (yz)^-1 by showing (yz)(y^-1 z^-1) = id]
= xzy^-1 z^-1 + wy y^-1 z^-1
any of them that aren't immediately obvious to you, you should do
= xy^-1 + wz^-1
eat yer vegetables!
i dont see merit in proving basic stuff about a structure (vector spaces, groups, R in this case) directly from axioms of said structure and a little bit of thinking
its always busywork
i am also of the philosophy that if i think i could solve a problem in 2 hours then i should just skip it, and i could certainly solve a problem of this caliber in 2 hours
the point is to develop R entirely from ordered field axioms
- completeness
showing that you can do so is worthwhile even though all of it is "obvious"
why?
not to dogpile but this is kind of a bad habit, doing foundational exercises is really helpful to prime your brain for solving harder ones because you get more exposed to methods
this is probably true 
you should restrict that philosophy to "i can definitely solve this problem/i have a game plan on how to solve it" for things you skip
often times in the "i think" you will find that your strategy for proving something breaks down somewhere
but your brain doesnt have enough memory or bandwidth to immediately see that
it's too time consuming for me to attempt every single problem in a book that i don't have an immediate solution to (and, honestly, if a problem does have an immediate solution, it's probably just too easy)
and whatever holes i accrue from skipping problems i think i can do should be patched in the future, considering i will take courses corresponding to books im reading (or future books will just expound on previous topics and focus on some holes)
omg, I remember doing this (algebraic law, trichotomy of orders, exponential stuff) from N to R while studying Tao's Analysis I book. That was painful tbh 
I feel ur pain. But no pain, no gain đ
disrespecting descartes, as he SHOULD
have i mentiond how much i despise descartes
all of these are instructive but its not #point-set-topology, itâs #groups-rings-fields
Although this content is in basically any book with an intro sextion, jts in ch1 of munkres, so I decided to post it here
What's wrong with him hahaha
guh, dont get me started
Ok, you have been stopped
this seems like a great read thanks for sharing it đ
Np!
it was also nice because the prelim chapter validated what i had found as well, meanwhile i think the wikipedia page on alexandrov topologies is rather poorly written 
sully
I very much do, it gets you used to thinking about arguing about these objects and is the best way to check you know whats happening. One of my annoyances about Hatcher is that I find the book tends to be lacking in these kinds of problems.
Anyway a classic problem of this flavour I suggest you do, a problem I just really enjoy and suggest to anyone learning about rings for the first time, show that you need not assume the additive group of a ring is abelian.
They are back of the envelope arguments that shouldnt take much effort or thought, but it doesnt mean you shouldnt do them. Theyre what keep you grounded while you read, its far too easy to get lost without them
yeah these things are very often the grounding of a lot of the more sophisticated structural statements that are the theorems you use more often -- understanding how they work is clearly beneficial even if you can get by surprisingly well without them
more importantly if you're a student taking a class im teaching, those problems will be on the exam
:3
i think these âbasicâ arguments often look very similar to arguments used while proving a more important theorem
indeed! and are very much essential if you ever want to follow through those structural arguments with computations
the iso theorems are a lot more useful if you can write down what the isos are
(i wouldn't actually count a statement of the iso theorems as fully correct if you didn't ngl)
wow
btw, whatâs a âdiscrete topologist?â
a joke
because discrete topologies are trivial
bounded holomorphic functions are constant, and perfect abelian groups are all trivial too
Discrete subsets can be very interesting!
non-$T_1$ finite topologies are actually kinda cool
lexi
non-Hausdorff topologies are never cool
donât tell the algebraic geometers
cries in algebraic geometry
It could be worse :3
(remark 1, fig 14)
is this actually a CW complex?
aren't boundaries supposed to contain lower dimensional cells, not just intersect them
this is from fomenko fuchs. the defintion of CW there says, that characteristic maps map boundary of a disc into union of lower dimensional cells
No, for a CW-complex it's enough that every point on the boundary maps to somewhere on a lower-dimensional cell. There's no requirement that the whole lower-dimensional cell is hit.
This is a bid of a weirdness of the definition, but whenever it happens, it ought to be possible to homotope the attachment into a complex where the gluing does behave like you expect. So up to homotopy equivalence (which tends to be all people care about when they use CW complexes anyway), you can assume that any complex you're given is glued nicely. Of course that requires a proof, which the text will hopefully supply later.
Note in particular that this says "into" not "onto" -- in other words, the map is not required to be surjective.
Why the sully bombs bruh
Let me study how I want to study
A trivial one 
No ones stopping you from studying how you want to study, but if everyone tells you its a bad idea, maybe pause and consider why. Youre welcome to ignore it, but you should think about it
I think this and my previous message are good enough reasons as to why I don't care about trivial, uninteresting problems
Idk what's in hatcher, but I guess verifying conseqhences of axioms for more complicated structures has merit
But you can intuit the structure of a group or vsp or R very quickly without doing exercises like these
Whatever, agree to disagree; if it poses a problem in the future then I can always read books differently
Yeah I mean I do disagree and wont be swayed, but if it works for you and youre happy, batter on 
mmm yes this problem is too trivial for me guards take it away
Hi I was trying out JCT, and took aid of the proof outline by University of Edinburgh's proof of JCT. Here is the first part of it (Jordan Polygon satisfies JCT) phrased in my words
Is this acceptable?
(Helge Tverberg's proof)
i like this proof best
đŠ?
I suppose it is likewise bloody obvious that R^3 minus the homeomorphic image of a sphere is homeomorphic to R^3 minus the unit sphere?
i feel its non trivial
It's not even true.
The "Alexander horned sphere" is a famous counterexample -- it is homeomorphic to a sphere, but its exterior region is not simply connected.
i should exile myself from topology i feel
If you suspect something might be true in topology with less than 3 assumptions, there exists a bullshit counterexample
all good advanced math is indistinguishable from adjective soup \silly
Topological spaces donât exist unless theyâre CW complexes of finite type
And usually just finite CW complexes
Topological spaces are things I can draw, no exceptions
Draw S^2 x S^1
This is 100% true, full stop.
Iâll happily dog pile on this
i thouhgt you were against turning everything into combi
This is 100% true lmfao
Just look at my paper
i haven't actually seen it lol
wdym by finite type? not sure if I've heard this terminology before. Is this like finitely many cells in each dimension?
also unfortunately I'm obligated to say that retracts of finite CW complexes are also important :/
Ok true
how much algebra knowledge do i need to be able to read part 2 of munkres (the alg top bits)
How much do you have?
basic group theory
And can you give me the contents page?
You should be fine for all of that
ok nice
You might want a little more algebra experience for 12, but youâre not missing any prereqs in a strict sense
i see
ill think about it when the time comes
This one you can kinda draw tbf
not a space, all my spaces are sufficiently low dimensionally embedded :P
flat torus is fake
I just imagine it as a torus tbh
I feel like if you can draw a gluing diagram you can draw it
Thatâs my take
tbh just draw a sphere and a circle and two dots on them that you can move independently
You know here's a meme point like
I feel we should say CWable
notice how this rule has less than 3 assumptions, implying that there's a bullshit counterexample to it
it has 3 assumptions
"if you suspect something might be true" "in topology" "with less than 3 assumptions"
augh
it's not an if and only if though so there may well still be a bullshit counterexample
Society if pointset topology courses were aimed at end-users instead of being about producing weird counterexamples
Iâm yet to see a use for the distinction between connected and path connected outside an intro topology course đ
Lol
I mean I think this is reasonable because both notions r useful so nice to know they're different but yes
To me it is amusing as in htpy theory you almost exclusively use path connectedness but for algebraic geometry you would only ever use connectedness (or some other variant besides path connectedness)
Any topological space that isnât metrisable and locally path connected is pathological:3
Hmmmm
Locally path connected or totally disconnected
Profinite stuff is useful i admit
And I kinda wanna think about the boundary of F_2
Field with two elements

me when i adjoin an element to F_1
field with only elements
topology on the free group
are coarser and finer topologies relevant to weak topologies?
I think weak topologies are generally the coarsest topology that make some desired functions continuous
wdym by "some desired functions"
for example, if X is a vector space over k and X* its dual space, there's a pairing map X x X* -> k, sending (v,f) to f(v).
Coming from that pairing, for any fixed f in X*, there's a map <-,f>: X -> k, given by sending v in X to f(v).
Now the weak topology for X is the coarsest topology for which all those maps <-,f> are continuous, as f ranges over all of X*
there's also a dual weak* topology on X*, the coarsest topology on X* making all the maps <v,-> continuous as v ranges over X
<f, v> is a duality pairing in this case?
yeah, vector and covector pairing
fixing the covector f, you get a scalar valued function on X
right
the weak topology is the coarsest topology such that all maps v |-> f(v) are cont
for fixed f in X*
there's just one map per f, so f ranges
and weak* is analogous but you fix the vector and let the covector vary
yup
i see
yeah i guess i understand the def but id need to see examples (in the future) to actually understand haha
there's a similar idea with the product topology on X x Y
like i wouldnt understand what coarsest means here, or a specific topological space (i guess funciton space) where this is nice
wait
is X* topological dual?
oops i interpreted it as a vector space dual
its continuous dual generally
yeagh
the product topology on X x Y is the coarsest topology in which the projection maps pi_X and pi_Y are continuous
omg texit online
great example!
oh nice
ill have to do that soon
(product topology)
this is the correct definition for arbitrary products btw
pi_X and pi_Y are very fun
why not the categorical one
if you try to do the "obvious thing" where you take products of open sets you get a topology that is way too big
so it loses an assload of good properties
this is equivalent (and it's easy to see why)
ohh
on topological spaces i see
I think it can be phrased categorically, with the coarsest topology being an initial object in some poset category of topologies on X
so the product topology on X x Y is not the cartesian product of T_x and T_y?
weak/strong topology translates very well to categoric definitions
better than other constructions
i see
i saw this on mathoverflow, it blew my mind
(pedantic note, even in that case it wouldnt be the cartesian product since that would give you things like (U,V) but we want U x V )
you'll learn the difference in Munkres (the one you said is the box topology)
yeah ill let it slide in this case because i think its clear enough from context
amazing
munkres doesnt touch weak topologies i guess?
idts
yeah
oh literally next page he specifies
he might, I don't think my class covered that though
not really, but product topology gives a decent idea on the basics of how this construction works
i think his book is more grounded, strong/weak topology feels more categoryish to me
you do the same thing except instead of taking the collection of functions to elements of the dual, you take them to be all the coordinate/projection mappings
well there's "weak" and then there's "weaker"
he will use "strongest/weakest topology such that xyz maps are continuous" actually
when defining quotients at least
quotients are a great example of strong topologies
quotients are goated
anyway you will deal with weak/weak-* topology in functional analysis
awesome!
the proof that weak/weak-* topology is hausdorff requires hahn-banach so yeah good luck doing that without FA
mfw everything i'm interested in is somehow in functional analysis đ
for me quotients are when topology got to "yay we can play around with shapes now"
and when the advantages of working in the generality of topological spaces over metric spaces became clear
well unless the vector spaces are finite dimensional since then they all coincide
but thats not a very interesting case
i remember when i would avoid working in topologies like the plague
that sounds pretty reasonable i wouldn't want to work in a topology like the plague
i love being in new servers where people aren't sick of me making this format of joke
the "weak topology" is a specific topology related to dual spaces in linear algebra
as other people said, it becomes important later in functional analysis
the weak topology is indeed weaker in general than other natural choices of topology like the norm topology (if you choose the right definition of "weaker"...)
I was a bit sloppy with the example I mentioned, should have said X is a topological vector space and X* is the continuous dual
is there some reason munkres avoids saying something is an element of a collection of sets
he always says "containing" (e.g., an open set is contained in a topology, rather than is an element of), and whenever it's probably easier to just use the \in symbol to show a set is in a collection of sets, he refrains
not a good one as far as im aware
I think it's easy for people learning this stuff to get scared of sets of sets
(even though a set theorist might say the only things a set may contain are sets)
it's more confusing to me when he avoids "set of sets" and keeps treating it as a "collection" without the usual set properties
i have yet to see a proof that there exists a good topology book so
munkres is good so far (although im in the very early parts of the book)
it's probably easier to keep track of that way
i just translate it to set of sets
also makes it easier to realize a topology on X is just a subset of P(X)
really there's three relevant levels here: points, sets of points, and collections of sets of points
having a name for each level is nice
i see
point-set topology really is about points, sets, and topologies 
aka an element of P(P(X))
and of course one can consider the set of all topologies on a space. Which is an element of P(P(P(X)))
oh i never considered this
aweosme

any Applications of this.
what is the cardinality of all topologies on R 
,w cardinality of all topologies on R
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noob
is there some alternative formulation of a topology perhaps using closed sets?
yes, since closed sets are precisely the complements of opens, you can just take complements everywhere in the definition
i would guess it is the same cardinality as that of P(P(R))
sounds right
if you had a topology defined in terms of open sets, the analogous topology that is the same (just formulated in terms of closed sets) is just the complement of each element in the topology of open sets then?
sure except a topology is by definition about open sets so you shouldn't call that a topology aha but yes
so aleph_3
couldnt a textbook theoretically define a topology in terms of closed sets though
sure but then it's bad calling it a topology but yes you can define topologies using closed sets
is there any merit in doing it that way
topology and groupoids starts by defining a topology using neighborhoods
kind of cursed
it's equivalent and like sometimes more convenient
I mean they are equivalent notions. When doing topology you should understand that the data of open sets, closed sets, and neighborhoods uniquely determine each other
and that you can and should switch between these perspectives when doing so is convenient
for example there are the co-blah topologies where you DECLARE that the open sets are precisely those whose complements have cardinality blah
Like cocountable or cofinite topologies
But it'd be easiest just to say the closed sets are finite
lol
hmm
though saying neihgbourhood is funny cause like
that reminds me of generating a topology by a basis
Also in AG it's useful to define topological spaces in terms of open sets, ie Zariski topology
Wait I take that to be open neighborhood
ok great
and neighborhood to mean a set containing an open that contains the point
No what you can do is define the Zariski topos algebraically and show abstractly that this can be represented as sheaves on a topological space
one of the statements of all time
Beth_3 not getting enough love
Ś
now munkres treats collections of sets as sets!
??????
What's the issue lol
Yeah lol idk what the problem is
Collection in this context just means set
^
Well saying A is contained in X can mean either that A is an element or a subset
It feels like he's conflating
The word set and collection tbh
And like
There are genuinely
No set theoretic issues that arise
In the stuff Munkres is doing lmfao
Iirc he just says "collection of sets" instead of a "set of sets"
Like it isn't meant to be something more nebulous
also one in terms of neighborhoods, also one in terms of closures
also huh i never realized you can do this for any (infinite) cardinal, but thats nice
like a topology where kappa-small things are closed
is it acceptable to say, for topological space $(X, \mathcal{T})$, that some $U \subseteq X$ is open \emph{under} $\mathcal{T}$
in the event im talking about multiple topologies
not used
I've seen open in, not under
wdym
i see
its not wording thats used anywhere
oh
to specify this data you would say âU is open in X with the Tau topologyâ since theyre usually given names
that's long though
ok so is U subseteq is open with Tau?
in sounds good though as knightwatch said
which is why its shortened to âU is an open subset of Xâ when the context is clear
you would not say âopen in Tauâ
you say open in the space X
the elements of Tau are what the open sets are
I'd say something like "$U$ is open in $(X,\mathcal{T})$"
Euiseok (Class of 1929 + 100)
open with respect to T
the problem with this is that i dont want to keep writing out (X, Tau)
and this because i dont want to write "with respect to"
Fair enough.
i will Revolutionize pointset topology
I don't think this would cause any confusion, so I think it's totally fine to use that
đ€Ż
I just use "in (X,T)" when I write my point-set topology notes.
then just say U \in \mathcal{T}
I personally would say [ U \overset{\text{open}}{\subseteq} (X, T) ]
nBladeoid
nah i want to emphasize it's open to help me make the link between elements of a topology and open sets

i guess if you're ridiculously strapped for time, you cld say U \subseteq X is T-open
just say U \in T
a schizo way to say an open set be like let (U\hookrightarrow X) be an open immersion
Okay
in differential geometry, the mapping class group of a manifold is often defined as the group of self-homeo/diffeomorphisms of the manifold, modulo path components, i.e. the quotient group where each path component gets sent to a single point
this makes me wonder: is this quotient totally path-disconnected? generally when you have a topological group you can always take its quotient modulo path components - is every path component in that quotient a singleton?
in general that isn't true, it's not too hard to construct spaces with multiple path components whose quotient modulo path components is indiscrete
but I don't know how you could modify such a counterexample in such a way that it becomes a topological group
Let X be a topological space such that every bounded subset A \subset X is closed. (There still can be closed sets which are not bounded.) Can we classify such X?
What do you mean by bounded here?
I don't know of a notion of a bounded set in a general space that isn't, say, a normed vector space
In a metric space at least, this implies every set is closed (hence the space is discrete). Indeed, let $C\subseteq X$ be an arbitrary subset. Suppose $(x_n)$ is a sequence in $C$ with $x_n\to x\in X$. Convergent sequences are bounded, so ${x_n}$ is closed. However, $x$ belongs to the closure of the sequence, so in fact $x=x_m$ for some $m$, implying $x\in C$.
Blake
I guess you could consider a topological space that is also equipped with a bornology https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bornology
In mathematics, especially functional analysis, a bornology on a set X is a collection of subsets of X satisfying axioms that generalize the notion of boundedness. One of the key motivations behind bornologies and bornological analysis is the fact that bornological spaces provide a convenient setting for homological algebra in functional analysi...
if you assume that (1) every compact set is bounded and (2) the space is first countable, the same argument as above implies the space is discrete
This is from Munkres' book. I tried to generalize it to arbitrary products just for fun, and Iâm wondering whether my proof is right or contains an error I havenât noticed.
looks good to me
Thank u
Here is the second challenge.I think that's at least a nice problem
why do we need to assume the hypothesis of first-countability?
What is the standard name for the version of Urysohnâs lemma for LCH spaces that is used to prove the Riesz representation theorem? Both papa rudin and Folland calls it Uryshohn's lemma, and I'm just wondering if this is the standard name cuz we also have Urysohnâs lemma for normal spaces (tho the context is obvious, so I don't think I'd be confused).
is there some symbol that denotes the topology a basis generates?
like perhaps $\mathcal{T}(\mathcal{B})$ or something lol
hmm I donât think Iâve ever seen one. At least, Munkres doesnât have a notation for that.
I haven't seen it but you can always introduce it yourself in anything you're writing
lmao I think I saw that exercise in Conway's complex analysis I book in metric topology chapter.
what's the point of the K-topology
counterexample. Tbh, I've never seen it being used other than that lol.
also, the lower-limit topology
how should i visualize the lower limit topology
Something like [ )))))))))))))))?
all open sets wrt that topology are unions of form [x, y)
idrk what this visually means though ig?
well ive already learned, under the standard topology of R, a set U is open if, for each x in U, some open neighborhood in U contains x
how are you defining an open neighborhood
(x-e,x+e)
ah yeah sure
that's what i learned in like analysis
for the specific case of R with the open interval topology
My definition of open neighborhood of x is an open set that contains x
so idk how to imagine open sets in R endowed with the lower limit topology with this intuition
i guess like the buffer only needs to exist on the rhs
the problem is that in arbitrary topologies "open neighbourhood" refers to elements of your base
generally speaking at least
yeah that's true
do i have to throw out my intuition of neighborhoods in R with the standard topology then?
essentially
awesome
in almost every analysis context you give R^n the standard/euclidean topology but since this is point set topology your open sets are gonna look different
if you give it the discrete topology then every set is open
well munkres hasnt used it yet he just defined them for some reason
yeah I feel like the only topologies on R that I understand are the standard one, the discrete one, and the silly one with no nontrivial open sets
like at least intuitively / visually
and for exercise i have to show the k-topology and lower limit topology are incomparable
mm ok
More importantly, the lower limit topology is not metrizable.
i mean the point of those topologies is for instructive purposes
just to get you used to topologies that arent metric or whatever
Continuous functions would be the right continuous functions in R
interesting
right continuous means?
in practice yeah i havent seen lower limit topology anywhere outside of a point set topology textbook
$\lim_{x \to a^+} f(x) = f(a)$
KraySovetov
limit from the right exists
and equals the function at that point
certainly you should at least get used to the fact that the same space can be given different topologies that behave wildly differently
with the continuous dual you already have 3 topologies to worry about in functional analysis
the one from the operator norm, the weak-* topology and the weak topology
theres also even more of them in operator theory stuff but i dont know how those work
a fun thing to think about is how many non-homeomorphic topologies you can give a finite set with n elements
this has no known closed form solution but it's fun to think about
but you can find some easy bounds that grow very quickly
There is 1, the discrete topology
:3
non-hausdorff topologies are a lie
a lie what? Group?
đ
geometry named algebraic:
this kind of reminds me of the union-closed sets conjecture
i guess this should be easier 
what is that conjecture?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Union-closed_sets_conjecture
for every finite union-closed family of sets, at least one element belongs to at least half of the sets
The union-closed sets conjecture, also known as Franklâs conjecture, is an open problem in combinatorics posed by PĂ©ter Frankl in 1979. A family of sets is said to be union-closed if the union of any two sets from the family belongs to the family. The conjecture states: For every finite union-closed family of sets, other than the empty famil...
and u can reduce the statement to just looking at finite families of finite sets
huh. i am surprised this is open lol
this is trivial. look at it
these results are so evil đ the unpublished preprint takes the cake though... how close to 0 is that epsilon 
huh. I somehow thought I had heard at some point that the conjecture got proven
but maybe I'm just misremembering those 2022 results
Let K be a finite extension of Qp, or for convenience pretend K=Qp. Im wondering about properties of âá”(K) with the topology from the norm on K. you can show by covering âá”(ââ) with [Zp,Zp,1,Zp,...,Zp] that this space is compact, it's also clearly totally disconnected with no isolated points. Using the Bruhat-Tits tree you can construct an explicit isomorphism between âÂč(K) and the cantor set, is there an isomorphism for m>1? It satisfies already the requirements to be cantor except metrizability which feels plausible. It looks like you can make a metric from that cover by products of the valuation ring as i couldn't find a contradiction in that at least for m=2. Thats why im asking in this channel since the question becomes what kinds of conditions do you want to take surjective map and get a metric on the image that generates the topology on the image
something like locally an isomorphism + finite fibers maybe. [Answer: Locally an iso is enough in most cases as paracompact + hausdorff + locally metrizable <=> metrizable]
ah i think this specific case should be doable with Urysohn you can get regularity by taking P^m=P^{m-1}uA^m and organising such that your point is in the affine bit then taking an epsilon neighbourhood, wait in fact compact hausdorff second countable is enough
That's entirely possible, but I didn't find it there
I see. Btw, I didn't know that this notion is called "chain-connectedness." I found this result quite interesting.
What's a quick and easy proof to show that compact subsets of the irrational numbers have empty interior?
If a set is compact in the irrationals itâs compact in the reals and therefore closed in the reals. A subset of the irrationals that is closed with respect to the topology on the reals is discrete as a subspace of the reals. A discrete compact set is finite. An interval of irrationals contains infinitely many irrationals so no finite set can have an interior as a subspace of Q.
I think something like this should work
If it has non-empty interior it contains all the irrationals in an open interval (a, b). Shrinking the interval we may assume a and b are rational.
Then (a, b) is clopen and you can just use a typical infinite cover like
(a + 1/n, b)
Thank you guys 
"at most 50 sets", I love this
A subset of the irrationals that is closed with respect to the topology on the reals is discrete as a subspace of the reals.
This is false right, consider {pi, pi + 1/n | n \in \N}?
(Bap)
Good point. Idk why I thought it was.
let I be the set of irrationals. suppose for a contradiction a compact set K had an interior point x. then, there's some open neighbourhood U of x in R such that U n I is a subset of K. by the density of the rationals, there exists a rational number q in U. we can then find a sequence of irrationals in U n I converging to q. this has no subsequence that converges in I
what about U is Tau-open
Whereas saying U \in \tau would be technically correct, but feels like a bit of an abstraction break.
i guess you could write this, in practice ive never seen this
usually just something along the lines of saying U is open in X ; its not often the case that youâre rapidly switching between many different topologies to where you have to write something like this to keep track of it
or whether you care about the specific topology to begin with and not just the fact that X is a topological space with open sets
The irrational numbers have empty interior so every subset does as well
Don't know why people are overcomplicating this
For a proof of the first fact, all you need is the fact that every open interval contains a rational number
I understood it as being the interior relative to R\Q that was empty.
Ah ok, that's more involved then
@zealous berry is it possible to like
say let X be this set and X_1, X_2 be these different topological space structures on X
well don't phrase it like that, I just woke up, but the point is you can just add a dummy index
and then say U \subseteq X_1 is open, meaning U is T_1-open?
yeah I feel like that is clear
sounds good as well
like this is an abuse of notation but it's no worse than what is already standard to do
whereas saying T_1-open isn't standard so can cause a bit of friction when reading it
Well if I read T_1-open I would think I was lacking knowledge of some standard definition about how open sets relate to the T_1 separation condition, lol
how so
Well if X_1 is a topological space, X_1 isn't the set underlying the topological space. Depending on how you set things up X_1 is probably a pair, whose first element is the set you're talking about
But it's standard to abbreviate U \subseteq first element of the pair X to just U \subseteq X, or more generally to pass back and forth between X being the set vs the topological space structure on the set
this is the same thing as like, let g \in G be an element of a group G, or X \in C be an object of a category C
Just overload \in so it's defined on topological spaces
Is a subset of a relatively compact set relatively compact?
Hmm so any closed subset of a compact space is compact
Now let me look at the proof of this
yea
A subset C implies clA subset clC and clC would be compact in this case, so clA is closed and so compact
I've noticed that the functional analysis text I'm reading assumes knowledge of topology in cases like this (instead of proving that (boundedness <-> relative compactness for all subsets) <-> finite-dimensionality <this is for normed spaces>, they proved that (unit ball is relatively compact) <-> space is finite-dimensional)
These vector spaces are over R or C
When reading this text I've always been curious about what fields other than R or C could be used to be honest
Though perhaps I should be talking about this in advanced-analysis
i dont understand the point of a subbasis
from what i understand, it's just a cover of a set such that the set of all finite intersections forms a basis
wait yeah actually what is the diff between a subbasis and cover
A subbasis is basically a collection that is even simpler than a basis, but still generates a topology
yeah, but taking some arbitrary cover of X won't give u the basis that generates the topology u want.
Yeah the topology will often be finer
sure
@zealous berry the point of a subbasis is that the construction gives you a recipe for the minimal topology that has those sets be open
the product topology is an example where you want a description in terms of a subbasis to be able to work with it
basis and subbasis are useful cuz they are much simpler/smaller collection than that of topology, but they have enough information that many topological arguments can be simplified/reduced to just proving it for basis/subbasis which are much easier to work with.
One distinction to underline here is that there is the notion of a subbasis for \tau where \tau is a given topology. Saying something is a "subbasis" is not a particulary interesting notion because basically any collection is a subbasis
yeah thats what i understood about a basis
like you can show a topology is finer than another by showing basis elements can be locally refined
Like the point is given a basis or a subbasis you can generate a topology T. Then given your T you can ask whether a given (sub)basis generates that T, i.e. they are (sub)bases for T
yeah to specify a subbasis you don't need any of the weird axioms open sets have to satisfy, which is nice
i see
i just dont understand the placement of this definition cuz its not used anywhere yet
which is nice because for example, it's useful to declare certain sets to be open (for example when you want to force certain maps to be continuous, such as projections onto each coordinate in the case of product spaces)
in practice this is how i came to appreciate the concept
a basis requires an extra axiom besides covering
you need topologies to be closed under finite intersections and arbitrary unions
so a subbasis is weaker in the sense that, when generating a topology from the subbasis, you simply just declare certain sets to be open without the "intersection must contain a basis element" requirement for bases
I would phrase it as a basis being a convenient subbasis (becuase the topology they generate is more easily described in terms if your subbasis is a basis)
yeah me too, it was never really explained to me or never explained well which is a shame, bc it's so elegant
once you think of it that way its obvious why the construction looks the way it does
I would say that bases and subbases feel a bit overly emphasised in intro topology and are often a bit confusing initially, like once you have some examples it'll be more clear why they're useful
trillions must close a subbasis under the axioms of a topology
a subbasis generates a basis generates a topology right
yup
yeah
As a very basic example where basis is good, if u want to prove that a function f is continuous, u only need to check it for inverse image of basis elements, instead of arbitrary open sets
preimage of open is open
also this works for subbasis
a function is continuous if the inverse image of an open set is open
but i havent really internalized that yet cuz i havent gotten there yet so
and you can check continuity on a subbasis which is useful bc that's how preimages work
its pretty easily checked to be equivalent to epsilon-delta for metric spaces
yeah
nice
there is also an alternative version where its like
f is continuous if for every open V in Y there is an open U in X such that f(U) \subseteq V
which is also not hard to show is equivalent
awesome
this looks a lot more like the standard epsilon-delta definition
and it pretty much is
wait why can't I just take U to be empty
you need to specify a neighbourhood around a point iirc
ah sure
if you want it to be fully correct its for all x \in X where V is a neighbourhood of f(x), there exists U a neighbourhood of x such that f(U) \subseteq V
then its correct
i made an analogy between topological spaces and vector spaces in the sense that a basis for a topology (resp. vector space) generates every element in a topological space (resp. vector space) under arbitrary union (resp. linear combination)
otherwise yeah it fails because of stupid reasons
and the difference is that the expression of a vector in terms of a basis is unique
whereas a set in terms of unions of basis elements aren't
yeah these are both examples of free constructions
i hvent gotten to the part about free constructions in aluffi
cuz i paused it for the time being
nah but this idea of generation pops up literally everywhere
algebra, linear algebra, topology, measure theory just to name a few
pi-lambda theorem <3
yeah
You can try proving this for real-valued functions on R as an exercise.
measure theory?
oh ig sigma algebras
yeah
and borel algebras
exactly
it's a special case
you check a property on a collection of sets which generates the sigma algebra
then you use pi-lambda or monotone class to get it for all sets in the sigma algebra
awesome
standard technique
its used in the proof of fubini for example
you check on boxes because there its easy, then you monotone class/pi-lambda to get it for all measurable sets
i have done this as an exercise already
(for f:R->R)
but i didnt like the inverse image for open set proof cuz i had to assume the domain was R and not a subset of it
i think i tried f:X->R for X subseteq R and it was bad
Good times
goated theorem
yeah its very helpful
so if i want to declare U, V to be open subsets of X, i can just generate a topology from the subbasis {U, V} (assuming U and V cover X)?
I remember working on a problem at like 2am a few years ago and finally being able to solve it due to monotone class. Still chasing that high
sure, the topology will be very boring (and you can just describe it explicitly) but you can do this
In general you often don't even need those, you just show that "property X holds for a certain family of sets A" and "the family of sets with property X is a sigma-algebra", from which you immediately deduce that the family of sets with property X contains the entire sigma algebra generated by A
yeah pi-lambda and monotone class are basically just shortcut versions of that idea
because in the proof of those theorems you show that the appropriate collection, whatever it is, contains the sigma algebra with all borel/measurable sets (whatever your sigma-algebra happens to be)
yeah you can basically make any collection of sets a subbasis, and then you're just asking "whats the minimal topology containing these sets"
@cosmic mirage from what i understand about free constructions, you have a generative set S and F(S) the free structure generated by S. it's free if, for any other structure A of the same "type," any f: S -> A can be identified with a unique homomorphism phi: F(S) -> A
yee
if you build a free group from {a, b}, and you have x,y in G (G being a group i guess in this case), there's a unique way to map the free group into G by sending a->x, b->y
exactly
great!
something like this should also work for like. Fix a set X, and then consider topologies generated by a collection of subsets of X
I haven't checked the details but if this was false that would be absurd
if youve gotten to product topologies thats a rlly common place to see this, we basically just enforce wanting projection maps to be continuous, and then determine what the resulting minimal induced topology is
yeah this is a good picture
(and as a special case of this, if you replace the word group with k-module for some field k, you get back the concept of a basis)
weak, weak-* and product topologies i think are the best instance of this idea
at least in a concrete setting
yeah but I'm choosing to emphasize this works for modules over any ring as well
i see
the base for the weak topology for example is just finite intersections of sets of the form f^{-1}(U) where U is open in the scalar field and f is in X*
it is literally just the subbasis construction
well also I have brainrot notation and would write Mod_k for k-vector spaces lol
honestly I think it's not named well. Subbasis makes it sound like it's some ad hoc thing we put together last minute and a basis is the more important thing
but it's kind of the other way around. Subbases occur in nature very often
Its only useful to have a concept of bases because it's nice to break down constructing the minimal topology into 2 steps where you have to close it up under one operation in each step
damn really
can you frame (everything) about bases in terms of subbases?
the only thing i used a basis for so far was to show tau' is finer than tau if basis elements of tau' could locally refine basis elements of tau
I mean yeah basically, bases are an example of subbases
oh wait this is true
In the same way a topology is an example of a basis and this also of a subbasis
right
cuz topologies are closed under arbitrary union
yee
I mean I guess the analogous statement is a bit more annoying, like you have to refine a subbasis element using intersections of subbasis elements
yeah
oh this is cool too
you can consider minimality by noting how a topology drops to a basis by dropping the arbitrary union requirement, and how a basis drops to a subbasis by dropping the finite intersection requirement, leaving you with the smallest structure that can generate both
yeah you also have to combine this with de Morgan's laws or whatever they're called to make sure the two step construction is closed under both operations, but that's easy, it's just what I just said
reminds me of a least fixed point in type theory stuff
or what is it called. I want to commute an intersection past unions
whatever it is called... that thing
i think it's just distributivity
idk if theres a name for that, just distributivity ig
Ye
cool, then yeah that thing
i wonder if there's an alternative to basis where every open set in the topology is a finite intersection of sets in the generating set, that sounds like it would be a little annoying to use
I mean there is some notion like that bc you can take the 1-fold intersections of just any open. But I'm worried about this being closed under unions unless your generating set is unwieldy
Sounds like you'd need an unwieldily large generating family to get something such as the standard topology on R.
lmaoo nice
as in like, my thought was just take a subbasis and then perform arbitrary unions in that subbasis
but yeah this sounds generally hard to work with
I don't think finite intersections of arbitrary unions will be closed under finite intersections and arbitrary unions though
wait
(u_i A_i) n (u_j B_j) = u_j ((u_i A_i) n B_j) = u_{ij} (A_i n B_j)
oh okay it does work then ig nvm lol
i feel less sure now đ but i trust that, i will probably work it out
I don't trust it, lmk what you find lol
okay wait you can write an intersection of arbitrary unions as an arbitrary union of intersections which is what u showed
but you can't necessarily write an arbitrary union of finite intersections as a finite intersection of arbitrary unions
this post just says that they're not equal without proof in the question but i think its not hard to find a counterexample
im happy about that at least, bases are definitely the correct way to go
Yeah, take your bases sets to be everything of the form (-infty,a) and (a,infty). That's a subbasis for the ordinary topology on R, but a finite intersection of arbitrary unions can exclude only finitely many intervals.
You mean (a, inf)?
Whoops yes, bothched editing. Fixed.
It needs to be all possible values of a (or at least enough different values that they're dense in R).
Yep
I have a question for a problemset on topology, how could I get help here?
By asking it?
ow but can I ask it here or do I need to go to "help forum"
You can ask it here
This isnât quite true though
Bases have the property that any intersection is open, (contains a basis around any point) but it need not be itself a basis
I mean subbases have literally no restrictions except that they cover the space
So theyâre useful in the sense that you can just force some class of subsets to be open with them
a refinement exists is what i meant by closed under finite intersection
yea
it's an intersection past intersection in this case btw
well not like anyonec ares its easy to check
ohhhh LOL that's the problem, thanks
cool so my proof just said that subbases work đ€Ą
bases arenât closed under finite intersection.
the intersection of two open balls in R^n is not necessarily an open ball.
oh somebody pointed this out already. whoops
Yes I meant the intersection contains a basis element
idk if you are familiar, but there are free-forgetful adjunctions relating subbases, bases, and topologies
Does aluffi cover this 
Hmm maybe when done with pointset top and some aluffi stuff I'll look into a categorification of topology
iâm not aware of any texts that cover this. itâs not too difficult tho. similar to how subgroups are generated by subsets



