#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 48 of 1
yea
Compactness and connectedness sometimes used in simple manner so knowing the definition should be enough
i took undergrad alg top last year, and while it did have prereq of point-set, we really didn't use much beyond basic continuity, connectedness
compactness
yeah
it's mostly just a bunch of algebra being prereq
you have alg top as an undergrad class?
Or maybe they will just define those things as they go 
yeah
I had to take the same course in both undergrad and grad 
perhaps you'll cover more, but we just did first 2 chapters of hatcher 
Math 525. Algebraic Topology I Instructor Syllabus Fundamental group and covering spaces [first half of semester]
The content of the course is essentially Chapters 0-2.
and i missed a couple lectures so i didn't really understand homology stuff that well 
oh

there's a second alg top course after this
but I won't get to take that
before I graduate
not a huge issue
not too miffed about not being able to take the second graduate course in topology before I finish undergrad, that'd be a weird thing to be upset about lol
plenty of time to learn more at in grad school 
Ya
Although I wanna do more combinatorial and computational things in grad school so idk how much of this I'll look at
Do combinatorial and computational topologies 😌
cellular homology is a bit combinatorial iirc
what is H_1 of the 1-skeleton of a 3-simplex?
is it Z^3 or Z^4?
because on one hand, it seems like there are four distinct 1-cycles, each tracing out a face
on the other hand
if you look at it top down
it looks like theres only three
it’s Z^3. when you look not top down, it looks like maybe there’s an extra linearly independent cycle (in your picture it’s the one that goes all along the outside), but you can get that one by adding the 3 triangles (with correct orientation to cancel out things)
you could compute this with simplicial homology or do some excision stuff if you wanted to feel more sure
okay, that definitely makes sense
im currently trying to compute the relative homology groups of the 1-skeleton of a 3-simplex
atm im trying to get them from the long exact sequence of pairs
but its not rly getting me anywhere
are you trying to compute H_n(3-simp, 1-skeleton)? the LES of pairs will at least get you that H_3 and above is zero.
then you’ll have
H_2(3-simp) -> H_2(3-simp, 1-skel) -> H_1(1-skel)
since H_2(3-simp)=0, you’ll have some sub module of Z^3… hmm
you could also do excision/hmtpy equiv of pairs to maybe replace the pair (3-simp, 1-skel) with something better to calculate? not sure
so H_n(X, X - {x})
where X is the 1-skeleton of the 3-simplex
sorry, misspoke when i said relative
so you got two situations, corners and the interior of edges.
if x is on the interior of an edge, you can do excision to say
H_n(X, X-{x}) = H_n(U, U-{x})
where U is any neighborhood of x. after doing some homeomorphisms, you’d be in the situation
H_n((-1,1), (-1,1)-{0})
(these are intervals) and then you can do LES of a pair to this guy
this relative homology should be like H_n(S^1)
now you have to handle the other case where x is a vertex of the 1-skeleton
yeahh i wasnt sure how to do that bc like
neighborhoods of vertices
are just also 1-skeletons of tetrahedrons
so it doesnt seem like excision immediately helps
welll ig its not a 1-skeleton of a tetrahedron
its like this
and then i guess U - x is three disjoint intervals
yup and LES of a pair should be helpful there I think
hmm so U is contractible so that certainly helps
So from the LES i think im getting that H_2(U, U - x) = H_1(U - x)
and then im getting H_1(U, U - x) = H_0(U- x)
H_1(U-x) = 0, and H_0(U-x) = Z^3
hmm i’m not sure about the H_1(U, U-x) = H_0(U-x)
in the LES the next term is nonzero
ah sory
lets make all of these reduced homolohu
the next term is H_0(U) = 0
and H_0(U - x) = Z^2
yup
so, the only nontrivial local homology is H_1(U, U -x) = Z^2?
shoot is it not necessarily path connected
oh I mean U is path-connected, i forget how to interpret relative 0 degree homology
ah yeah that’s right
awesome!! thank u
yeah no problem!
another follow-up question though; this all relates to the cone of the 1-skeleton of the 3-simplex
and the final goal is to use the computations for local homology to find out which subspaces of this space X are fixed under homeomorphisms X->X
posted it earlier but i couldnt find it
im rly confused as to how to relate these homology computations to this though
yeah hmm
oh, and here del X is the 1-skeleton of the 3-simplelx
well if f is a homeo, then it'll induce isomorphisms of these local homologies
maybe if we've done excision to go from X to a smaller U, we should H_n(f(U), f(U)-f(x)), but we could also just write H_n(X, X-f(x))
oh you edited
yeah
so it seems kinda hard to classify all such A, but we can start writing down some examples
definitely del X is mapped by f into del X
since any x in del X needs to be mapped to something with zero local homology for f to induce an isomorphism
then we could restrict f to del X, and it'll still be a homeomorphism
so i understand this intuitively but im not sure how the justification would go
i think my mental roadblock here is that the induced map isn't defined on the level of points
yeah we get induced not as something on the level of points, but about f being a map of pairs
we could write f: (X, X-x) -> (X, X-f(x))
and a continuous map of pairs induces a homomorphism of relative homology
right
so for our claim that del X maps inside del X, take a point x in del X. Then, we get an induced map
f_*: H_n(X,X-x) -> H_n(X,X-f(x))
which is an isomorphism by the five lemma
right
by assumption H_n(X,X-x) is 0 for all n, and because f_* is an isomorphism, this means H_n(X,X-f(x)) is 0 for all n
so that means f(x) has the property necessary for f(x) to be in del X
ahhhhhh okay thats crystal clear
hmm okay so points in del X are mapped to del X under homeomorphisms
so any subspace A in del X satisfies what we want
not quite, since we only know any subspace A will be mapped inside del X, not that it'll be mapped inside A
yup
but now maybe we can repeat our argument to find some more
f restricted to del X is a homeomorphism to its image
hmm maybe not though, since we are going it its image...
wait why would f restricted to del X be a homeomorphism?
f is a homeomorphism, say with inverse g. so restricting f to a subset will be continuous with inverse map being g restricted to the image of f
oh wait im actually stupid yeah lol
nah you're good I started doubting it too
maybe in the same way we did del X = {x | zero local homology}, we could look at other subsets that all have the same sorts of local homology?
sure, let me pull up my computations for the other local homologies
so, for interior points, weve got H_2 = Z
oh well one thing we can get real quick is that X-del X maps into X-del X, since all points in X-del X have some nontrivial local homology
now this also means that f(del X) = del X, so f restricts to a homeomorphism of del X
so we can now use similar sorts of arguments, but looking only inside del X
we computed that vertices have H_1 = Z^2 local homology, and edges have H_1 = Z
so you get that the set of vertices map to the set of vertices, and the set of edges map to the set of edges (on del X)
sure, makes total sense
so now we have the set of vertices, and the set of exterior edges
then we also have that f(X - del X) = X - del X
the cone point has a local homology H_2 = Z^3
the interior points have local homology H_2 = Z
and the interior points of inner edges have local homology H_2 = Z^2
so then, the cone point is its own subspace
the interior points are a subspace
and finally the interior points of inner edges are their own subspace
and by inner edge i mean edges connecting to the cone point
yuh
heck yeah this is sounding good
i'd bet that unions of these are all of the options for subsets A which map inside themselves
and I guess you could try to prove that claim by taking an arbitrary subset which isn't a union of one of these, and come up with a homeomorphism of X which doesn't map A inside itself
by doing some sort of wiggling
hmmmm
do we get that the unions work for free?
like is it just a property of functions lol
yeah if $f(A)\subseteq A$ and $f(B) \subseteq B$, then $f(A\cup B) \subseteq A\cup B$, just track points
thejoesully
gotcha, so unions work
so i guess ur second point is to deal with the fact that
just because the local homologies match up, doesnt mean that f(A) in A allways works, right
we just have that if they DONT match up, then it DOESNT work
or maybe we do have it...? im starting to doubt
we have for sure that f(A) in A when A is the set of all things with certain local homology or whatever
our candidates for A are all good
I'm concerned that there might be more
well I don't think there are more, but we should prove it. Like, if you wanted to study homeomorphisms of [0,1], you could do similar arguments to show the endpoints are mapped to endpoints, and the interior is mapped to the interior
but then you might wonder whether (0.25,0.75) is mapped into itself
this example definitely isn't always mapped into itself, because you can do a homeomorphism that shoves it all to the right and then stretches
shoot okay
but then even in the case of [0,1]
wouldnt you have to apply that argument to like basically all the subspaces
that arent the interior and that arent the endpoints
yeah, you'd need something clever, I'm not sure how to do it
so maybe let's warm up with [0,1], and then try to do the other problem
take a subset A which isn't in our list {endpoints, interior, everything}
sure
one case will be that A has an interior point, but not all of them
then we can do a stretch thing, maybe write it down explicitly given that a in A but b not in A, both a,b in (0,1)
or maybe not write it down explicitly and we just believe that we could come up with one
so the next case is that A has no interior points. Since A is also not just the endpoints, it has to be missing an endpoint
then we have the homeomorphism of [0,1] which flips it, so it won't fix A
right
so I'm imagining for our problem we'll have to do something similar, with a bit of case work
yeah, my first thought was the case of like
maybe take a single vertex or smth
all of the vertices have isomorphic local homology, as we showed
but then a rotation
isnt gonna fix any particular vertex
same with the edges, faces
yup
but then u can start constructing a lot more complicated subspaces
where just doing rotations and stuff isnt gonna suffice
yeah I’m not sure about an efficient way of going about it. maybe let A be an arbitrary subset that isn’t all of X. Suppose it has some interior point, and then because it isn’t in our list it has to be missing… and then do a similar sort of local effect (like a stretch) combined with rotations as necessary.
as for now imma catch some z’s, I’m down to work more on it tomorrow if you’re still on it
tysm, gonna keep at it; will let u know of any progress
Do topological groups come up when studying manifolds?
Just wondering if this next chapter in the text I'm studying from is worth sinking into
lie groups
are incredibly important in the study of smooth manifolds
they are, in particular, topological groups
There are also instances when one has topological groups that are not Lie groups, usually arising from quotients of Lie groups. This is because the quotient of a manifold by a Lie group is a manifold only if the action satisfied additional properties.
Of course, in some of these cases, while the resulting quotient is not a smooth manifold, it is an orbifold.
zarirski topology also
OK lol not the typical kinda question asked here but here goes:
Let E,X be CW-spectra and k a cardinal such that
- pi_*(E) has cardinality <= k
- X has <= k stable cells.
Why does it follow that E_*(X) =pi_*(E smash X) has cardinality <= k?
Like is there any general way to bound cardinalities of homotopy groups of spectra in terms of cells and smash products?
Okay I guess the argument is that a homotopy class of maps $\mathbb S \to E \land X$ is equivalently a class of maps $\mathbb S \to E$ and a class $\mathbb S \to X$; there are $\pi_*(E) \le \kappa$ choices for the former and at most$ # X \le \kappa$ for the latter (using cellular approximation) giving $\le \kappa \cdot \kappa = \kappa$ choices overall (assuming of course $\kappa \ge \omega$ lol)
potato
I would express E and X as cellular spectra. They are filtered colimits of finite spectra. Their smash product is the filtered colimit of the smashes of the finite spectra. A particular class in a homotopy group factors through a finite spectrum
The smash product of spectra is not a categorical product, which seems to be what you are assuming here
I tried writing some stuff up, and had some more thoughts about how to show that all subsets A that map into A are exactly unions of our proposed subsets
Oops
Yeah good point, that was dumb
ahhh okay, doing it by using the fact that if a subset maps into itself, then the intersections of that subset with the sets we already have also need to makes total sense
say I = [0, 1] is an interval over R and consider the lexicographic order topology on I^2 (the unit square) as well as the subspace topology on I^2 inherited from R^2 in the lexicographic order topology,
Why is something like ${1/2} \times (1/2, 1\rbrack$ open in the latter but not in the former?
minimarshoo
Is it not possible to identify it as an open set in the former with the open bounds 1/2 x 1/2 and (the column immediately to the right of 1/2) x 0?
Or is this not consistent with the definitions at play here?
think about what you’re saying
what is the column immediately after 1/2?
besides that, in the order topology all of your open sets look like either open intervals or open rays
so every point in an open set (except for the ones including the corners of the square) should have a point after it
why does this refinement of the first isomorphism theorem hold?
do you know what it means for a short exact sequence to split
yeah
do you understand why the direct sum holds
what would you say it means for the sequence to split
if B is the direct sum of A and C
ok so if the sequence splits you get this
yeah
so what do you think is missing exactly
wdym
Not just this, you also need the map from A to B to be the inclusion as a summand and the map from B to C to be the quotient by that summand
B could be a direct sum of A and C in a different way, making the sequence non split
A ⊕ C is the external direct sum, and what I'm saying is that B ≅ this external direct sum is not enough
The first half of that is also important, the fact that B ≅ the internal direct sum
oh no, i get that, but i’m not getting the refinement of the first isomorphism theorem
like how does the quotient being isomorphic to C translate into the direct sum
Quotient being isomorphic to C is true for non split SES too. This direct sum is an additional feature of split SES.
What the page means by refinement of the first isomorphism theorem is that in the special case of a split SES, you get a stronger version of what the first isomorphism theorem says
It's written in a very confusing way
ik that, but why does that even hold in the case of the sequence being split
like why does the quotient property imply the direct sum
Oh ok
The quotient property doesn't imply it (if it did, you'd have this for non-split SES too). The definition of a left split or a right split SES does.
Basically you're asking how left/right split imply the direct sum statement
For right split, you get a map u: C → B that is a right inverse to the map B → C. You'd expect that since B → C is a projection of a direct sum onto a summand, a right inverse of it would be an inclusion of the summand back into the sum. So you just prove that that is indeed the case by checking that u(C) + image of A = B and that they don't intersect
For left split it's similar: you have a projection onto A, which you can think of as collapsing the other summand of the direct sum to 0, so you would expect that B = the image of A ⊕ the kernel of this projection, and you can again prove it directly
it this necessarily due to the uncountability of the reals?
Like if I were to replace R with Q or maybe even a finite amount like n/10, 0<=n<=10, then the construction I previously described in the unit square could be open?
you need finiteness
or well
there is no first number after 0 in either R or Q
even if you consider only a rational interval like (a, b) n Q, if x is in this set, then there should be a point y > x in this set as well
can you use excision somehow?
what does it mean to have an ε-small homotopy?
i think ur supposed to do this without excision
is it just like, for all ε in [0,1], theres a homotopy F of f and g such that F(x,0) = f(x) and F(x, y) = g(x), for y \ge ε?
The inclusion should factor as (X1, A) -> (X, A) -> (X, X2). So if this is an isomorphism in homology, then that means the maps split in homology.
So in the long exact sequence you can just compare summands.
could someone verify my proof that CW subcomplexes Z in X are closed:
I'll show that for each cell e (its closure denoted by e'), Z cap e' is closed in e'. if Z cap e is nonempty, then by definition of subcomplex Z cap e' is all of e'. thus we can assume Z only intersects bd e, which by the finiteness axiom is a finite union of cells f, and since bd e is closed it also contains f'. by induction Z cap f' is closed in f' and thus closed in X. thus the finite union Z cap bd e is closed in X, thus closed in e'.
Is anyone around who can help with a question about manifolds? I'm working on a problem to verify that S1 is a manifold, and I'm a little bit stuck at the moment
I'm working on a problem to verify that S1 is a manifold. So far, I've broken the subspaces for the charts down into two subsets of S1, namely U1 = S1 - {<1,0>} and U2={<1,0>} (thought maybe I need a larger subset for U2 to include <1,0> in the atlas?).
I'm working on the proving that the function given in the image is an open map to prove that it is a homeomorphism. My questions are:
- Is there a better definition for phi that makes it apparent it is an open map once you put an open subset of U1 into phi? I'm stuck at trying to prove phi is an open map.
- Is there a better way to partition S1 than what I've chosen?
{(1,0)} is not open, so that won't do.
You'll need some overlap between your charts.
That's what I figured. I haven't started working on the second chart yet. Just the u1 chart
A minimalist atlas would use something like S1 \ {(1,0)} and S1 \ {(-1,0)}, but it may actually be easier to use four, where U1 is {(x,y) | x²+y²=1, x>0} and so forth. Then you can write down an explicit expression for your phi rather than just describing it in words.
A useful property here is: an injective map is open iff the inverse (as a function on the original map's range) is continuous.
When your charts go from the manifold to a patch of Euclidean space, "open" is actually the easy direction to establish here, because the inverses will be simple. "Continuous" is what might need more footwork.
Well, I have a proof of continuity for the phi I've given already. I didn't know the statement you mentioned earlier though
Hmm, it wasn't entirely true -- it also requires that the range of the map is open in the first place.
So, do you think the problem is easier to approach using four subspaces of S1 in the charts? The issue that I've ran into in defining phi is pi/2 and -pi/2.... otherwise its fine to just define it as arctan(y/x), and I suppose for two of the charts its possible to define phi as arccot(x/y)
Yeah, the point of using four charts would be that you can just say arctan(y/x) for two of them and arctan(x/y) for the other two.
If you want to cover the entire unit circle minus a point with a single chart, there's the problem that x/y is the same for a point (x,y) and its opposite (-x,-y), so your phi doesn't even become injective unless you do some extra nitty-gritty to deal with that.
Yeah, gotcha
I will work on the problem from this approach
Thanks for your help!
currently trying to prove that if a finite dimensional CW complex X has no (n+1)-cells, then H_n(X) = H_n(X^n), but im not sure what to do beyond just writing out the LES for the pair (X, X^n), which hasnt rly yielded any new information
i also have the fact that X^k/X^(k-1) is the wedge sum of k-spheres
Well note H_n(X^n) = H_n(X^n+1)
It will then be ok to show that H_n(X^k) = H_n(X^k+1) for k > n by conaidering an appropriate pair hich will finish it off
You do
Hatcher says D should be a set
You only use it to index a disjoint union, so the way it is written, the topology of D is irrelevant
It's a pretty jumbled definition anyhow -- the V_d pop out of nowhere and it's not apparent that they can depend on x (or U).
Well the wat they've described D here just seems to be as a set. But you can rewrite that disjoint union as the product V x D for some V
So in other words pi^-1 U is homeomorphic to U x D, and pi corresponds to the projection U x D -> U
Right, and then D does need to be discrete.
Oh, a covering is just a D-bundle where D is discrete. Neat.
First time i heard this unironically
It sounds a bit abstraction-for-abstractions-sake, you mean?
It's a reasonable POV but usually Fiber Bundles come after covering spaces and covering spaces are used as "hands on" examples of such
Because Fiber Bundles play a similar role for higher homotopy groups as Covering Spaces do for pi_1
Oh, I agree about that order. It says more about bundles than about coverings.
I agree
Thanks!
Yup
This isn't just abstraction for abstraction's sake imo
I agree with Timo there
But yeah I think this POV is good motivation for why covering spaces are nice and stuff and this is how I remember facts about them.
So like one thing is that given a fibration $F \to E \to B$ (and let's add basepoints $f,e,b$) we get an exact sequence $\dots \to \pi_n(E) \to \pi_n(F) \to \pi_n(B) \to \pi_{n-1}(F) \to \pi_1(B) \to \pi_0(F) \to \pi_0(E) \to \pi_0(B)$. So we can view a covering space as the simple 0case where we kill off all $\pi_n(F)$ for $n \ge 1$ and we have $\pi_0(F) \simeq F$ as sets (by discreteness). So our exact sequence reduces to saying $\pi_n(E) \simeq \pi_n(B)$ for $n \ge 2$ as well as the bit $0 \to \pi_1(E) \to \pi_1(B) \to F \to 1$ (provided $E$ path connected) which says that $p_: \pi_1(E) to \pi_1(B)$ is injective and that points of the fibre correspond to elements of $\pi_1(B)/p_ \pi_1(E)$. These are standard, useful facts about covering spaces
potato
And I think it's easier to rememebr this general sequence and think that covering spaces are like the nicest possible case in some sense
can someone give some intuition as to why this is the same as S^2 with antipodal points identified?
my mental picture for RP^2 is pretty bad
RP^2 can also be imagined as a disk (half sphere) whose boundary S^1 has antipodal points identified
that's what's going on here
U and L make up the inside of the disk
And the a, b are the antipodal sides that are identified
antipodal identification is just a bijection of points on the inside of a disk
it's easiest to maybe draw it to get the idea
okay imma keep thinking about it then
ok like
here's another attempt at an explanation lol
decompose the sphere into two open disks and S^1
Right
now on the open disks when you identify two points antipodally (you can imagine this as like taking a point on the lower disk and like translating it antipodally to the upper disk and I think it's clear to see why this is an action between the disks)
so when it's all done you're essentially left with one disk and S^1 that you also identify points antipodally on
Imagine showing this is an equivalent definition of RP^2 in like Lean 💀
Maybe I can do a lil drawing for you lol
Oh nvm nice thing explained above
But yeah I mean here's the way I'd write it
There is an obvious identification of the closed unit disk with the upper hemisphere of S^2 (project onto the z = 0 plane; this is a homeomorphism)
Then consider the map $f$ given by the composition $D^2 \hookrightarrow S^2 \to S^2/{\sim} = \mathbb{RP}^2$, which is surjective (clear) and a quotient map (in fact it is a closed map). Note that $f(x) = f(y$) iff $x,y$ are antipodal points on the boundary. This gives the desired isomorphism $D^2/{\sim} \to \mathbb{RP}^2$ after passing to the quotient
potato
Of course, this whole argument works where 2 is replaced by n
yoneda is like the fundamental theorem of algebra
claim: every theorem in math implies FTA
claim: every theorem in math can be proven using yoneda including yoneda itself
corollary: analysis isn't math
But this legit is the third isomorphism theorem from algebra lol what potato is showing with that composite is exactly that you can quotient by an equivalence relation and then a coarser equivalence relation, or directly by the coarser one, you get the same result. It just looks different because in algebra, specifying an equivalence relation that you can quotient by is equivalent to specifying a normal subgroup/ideal etc and an equivalence relation is coarser than another iff its corresponding normal subgroup contains the other's
Lol nice
Also i might add that like
this passage from S^2 to D^2 is just like the passage from R^3 \ 0 to S^2
which one usually does for projective spaces
Yeah we're just picking progressively smaller spaces which contain representatives of all equivalence classes
hi @unreal stratus
Yo hello!
spotted !
Hello kipf
I had a dumb thought
can the existence of eigenvectors of a non-degenerate linear transformation be considered a consequence of the Brouwer fixed point theorem? 
oh probably not since they can be complex
my thought process was like - take the related transformation on the unit sphere and look for a fixed point
but I'm not even sure that makes any sense
yeah no it doesn't since you can have two vectors with the same angle be mapped to vectors with different angles
ok well that was fun
there is a fun fact about eigenvectors of matrices with positive entries that you can prove using the brouwer fixed point theorem
Based
wdym by non-degenerate linear transformation here
Or could be over another field 😎
But no I mean like the idea of considering transformations on the unit sphere can be used to prove existence of (real) eigenvectors for orthogonal/unitary transformations [not sure if that's what motivated you though]
I think all I need is that it's not identically 0
well you need more conditions, because not every linear operator has an eigenvalue (e.g. rotations)
Well that case is trivial but sure
yes I realized this as well because in R3 it does but not in R2
in R^3 it's trivial because every odd degree polynomial has a root
best fact in analysis
yeah but I don't want to use polynomials I want to use spiderman the Brouwer fixed point theorem
Nondegenerate linear transformations act on the projective space. If it acts on Rn, then it acts on RP^n-1. If n is odd, then n-1 is even and the Euler characteristic is not zero, so there must be a fixed point, a real eigenvalue. But if n is even, there are rotations
Yeah nice
are they still linear on the projective space? can I just say that and get away with calling euclidean space compact just because I feel like it?
If the determinant is positive, you can lift to acting on oriented rays, the sphere, and use Brouwer
(non-degenerate) linear maps descend to maps on the projective space
oh right they don't need to be linear because that's not necessary for what we need
like they send V \ {0} -> V \ {0} for V the vector space and (by definition) respect the equivalence relation on V \ {0}
okay, this is close to what I was thinking in my head
Actually, they always act on the sphere, but you need the determinant to control the degree
hang on this is true for all maps not just linear ones
Not necessarily
I mean you need linearity for it to descend
cause respecting the equivalence relation is equivalent to homogeneity
riiiight ok
homogeneity is enough
googles projective space
well
what is it?
you can't just leave us hanging! 
a 3 by 3 matrix with only positive entries has an eigenvector with positive entries. you can prove it by constructing a map of the 2-simplex to itself using your linear map
as for whether 3 x 3 is important
well
hmm
In matrix theory, the Perron–Frobenius theorem, proved by Oskar Perron (1907) and Georg Frobenius (1912), asserts that a real square matrix with positive entries has a unique eigenvalue of largest magnitude and that eigenvalue is real. The corresponding eigenvector can be chosen to have strictly positive components, and also asserts a similar s...
there we go!
oh this theorem
I got a cool figure that shows why it should intuitively be true
it's in artin iirc, one sec
hence Z contains eigenvectors of A

(sry this isn't topology but I thought it's cool and wanted to share lol)
"If M is connected, each section is uniquely determined by its value at one point"
Why is this true?
Oh lmao
Because each M_r is disjoint for r\in R and the image of a connected space through a morphism must be continuous
you may not always have a section tho
does anyone have suggestions for exercises on closed/open maps in non-hausdorff topologies?
guys how can I so what Dn/~, where v~w :<=> v = w or |v|=|w|=1, is isomorphic to?
I mean I found it on the internet, but I do not really see how to get the desired result
what level of formalism are you looking for
like do you intuitively understand how it's homeomorphic to S^n
I understand it now that I know it, but I don't think I would have come up to it out of nothing
Also I don't really see how to show that both are isomorphic
can you do it in the case of n = 1?
yeah. let me go back to my original question. how explicit do you want to be
like do you want to construct an explicit homeomorphism
as much as possible, cause I have to contruct the homeomorphism and I want to understand it
then yeah this is fine so far
it'd be (-1,1) u {[1]} but yes
now we have to "move" it, in a way to get S1 right?
maybe it could be helpful to show S^n - {p} is homeomorphic to R^n
is that a fact you can use or do you want to show that as well
I think I can jjust use that, cause we proved that in the lesson
we can use that homeomorphism here then
say we wanted to construct a homeomorphism between S^n and Dn/~
we have a homeomorphism at our disposal between S^n - {p} and intD^n
so what would be a natural way to extend that to S^n, including p
we need to send p to a point in a way that our function stays continuous(?)
right
and you'll notice that the homeomorphism h : S^n - {p} -> intD^n
is already mapping all of S^n - {p} onto intD^n
so whatever extension we make should take p to the boundary of D^n (under the quotient map of ~)
would it help if i wrote an explicit map?
hopefully the visual intuition is somewhat clear here. in the case of n = 1 for example, we have a homeomorphism h between (-1,1) and S^1 - {(1,0)}
we should let our new map take (1,0) to [1] = [-1], and then take everything else to h(x)
(1,0) is the point, (-1,1) is the interval, sorry for the poor notation haha
I have a map, can you tell me if it might be right?
yep
hm i had something different in mind. i can't quite prase this let me take a closer look
it seems a bit complicated. im not sure if it works or not
oh I'm sorry then, just tell me, I'd appreciate to have different constructions in mind
I also see what you want to do here, I understand the concept now
so intuitively you should think that we have this black box h : S^n - {p} -> intD^n
that's a homeomorphism
or let me actually swap it for ease of notation
h : intD^n -> S^n - {p}
but yeah
all that's left is to map the class of the boundary to p
this is given by the one point compactification right?
basically
we're essentially just making that
you could think of intD^n as R^n
and then D^n/~ is basically R^n u {infinity}
I mean we just have to "norm" it
I get this
[
f(x) = \begin{cases} h(x) & x\in q(\text{int} D^n)\ p & x\in q(\partial D^n)\end{cases}
]
maximo
q here is the quotient map from D^n -> D^n/~
so if we're on the boundary we get sent to that "point at infinity"
otherwise we just go where the homeomorphism would usually take us
this is beautiful, nice
this is a bijection basically for free
showing this is continuous (and the inverse is too) is perhaps a good exercise if you want to try it
so if I recognize this right, this is the function from Dn/Sn-1 -> Sn
yup
glad it helped
what I actually wanted to do is finding a function from f°q: Dn -> Sn and then using the universal property to say that f: Dn/Sn-1 -> Sn is continuous
but I find what you suggestedd a lot easiier
hello, pretty simple question that made me lose it
why does a perceptron "Update the weights" step works ?
if anyone interested in answering it would mean alot https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perceptron
In machine learning, the perceptron (or McCulloch-Pitts neuron) is an algorithm for supervised learning of binary classifiers. A binary classifier is a function which can decide whether or not an input, represented by a vector of numbers, belongs to some specific class. It is a type of linear classifier, i.e. a classification algorithm that ma...
can somebody give me a hint, on which function I need to glue to cones such that I get a suspension
Post the whole exercise
And I suggest drawing it for S^1
You’ll have to glue along the original space that lies on the bottom of the cone
this is the exercise
I can imagine it, but somehow I did not really understand how phi has to be defined
I don’t this this is asking you to do it rigorously
In my opinion this phrasing asks for just a verbal explanation
yes I know haha, but it easy as simple example, this is why I wanted to do it rigorously
Otherwise this is the pushout along both embeddings
In case you did pushouts (Fasersummen/Kofaserprodukte auf deutsch)
I kind understood that I have to picture (x,0) to the identity
But I would have said that if t is in (0,1], I have to use (x,t)->(x,-t)
I don't know, I visually get it, but I don't know how to put it into words
or into functions
oh oops, sorry
Oh don't worry, I'm gonna figure it
But I can always wait for a rigorous explanation, so if you wanna type it somewhen, Id appreciate it
It's a good exercise i think
construct the embeddings and think about how to glue along the pictures (disjoint union modula a certain equivalence relation)
whats the difference between a disk and a sphere
Disk includes the stuff inside and sphere is just the boundary
why is {5} a retract but not a deformation retract in $\mathbb{Q}$?
damn_guuurl
For a def retract, try to sew what happens if you keep a point fixed and vary time
is it just because Q is not connected? and since i({5}) is the image of a connected space, it has to be?
I do not completely understand how homotopies work
Are these chains?
Not sure what you mean
sounds more like they're talking about the fundamental group being functorial, or something like that
There are various things that satisfy this description
homology groups, homotopy groups etc
The problem is that Q isn't path connected
If you pick a point on Q and a def retract to 5, there has to exist a continuous path between that point and 5 which there isn't in Q
Maybe think of a deformation retract as a map that takes in points of a space and outputs a path between that point and the subspace you're retracting to
And this path is parameterized by t
if we were to restate the general topology axioms in terms of the closure operation, what would that look like?
a topology on X is a continuous and finite-cocontinuous monad on the poset of subsets of X?
Sounds correct, that covers all of Kuratowski's closure axioms I think. Those axioms are the usual way to state this.
Continuity might not be needed
As the intersection axiom is a theorem in Kuratowski's axioms
wait it doesn't have an axiom about intersections?
Nope, it is implied
Wait no
Nah it is
Hmm you should be able to prove both inclusions. K2 implies one direction, and now I am not sure how to get the other one
A1: $A \subset B \implies <cl>(A) \subseteq <cl>(B)$
A2: $A \subseteq <cl>(A)$
A3: $<cl>(<cl>(A)) \subseteq <cl>(A)$
A4: $\bigcap_i <cl>(A_i) \subseteq <cl>\left(\bigcap_i A_i\right)$
A5: (finite) $\bigcup_i <cl>(A_i) \supseteq <cl>\left(\bigcup_i A_i\right)$
mniip
ok yes it is implied https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kuratowski_closure_axioms#Induction_of_topology_from_closure
In topology and related branches of mathematics, the Kuratowski closure axioms are a set of axioms that can be used to define a topological structure on a set. They are equivalent to the more commonly used open set definition. They were first formalized by Kazimierz Kuratowski, and the idea was further studied by mathematicians such as Wacław Si...
K3 implies A3
evidently
lol
K1 an K4 imply A5 by induction
Yeah and the wikipedia page proves that you can get A4 from the Ks
oh I think your A4 should have the other inclusion
That is the non-trivial direction
This one is just extensivity
K2
oh no
I misread
we have F(limA) -> lim(FA) for free
the hard part is lim(FA) -> F(lim A)
whether intersection of closures is subset of closure of intersection
Right yeah
where? I only see the converse of A4
It's not exactly A4, so A4 itself may not be implied, but look at T2 in the section I linked to
It says that the set of closed subsets is closed under intersection
A4 is a priori a bit stronger
is it actually stronger?
I can't think of a proof of it. Seems false because we need to prove an inclusion into a closure and the Ks give us pretty much no way to do that other than extensivity but for that we need to prove the statement with the right side cl removed, and that is not true.
But idk how to come up with an example
ok actually it is stronger
cl(Q) cap cl(Q + pi) = R, but cl(Q cap (Q + pi)) = empty
so rather than the monad being continuous, it's merely that its category of algebras is complete
(algebra of the closure monad is a closed set)
I'm trying to prove that the function in the image is a homeomorphism. I proved continuity already, but I'm stuck on the open map/inverse is cts part of the proof.
I have my work attached here, but it's not obvious to me whythis set should be open in U1
it might be easiest to just write down the inverse
you have to be somewhat careful when x = 0 and x < 0, but this is correct when x > 0
look up atan2
oh, right.... so I can use arccot(x/y) = theta
So, phi^(-1) (<x,y>) = theta = arccot(x/y)
its not obvious to me why arccot is continuous though 🤔
cos(arccot(x/y)) = |x| when x^2 + y^2 = 1, so this won't work when x is not positive
again, you have to be careful
look up atan2
tirib00
Sorry just realized wrong channel...
you probably wanted analysis and also that just looks like cauchy condensation test
First off, calm down as we all get confused. No need to have thoughts of quitting. Second, proving that the top two are continuous using epsilon delta is probably easier, then arguing that definition of continuity is consistent (which you have probably seen).
For the latter, the open sets are pretty simple so I wonder if you could just explicitly construct the pre image for each map
For example x + y > a would be y > a-x which would be a pretty nice region in the plane
I don’t think it will be to be honest
Should be a union of basis elements but seems like it can’t be
For the upper diagonal would contain (a, infinity) x (b, infinity)
Actually I take it back
I think y > -x can be written as the union
Since if y > -x then y > -x + delta for some small delta which should give you your neighborhood
My second hint: draw a picture
Yep the union and intersection of open sets of this form should contain all values > some b
Something like this should work
Yes from open and basis for product topology every point should have a neighborhood that explodes to infinity in the y direction
But the lower left quadrant contradicts this
can somebody explain to me, why this function is the homotopy equivalence we are looking for btw the above cited spaces?
Basically only the last two components are relevant because R^2 is contractible
The y-i contracts the complex plane without i to a circle and the other component does the same for R^3 and the sphere
You basically push everything below norm 1 out and contract everything above norm 1
sorry just curious since I don't speak it, I translated Raum and it turned to space, which makes sense these are topological spaces. Why does Raum get capitalized?
You capitalize all nouns in german
yw
can't believe I've never noticed, even after visiting 3 times. now when I'm looking at German text I see capitals everywhere lol
not all pronouns if you count them as nouns though
😏
actually this seems controversial as to whether pronouns are a subcategory of nouns or smth separate lol but this is a maths server ig
Does anyone have any fun facts about the cofinite topology?
There's a branch of mathematics studying it
It's a filter without ∅
Well main thing to me is that it's the coarsest T1 topology and so gives nice examples of "T1 but not T2" lol
and on an infinite set it gives u smth irreducible
Its open sets happen to be exactly the ones whose complements are finite
± some random exception
The cofinite topology is actually a topology
it happens to be the same as the zariski topology for a line
It’s dual to the finite topology
Hi, given a bundle $\pi: B\to X$ and a continuous map $\phi:Y\to X$, are all sections of the resulting pullback bundle $\phi^*B\to Y$ induced by pullback of the sections? I.e. if $g:Y\to \phi^*B$ is a section of the pullback bundle, is it basically always of the form $g=f \circ\phi$ for some section $f:X\to B$ in the original bundle?
blackiris_
No that's not always true, pt → X then the pullback bundle is always trivial so always has a nonzero section. Now pick some bundle E → X which has no nonzero section
Thank you. Are there cases where it is true though?
actually maybe surjectivity is what we want
that might do it, just need to show continuity
this is the zarsiki topology on the affine line over an infinite field
What lol this is a joke right, there is no finite topology?
Ooooh I will need to think about this more once I learn about the zariski topology
Where do you think the "co" comes from
Oh Rho also said that above
Because the complements of open sets are finite except the empty set (?)
Wdym
What branch
Yeah i give up you're not falling for it
sad
what's the cofinite topology on ℂ? what else is this called?
clerk already gave away nvm
Oh lol
I guess I need to become more initiated in algebraic geometry
But that is a problem for later
Okay I was scared you went off your rocker for a second

In the theory of manifolds, using partitions of unity, for any closed set F you can construct a function whose zero set is exactly F.
Yes
Conversely, any function has a closed set where it vanishes, this follows trivially from the fact that manifolds are hausdorff.
yes. thank you
Ahh
So, this is a very fortunate coincidence and just gives a very nice coupling between the topology on the space and the set of functions on the space. It gives you the ability to characterize the topology in terms of which functions vanish on the set
and this is connected in a very basic sense to the idea of partitions of unity
so like from a birds eye point of view there's a lot of geometry which follows from this simple fact.
Anyway the zariski topology generalizes this to algebraic Geometry by saying that the closed sets are exactly where functions vanish.
so when i say the zariski topology on the affine line is cofinite i mean essentially that every system of polynomial equations in a single variable has finitely many solutions.
Is the affine line just R
Oh I see what you're saying
The zeros of a polynomial in one variable are just a finite set, or the entire line
This is neat 
Over an algebraically closed field like C you can think of it as C. Over R i would not think of it as R.
Oh I see, what is it exactly then?
In what way is it not like R
the maximal ideals of R[x] are not just (x - a) for a in R
because you have irreducible polynomials of degree > 1 over R, giving you maximal ideals (f) = (x^2 + ax + b) with a^2 - 4b < 0
The way you resolve this is that you observe that as an element of C[x], f factors into (x - z)(x - zbar) and z and zbar are related by complex conjugation, that is, the non trivial element of Gal(C/R)
so one thinks of A^1_R as being basically orbits of points of A^1_C under the action of Gal(C/R)
Wait sorry, what's the definition of it?
Is it the set of maximal ideals of R[x]?
With the Zariski topology
Yes
This is cool
well one also wants to include prime ideals but for A^1 this makes basically no difference
Ah
A^1_R is the complex plane but you got sick that i and -i are the same but different so you fold it in half
this is very cute
a classic
(Never formally took topology so skimming through random Munkres exercises)
i forgot about this guy until he came up in my algebraic geometry class
was a pleasant surprise
hahahaha
for varieties actual hausdorffness is too strong so you replace it with a slightly weaker condition which says exactly that the diagonal is closed (but not in the product topology!)
no cap fr
wait this is neat I didn't know this
i'm not understanding how the CW structure of this space was obtained
isn't this the usual way to prove that R^n is sequentially compact?
consider each dimension, then take the sup of all dims
and prove many more things actually, i.e. all norms are equivalent
im just confused as to where the 1-cells beta and delta are coming from
in rough terms, two holes mean you can make two cuts, and the remaining will form one piece, which is homeomorphic to a disc
that disc is D, and the two cuts are two 1-cells
You know that you will have to attach 2-cells to make this a CW complex, but if you don't have beta and delta, it is not clear how to attach these. The way you get beta and delta is by starting from what is required - attaching 2-cells, and seeing what you need to be able to attach those - a 1-skeleton which can provide the boundary of the 2-cell.
Try and see if you can construct this space without beta and delta, You'll see that you don't have enough to attach to
note that this is why if f, g:X->Y and Y is hausdorff then f=g is a closed subset of X
because it's the pre-image of the diagonal Y \subset YxY along (f, g) :X->YxY
I'm not sure this is true. If you take L=E, then the image is just the trivial subgroup. Which unless L/K is finite is not open. And if L/K is finite the topology is discrete, so any continuous map is open.
Also very much a #groups-rings-fields question, and not a #point-set-topology I guess
Why are algebraic topology authors like this?
What are the two morphisms that we're taking the coequalizer of supposed to be?
Would it really be that hard to include a description of the two arrows?
Lol Goerss Jardine is probably one of the harder ones to read
They teach it like those language teachers who insist on only speaking said language from the first day of class
classic
Anyway, what are the two arrows supposed to be?
I thought it would be some index bs on i and then on j, but since i appears in the second slot of the diagram, I'm not sure
Think of this pictorially. What the coequalizer says is that the boundary of Delta^n is obtained by gluing together n+1 copies of Delta^(n-1). The gluing has to happen along the shared faces of those, which are all Delta^(n-2)s. The (i, j)th copy of Delta^(n-2) is supposed to specify the gluing between the ith and the jth copies of Delta^(n-1). It suffices to take only pairs i < j instead of all i,j because gluing the ith thing to the jth thing is the same as gluing the other way. The gluing happens as follows - the jth face of the ith copy of Delta^(n-1) gets glued to the ith face of the jth copy of Delta^(n-1). Therefere, you would expect the first map to be, on the (i, j)th copy of Delta^(n-2), the inclusion as the jth face of the ith copy, and the second map on this copy would be the inclusion as the ith face of the jth copy.
Perhaps needlessly long
But in other words, on the (i, j)th copy, the first map is d_j into Delta^(n-1) that includes as the ith copy in the coproduct, and the second one is d_i into Delta^(n-1) which then includes as the jth copy
This was the topological intuition for what the maps should be, but there's also a simplicial version
See this would have made it much easier to understand
The simplicial version is straightforward now that I know what the maps are supposed to be
Also, why use i again as an index for the delta^n-1 copies?
Like just use l or something
Here I was thinking there is something special about the ith index in the first slot compared to the jth index
Thanks for the answer
The boundary of Delta^n is the simplicial set of non-surjective maps into [n]. A non-surjective map would miss at least one element of [n], so the disjoint union over i of Hom(-, [n] - {i})s surjects onto it. But this overcounts, because a map into [n] could miss both i and j, so you glue those together.
Understandable, I had a lot of trouble when I tried reading this book and gave up after like 10 pages. There were a lot of colimits to work out
I am on page 9
Though if your instructor is doing something similar, hard luck
Oh I see
Do you have any other suggestions for learning simplical homotopy theory?
Actually I am not sure, I learned about it from model/infty category theory books
But GJ does model cats later on anyway, so that might not be a bad idea
Oh so you learned abstract homotopy theory instead of simplical?
There is Greg Friedman's article on arxiv which is good for intuition though
Yeah both together
What sources did you use?
And Clerk telling me about the nerve-realization adjunction helped me understand a lot of these things
Hovey's model cats has a chapter on simplicial sets
Ok tbh I am not sure if that would be the fastest and easiest way either
There is too much background needed
Maybe see Greg Friedman's notes then GJ
mays book is more combinatorial than categorical
but it has a lot of good stuff
My goal is to eventually study non-classical homotopy theory, so a book which takes the categorical perspective isn't a bad thing
there is a survey paper by curtis
We explain why geometric realization commutes with Cartesian products and why
the geometric realization of a simplicial set (resp. cyclic set) is equipped
with an action of the group of orientation preserving homeomorphisms of the
segment [0,1] (resp. the circle). Our approach is very similar to that of A.
Besser and D. Grayson.
there's the kerodon book by lurie.
moore gave lectures on simplicial homotopy theory in the cartan paper and wrote a book called algebraic homotopy theory.
i recommend looking at the later chapters of may's book, the ones on principal bundles
That's a very fancy way to define geometric realization 😵💫
Jesus christ lol
I have seen something similar in a SE answer and I imagine that this is related. The simplex category is anti-equivalent to the category of finite intervals - the objects are ordered sets with distinguished top and bottom elements, and morphisms are order-preserving maps that preserve these too. This antiequivalence is given by [n] mapsto Hom([n], [2]), where the interval order on this hom set is obvious I will denote this version of [n] by (n). Now the geometric realization of the representable ssets Delta^n can be modelled as Hom((n), the unit interval) You extend this by coends as usual to get a way in which the standard unit interval represents geometric realization. It is not exactly a representation though because the unit interval is not in the category of finite intervals, but it should be a filtered colimit of representables.
There's something wrong here
There are n+1 copies of delta^n-1 but there are only n faces in each delta^n-1
There are n+1 copies of Delta^(n-1) because there are n+1 faces on Delta^n
Each copy is supposed to be a face of Delta^n since we are building the boundary of Delta^n
Take n=2
simplicial sets yay
Then we need to glue the 0th face of the 2nd copy of delta^1 to the 2nd face of the 0th copy of delta^1
what is non-classical homotopy theory
But there is no 2nd face of a 1-simplex
motivic in my case
Inch resting
aha
Mb, the (i,j)th one includes as the ith face of the jth copy and (j-1)st face of the ith one
This is easier to see in the simplicial interpretation
The interpretation of the jth copy is that it is the set of maps that miss the element j of [n]
Okay yeah this makes sense I think
And then you are missing the element i
Or you could miss the ith element and then the new (j-1)st element to miss the same 2 things
This actually makes the i<j condition important
Yes
There is this simplicial identity that might have been mentioned
d_i d_j = d_(j-1) d_i
for i < j
The coequalizer diagram is sort of enforcing that too
Yeah the inclusion of n-2 into n-1 via i followed by the inclusion of n-1 into n via j-1 is equal to the inclusion of n-2 into n-1 via j followed by the inclusion of n-1 into n via i whenever this makes sense
Yep
thanks
hi im trying to show that the mapping is continuous but im stuck her, can someone tell me what to do next?
Hey im readin guilliman Pollack book in manifolds and intersection theory, and i had the following question: "if f:R^n\to R^n is smooth and has an isolated fixed point at the origin with local lefschtez number +-1, does it mean that the origin is a Lefschetz fixed point?"
the other direction is always true, i.e. if an isolated fixed point is Lefschetz then the local Lefschetz number at this point is +-1
What’s a Lefschetz fixed point? I don’t think this is standard terminology. Maybe transverse?
How about the isolated fixed point of x^3 at the origin as a counter example?
Yes, according to the book a Lefschetz fixed point is when graph(f) is transverse to the diagonal
"non-degenerate fixed point" is more common in my experience
I think the fixed point of x^3 at the origin is Lefschetz. Its differential there is 0 so 1 is not an eigenvalue, and thus the point is Lefschetz
(an isolated fixed point is Lefschetz if and only if 1 is not an eigenvalue of the differential there)
Alternatively, how can one prove that a complex polynomial with a fixed point of multiplicity one is non-degenerate fixed point?
How about x+x^3?
Seems right. So now if we look at a complex polynomial with multiplicity one fixed point, will it be a Lefschetz fixed point?
I think the answer is yes and can be proved by computing the complex derivative at the fixed point and going back to the real case with cauchy riemann
I don’t know what you mean, so maybe I’m saying the same thing, but: make a small perturbation and see what happens to the the number of fixed points
I assume the multiplicity of the fixed point is one. For example the polynomial zp(z) at the origin where p(0)\neq0
I was talking about the contra positive: assume isolated but degenerate and prove multiplicity
oh this is cute
also lol every set is compact in the cofinite topology that's also pretty cute
quasi-compact 
Does anyone know a proper proof of the fact that every knot with a locally flat arc is isotopic (not ambient isotopic) to the unknot?
The idea is that the knotted part can be shrunk continuously, eventually to point, and this shrinking defines an injective homotopy for all times. We have to shrink the domain as well, in order to preserve the injectivity, so that at the end time, a single point of the domain maps to a single point of the image
This a very basic fact which justifies that topological isotopy is not enough and one needs ambient isotopy (or smooth/PL-isotopy) in order to distinguish knots, but I have not seen a proper proof anywhere.
Verily, there exists an exercise within Bott & Tu, wherein thou art tasked to determine the closed Poincar'e dual of the ray $S = {(x, 0) : x > 0}$ amidst the realm of $\mathbb{R}^2 - {0}$. They do inform thee from the outset that it ought to be $\rm{d}\theta/2\pi$. My labor hath unfolded thus: I hath computed the pullback of a compactly-supported 1-form, denoted as $f(r, \theta)\ \rm{d}r + g(r, \theta)\ \rm{d}\theta$, upon the domain of $\mathbb{R}^2 - {0}$ unto the ray $S$, and hast integrated with the assumption that $f\ \rm{d}r + g\ \rm{d}\theta$ doth find support within an annulus of inner radius $a$ and outer radius $b$. This doth amount to the integration of $f(r, 0)\ \rm{d}r$ from $r=a$ to $r=b$. Moreover, it doth hold that $f(r, 0)\ \rm{d}r$ is an exact form, whereof $f(r, 0)\ \rm{d}r = \rm{d}F(r, 0)$, and without loss of generality, $F(a, 0) = 0$, so that the integral we speak of should equal $F(b, 0)$ in quantity.
homfunctor
Continuing forth, I proceeded to take the integral of the wedge product betwixt our 1-form and the purported Poincar'e dual of the ray: $\int_{\mathbb{R}^2-{0}} (f\ \mathrm{d}r + g\ \mathrm{d}\theta) \wedge \frac{\mathrm{d}\theta}{2\pi} = \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_{\mathbb{R}^2-{0}} f(r, \theta)\ \mathrm{d}r \wedge \mathrm{d}\theta$.
homfunctor
Now, I descend to a Riemann integral: This doth yield $\frac{1}{2\pi} \int_0^{2\pi} \int_a^b f(r, \theta)\ \mathrm{d}r\ \mathrm{d}\theta = \int_0^{2\pi} F(b, \theta)\ \mathrm{d}\theta$, wherein I have assumed $F(a, \theta) = 0$ for all $\theta$ and $\frac{\partial F}{\partial r}(r, \theta) = f(r, \theta)$ throughout the domain of $\mathbb{R}^2 - {0}$.
homfunctor
If this were all correct, then should I find that $F(b, 0) = \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_0^{2\pi} F(b, \theta)\ \mathrm{d}\theta$. But unless I be a fool of great folly, this is not necessarily so.
homfunctor
Verily, perchance I ought to have directed this query to #diff-geo-diff-top instead, but nonetheless, such is the course of events.
why are you writing like this
Forsooth it is quite extra-ordinary that one should interchange ruminations thusly.
Verily, though style be of little consequence, my intention is to convey that I sense a conceptual misstep in mine antecedent ratiocination, and I doth wish that someone might kindly elucidate where I hath erred in judgment.
People are much less likely to answer your math help questions when they have to wade through a long-winded texting gimmick to get there
Indeed, that may very well be the case.
Ok
at least speak correctly, doth is third person
I’m not able to decipher your mumbo jumbo, but the main insight of the problem is to realize that the integral of the 1-form you defined is independent of the angle.
That doth seem like it would accomplish the task at hand.
Verily, it springs forth from the closed nature of $f\ \mathrm{d}r + g\ \mathrm{d}\theta$, and from applying Leibniz' rule after the integration, from which we had found $\int_a^b f_\theta(r, \theta)\ \mathrm{d}r = \int_a^b g_r(r, \theta)\ \mathrm{d}r = g(b, \theta) - g(a, \theta) = 0$.
homfunctor
I doth express my gratitude unto thee.
How long will you talk like this lol
lmao
I do suppose this algebraic reasoning is superfluous when one may instead appeal to the homotopy equivalence betwixt any two rays in $\mathbb{R}^2 - {0}$. The extension of a segment of the ray, with endpoints lying outside the support of the 1-form we are inquiring of, unto the points $(a, 0)$ and $(b, 0)$ in a manner contractible, shall preserve the integral in question.
homfunctor
I find this strangely wholesome
had
?
verily
Verily , send thou your fav proof of van-kampen , preferably something elegant but if none exist then alas, such is the course of event
seriously tho any references are appriated im gonna cover in a presentation next week
well there is the standard way (hatcher), the groupoids way e.g. covered in May but there are cool ones using covers
This is my favourite tho: https://www3.nd.edu/~andyp/notes/SeifertVanKampen.pdf and fairly concise
based G cover , love it already lol
may might not work since im not comfortable with category theory as much
thanks for references potato , will check em out
Take X to be a union of spaces
Whose intersection has paths between places
You amalgamate
And get something great:
The fundamental group :happy faces:
Np
exceedingly stupid question
but what are the "open sets" in GL(n, R) (or M_n for that matter)
like ok it's a Euclidean space but what is the distance between two matricies?
eh, there's always the induced metric on the GL_n, as \sup_{x \neq 0} ||Ax||/ ||x||
but it's finite-dimensional anyway, so all norms are equivalent
yeah
ah got it
I reckon it's someone's alt trying to stamp out any recognisable aspect of their writing style
In any case it's funny
For problem 8
I want to use the fact that I know S^n is connected + induction using this equivalence stated here
Is that the best way to go about this?
is that the best way to use problem 5?
the induction makes heavy use of problem 5 I agree
it seems to be a way (gotta verify its hypotheses first)
I mean fwiw I've already done it that way I'm just asking if there's a better way
and seems to be the most natural way
Hm q8 should have a much easier way i think
Wait yeah I mean it is p quite from q5 right and they tell you do use it so I'd do that
never change this is awesome lol
I got the first part but how do I show that this quotient is homeomorphic to the circle?
what would you say if I asked what SU(n) is
subset of U(n) with determinant 1
ye
These are nice exercises 
It's a good book
is this bredon
Hey, I was considering taking an algebraic topology class this coming semester. The course doesn't give any prerequisites, so I wanted to ask you what you thought are some essential prerequisites for this course?
It's a graduate course with the following description:
"Fundamental group and covering spaces, simplicial and singular homology theory with applications, cohomology theory, duality theorem. Homotopy theory, fibrations, relations between homotopy and homology, obstruction theory, and topics from spectral sequences, cohomology operations, and characteristic classes."
That's a ton of stuff for one course
You should only need to know basic topology - connectedness, compactness, product topologies etc. but given the amount of content, it might be rushing through some of the listed topics so probably talk to the instructor.
Okay, thank you. I will contact him and ask
Defining those is still easier than defining spectral sequences
that's insane lmao
yeah SS takes a lot of time to get comfortable
btw would you happen to know how to find the boundary maps explicitly? Say I wanted to prove Küneth and I need to show E² is degenerate or say for Gysin sequence, why are we cupping with euler class
that's like all of hatcher + spectral sequences + characteristic classes

Yes
Yeah I suspect they're implicitly assuming you know some of the topics listed already (and that "topics from" means like one week of talking about one of those 3)
Christ we have basically a full course for fundamental groups, a full one for homology, and a full one for homotopy theory
This looks crazy
I would think undergrad topology and group/ring theory would be the prerequisites. Depending on your instructor some familiarity with category theory, but I doubt much more than could be taught in a lecture or 2
It’s a whole year course, with the same description for the second semester
even before showing the isomorphism in homology, how to prove that s_pr_p is a chain map? it seems extremely yucky to do it directly, since the differentiation of the cellular complex W_p(X) involves a connecting homomorphism
(I'd also appreciate a hint for proving the isomorphism)
What does the degree on reduced zero homology from a map from S0 to itself means? When is it +1, and when -1?
S⁰ is just 2 points, {0, 1}. A map S⁰ → S⁰, the degree determined by what it does to the points.
what do you think the most natural definition of the degree would be
Boundary as in the differentials in the spectral sequence?
Ok I guess that is what you mean given the context
Usually you can't figure those out from the construction of the spectral sequence because they come from earlier stages of the exact couple (before derivations) and those stages have much more data and are harder to work with (that's the whole point of derivations, they simplify the exact couple without changing what it converges to).
The only hope you have of figuring out the differentials then is looking at the data you have at that page and what data you expect to get at later stages
The data of the current stage is the fact that it is supposed to be a chain complex (so eg. if the differential is surjective in some degree then it must be 0 in the next), any additional multiplicative structure you might have (eg. in the Serre spectral sequence for cohomology, you have a product induced by the cup product), and knowing what the spectral sequence converges to (eg. if you know the E^infty page has to be 0, you can often infer that certain differential have to be injective/surjective/zero because that's the only way all things die).
On top of this you use the data of the objects on the page: any differentials that start or end on a 0 must be 0.
Yeah
I was just wondering whether you can find the higher differentials given just E⁰ page
In the case of the Gysin exact sequence: it is a special case of the Serre spectral sequence for cohomology, so you have multiplicative structure. The sequence is supposed to converge to the cohomology ring of a familiar space (usually a sphere), so you know that a bunch of things have to die (the cohomology of a sphere is zero in almost all degrees).
The E^2 differentials are independent of the E^0 data.
that's about all what I can derive from SS, i.e. knowing the final result what must the pages should look like
The differentials on the later pages are not induced by just the data of E^0. For these later differentials, you have to look all the way back at the exact couple.
that makes it impossible then lol
Ye
I dont know actually
Right, but Im interested to know what is the actual action. What does the degree on reduced zero homology measures
Sorry if I’m belaboring the obvious, but the point of a spectral sequence is to separate the easy calculations from the difficult calculations. The easy part is E2 and, sometimes, multiplicative structure
But the naturality of the spectral sequence is powerful. This shows that d2 of a gysin sequence is a characteristic class. Maybe the universal example shows which one it is?
There are only 4 maps from S^0 to itself. The constant maps have degree 0, the identity has degree 1, and the map that swaps the two points has degree -1.
Do you know the definition of reduced homology? You should try to write down the complexes explicitly to verify that this is the case.
is it true that the image of not connected set does not have to be not connected?
come up with a non-injective map
Bonus exercise, come up with an injective map
based
something like the topologist's sine curve?
no it's quite simple
Hint: injective maps need not be embeddings
ok, just connecting an open end with a closed end
Exactly. Or you can do something more pathological, like considering a set with the discrete and trivial topology.
Restriction
If you have a function f: A → B, and S ⊂ A, you can restrict f to a function S → B. This function is denoted f|_S.
Hey guys, I kind of need help with this problem
I know how to show that T_B is a subset of the intersection set, but I don't know the other way around
As in, if i tried to show that, it becomes exceedingly complicated
My plan was to show that if A is in the intersection set s.t. for all C \subset B, UC != A, then it would lead to a contradiction
But all i gathered is that A can be a like a "basis" open set, lol
existing on its own, disjoint (via construction) from UC for any C \subset B
try to think of tau B directly
Mhm
after all, what are the sets containing the intersection ?
topologies on X s.t. B is contained in them
Which, i suppose, is kind of nice, right? But how would I know there isn't some "paraiah" open set that isn't generated by B?
and what is Tau B?
That is my main question
{UC: C \subset B}
its a topology yes?
Yep
and it contains B yes?
Oh
I mean, right, that's kind of what i gathered in the first part, that is, T_B \subset the intersection
I just want to show that the intersection \subset T_B
you just did , $ A \cap B \subset A$
hi , who knowns why the interior of C is empty
well whats your definition of a interior point?






