#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 46 of 1
Easy looking at the presentation of the group
"As a space" is a potential abuse tho lol
🤔
You can construct a path connected CW-complex whose fundamental group is the tits group
Unless you are being based and viewing spaces as infinity groupoids of which groups are a special case lol
Yes
K(Tits,1)

homotopy hypothesis
Now compute K_0(Tits)
Hi ryu
Discrete constructive homotopy theory
S1:Type
base:S1
loop:base=base
One question
What's it called when you take a space then create a new space where the base point is the space and the path space is equal to the space equal to itself
X:Space
f:Space -> Space
base(Y):f(Y)
where
(base(Z)=base(Z))=(Y=Y)
Basepoint the space?
Yes
I couldn't find anything about it so I just called it bottle because you take a point from one Space to make a new Space.
It's more general than spaces
like you could have a Space K=S1+1
Then you have f(inl(base)) = S1
hwllo
$$\text{Bottle}:\prod_{A:\mathcal U}A\to\mathcal U$$
s5
$$\text{base}_A,a:\text{Bottle}_A,a$$
s5

$$p_A,a:\left(a=_Aa\right)\to\left(\text{base}A,a={\text{Bottle}_A,a}\text{base}_A,a\right)$$
s5
Idk if this works
Tho I would just define it this way
$$\text{Bottle}A,a:\equiv\sum{x:A}|x=_Aa|$$
s5
idk alg k theory lol
In the book "Riemann Surfaces" by Simon Donaldson, I read the following (here \Sigma_g is an orientable surface of genus g):
How can I visualize this? My guess is that the picture corresponds to g=2, and that each ribbon pair corresponds to adding a handle on a sphere. But I am still having difficulty visualizing it.
the picture corresponds to g=4
Really? How would g=1 look then?
My horrible drawing lol
But then the boundary of has two components. How are you supposed to glue that together with the boundary circle of a disk?
Note that the boundary is connected in the figure I sent
or
I could be misunderstanding what a ribbon is in this case?
okay yeah I misunderstood
that is the case g=2
I am not exactly sure either, but I am pretty sure that in the figure I sent, you have a surface with boundary, and you glue it together with a closed disk, along the boundary
How, exactly, should I visualize the fact that this results in a two-holed torus? I suppose it would be enough to handle the case of g=1
so what I am really wondering is:
Why would that result in an ordinary torus if you were to glue together that and a closed disk, along their boundaries
I am guessing it is something like this, but I am still not completely convinced, seeing as a few of the curves get in the same places:
idk if im being lost, but how does one show this
more like, idk how to use the assumption that U intersected with V is path connected
That's not true. Let $X=\mathbb{R}$ and let $U=(0,1)\cup(1,2)$ and $V=(1,2)\cup(2,3)$, so that $U\cap V=(1,2)$ is path-connected. Let $x=3/2$. Then $X'=X=\mathbb{R}$, and $U\cap X'=U=(1,2)\cup(2,3)$ is not path-connected
gustavn64
Aha, wait, we assume that $X=U\cup V$...
gustavn64
yeah
Hmm, we want to show U\capX' is path connected. It's enough to show that every point y has a path from x. We may assume y is not in the intersection. Let p be a path from x to y in X'. Then there is a smallest point t such that p(T) is not in the intersection for any T>t. Then I claim p(T) is not in V.
Thus p([t, 1]) is a path from p(t) to y in U\capX'
Why?
why are assuming that y is not in the intersection?
If y is in the intersection there is nothing to show
Because it's assumed to be path connected
p([t, 1]) is a continuous function into the complement of U\capV
The image of a connected set is connected, so it's either contained in U or V
im confused, aren't you supposed to take a point in the intersection and find a path from that point to x that lies entirely in the intersection
There are still some details I haven't filled out, but that should be the basic structure
why does such a smallest t exist?
You can take infimums of real numbers
okay, yeah, infimum works
okay, i don't see how p(T) is not in V
there is a case that i can't seem to prove
So let U' = U\V and V' = V\U. Then U' and V' are disjoint open sets. But the image p[t, 1] is contained in their union.
Thus that make it clear?
and then what?
you say that p(1) is in U and then the whole image?
cuz i don't see why every point of the image would be either in U' or V'
cant it vary?
The image of a connected set is connected
oh
okay, you're right
do you even need to take such a smallest t then?
oh yeah, you do, nvm
actually, can't you just use p([0,1]) is connected instead?
and how exactly do you conclude that it's entirely in U' then
because U' is not necessarily open
right?
U' is open
why
Because the intersection of two open sets is open
V is open, so the complement is closed
and U \ V is U intersected with the complement
Right, sorry U' is open in the subspace topology on the complement of U\capV
is it?
Or if you prefer the preimage of U intersected with [t, 1] is disjoint from the preimage of V intersected with [t, 1] and they are both open
open in [t, 1]
hm okay
i still don't rlly get where you are using the minimality of t
That is actually the tricky part, which as I'm thinking of it more is trickier than I thought. You need to construct a path from x to p(t)
That's where the minimality was supposed to come in, but the argument I was thinking about doesn't seem to quite work.
Idk, Im a bit stumped.
Okay how about this:
Let t be the maximum for which t is not in U. Then t is contained in p^(-1)(V) which is open. Hence the is an h such that p^(t+h) is in V. But p(t+h) must be in U, thus is in the intersection.
Therefore you have a path from x to p(t+h)
how does that help?
and i think you have to take the supremum, the maximum may not exist, idk if that would do something to the proof
because then t wouldn't be necessarily in p^{-1}(V)
and could you elaborate on the path from x to p(t+h)
So the complement of U is closed. Hence it's preimage has a maximum
Any point not in U is in V, so this point is in the preimage of V.
The path from x to p(t+h) just comes from both being in U\capV, which is path connected
Hi, I am trying to prove the following statement. Along the way of attempting to prove this I have tried a range of ideas, one first of all I'd like to clarify (I'm a physics student doing maths in spare time so my foundations are not the strongest in proof) is this: A iff B, is this the same as notA iff notB? I did the truth tables for them and seemed to show they gave the same table, but a simple google search for this seems to show its not a common question for people to ask hence my doubt. I would like to clarify this before latexing up my answer which is based on this conjecture I had
oh, i see
okay, but don't you have to get a path to an arbitrary y in U \cap X'
How do you mean?
y was arbitrary
im confused
So p is a path from x to y
A iff B is equivalent to not A iff not B, A implies B is equivalent to not B implies not A (the contrapositive)
yeah
but what about p(t+h) to y
why is that entirely in U \cap X'
Which gives us a path from p(t+h) to y
Yes
thank you 🙂
you should still try to verify why that holds, maybe ask for help in #proofs-and-logic if you struggle with that part
A simple truth table proof is enough I think, which I have done. Was really confused why there are hardly no google results for not A iff not B equiv to A iff B but we move lol
If U inter V is path connected then it's contained= X', think about X \ (X') then, i think it'll work.
i already thought about that tbh
what do i start with X \ (X')
im talking about the complement cause X' is contained in U union V and X \ X' too, but they are disjoint.
Its just a tip
hm
if u started with X' doing U union V minus X' you'd end with a expression which has A intersection X \ X', union B intersection X \ X' which clearly is bad
but you can work with it anyway
idk what you are trying to tell me
with that
X \ X' tells you which points doesn't have a path with x
yeah
all those points also don't lie in the intersection of U and V
but idrk what to do with that
(I changed the names for A,B instead of U,V) "A intersection X \ X' also tells you all points which aren't path connected, but those are not in the intersection of A and B, because the intersection is path connected
So they are points that belong only to A, and respectivly only to B.
im not rlly getting your point
could you formalize it
like why does this hold: "A intersection X \ X' also tells you all points which aren't path connected"
Because X \ X' are points that aren't path connected, if it lies in the intersection of A, then those points (which are in A too) should share this propety
but like i said, those points belong only to A, not to B, because their intersection is path connected
likewise you can think of that to B
but you're forgetting another propety which relies on this and the fact that they are open, if im not mistaken
think a bit about it
is this a valid proof for the forwards way?
What is your definition of boundary and exterior
ill get it for you one second
Np
Sorry im all over the place, just justifying the existence of neighbourhoods B_1 and B_2 of p, these are due to part a and b of this:
Well you need to do more case work - it doesn't make sense to take the union of two neighbourhoods when we're only guaranteed that one of them exists
But yes I think negating both statements like you did is a good idea :)
I'd also write it out using words a bit more to help keep the ideas clearer
so i neednt take the union of them at all, just the fact that at least one of them is guaranteed to exist is the existence of the neighbourhood which satisfies the RHS of the statement?
Yeah exactly
thats perfect, thank you for your help!
Well also you wrote the negation of the 2nd statement slightly incorrectly in words but in symbols it is correct
Saying 'there exists a neighbourhood which doesn't contain a point in A or a point in X\A' sounds like you're saying the neighbourhood has empty intersection with A and empty intersection with X\A
I'd write it as like "There's a nbhd of p which is disjoint from A or X \ A" or "which doesn't intersect both A and X \ A"
I hate to admit I spent a good few hours today trying to negate it before i realised i should just represent it in symbols and do that. I have one more question, Since A is a subset of X, then each of the steps I have used are reversible and so the <= backwards direction also follows?
Yeah I agree
Are you asking ahout me personally or about what use topology has in general? xd
personally yeah
Oh to me topology is sort of the end application, like the problems it studies are interesting in themselves
But there are cool interactions with geometry and algebra too
And yeah I'm a pure maths student
Hbu
im a theoretical physicist who just realised my uni hasnt taught me enough pure maths so that i can study general relativity or quantum mechanics properly so I'm teaching myself Topological manifolds and Differential geometry to fill in the gaps lol
Ah noice
Yeah I used to be a physics student and that book you're reading was one of the things that started making me wanna do maths aha
But yes I hope you enjoy reading that
Its been a long time since i've done any pure maths so the theorem, proof lemma stuff is taking some getting used to. Very nice book so far even if I am 30 pages in haha
Yeah it definitely takes time getting used to and can be painful initially for sure
Was for me lol
Do you have any intentions on using this sort of stuff for anything physics related?
Not really, I'm potentially doing some GR next term and it'd be fun to read about stuff but not got any plans
Not really sure how physics interacts with topology other than through geometry or very complicated stuff xd
My current goal is working towards reading this: geometry topology and physics by Nakahara. But I envy you getting the opportunity to do pure maths, reading a book is nice but I wish my uni would just let me transfer onto maths, there are opportunities next year and I'll probably make the transition
what happens to the mobius strip if we remove an interior point
it’s not homotopically equivalent to S^1 anymore, right?
probably easier to see what happens if you take the construction from a square and gluing the top with the bottom backwards
then remove a point
hope that goes welll :)
Yeah i think the geometric picture with the Möbius strip minus a point is like
You can imagine like drawing a lil line part way along the strip (away from the hole) and stretching the paper away so you just have the edges of the paper and that lil line
Now you can actually untwist the "wires" at the edges of the paper and just get a circle with that little line joining two points
yeah. the idea is similar if you take the frame of a square and glue the top to the -bottom
Yeah that's what I originally did lol cut and pasting
or (just a rephrasing) we can just kill the 2-cell and we're left with a graph which we can easily redraw
Stuck on the second part of the proposition, specifically showing that the map is open
Ok so
I mean all I have is the following
Let $U \subseteq Y \setminus A$ be open and $q$ the quotient $X \sqcup Y \to X \cup_f Y$. Then $q\mid_Y(U) = q(U) \subseteq X \cup_f Y$ is open if and only if $q^{-1}(q(U))$ is open in $X \sqcup U$ which is true if and only if $q^{-1}(q(U)) \cap X$ and $q^{-1}(q(U)) \cap Y$ are both open.
spamakin
but I'm not sure how to show either
aren't the equivalence classes in Y\A exactly the points in Y\A. you should be able to express any open set U in the disjoint union of X and Y as
(U n Y) u (U n Y^c) where the preimage of U n Y^c is empty, and U n Y is the intersection of open sets
aren't the equivalence classes in Y\A exactly the points in Y\A.
?
the equivalence classes of Y \ A as a subspace of X u_f Y
i don't think i was clear enough
if you take some y in Y \ A, the image under the quotient map should just be y (or [y]), unless im missing something
i think maybe i misunderstood. are you stuck on showing the map is an open map, or that the subspace is an open subspace?
the canonnical map should just act as a sort of identity map given what i said above, so it being a homeomorphism to its image (and so open) shouldn't be too far fetched
showing the map is an open map
oh because the only possibility is 1. in the list of possible relations
do you know what the visual intuition is for this space?
not at all
you're attaching the points of A to their image in X
so it should make sense that q(Y\A), or q(U) for any open subset of Y\A should be "untouched" per se
showing that amounts to this yeah
ok I think that clears things up
if you ever do AT, this is a pretty important space
I plan to one day
but things like this, the mapping cylinder / cone
very unintuitive rn
ye i feel that. at least you're getting going though, it's good
gl with the rest of your topology
i dont seenot
see it*
doesn’t the point just basically “stay”
there
One way to think about mapping cylinder for a map f:X ->Y is that it is a space that deformation retracts to Y, so replacing f by the inclusion X -> Mf is basically the same as remembering f. And furthermore this inclusion is well behaved (cofibration)
well the idea is that you can deformation retract the 2-cell so as to just get the frame of the square
it's what potato was saying earlier
if you don't know about cell complexes then don't worry about the cell thing
but essentially you can remove the interior points of the square and just attach the top to the bottom (flipped)
the connected sum is an example of a disjoint union space, which helped me get some visual intuition for it
more generally, i like to picture the disjoint union X + Y as sort of combining X and Y into the same “universe” such that they’re disjoint, then you attach them by identifying points from one with their image in the other
here’s my attempt at drawing that idea
i’ll need a picture for that haha, what does the circle with a little line joining two points look like
or more like i don’t get how to see that
Got this q in exam and ended up saying false but I’m having doubts: it asked if an n dimensional manifold with H1(M)=0 was necessarily oriented. I know this is true in the compact connected setting by PD, but I couldn’t think of a counterexample in the general case
H_1 or H^1?
yeah guessed
hint: Oriented double cover gives a subgroup of index 2
@shadow charm

It’s the one part of the course I didn’t really revise so it didn’t come to mind until after
Wait, what about \pi_1 being a perfect group? (i.e. with trivial abelianization)
This only gives a subgroup of the fundamental group, not the H_1, right?
if your M is not orientable you get a subgroup of index 2 if π_1, so abelianization can't be zero
i.e. π_1 is not perfect
I now see it! The picture I sent is clearly the same thing as the rightmost thing in the following image, which is of course just a punctured torus:
The group G=SL(2,Z/5), which has order 6, has a 3-Sylow with index two. But G is perfect
Unless I'm missing something?
I think to prove the statement, it's better to say that M is orientable iff w_1(M) is zero, if you have this available
Doesn't SL(2,Z/5) have order 120?
Really I don't know how to compute?
$#\mathrm{SL}(n,{\bf F}_q)=\frac{(q^n-1)\times(q^n-q)\times\cdots\times(q^n-q^{n-1})}{q-1}$
matplotlib
Yeah I forgot the last factor x')
Anyway, what is the subgroup of index 2?
But I still don't see why having a subgroup of index two prevents from having trivial abelianization... Although that's #groups-rings-fields and not #point-set-topology anymore, and it's been a while since I last did groups xD
Commutator is smallest normal subgroup with abelian quotient
If you have a subgroup of index 2 it is normal with abelian quotient
No no I was being a moron, it's obvious now 

hmm this suggests that H^1 = 0 then it's also orientable
have to think thoughly
so w_1(M) \in H^1(M; Z/2) and by uct we have H^1(M; Z/2) = 0 as H_0 is torison free
ok idk UCT for H^1(M; Z) to H^1(M; Z/2), above statement is not correct
Yeah but Ext1 of an fg abelian groupll be it’s torsion subgroup
Well whatever, I'm dumb when it comes to those things so I'll take that away
Isn’t Ext(Z,Z/2) just 0
Nah dw about it we all make mistakes
I mean H^1 = 0 should imply H_1 = 0 no?
(Over Z)
not necessarily
Why not by UCT?
H_1=Z/2
Right im a fool
Yeah lol
H^n= F_n ⊕ T_{n-1}
yes, Z projective. I didn't see the msg lol. IG H¹ also zero then
Ext^1?
Ext without degree always refers to Ext^1
ah
It was defined before the higher Exts
the higher exts are irrelevant for fg abelian groups anyhow
Ext(A,B) is zero when A is projective or B is injective right
yes
Goood
I am learning homological algebra well it seems 
This is even a characterizing property of being projective/injective. I.e. A is projective iff Ext(A, -) = 0.
If $X$ and $Y$ are topological spaces, what is the coarsest topology on the space of all functions between $X$ and $Y$ (denoted $Y^{X}$) such that the subspace of all continuous functions $\mathcal{C}(X,Y) \subseteq Y^{X}$ is closed?
mistersystem
Can you explicitly characterize this topology in terms of a (sub)basis?
For some reason, I think the compact-open topology might be the one having this property.
I mean you can define a topology where that set is the only closed one
Besides the empty and whole set
coarsest would be { \empty, complement of continuous functions, all of Y^X}
that's not the desired answer i suppose
oh, ofc lol
Seeing Y^X contrasted with C(X,Y) is making my brain melt
so what are the restrictions on the topology
lol true
i was trying to think of a characterization of the compact-open topology in terms of like
(it's the same if you're working in Top)
it being the notion of convergence of functions with the least amount of requirements, but still retaining the property such that the limit of continuous functions is still continuous.
appearently
the compact-open topology is the coarsest topology making the evaluation map continuous
there is one characterization for LCH spaces, you probably already know this. Z → Y^X cts iff X×Z →Y is
lmao
that's the notation my prof is using rn
don't then

||by definition||
I was about to ask "what about spaces which are not locally compact tho?"
but fuck it
every space is locally compact
functional analysis is a hoax
and Hausdroff 
You don't even need metric space structure to prove that statement
they probably defined closed sets in terms of sequences
for topological spaces, that only works for first-countable ones
while the "closed iff complement is open" is the most general definition
are you sure about that
some cat theorist might come in
Take a sequence in S converging to x in M\S. Use the existence of an open ball around x in M\S to get a contradiction
oh lol defining in terms of sequences and stuff is interesting lol
o
tysm
im so dumb
just think more 
Suppose S is closed. Take x in M\S. If every open ball around x intersected S then x would lie in S (because x would be the limit point of a sequence in S, which is closed), so M\S must be open.
Conversely if M\S is open, and (x_i)->x is a sequence in S, then x in M \ S would imply some x_i lie in M \ S (a contradiction), so x \in S and thus S is closed.
Is this a valid proof: correction to last line A subset of B
Where my books definition of closure of A is:
intersection of all closed sets containing A
Can't you just do this: The intersection contains A since it is the intersection of a bunch of sets that contain A, and it is contained in A since A is closed and hence in the intersection?
Yes
,rotate cw
Contraposition is a bit nicer.
so many times in this book ive found contrapositive much easier
nooo you didnt know, but thanks for confirming
Yeah I think the way i'd think about heuristically is like
Being given a concrete open set to work with is nicer than something about "every" thing
Often a useful thing to think about ig is how much data you are given to prove stuff with lol
happens a lot in intro top I find (I’m still bad tho)
Oh yeah and I think another bit of intuition for this is like
Often you will be proving statements about closed and open stuff
And it's easier to make sure that everything is in terms of open sets (or all about closed sets)
So for example you can change "every non-empty open subset of X contains a point of A" to "no proper closed subset of X contains A"
And I think it's obvious that "A is dense" is equivalent to that last thing
:)
i dont understand
what if a closed set doesnt have a preimage?
i mean what if there exists a point y in a closed set such that no point maps to y?
The empty set is closed
Hint for this might be the pre image of the complement is the complement of the preimage
and paths which "loop" around 0 are still homotopic to one of the two paths
Yessir
Non-orientable surfaces in a 4-manifold X deserve a special mention. Since they do not give rise to integral homology classes, ...
Hi! Could someone elaborate on this statement please? Does the author mean they are null-homologous, or that there's no such thing as the integral homology class of a NO surface? (Here, X is closed, connected, oriented)
Hehe I just did this one in my book, it’s a fun one. Have a think about how to construct a closed set for every open set
that's literally the definition of closed...
This works right?
yessir
The latter
A homology class is a closed chain. A chain is a sum of oriented simplicies
if f: X -> Y is a map and A is a subset of Y then f^{-1}(A) always exists, but it could be empty (if nothing in X maps into A)
in the "not continuous" part, you need to mention A, K are open
i did that in the previous "preface" didnt want to mention it too much, but yes they are open
otherwise is it okay?
Mention open everywhere, otherwise sounds wrong
that’s not sufficient
what you showed is that there is an open set with open preimage, that doesn’t contradict f being not continuous
do you know what the subspace topology is?
i think so
what you should be doing is taking an arbitrary open set in the subspace A
and showing the preimage of the set under f|_A is open
given the definition of the subspace topology it should be straightforward
oh sorry i had this backwards
take an arbitrary open set in Y
and show the preimage is open in A
I see, I'll give it another go, and yes i realised it was meant to be the other way. Thanks for recognizing the fault in my proof 🙂
Hint: pre image intersect A is open in the sub space topology
@steel glen hope you dont mind if i ping you, i think i got it. About to LaTex it up, do you reckon you could check it out for me?
if you post it other people can check it
You could also just prove the map i_A: A -> X is continuous which is a bit easier, and then notice that f restricted to A is just f composed with i_A
I was thinking about this, but my book hasnt yet proved that the composition of two continuous maps is continuous so i tried to do it without that
It has proved that the identity map is continuous though ofc
gotcha, you could probably prove it quick, it's actually pretty trivial to prove composition preserves continuity! But yeah, you can still prove it directly, just that proving i_A is continous is almost just repeating the definition of the subspace topology
it is the very next theorem to prove so I will prove the composition theorem and then reprove that result i just did to get a more concise one for my notes. Thanks a lot 🙂
No worries! You're proof is equally good though, just an alternative way to think about it
Did you read john Lee's book for topological manifolds by any chance? That is where this question is from although it is obviously a very general theorem
I'm finding it takes me like a day atm to get through 2 pages, not that i'm spending all my time doing it but I feel very slow, then again I haven't done pure maths in years
the choice of P for an open set leaves something to be desired haha
lol that's normal, I started reading some algebraic geometry after taking a 6 year break from math after my phd (a completely new subject for me) and it's been about 1-2 pages a day and doing exercises
What was your phd in if you dont mind me asking
probably in math if I had to guess
Also for your proof, just for the sake of terseness, you could just write "since f_A^{-1}(U) = A \intersect f^{-1}(U) for any subset, f_A is continuous by definition of the subspace topology"
I did it in analysis on compact matrix groups, basically doing integral calculus on matrix groups like U_n and SU_n
lmao i didnt even know you could do analysis on them
algebra and representation theory surprisingly
I need to learn a bunch of representation theory so i can do particle physics in my 4th year i think
Ahhh either way so much i want to learn but not enough time
yeah, doing analysis or probability on matrix groups almost always comes down to linear algebra and representation theory, because integrating over a group is like a projection operator in a way. If you don't have some sort of rigid structure like in group theory though, it's really hard to get practical formulas for integrals, the group structure is what actually enables you to come up with specific formulas you can calculate, even though they're really complicated
does this have anything to do with fibre bundles?
I remember watching this lecturer mention something about how bundles are something to do with a bigger space and integration can be done on them? Idk maybe i'm being silly
not really, I mean the underlying abstract theory probably does, but when it comes to actually calculating integrals over groups, it's a lot of combinatorics, linear algebra, and representation theory. Actually one of the surprising results is that the most important structure related to calculating integrals over groups of matrices is the symmetric group, and the representation theory of the symmetric group is actually all combinatorics and drawing diagrams, there's almost no analysis involved
Lmao bet you enjoyed doing your art if there were that many diagrams, thanks for telling me about your PhD, it’s very useful getting an idea of what’s possible as someone who’s hoping to try and get one
doing the diagrams was so much fun, I remember having to figure out how to make this diagram, it was really satisfying
what even is that phahaha#
lol the diagram on the left is called the young graph, it's an infinite graph which connected diagrams differing by a single block, and it completely describes the representation theory of S_n for all n. The other stuff is weird and has to do with describing basis elements of each irreducible, lol it's weird stuff!
it took me a year of studying to understand how it all works and fits together
Didn’t really bother to latex it up but I think I got the right lines
Obviously I should have justified f inverse being continuous but this follows from Id on x being the composition of f and its inverse and we know Id on x is continuous
Actually I didn’t even need to do that ID_x is continuous by just setting the A in ID_A equal to X and since the continuity of ID_A has already been shown we get everything follows. Ahhh I’m so cluttered
Yeah I see, Ahhh idk I’m now imaging U could be an open set that included the boundary of A and X\A
I’m not too sure
Either way U is open so we can write it as the union of open sets, some of these may lie in A or in X\A, if they are in A then they correspond to a point in X, else they correspond to the empty set and hence ID_A is still continuous
?
I’ll write this up later or tomorrow
it's more straightforward than that, i_A^{-1}(U) = A \intersect U, so it's basically a 1 line proof using the definition of the subspace topology
Right thanks! Sorry for this silly question, but I thought I was thinking nonsense!
so why is anime in the channel description here
where else would they put it
So, exp and the power functions share the property that they are a covering map on the punctured plane. Now I'm wondering whether this fact is true for any non-constant holomorphic function, that is, does the following actually hold:
If f is a non-constant holomorphic on domain U and A the discrete set of points where the derivative is zero, then f : U\A -> f(U\A) is a covering map.
I strongly assume that's wrong, but haven't found a counterexample yet
Read about branched coverings on the Covering spaces article on Wikpedia and that one seems to suggest a variant of this is true for non-constant holomorphic maps between compact Riemann Surfaces, which appear to always be branched coverings
Can someone clarify a bit a detail regarding complex projective line CP¹? I'm not sure if this belongs here, but it involves a quotient and a topology so at least it's close. I was playing around with it and defined the usual cover given by the sets U = {[x] | x_0 \ne 0} and V = {[x] | x_1 \ne 0} and then I found online that these are equivalent to something denoted by {[z : 1] | z \in C} = {w \ne 0} and {[1 : w] | w \in C} = {z \ne 0} and I'm not sure I understand how are these the same? These are supposedly called the homogeneous coordinates.
Can you not just translate a power function by a constant to get a counterexample?
Do you understand the definition of the complex projective line and the meaning of the homogeneous coordinates?
How do you mean that? 🤔
e.g. f(z) = z^2 + 1
I understand it as a quotient of S¹, but I don't understand these homogeneous coordinates
I saw that they are related to the different construction of the projective space where we fix a line at y = 1 I think and somehow normalize points on the plane to that line?
So homogeneous coordinates $[z_0 : z_1] $ define a set of equivalence classes, where $ [z_0 : z_1] ~ [\lambda z_0 : \lambda z_1] $ for all $ \lambda \in \mathbb{C} \setminus {0}$
If you play around with this you should be able to see that it describes the circle definition you're familiar with
I can see this also the equivalence relation just relates points on the same line, but this [z : 1] and [1 : w] are weird to me. What is the deal with 1?
[x:y] = [x/y : 1] whenever y is not 0
I see they are of course on the same line. Is this common to normalize always the second entry to 1 if it's non-zero?
It's usually the first or last that you normalize
Yeah, so you would usually think of the projective line as one copy of the normal line [z:1], and one point at infinity [1:0]
Exactly which entry you fix to 1 is not super important, since it's all symmetric
With only 2 entries, you kind of just have a usual ratio so this is a pretty easy exercise
Thanks for this. If it's not too much I would also like to know why on U \cap V we now have a relationship w = 1/z? If I think about this the intersection is just where neither w or z is zero so it should be isomorphic to C^*.
When does [w:1] = [1:z]?
Thanks(:
Is this the right place for questions about point-set topology? I'm working out of the book by Munkres
Yes
I'm looking for some help for some help understanding this question (2.17.9).
Particularly the phrase "in the space X x Y". I'm aware that a topological space is a set along with its topology. So, in this case that would be {T, X x Y} (And I guess T is the product topology).
Where particularly is closure(A x B) and cl(A) x cl(B) living?
Are they in the subspace topology inherited from X x Y?
They are both subsets of X × Y. You have to check that they are equal as subsets.
The closures of A and B are the closures in X and Y respectively
The closure of A × B is being taken in X × Y (under the product topology as you inferred)
As for how you are supposed to infer all of this from the problem statement alone, look at which spaces the 3 sets live in, and unless explicitly stated otherwise, always interpret closure of A to be its closure in the largest space mentioned in the problem that contains it
@abstract copper
So, in this case I'm considering cl(A x B) in X x Y and cl(A) in X and cl(B) in Y?
Yes
Got it, thanks alot!
So Im trying to understand the back of the book solution to a problem im working on that is:
"If R is a compact region in a surface M, prove that R is a closed set of M"
Solution:
The notation with the U_{p,q} and U_{q,p} is something I dont understand.
Im not sure if this solution is essentially the same thing as a proof to the Hein-Borel theorm or if there is something new to learn here.
For every pair of points p and q, you can find an open neighborhood U of p and V of q, such that U and V don't intersect. Here they are calling the neighborhoods U_p and U_p,q.
Im willing to accept that, but I guess then what is U_q,p?
Seems to be a typo
It depends on p. You could call it V_p, but you can’t call it U_q
U_p, q and U_q,p should be the same
Thanks all! I appreciate it
This question right here, i've proved the function is bijective
but showing a is continuous has proved very confusing for me
I understand both X and S^1 should have the induced topologies from their respective open ball topologies in R and C respectively, but then its the half open interval thats making it weird for me to try and describe any open interval in S^1
I have managed to do a construction where I can take any general open set in X and show the mapping of it under a produces an open set in S^1, but idk where to go from there
Uh continuity is about the preimage not the image
Also, this is false
Consider the image of [0,1/2)
But in the induced topology on S^1 this can be given by an intersection of S^1
nvm yeah you're right
You can check that like the induced tpology on S^1 is just the topology induced by the metric
So the open sets are the intuitively open ones
I really don't know how to communicate or even write up my doubts with this question, That inclusion of 0 is annoying me
Yeah the 0 is the annoying bit for sure
Let me draw a picture to show you my doubts
To me this needs an interval from X of the form [0,a) U (b,1)
To map onto it
so i argued that any sequence a_1, a_2,... a_n can be used to construct open intervals in X that will map to open intervals in S^1. Furthermore if you want to include that weird portion of S^1 demonstrated above, we would also need (a_1,a_2,) U (a_3,a_4) U...U [0,a) for some 0<a<=1
to me though it seems like there should be a simpler proof of continuity
You just need to check the preimages of "small" open intervals in S^1
Like a basis of open sets in S^1
And you can write down the preimages of those hopefully without much difficulty
Yeah sure
If I can check the pre image of a tiny open set in S^1 then that will ofc have a pre image that is open I’ve showed that already. And then I just can use that in conjunction with the union of an arbitrary number of open sets is an open set and hence continuity of the map follows
yeah this gives it
it’s kinda crazy to me how those hold but for a generic map f (not necessarily an inverse ) but intersections are only preserved when f is injective, or else one is a subset of the other
I guess the point is that inverses are well behaved in that they’re always injective
not crazy nvm
preimages don’t work like images, that’s why
30 votes and 30 comments so far on Reddit
Alright this seems to prove the continuity and fills in all my doubts I had regarding those weird half open sets in R but they are open in X
Hi, I struggle to prove that for a compact topological manifold the singular homology is of finite type (let say on Z).
If we have a differential manifold, I know how to conclude with the existence of a finite good cover. However this existence is related to a riemannian structure and doesn't pass to the topological case.
I have tried to use things like cellular approximation (in Hatcher) but it seems that an approximation of a compact manifold is not a finite CW-complex, so it is unclear that its homology is of finite type.
Finally I may have found this article on nlab
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/good+open+cover
with a theorem from osborne-stern which seems to imply with mayer vietoris that all homologies in degree <n-1 are finite. By adding the fact that the n-th homology is finite, it seems I can conclude that the n-1 homology is also finite. But this proof is very complicated.
So is there an easier argument I am missing ? Thanks in advance
Hm well one way is that every compact manifold is homotopy equivalent to a finite cw complex
But here's an easier way
what are the accumulation point for [0,infty)
Oh I may have forgotten this theorem but it would definitely answer my question yes !
what do you think they are
recall the definition
is it empty ?
Far from it
is it the set itself ?
well i've read the definition
yes
because every intersection excluding the x between ]x - epsilon,x +epsilon [ and A is different from 0
is it right?
oke thank you
how can i prove that (0,infty) is the interiors of [0,infty)
I think you mean interior, and also review its definition
the proof goes like supposing that there is x in A and then applying the definition?
intuitively, The interior of a set is the largest open set contained in the set
so have a think
(0,infty)
Yeah it is true but again you're asking how to prove it
i don't know how to do that
what does your text use for the definition of interior
there exists delta such as (x-delta,x+delta) in A
this seems to be specific to R
so a point x is in the interior if this is true
I guess you know how to do it then
i don't
Just show double inclusion
show that the interior is contained by (0, infty)
and then (0,infty) is contained by the interior
0 is also in the interior but yeah
is it
Wait uhhh
I'm confused by the context ĺol
Interior as a subset of R?
Then no 0 isn't in it
Yeah it wasnt taken as the space itself
x is in the interior of A , then there exist delta such as (x-delta,x+delta) i A
from here i take delta = 1/n?
this is a real analysis textbook right
you just find the delta for each x then if you use this definition sure
the say that at infty 1/n=0 and x in A
Sorry I don't understand what you're saying
Are you asking me if it's correct to take delta = 1/n to prove that there is an open neighborhood for every x in (0, infty)?
Sounds like you're overcomplicating the approach?
there is an easier delta to take that doesn't require you to find a sequence
what is it?
That's for you to find out isn't it?
does it have anything to do with Archimedean property?
No actually
Your idea of using the archimedean property could work but seems very overkill here
i don't think i know the delta you're talking about
let's suppose you drew a circle on your paper with a radius of r
what's an easy way to draw a smaller circle within that circle
just take delta = x/2 or smth
hurb
I'm facing a bit problem while proving some space is connected.
Say R2 \ {(0,0)}
If it's not connected then it can be written as union of two disjoint open subsets, say A U B
Now I take a point in A say (1,0), then any nbd of (1,0) should lie entirely within A
After this I'm not sure how do I associate it with B
I assume you already know about path connectedness - I'd recommend you consider that
Also, it's false that "any neighbourhood of (1,0) should lie entirely within A"
Indeed the entire space is a neighbourhood of (1,0)
make it "connected nbd"
Yes with path connected it can be joined with a straight line if it doesn't go through origin else take another point not the origin and join with two lines
Its not clear to me how do I show in this approach, that if the set can be written as union of two disjoint open sets , then one of them must be empty
maybe pick a point from the boundary of A
Que: show that (0,(n-1)/n) is a open cover of (0,1)?
Ans: y_n=(n-1)/n is a increasing sequence which converges to 1. let x belongs to (0,1) there exist N such that x<y_N so x belongs to
(0,(N-1)/N) and since x is arbitrary hence proved
Is this correct?
just justify why such an N exists
Oh okay thanks !
Is closed and nowhere dense equivalent to closed and discrete?
consider the unit circle in R^2
Ah that makes sense, of course. Thank you!
For this approach I would try to see why there can be no clopen sets besides the whole space and the empty set
This is equivalent and I think much easier
The key idea here in my mind is to exploit the idea of radius along with some “induction” on real numbers
Intuitively you could keep expanding any clopen set
Well radius is not quite right, but half planes is better
A more explicit hint: ||Let A be nonempty and clopen. Pick (x,y) in A. WLOG, x > 0, we will show all things in Right half plane are in A. Consider r > 0, R > 0 s.t the closed square box starting from x’ >= r and of lengths R on all sides lies in A. Expanding this in R,r is pretty easy….||
we know the fact that a collection of open sets is a basis if and only if given any open set and any point in the open set there is a basis member that contains the point and is itself contained in the said open set. Now, consider R^n with the euclidean topology. Given any open set in R^n and any point, we can find a ball of rational radius around a 'rational point' that contains the point x and is itself contained in the said open set. This gives us a countable topological basis for the euclidean topology in R^n. My question here is regarding the cardinality of the euclidean topology. By mapping each point in R^n to any open ball (which is just an open set w.r.t. euclidean metric) around it we get |R^n| \leq cardinality of the euclidean topology (call it T from now on). I think we can show that |T| = |R^n| = |R| = |2^aleph_nought| and for this we need an injection from T to R^n or from T to 2^(aleph_nought) and invoke cantor schroder bernstein to complete the proof. I don't think i'm getting anywhere right now, any hints?
you're right about |R| <= |T| sure
i am trying to map open sets to points in R^n right now but i haven't been able to figure out the details to how the injection should look like
Try enumerating your basis elements
And writing an open set as a union of basis elements
hmm so since we have a countable basis, we can write any open set as an at most countable union of basis elements but i can't figure out how to get separate points in R^n like this for the open sets
The enumeration of the basis assigns each open subset of ℝ^n a subset of ℕ
Just to check, if $X,Y$ are pointed simplicial sets, is their smash product just given by $(X \land Y)_n = \frac{X_n \times Y_n}{* \times Y_n \cup X_n \times *}$?
potato
where on the right the quotient is just of sets ofc
Wait no this may not make sense as the basepoint lies in X0 or Y0
yes but it's conceivable there is a different definition that also works and is weak htpy equivalent
it makes sense. just phrase it categorically and you'll be fine
Sure so like pullback of X -> pt <- Y ?
Yes, when you go from a cat to its pointed version, the new monoidal product is given by the old one quotiented by the natural inclusion of the coproduct. All of these operations are taken pointwise for simplicial sets so this happens pointwise
smash product is not monoidal i think. it doesn't have a unit?
Okay sure rippies
Going to the pointed version can be described as taking the under-cat of the terminal object
It might be better to say *_n rather than *, but *_n is a singleton
Doesn't Δ⁰ ⊔ Δ⁰ work?
ok yeah.
vool
i wrote this up a minute ago lemme see if i can find it.
ok here's my treatment of this
let C be a monoidal category with finite colimits which play nice with the monoidal product.
let I be a monoid in C
an object A is augmented by I if there are maps A->I and I->A so that I is a retract of A
here for smash products we take I=1
A morphism of augmented objects A->B should commute with the retraction maps.
Given (A, eta_A: I->A, epsilon_A : A->I) and (B, eta_B, epsilon_B)
write f for
(A\otimes I) +(I\otimes B) -> A\otimes B given by 1_A \otimes eta_B + eta_A\otimes 1_B
Let ${B}{k\in \mathbb{N}}$ be the countable topological basis for the euclidean topology $T$ on $\mathbb{R}^{n}$ and suppose $G$ is an open subset. Then, write $G$ as an at most countable union $G = \cup{a\in A}B_{a}$ where $A$ is the subset of $\mathbb{N}$ with its members the indices $a$ for which the basis member $B_{a}$ is contained in $G$ and forms a cover of $G$. This way, we form the mapping $T \to \mathscr{P}(\mathbb{N})$, $G \mapsto A\coloneqq {n\in \mathbb{N} \mid B_{n}\subseteq G}$. Is this the idea? I believe the injectivity of said mapping is trivial to verify and therefore this completes the proof?
pikapikapikapikachu
Yeah nice
Or you can phrase it as a surjection P(N) -> T which to me is slightly more natural but yeah
Yes, just keep in mind the subtlety that the set A is not unique for a given G, so you begin the proof by fixing a choice of A for each G
A is well-defined with that last definition right?
Oh ok you are taking all basis elements contained in G
Yeah mb misread
Or rather didn't bother reading properly 
lol
kinda funny how looking up smash product in SSet is mostly giving me stuff about spectra
But that is what I am learning about it for
Hmm, thanks potato and Moldilocks1337
are you learning about simplicial homotopy theory potato
Are you learning about spectra of simplicial sets?
Oh is this for Hovey Shipley Smith?
I am learning about spectra and quasicategories basically
This in particular was for symmetric spectra
But where in symmetric spectra do you need simplicial sets
Are you doing it all quasicategorically?
write g for (A\otimes I) +(I\otimes B) -> I\otimes I -> I given by the epsilon maps and the multiplication of I
Well Schwede develops a simplicial variant of symmetric spectra alongside the one based on Top
For convenience I think mostly, not read much of it yet lol
write A\overline{\otimes} B for the pushout of f and g
Ok yeah I think that's the version that the Hovey Shipley Smith paper does
this is the reduced tensor product.
Ah okay
I'll draw a pic lol
There is a more categorical way of defining this smash product btw, if you follow that you won't have to worry about what the symmetric spectra are made of

The smash product of symmetric/orthogonal spectra. You can view it as an instance of Day convolution, which is a general recipe for producing closed symmetric monoidal products on categories of enriched presheaves given symmetric monoidal structures on their domains. You can view sequential/symmetric/orthogonal spectra as topological presheaves on certain categories but the cat for sequential ones doesn't have a symmetric product.
On the model category level rather than only infinity cats
Oof everything you typed is now all scattered
gravestone engravings
Oh okay very nice I will look at that
this also works for the reduced join
I heard of that from the nlab article lol
of pointed spaces
Ye seems legit
Btw how do you take products of V-enriched categories? Is the monoidal product (where you tensor the hom objects) the product?
It doesn't seem like it should be the product
Because A ⊗ B may not be the product of A and B in V
Do you take direct products of hom sets instead?
the objects in the product category are ordered pairs of objects (A, B)
Homs are tensor products of hom objects
hm wait. does that make sense? let me think.
well i believe you may just not have cartesian product projections in the enriched setting.
Yeah
this necessitates the use of ends and coends rather than ordinary limits and colimits.
Oh no I'm treating V-Cat as an ordinary cat
i know but they're related
like Ab-cat has a terminal object
but that terminal object doesn't have the property that functors 1 -> C correspond to objects in C, i. e. constant functors
the terminal object is obviously the empty cartesian product so i am just pointing out that the weirdness of the product structure is related to the fact that limits behave poorly

Why does the terminal object matter here though? To take the underlying ordinary cat of the Ab-cat Ab-Cat you should apply Ab(ℤ, -) right?
So shouldn't we look at maps from ℤ
I goofed
Though I still don't get what you were trying to say
Let A and B be Abelian categories and F an additive functor between them. The limit of F should be a certain constant functor x: A -> B together with a cone x->F.
It is not obvious what a constant functor is in this setting though. in Cat you just say "it's a functor that factors uniquely through the terminal object". In Ab cat that isn't really a sensible approach.
But that is a limit inside an Ab-cat
if b is an object in B it is not clear what "the" constant functor from A to b is.
I meant product of 2 separate Ab-cats
Yes, I'm understanding you. I am bringing up an interesting and closely related fact, that when the monoidal product in V-Cat is a Cartesian product, ends and coends can be reduced to limits and colimits. It's somehow a special property of V-categories where V has a Cartesian monoidal product. for example V= CG-Haus
I don't think so, no. The natural monoidal structure on V-Cat isn't always Cartesian, I think.
For example in Ab-Cat i think you'd take the tensor product of the hom groups.
That would make sense. I saw some notes which referred to that tensor product as the product and got confused.
I should read Kelley's book
Hom((A, B), (C, D)) =Hom(A, C) \otimes Hom(B, D)
is what i think you would do
it's the cartesian product on objects lol
close enough
Lol
(replace sigma with S)
Here's my idea at the proof for this theorem:
First step to this proof is to construct a 'nice' topology on $X$ that contains $S$.
Since $\mathscr{P}(X)$ is a topology on $X$ that contains $S$, we can set $T(S) = \bigcap_{\mathcal{A}\supseteq S}\mathcal{A}$, where the intersection is taken over all the topologies $\mathcal{A}$ on $X$ that contain $S$. It is trivial to verify that $T(S)$ is a topology on $X$ that contains $S$ itself.
Next, we will prove that this construction is the smallest topology on $X$ that contains $S$:
That $T(S)$ is the smallest topology that contains $S$ follows from the fact that if $E$ is another topology on $X$ that contains $S$ then it is included in the intersection used in the definition of $T(S)$ and therefore, it contains $T(S)$ itself.
Next we will show that the topology generated by $S$ coincides with the family of specified sets (call this set $K$):
Since $T(S)$ contains $S$ and it is a topology, it contains finite intersection of members of $S$ and arbitrary unions of these finite intersections. Therefore $T(S) \supseteq K$.
The proof should be complete once we show that $K$ is itself a topology on $X$ that contains $S$ (we can conclude due to minimality of $T(S)`$):
Since $K$ contains finite intersection of members of $S$, it contains members of $S$ themselves and therefore $K\supseteq S$. (I believe) All Members of $K$ are arbitrary unions of finite intersections of members of $S$. Finite intersection of arbitrary unions of finite intersections of members of $S$ is an arbitrary union of finite intersections of members of $S$ so $K$ is closed under finite intersections. Since arbitrary unions of arbitrary unions of finite intersections of members of $S$ are simply arbitrary unions of finite intersections of members of $S$, $K$ is closed under arbitrary unions.
Could someone verify this proof for me? Also, how do I go about proving for uniqueness?
pikapikapikapikachu
ain't reading all that sorry for you or glad that happened
if C and D are two smallest topologies, then C ⊆ D and D ⊆ C, such that C = D
i can't parse the generating part, but i think that's the general idea
like you can distribute things
oh that was it for the uniqueness? lol
ya
ok, and do you think the overall idea in the proof is right?
have you shown already that the intersection of topologies is a topology?
yep, trivial 
ok it's fine then i think
alright thanks
btw the "set itself has this property, and intersection of subsets with this property have this property" thing happens a lot
and whenever that happens you always have this notion of a "smallest thing with this property that contains S"
the proof in the book was a bit too efficient for me to grasp lol hence the elaborate solution
hmm, thankfully i was somewhat familiar with a similar idea regarding sigma algebras otherwise i was a goner
indeed sigma algebras also have this property 
This can be made rigorous with some logic stuff iirc
I mean it's all small checks you could add details too if you wanted
huh?
Wdym
what is timo referring to?
if J is upwards-directed, and J -F-> Top is a functor, then there is a canonical map lim F -> ∏_{j∈J}F(j). is this always an embedding?
I mean the map exists in the case when J is discrete
But I don't think it's true generally
hm thinking about it now I'm maybe starting to doubt myself
but let me think about it
i don't even know if it has to do with directedness
I believe in Top it means subspace
In general when products exists the limit is an equilizer between such products. So in Top it should be a subspace of the product yes. Don't think you need upwards directed anywhere.
it's monic
in top, it's a subspace
yes it's an embedding
wait what
sorry lol i know that was confusing
embed [0, 1) into R^2 via t ↦ e^{2πit}
ok i thought you were talking about the limit of a categorical diagram
oh, does that imply embedding
yes
can't we construct the limit explicitly as a subspace of the product?
but idk if the topology there is the one that's induced
oh wait it is
something about equalizers
Yeah I mean explicitly here we have $S \subseteq \prod_{j \in J} X_j$ the set of sequence $(x_j){j \in J} \in \prod{j \in J}X_j$ coherent in the obvious sense and then any collection of maps into the $X_j$ induces a unique map into $\prod_{j \in J}X_j$, which lands in (corestricts to) $S$ if that collection of maps is `coherent'
potato
what's S
This defines S
And I'm showing that it is the limit of the functor you were talking about
Oh I mean sequences compatible with all the maps between the X_j
oh
I mean really I'm taking a standard construction of the limit in Set
and saying that it still has the desired universal property in Top if we view it as a subspace of the product
alright i'm convinced
i wouldn't mind the abstract nonsense explanation either
oh thank you btw
yes
and all equalizers in top are subspace embeddings
When someone says the topology induced on $C([0,1],X)$ from $X$ what topology do they mean? The compact-open topology?
strugglinggeometer
Related question, what do continuous maps from $[0,1] \to C([0,1],X)$ look like?
strugglinggeometer
Yes
You can view a set function of that kind as a set function [0,1]² → X via currying. The former set function is continuous if and only if the latter is.
Thanks!
Are there any nice theorems about solutions of differential equations which have path homotopies between them?
Can't it also mean the weak topology?
I thought C(X, Y) always means compact open unless stated otherwise
Though "topology induced by X" could mean that, idk
Hi ! I am a physics student and I am seeking some help to understand two model derived from the Hopf fibration.
So, the Hopf fibration is a space of homotopically nontrivial mappings (maybe I need to explanation already here xD) of spheres (S^3 -> S^2).
From this, we've build 1 model defined by an Hamilonian (see first picture)
The second model is similar but the two complex numbers z_up and z_down are changed as : z↑ = cos(kx)+isin(kx)sin(ky), z↓ = sin(kx)sin(kz )+i(−cos(2kx)+cos(ky)+cos(kz )−5/2).
In the article that describes this new model says : "This Hamiltonian resembles the ones introduced in [12] and [13] for one half of the Brillouin zone (k1 ≤ 0) with its point-reflected partner on the other half (k1 ≥ 0). An associated Pontryagin manifold of its ground state is shown in Fig. 4. Although the ground state map is not constant on the subtorus defined by k1 = 0, the figure shows that the Chern number of its restriction vanishes (the preimage for k1 = 0 is the empty set)"
And I think I really don't get that... I can provide the article in DM if needed 😄
The Hopf fibration isn't a space, it's a map of spaces
Thank you for this clarification 😄
Is the orientable two-sheeted covering of a manifold M unique up to homeomorphism?
Yes, even up to covering isomorphism, as it is given by a universal property
But note it's not necessarily the only non-trivial 2-fold covering
there are 2 possible semidirect products of the space of 2 points and the circle.
What is a semidirect product of spaces?
S1⋉2 has 2 solutions,
S1⋉2 = 2S1
S1⋉2 = S1
I don't know
I'm coming from group theory
Also S1⋉S1 has 2 solutions as well.
S1⋉S1 = S1^2
S1⋉S1 = Klein bottle
Pretty sure it's a fiber bundle
But I don't know the formal deffinition of a fiber bundle
Can you help?
Question from hatcher:
For every reflection A and B doesn't there exist a rotation R such that AR=B?
And since rotations have deg $1$ they are homotopic to id and so $A=A\circ id \sim AR=B$
kaehler
well a double reflection isn't a reflection
Weird question: the statement that a space is simply connected basically means that we can assign to each loop in the space some homotopy contracting the loop to a point. If we can do this, must there exist a continuous such assignment of homotopies to loops?
It's spooky to think that there might be a space that say, ZFC proves is simply connected, but where the homotopies contracting the loops aren't computable or something, and so the choices perhaps can't be made continuously.
At least if you work with pointed spaces I guess the answer should be no. Since if I'm interpreting you correctly that would mean the loop space is contractible, which is not true in general.
Guess it's less restrictive if you consider free loop spaces, but my guess you still be no.
Hmm, my guess is no as well, but I'm a little surprised about the loop space becoming contractible... How do we see that?
You could get a continuous map from the loop space to the original space by taking the centres of contraction of the homotopies that are assigned to each loop...
But those are allowed to move around the original space, so long as they do so in a way which is continuous in the choice of loop
For pointed spaces, the base point should always remain fixed. So each loop would be contracting to the base point. So it is a bit more restrictive
Oh, right, I didn't think about the pointedness properly
Hmm
Actually if you have a handy example of a pointed simply connected space whose (pointed) loop space isn't contractible, that would be interesting.
S^2
In general $\pi_k(\Omega X) = \pi_{k+1}(X)$, so if the homotopy groups of $X$ doesnt vanish, then neitehr does those of the loop space
jagr2808
Ah, good
Okay
(and, thinking about that example at a lower level, while you could get a continuous choice of homotopies for all the paths that don't go through the antipode of the base point for instance, it wouldn't have a continuous extension to those which do - there's no continuous way to make choices about which way around the sphere you'll pull the circle of great circles.)
Hi guys, I am rather confused on this problem
Specifically, on 3(f)
I do not understand what is meant by writing reals numbers as a union of non empty, disjoint open sets in S
Am I kind of "retro" contructing the reals? By first defining equivalence classes, then showing that its a field by defining the usual operations on the non-empty disjoing open sets in S?
it means writing the set R as such a union
Oh wow
the reals exist, but there’s a lot of ways to group them into sets
Thanks! I think this is easy, just take (-infty, a) U [a, infty) for any real number a
Both are open in S, both are nonempty and aredisjoint
thanks, btw
Let X be the set of positive integers regarded as points on the x-axis in R^2; let C'X denote the subspace of R^2 obtained by joining each (n,0) in X to (0,1) with a line segment. There is a continuous bijection from CX to C'X, but not a homeomorphism
Man, I get why this is true, but I hate this
what is CX?
Cone over X (XxI/Xx{1})
o
you mean (1/n, 0)?
I mean (n,0)
oh okay
Been reading through these notes on the stable homotopy category: https://people.math.binghamton.edu/malkiewich/stable.pdf
Can someone explain what the constructions these two bullet points are suggesting are?
wait
were you asking
I read those lol, I’m asking what the E*-algebra structure on E*(X) is
Np lol
(E* is shorthand for the coefficient ring pi_*(E) = [S,E]_*)
I don’t see how to show ~E_*(Y) is a graded E*-algebra, and I don’t understand what the sentence “in particular, E*(X) is a graded E*-algebra” means (does it mean X is a space, not a spectra here?)
Furthermore how do I see that E*X is skew-commutative, using only the axiomatic construction of the stable homotopy category given in the notes up until this point?
Given by the map X -> pt
Ahh thanks
Wait ye that was OK ig
That makes sense
Ok two questions:
- I understand given an unbased CW complex X and a ring spectra E we have a natural map
E*=E*(pt) —> E*(X)
induced by the map X —> pt. Explicitly though, what are the graded ring structures on E*(pt) and E*(X), and how do we know the arrow E* —> E*(X) is a morphism of graded rings and not just graded abelian groups?
Here’s my attempt at constructing the graded ring structure on E*(X), if you could tell me if it’s right: Let p,q >= 0, we want a bilinear map
E^p(X) x E^q(X) —> E^{p+q}(X).
Unraveling definitions, we want a map
[Σ∞X+,E]_{-p} x [Σ∞X+,E]_{-q} —> [Σ∞X+,E]_{-p-q}.
I can define a composition
[Σ∞X+,E]_{-p} x [Σ∞X+,E]_{-q} —> [Σ∞X+ ∧ Σ∞X+, E ∧ E]_{-p-q} —> [Σ∞X+ ∧ Σ∞X+, E]_{-p-q} —> [Σ∞X+,E]_{-p-q}
where the first arrow is induced by the monoidal (smash) product, the second arrow is induced by post-composition with the product E ∧ E —> E, and the last arrow is induced by a diagonal map
Σ∞X+ —> Σ∞X+ ∧ Σ∞X+
But I’m not sure about this since
a) is this composition actually bilinear? (in particular, does the smash product give an additive monoidal product on hoSpectra), and
b) does my supposed diagonal map necessarily exist, given the axiomatic construction of hoSpectra in those notes so far?
- In Adams blue book in the construction of the ASS, it asks for a ring spectrum E and a spectrum Y such that “E_*(Y) is a projective pi_*E module”. How does the (unreduced) homology theory obtain an E*-module structure?
I have a question about the usefulness of generalizing metric spaces to topological spaces... What type of topology is useful somewhere else in math, which is not the standard topology of a metric space?
there are more than I could count lol
there's the product topology, the weak topology, the compact open topology, the cofinite topology the profinite topology etc.
all of these are extremely useful in their field of math
Maybe you could briefly explain one?
For example many topological spaces occuring in algebra won't come from metrics I guess
Because when I think of topology I think of distances so it's not at all intuitive to me
Zariski topology my beloved
Topology is very far separated from distances
metric spaces are probably the most ideal possible topological space you could have
so they're not very representative
Topological spaces are interesting spaces in their own right to many people and not having to carry around a metric gives a lot of freedom
Like, even when you're working with metric spaces, you often (presumably usually?) care about spaces merely being homeomorphic rather than isometric
And widening your scope to topological spaces allows you to do more constructions - as a small, example you can view a circle as just a closed interval with the endpoints stuck to one another. You wouldn't really be able to write that down as a metric space in the same way
neighborhoods
like take the product topology \
Here we put a topology on the product of topological spaces $\prod_{\alpha \in A} X_\alpha$\
Now this product has a map ($\pi_\alpha: \prod_{\alpha\in A}X_\alpha \to X_\alpha$) that projects the product down to individual factors\
now the product topology on this new space is the topology consisting of unions of finite intersections of sets of the form $\pi^{-1}\alpha(U)$\ with $U \subset X\alpha$ open in $X_\alpha$
ironyincarnate
essentially this is the coarsest topology such that the projection maps are all continuous
i think even if you only work with metric spaces it can be easier to prove results using properties of open sets rather than metrics
Ok yeah this is interesting I see why you'd use that
The infinite product of intervals is called the Hilbert cube because it was originally discovered inside Hilbert space. [0,1]x[0,1/2]x[0,1/3]x…
So it is a metric space. But you want to talk about it topological properties like compactness and the categorical property of being a product
Would you say that in general useful topological spaces codify the concept of closeness (by closeness I mean two points being close together) or are there other useful topological spaces that codify some other structure?
you can also define nets in topological spaces
which are analogous to sequences but have some neat properties which dont have analogous constructions in a metric space
e.g. universal nets (i think)
Yes, basically a topology endows a set with the notion of "neighborhoods" so that, in particular, it becomes meaningful to assign information that is "local" (through sheaves, essentially)
So for instance the topology of sets of the form (a,inf) what kind of structure induces?
Or is it just some pathological topology derived from the generality of the concept of a topological space?
What do you mean by (a,inf)?
how is that pathological
Since open sets need to be closed under finite intersections, one can obtain the open balls (a,b) from (a,inf) \cap (b,inf), so in the end it's the same topology as the one induced by the metric
uh
What I mean is that it doesn't correspond to the concept of closeness one is used to
yea well there are metrics you can put on R that also don't "correspond to the concept of closeness one is used to"
So I was wondering why it would be useful apart from being a curiosity
Yeah but that is just kind of redefining which things are close to one-another
But the concept of closeness is the same in a sense
The whole subject of Algebraic Geometry relies on a kind of topology (Zariski topology) that cannot be obtained as the topology defined by a metric
Even if all we had were metric spaces, homeomorphisms between them are obviously important -- and it's natural to attempt to pin down exactly which structure it is that homeomorphisms preserve. Clearly they don't preserve distances. But once it turns out they do exactly preserve open sets (or closed sets, or interior/closure operators, or neighborhood filters), it's not a large step to wish to characterize stuff in terms of systems of open sets (etc) rather than in terms of distances, so one can be sure the stuff in question is preserved by homeomorphisms. For that one needs some axioms to start reasoning from, and pretty soon we're building a theory of topological spaces. The fact that it's not obvious how metric-space-like the axioms should be is evidenced by the plethora of different separation axioms that sometimes and sometimes not need to be assumed.
I can give some applied examples of non-metrizable topologies which are extremely useful, if you're still interested. Theoretical computer science is filled with them. But it also seems like your question has been answered
I'm having a hard time proving the product of two closures is closed in the bigger space
A subset X
B subset Y
I want to show that
cl(A) x cl(B)
is a closed set in space X x Y.
Clearly, cl(A) is closed in X by definition, and cl(B) is closed in Y by def..... So it makes sense that their product is closed. I'm sure I'm forgetting something obvious, but I'm at a loss on how to prove it...
show that its complement is open? idk
a natural question would be "is the product of the closures the closure of the product?"
I'm actually working on a sub-problem of proving this
gotcha!
For any sets A \subset X and B \subset Y you can write (A x B)^c = (A^c x Y) \union (X x B^c). If A and B are both closed, then this is the union of two open sets so (A x B)^c would be open.
and closures are closed obviously
that's what i was hinting at
^c denotes compliments?
yah
(X x Y) - (A x B) =
((X - A) x Y) U (X x (Y - B))
(X - A) is open if A is closed
(Y - B) is open if B is closed
A and B are closed
So the union is open
Since (X x Y) - (A x B) is open,
(A x B) is closed

