#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 34 of 1
"let p_0, ..., p_n, q in P^n such that no n + 1 points lie within a hyper plane" mean
It is the wrong channel
It means let p_0, ..., p_n, q in P^n are points such that no n + 1 points lie within a hyper plane
I'm scared of being yelled at in that channel 
asked in #groups-rings-fields
Why do you think that?
I’m not saying you need to do the opposite, but why not?
X is topological space, A is subset of it. closA = A U A', where A' is the set of all limit points. Can anyone give me an example where the closA!=A'? I know the proof for the earlier statement relies on considering elements not in A that are in closA but idk how to come up with a example for the A' only being a subset of closA.
perfect sets, for example Cantor's tertiary set is one of these
it is a closed set in which all of its points are limit points
(and a lot of another unintuitive properties)
but isnt this closA=A'?
Im asking for closA!=A'
[0, 1] \cup {2} is an example. 2 is not a limit point, despite being in the closure
oh, I didn't notice the !, never saw this notation
Ah ok thanks, so kind of exploiting the fact that neighbouhoods must contain points other than the limit point
are there any other ways to exploit things to come up with such example?
but ig that is the fundamental difference
cuz im lookin at another thing and it says if every neighbourhood contining x intersects A iff x in closA
so if that detail isn't there its exactly the same
So no ideas?
Hey guys, new here so hope this isn't the wrong channel... Have a question...
Are there hilbert space filling surfaces (2D) / volumes (3D) / (N-D)?
If I understand correctly Hilbert space filling curves only map N dimensions to 1.
However, I'm looking for a similar concept, that maps N dimensions to X dimensions. (My choice of how many).
And ideally has the same nice properties as Hilbert space filling curves (good locality preservation).
Is there some generalization of Hilbert space filling curves?
This would give greater granularity over the traversal of the state space / degrees of freedom / dimensions.
It would allow compression of 100 dimensions down to 50, or 25, etc.
Why am I interested in this?
I want to create a tool to allow me to traverse the state space of all possible "sounds" continuously, but with the chosen level of granularity. I want to choose the level of compression.
So 44,100 dimensions -> 20,000 dimensions -> 5,000 dimensions -> 1,000 dimensions -> 500 dimensions -> 100 dimensions -> 50 dimensions (this is where I might start to add some knobs to control the output) -> 25 dimensions -> And so on.
Why no data?
I don't want to use an autoencoder, nor "bias" the state space. I'm not looking to traverse the state space of all sounds in my dataset. I'm looking to traverse the entire state space of all possible sounds.
Hello I'm trying to prove that every subspace S of a second countable space X is also second countable. So the basis for X is just $\beta = {B_n : n\in\mathbb{N}}$. Is it sufficient to create a basis $\beta_S = {S\cap B_n : B_n\in\beta}$ because $B_n$ is already countable by definition?
b3s4d
Well, knowing there exists a bijection/ surjection from N to our original basis, can you construct a bijection/surjection to beta_s ?@willow viper
o_o
What’s that mean? Confusion or did I say something wrong.
Well just surjective
Because what if your basis is finite
Unless by countable you also mean infinite
You mean infinite or finite countable right?
But whatever you mean, surjection will cover it
Yea I believe that second countable means finite countable
it can be finite or infinite
Oh
Your definition of beta allows for infinite.
Yes
how
A fun lemma is to show surjection from N to a set X implies a bijection from a subset of N to X
Have you proven surjection before?
well
Well what
wait I'm thinking xD
If you’ve proven a function is surjective before you have all of the tools you need to prove your original problem
Just drop the 2
Define a new function with a smaller domain
You have all the power
You can do what you want as long as it makes sense
Oh right
that's why S -> N injective also implies bijective because I can just drop the last numbers
Ok wait
I might get it now
nope
Like I get that S \cap B_n is a subset of {B_n}_n\inN right
Construct your function from N to beta_s
I just said that N -> \beta_s, n \to S \cap B_n
That is true
And I tried to rewrite it but I don't know how
Yeah so you have your function f
Show it is surjective
Use your original surjection in defining your new one
If we have g:N -> beta, then we make f:N -> beta_s with f(n) = g(n) cap S
So show f is a surjection
Well there exists B in beta such that B cap S = A
Np
So in reality it's not a surjection to N but to \beta which is a subset of N so this works right?
or not subset that's stupid but has a lesser cardinality
We have a surjection f:N to beta_s
I don’t quite understand
If you are saying a surjection from beta to beta_s
Then that is another way of proving it
Ok
The answer I gave before wasn’t the end of the proof
This one
We know that we can find an n such that g(n) = B
By surjectivity of g
But then f(n) = g(n) cap S = B cap S = A
Thus for any A in beta_s we can find an n such that f(n) = A
You know what, you could do it that way too
A surjection from beta to beta_s
That’s less complicated actually
right
so for all A in beta_s exists B in beta with B cap S = A. So f(beta) = \beta??
Why is it defined as the sum instead of just picking one lift?
hi! could you screenshot the entire page if possible?
It's from hatcher; appendix chapter 3.
Just wondering why did they define it this way; is it not well-defined if we just pick one lift ?
okay so
i mean im going off definition, but like isn't it supposed measure the extent to which elements of a subgroup H of a group G can be conjugated by elements of G?
also from stackexchange, it's defined as a sum of certain conjugates of element H
I guess you're talking about the general case of transfer homomorphisms. I am just talking about this case of maps on induced on homology. Is there a specific reason why we take the sum of the lifts instead of pick a single lift? If we pick a single lift, does that induce a map on homology groups or not?
I'm so sorry, that's as far as my knowledge goes 🥲
mb
I'm not great at topology, but I think what is happening here is that a single lift of a our map may not induce enought of a well-defined map. This is because there could be multiple lifts of the same map that differ by just a continuous homotopy, and these different lifts could induce different maps.
I don't really have a mental picture of what is described however, so I don't know how useful this information is.
I think by unique lifting property, once you fix a point in the fiber, the lift is unique
Right, ok, I see that now rereading how the problem defines the homomorphisms that take place. I suppose, then, that I am wondering all the same questions as you.
My apologies for not being able to help you get through this problem. Very best of luck on it!
yeah it's fine. Thanks
Hi, not sure if it belongs better here or in #diff-geo-diff-top, but would anyone happen to have questions on sheaf theory? I'm taking a course on it this year, and it's the first year running, and the lecturer doesn't provide questions on it, so I'm pretty much a week away from the exam without practice questions. Would appreciate any help.
honestly the best place for that is probably #algebraic-geometry
Alright, I'll post there too, thanks 🙂
hey guys, regarding R with the cofinite topology, which sets are open? Is it only the infinite sets, the empty set and R?
hello. Can someone explain why the last element in H^n = {(x1,...,xn) \in R^n : x_n >= 0} must be greater zero?
that's definition
that's the prototype for manifolds with boundary, you could've taken any coordinate to he ≥0 or ≤0 and the end result will be the same as they're homeomorphic (diffeomorphic)
Ah ok, but it must be ≥ 0 or ≤ 0 so that...?
= c for your favourite real number
And c is then kind of the boundary?
where all elements above c are interior points?
Yes
But why is H^0 = R^0 = {0}?
Expand the definition
^
Oh so I don't put n = 0 into that definition but make a new one
I don't really understand this picture
The yellow part is the interior, the green part is the boundary
The pink part is a coordinate, and the whole space is defined by that coordinate being \geq 0
try drawing it out for R1, R2, and R3
in R2, instead of (x,y), write (x_1, x_2)
in R3, instead of (x,y,z), write (x_1, x_2, x_3)
as topos said, you'll notice that the last coordinate being \geq 0 defines the half space
Ooh ok so x^n >= 0 is just an axis in the coordinate system
if you think of x_n as an axis, then x_n \geq 0 is an inequality
ie, the space “above” the x_n axis
Ok I understand
Hello I'm trying to prove that "Suppose M is an n-dimensional manifold with boundary. Show that ∂M is an (n−1)-manifold (without boundary) when endowed with the subspace topology. You may use without proof the fact that Int M and ∂M are disjoint." Do I need to prove that φ: U ⊆ ∂M^(n-1) -> V ⊆ H^(n-1) is a homeomorphism so if φ bijective, continuous?
Wait does V ⊆ H^(n-2) then??
It can’t be
You also can’t say your chart goes from boundaryM^(n-1) since you’re trying to prove that the dimension is n-1 in the first place
Did you already show that it’s Hausdorff & second-countable?
Try those first then save finding a chart for last
well I just said that since ∂M is a subspace it has those 2 properties in the first place
Yes
Yes
So I don't need to find a phi?
You do, that’s part of the condition for a top space to be a manifold
Ok
So I can't assume that φ looks like φ: U ⊆ ∂M^(n-1) -> ∂H^(n-1)?
I misread the question lol don’t mind me, I think you can yes
In general you have to give what your definition of a manifold with boundary is
For some definitions this is pretty trivial
that the manifold with boundary is locally euclidean to a subspace of Rn
Okay but what do you mean by subspace?
Like a vector subspace?
Like an open subset
So an open ball or the whole Rn, ... I believe
Yes but that isn't true at the boundary
what you just said is a definition of a manifold
ah wait
But since your manifold has boundary you have to give a different sort of chart near the boundary
you're right the whole time I've worked with the manifold property
So, every p has a nbhd. U homeomorphic to an open subset of R^n or to an open subset of H^n
So the only thing changing really is that it's not an open set but a neighbourhood right
Yeah now it's a specific type of closed set
Doesn’t this amount to showing bd(H^n) is homeomorphic to R^(n-1)
Yes basically!
You want to show that under every chart the boundary bd(M) maps to the R^{n-1} inside of H^n
so essentially that homeomorphisms take boundaries to boundaries
Hmm
Is it something like
Take a nbhd of bd(M)
Then by defn there’s a chart phi: U —> bd(H^n) s.t phi(U) cap bd(H^n) is not empty
Agh I gotta pick up my sister brb
So take a nbhd in this intscn
Then by defn of bd(H^n), the x^nth component of any pt in this intersection is 0

can u pls explain what u mean by that
does this mean that bd(H^n) = bd(M^n)?
So it’s got (n-1) nonzero components
Can projection maps take multiple components?
Because if so then can’t you just take the projection of the first (n-1) components into R^(n-1)
ok definitely not xD
Ok I get it now. phi: U ⊆ bd(M^n) -> V ⊆ R^n-1 or bd(H^n). So then R^{n-1} is homeomorphism to bd(H^n)
Issue is you have to find a homeomorphism to call it homeomorphic LOL
But I think the projection works
So we have a boundary pt (x1, x2, …, xn) of M, by defn that means it’s in bd(H^n), which means it gets mapped to (x1, x2, …, 0), then we can just take the projection of the first (n-1) components onto R^(n-1)
it’s injective surjective cntns ggez no?
I'm so lost
I don’t know if I’m right or not lol, but if you still want I can try to answer any questions you have
I'm so lost I don't even know what to ask XD

oh no a league player
Okay so the idea is we need to show that any nbhd in the bd of your manifold is homeomorphic to R^(n-1)
Well if we have a pt in our manifold bd
yea I take a point in bd(M) and get a boundary chart (U, phi)
Then by defn there’s a chart on a neighborhood U containing that pt so that phi(U) intsct bd(H^n) is nonempty
yea
So take any point in that intersection
Well by definition of bd(H^n)
The pt looks like (x1, x2, …, 0)
So it’s got (n-1) nonzero components and the nth component is 0
So I was thinking we can take the projection of the first (n-1) components, which goes to R^(n-1)
It’s injective since for two points in R^(n-1) to be the same ALL their components have to be the same, so if f(x) = f(y) then all the nonzero components have to be the same, which makes them the same point in bd(H^n) since the last component is 0
It’s surjective since given a pt in R^(n-1) we can always find a pt in bd(H^n) that maps to it as the same first (n-1) components and a 0 nth component
And I’m p sure the inverse is cntns in the subspace topology?
neighbourhoods are always open?
Yes a chart maps open neighborhoods
Ok
Why is the letter F always used for closed sets?
the french word for "closed" is "ferme"
ahh ty
fermé
e.g. "F_\sigma" is "fermé somme" or "closed union"
that's where i learned it
TIL second-countable <=> separable in a metric space, this makes total sense idk why I never thought about it
Also Lindelöf's theorem is nice
there are lots of different versions/definitions of spectra. Is it sufficient for most purposes to understand what a \Omega-spectrum is?
If X\A is contained in X\Int A, then Cl(X\A) is also contained in X\Int A ?
X \ int(A) is a closed set containing X \ A and Cl(X \ A) is the smallest closed set containing X \ A, so...
Yes I was thinking same, ty
ooooh alexander's subbase theorem is cool
ok I realized the answer might be no
probably no
only fibrant spectra correspond to \Omega-spectra
and some important spectra like Thom Spectra aren't
hello, let A subseteq B subseteq X. If A is dense in X then cl(A) = X. Why is cl(A) = B \cap cl(A)?
closure of A in the subspace topology of B
The set { [a,b) : a,b belongs to Q } doesn't generate the lower limit topology right ? Since interval like [0,1) which have irrational end point not part of it
i feel like [0, 1) has rational end points
Really ? I thought if we are excluding the 1 then it can be done like that
How else should I try to show that it isn't generating Rl
You could show that [pi,4) is not open in the topology generated by your set.
You can write S^1 as a union of S^1 and (0, 1/2) to show that \pi_1(S^1) = \pi_1(S^1)
uhhh
You could do a wedge of circles.
typo maybe?
That's pretty classic
no it was a joke

scary word nope
But yeah a wedge of circles is good
Or like R with a circle attached at every integer
oh i remember this one
it's a covering space of something no
it's a cover of the wedge of two circles
right right
Klein bottle
identify circles with one S1 and the lines connecting them to the other S1
same question but for mayer vietoris
like what are good examples to practice on
the same examples work
Why not calculate the fundamental group and homology of every surface
yeah figures
i'll probably do this shortly
CW complexes!
Those are always neat
actually on a related note to that
Why tf did i get danned
can i get a hint on this pls
Just because a space is CW doesn't make it a good example of SvK.
i barely get cellular homology
Have you tried writing down the cullular chain complex for this space?
Dw, you're not alone
Hint: what are the attaching maps for the 1 and 2-cells
Also writing out the cellular chain complex shouldn't be hard
Just count each cell
ok i need to review my basics than bc idk some of these words tbh
like i do but not enough to do the problem
can i do this for a bit 
what are these maps
i have another problem i'll do on my own but would appreciate guidance on this one 
You know those aba^{-1}b^{-1} relations when talking about the attaching maps for the torus
That's what I mean here
ive got a question to this proof of showing that if X is regular and A closed, then X/A is Hausdorff:
i dont rlly get the point of A having to be closed
for the first case: can't you separate x and y either way? you know that any subspace of a hausdorff space is hausdorff, so X \ A is Hausdorff, you also have that x and y are in X \ A, so separate them with two open disjoint neighborhoods
but i never used the fact that A is closed, no?
or what am i not understanding correctly
You did
Second paragraph
How about [0,1]/(0,1]
where exactly
End of second line
sorry, could you say which part exactly
"separate them with two open disjoint neighborhoods"?
no 0 cells?
maybe im overcomplicating this but how do you thinnk about cells
Cells are lines and disks
but isnt that just the property of X\A being Hausdorff?
Is this Hausdroff?
fair enough yeah
im not looking for a counterexample, ik, there's a problem with my argument, but idk where exactly
Ok so
Oh okay
Ok but tell me in English what that means
Regular means there are open neighborhoods that do what
Great
And by your definition also the open nbhds can separate disjoint points
yeah
So you can take two disjoint open nbhds
Such that one contains x and the other y
And guarantee by T3 that they're also disjoint from A
(this guarantee comes from the fact that A is closed)
A becomes a point in X/A, it’s the quotient topology not set minus. How would you separate [A] now a point in X/A with another point of X?
Let's assume that A is open
And take x to be a limit point of A not in A
Here there doesn't exist an open nbhd of x that is disjoint from A
are we not considering A to be a subset of X in this case?
Where? X/A?
okay, so my problem is
they are choosing open neighboorhoods in X
not in the quotient
What’s the connection between open sets of X and X/A
im guessing open sets in X/A correspond to open sets in X that contain A
No
oh
or
yikes
for the quotient map q : X -> X/A
U in X/A is open iff q^{-1}(U) is open
Hm
ok so there are three groups sin the chain
last of which is trivial
one disc (the filled in interior) means one generator
how do we get homology from there
yeah so you have Z \to Z^4 \to Z^2 \to 0
no?
It means yes
Z for the disc in the interior but why Z^4 and Z^2
oh is Z/4 for the four total edges identified
those aren't quotients...
lol yeah ok
you take one Z for each cell
so you have 4 1-cells
so that term is Z^4
but yeah Z^4 for the four lines being identified
and the two lines with no identification is Z^2?
no
OK lol
Let's learn the basics of cellular homology
Take some CW complex
finite
the idea is that
you count how many cells you have
in each dimension
in your case
you have one 2-cell
repost to make it easier
so that means one generator of H_2(X_2, X_1)
oh you find homology doing the normal ker/im stuff
but are there four 1-cells or six
4
then what's Z^2
how many 0-cells are there
0-cells are the ends of the lines
you can see those little dots in the corners of your shape in the image you sent
oh those are dots 
yea
i thought we got that from the identifications too
we do
But you still need to see how the identification identifies them
start labeling
:3
I already told you the answer (2) but I want you to learn how to count :P
(sry if I'm being too jokey I'll stop if it's annoying)
lol yeah np
since I'm not in uni till October I need stuff to do lol
i invite you to take my final tm
lmaooo
I already took a final from this stuff lol I don't need a round 2
going back to it i dont see the two points
OK
Same uni?
don't try to do it in ur head
It's harder than it seems
Rather draw it on paper
Cool
is this like a cut n paste thing then tho
OK OK
where were we at I went to the toilet
Oh yeah learning how to count
on the LHS there are three points
call the one on the bottom like p or something
now
Which other points are also p
ok the beginning of each line b is obviously the same point
same with the line a
the unidentified edges are what idk
they don't get identified
ok ok cool
What abt the end point
yeessss
the three vertices involved in b are the same
but then that's also identified with the one starting at a
i can count 
so now do you see how we have the complex 0 -> Z -> Z^4 -> Z^2 -> 0
like the number of cells gives us a skeleton
ye
But idk if it's really helpful
You can certainly try to draw it lol
ok so I usually start from the back
since im = 0 there
so we can get the homology semi easily
ok brb i'll ping in a sec 
thank you sm for the help
oh you meant like
0 -> Z
whoops 
yes
yeah so remember that $H_n(X) = \frac{\mathrm{ker}(d_n)}{\mathrm{im}(d_{n+1})}$
actually hold up
Irony Incarnate
ok the map Z -> Z^4 takes the generator of Z to (1,1,1,1) right
here we label our maps as $0 \xrightarrow{} \mathbb{Z} \xrightarrow{d_2} \mathbb{Z}^4 \xrightarrow{d_1} \mathbb{Z}^2 \xrightarrow{} 0$
Irony Incarnate
nope
Cellular homology is more complicated
formally this is how the map is defined
in practice
you learn how to use it lol
yeah that's 
Joking
the important part is that attaching maps bit
the quotient map and degree stuff comes into play if we have like 3-cells and stuff then you have to worry about orientation
but here
your attaching map is like
acadb^2
oh so it depends on the diagram whoops
abelianizing
we get
2a+2b+c+d
so the map is
1 -> (2,2,1,1)
and you can see that this is clearly injective
so ker = 0
and so H_2 = 0
it's ok this is usually the hard part
ok homology is affected because the boundary chain complex are given by different attaching maps
why do you include c if it has no identification
hm
oh i guess because it's still a cell
I mean it's still attached to that cell
yeah
so the map Z -> Z4 corresponds to the attachment of the 1 cells to the 2 cell right
also i meant no orientation
yes
uhhh see
I guessed the orientation lmao
Tbh it says filled in?
Otherwise idk lmao
wdym
tbh
I'm unsure what's going on with those two lines
because they don't give an orientation
but orientation is very important
so tbh this problem is weirdly stated


Uhhh yeah so idk what to say lol
Let's just continue the way we started idk
#diff-geo-diff-top maybee
That thing came before GR, wdym modifed for a specific theory, lmao
And yes, #diff-geo-diff-top
ook well i think the map you proposed earlier was right irony
@odd flame what was your problem again?
trying to understand the boundary maps of the cellular chain complex
the chain being Z -> Z^4 -> Z^2
why monke
yeah
Personally I view it mainly as the attaching map which is not totally correct but it works for this case
uhhh ok so
feel like it should be
1 → (2, 2, 1, 1) →
the case for higher cells is more complicated
aah
how come
I mean that's what we got
first map is easy
the second map is
(1,0,0,0) -> (1,-1)
(0,1,0,0) -> (0,0)
(0,0,1,0) -> (-1,1)
(0,0,0,1) -> (-1,1)
could you do this the other way too
like start with the 0 cells and see what it's like to attach the 1 cells to that
dinner break i'll be back in a bit 
Can someone please explain this to me simply i am losing my mind
@nimble portal your turn to shine
Why are you double counting the image of a?
Uh
Lol
Do you know what a cover is?
2 a
There is just 1 a
"K is said to be compact if every open cover of K has a finite subcover"
it's literally shorter and clearer in words. who tf wrote this
cellular homology is fun theory not in practice 

This is why ppl only use simplicial in TDA 
If X is a top. Space the cover is the subsets of X whose union is the entirety of X?
the definition of an open cover is given to you in the screenshot, by the way
A* cover
Sniped
Oh lol
how are you going about calculating this though
I visualize it with balls
i dont see how it follows from just "attaching maps"
visualize deez fucking nuts bozo
first thing came to mind
Look, the student has become the master
why do you sum up two a's?
And find a finite subcover (so a finite cover inside the larger open cover)
they're the same 1-cell
he corrected it
Then our space is compact
orientation, for example a goes from x to y so map is y-x
ahh sry
*boundary
The idea is that we can use finitely many sets to cover our space, so our space is “finite” in a sense
we're talking abt Z^4 -> Z^2
fuck ok there are too many ppl again
Which is why we call it compact
Here, from Hausdorff measure, you're welcome
A good example is intervals in R
Calculating homology
The interval [2, 3] is “finite” compared to (-infty, infty) right?
Yes
Right
And (not) coincidentally, [2, 3] is compact whereas the other interval isn’t
Does that help a bit?
You can also think about it as generalizing the idea of a space being closed & bounded
((0,1) not compact tho)
wrong channel
Heine and Borel: 

@nimble portal congrats! welcome to the teachers' gang
I think it’s a lot easier to understand compactness when you see it used
Or rather seeing how it’s used
And what would change if something wasn’t compact (compared to how much nicer it is when things are compact)
I always maintain several definitions of closed sets in my mind
With sequences, with delta-epsilon, with open sets, etc.
It's easy to see how point-set topo makes sense once I have that picture in my head
A very good example to make use of this generalised definition of compactness is proof of Dini's theorem
Like, everything works almost magically because of this definition
Yeah compactness is goated
Compact Hausdroff is
Although, a French will put you on guillotine and call this quasi-compactness
or locally compact Hausdroffs are
The French are invalid 👍
Man I’m so burnt out from school I don’t want to study anything
Tomorrow’s my last day at least
me irl
It's good to keep in mind the need for Hausdorffness. It makes limits of sequence unique, and makes the sequential characterisation of closed sets (and compact sets? I'm not sure) that we know and love
as a non-french canadian, i must say...
LMFAO

You tell me, I have exam on numerical ODEs this Thursday

God bless you
nets>
Numerical ODEs? Is that just like Runge-Katta and similar?
im starting to read Allen Hatcher
Yeah, Adam-Bashforth, Moulton, Crank-Nielson, and all these mfs
My condolences

Do you think it's a bad start?
Doesn’t everyone love Hatcher’s book for alg top
it's my first book for alg top
Except for the “visual proofs”
I hate it with passion
He made no clear distinction between singular and cellular, and I was sooooo confused
VBKT one is good ngl
im already struck by the creativity of the "house with two rooms"
Plus, who starts with cellular? Bruh

skip
NO
not necessary
VBKT?
vector bundles and K theory
basic logic lol
I think you’d love to learn about Hilbert and his hotel ;3
so is spectral sequences, but you never read the proof
Tried reading it multiple time, remember all these defs, but never been able to use them
nah
house with two rooms >>
may I suggest you some references
Try the Chinese Room 
what the hell
is it a pagoda
Clearly not a CS folk 
the book way is indeed cumbersome
CS 
The Chinese room argument holds that a digital computer executing a program cannot have a "mind", "understanding", or "consciousness", regardless of how intelligently or human-like the program may make the computer behave. The argument was presented by philosopher John Searle in his paper "Minds, Brains, and Programs", published in Behavioral an...
Oh yes, please
I'm desperate and hopeless with homology and diff geo
should i learn at least the basics of category before alg top?
You don't need it, you'll pick it up along the way anyway
Although, do know what a product is 
And an example to distinguish product and co-product, you'll thank me later
First try reading the spectral sequence part from Ravi vakil's book on algebraic geometry, The rising sea. it'll make you familiar with basic working, i e for double complexes which is enough most of the time. You'll be able to prove universal coeff easily with that, even balancing tor and ext stuff
to get a pictorial understanding of what's happening, read 3blue1brown vlog on puzzling through spectral sequences, also given Ravi Vakil
First is enough for mostly all the cases because most of them arise from double complexes for example equivalence of De Rahm and Cech is just spectral sequence at play
There are some stuffs on exact couples which you can read later
One thing I struggle with is I don't know where to go after simplicial homology
the next step is trivially cellular, but no books discuss it well
Hatcher is just horrible
What should i take into my heart from Hatcher?
i mean
you guys have some experience with this book
The only thing I took from Hatcher was a simple explanation for Lefschetz's fixed-point theorem
Dieck maybe?
But apparently i'm an exception, almost everyone likes Hatcher for some reasons
Idk yeah I started liking Hatcher after a while
not really
it's useful as a guide
He doesn't explain stuff too well
But if you do problems you'll figure it out
Hatcher discusses cellular homology
except for hatcher who i should read then?
I'm also not a big fan
😭
Dieck good
very category theory heavy
I like hatcher
What do you know already?
general topology
how much algebra do you know?
hatcher is the best choice prolly
i studied till algebras over a field
same
Best to see the geometric picture before you deep dive into the categorical perspectives
In my opinion
Though both are important
tru
Hatcher likes his pictures
which is useful for going further
Do note that some of Hatcher's explanations aren't too good
So it's good to also use something else in conjunction
Spanier is also good I think, but very dense
i saw free groups too
I always recommend Nakahara for simplicial homology. He derives everything slowly and rigorously, breaks things down so that even a physics student can understand. He even starts with graph theory and Euler's characteristic for planar graphs first before going to Euler-Poincare theoren.
Spanier and May are both breakneck speed but good references
Like, I literally gave a 2-hour lecture on simplicial homology based on that book
yeah Nakahara simplicial section is nice
spaniee is too slow for me
May is God 
also notations 
even physics student
You read both books, and you can become a prof in AT
Bredon is good tho
Bredon is what my actual AT class used
Confirm this, first hand exp
homological alg I'm aware of
Try Hilton & Wylie
Took me a while to figure out the notations. 1960s folks are weird
*A First Course in Abstract Algebra (2000), *
too many books, I'm fine with bredon honestly
An Introduction to the Theory of Groups (1995),
i think i read the last one
too many things to keep in my brain
oh lol you meant sarcastically
Oh, I meant it literally
can i borrow another brain from mother nature plssss
I think some ppl got mad and they changed the norm for notations somewhere between 1960s and now
Lang 
rip
Who reads Bourbaki anyway, lmao
You know when you know something but you don't know where to refer exactly
a friend of mine leart it the hard way
So you find a random book that mentions the topic, give it a quick read to make sure it's correct, then add it to the reference
Wow, someone actually learned from Bourbaki?
how does one show (c)?
no
Am I tripping, or is a) Hann-Banach?
Literally extension of linear operator
is it?
^
My mind works very peculiarly
anyway, no clue how to do (c) lmao
take determinant as continuous map
but no clue how to show that it is equal on a dense subset
Hint: invertible matrices are dense
oh
Not sure if it helps
but that's the only thing making sense to me in this case
yeah
i completely forgot about dense subsets of R^n, i was thinking too much of R^n analytically
so i would have taken Q^n

ah it's a nice way to prove NGL 
All roads lead to Rome
do i fix B and consider the map to be in A
I guess just WLOG A and B to be both invertible, then play around with the formula
Looks like it's simple enough famous last word 
hahah
does this work for other fields
other than R
prob not right
F_2 surely is a counterexample
Euhm...
There's something to do with the characteristic of the field iirc
Fields of char 2 are particularly nasty when it comes to vector spaces and matrices
But I'm not sure
in GL(Finite field), any HD topology makes it discrete and any dense subset it the whole space itself so it's true
tf is a HD topology
Is there a 4k topology then 
hahah
High definition, meaning you can separate out each points individually
Why did I always think Grothendieck came up with cohomology?
Strange, TIL it's not true
Ah, he came up with Sheaf cohomology, predicted by Artin for Weil's conjectures, OK
Sheaf cohomology was introduced by Leray
What? 😄 Ok, something is very wrong with my memory
etale cohomology
what's the fundamental group of the connected sum of projective planes
i got it (a, ... a_n | a^2 ... a_n^2)
now i need to prove it kek
<a1,...,a_n | a_1^2... a_n^2>
actually i'll do T # T
You can do it by drawing the fundamental polygon for these shapes
nnaw got it do it the real way with SVKT
then MVT for homology
gotta practice
on a different note
is there any intuition for that retraction or should i just like
remember it
also on a different different note, what's the intuition behind reduced homology
Anyone happen to know the relationship between the homology groups of a space and one of its covering spaces?
Namely trying to show that if H_i is trivial for a covering space (not necessarily connected, I think) then H_i for the base space is annihilated by the number of sheets
Sounds like the transfer sequence would be useful. See pg 175 in Hatcher and section 3.G.
The reduced homology of a space is the same thing as relative homology with respect to a point. So the reduced homology can be interpreted as the homology that the point can "see." This explains why only 0 dim homology can be affected since points must "see" loops and such but can't "see" themselves which corresponds to killing off a factor of Z in the regular homology of the space.
L = (x,-x) x is real
Then subspace topology on L from Rl2 is the discrete topology
What will be the topology on L from Ru2
could you ask this in a more coherent way
for example: what is Rl2? What is Ru2?
is L just one point? Or is it all ordered pairs of the form (x,-x)? (i.e. the line y= -x)
It’s the line yes
You know the definition of subspace topology?
A topology induced from the given topology to its subset
Intersection ?
Can you write it down
I tried to do it like this ....bases in Rl2 is two sided closed, two sided open rectangle & intersect it with y=-x
I drew like this
Great, so now do the same with the euclidean topology
What you are calling the usual topology
Sure, this is equivalent to the usual euclidean topology
it should be noted that the usual base for the standard euclidean topology is given by open balls
Yes
How does your picture look now
Yes
Ah I see, the question was show that both of them generate same topology, so i was confused
Maybe it's a mistake
Could you post the question?
Are you sure $\bR^2_\bullet$ is the euclidean topology?
Migilonomy
No, i just assumed
I'm not familiar with ' . ' looked kind of like u , so tried with the usual topology
If the question is "correct" then we have demonstrated that it is not the usual topology
As your line (indeed, any line) with subspace topology from the standard euclidean topology on R^2 is equivalent to the standard euclidean topology on R
Which is certainly not the "same" as the discrete topology
maybe its the discrete topology?
If it's discrete topology, then basis are singleton sets, & intersection with the line is also singleton sets
Then gives discrete topology right ?
Maybe its that
🤷
I am trying to show that H_0(X) = Z for a path-connected X, but I'm stuck with one part of the proof. We know that H_0(X) = ker(∂_0)/im(∂_1) = C_0(X)/im(∂_1) and now if we define e : C_0(X) -> Z mapping the sum a_iσ_i to the sum of a_i's, then apparently ker(e) = im(∂_1). Could someone elaborate on why this equality should hold?
i think i understand this definition but im not sure when to put it into practice
omg ryu 
sebb might be able to help ^
The current time for stμ₂dying is 04:52 AM (EDT) on Wed, 10/05/2023.
reduce homology is much easier to compute because you don't have that annoying Z factor ar the 0'th place
MV sequence gets easier to deal
is there a good example to practice on
i was gonna redo pi1 and H groups of like
T # T
S1 v S1 stuff like that
can you show H_1(∨Sⁿ)= ⊕_n Z
It gets easier if you use reduced
actually super quick question
two things actually
what is that map v(x) it's phrased super weird
is it spanier?
massey
god who uses E^n for closed disx
yeah idk 
that map is given in hatcher nicely
of course it is
you join x to f(x) via a line and see where it intersects the boundary
im so glad we used massey and not hatcher 
map x to the point to the intersection point on the boundary
so it's like a projection onto the whole of S^n-1?
oh yeah it iis
no fixed point assumption so every point will create a line to a different point on the boundary
ok my second question: isn't the proposition that there is no retraction from D^n -> S^n-1 actually part of BFT
sorry?
hm silly question perhaps
ok that's it's own conclusion then got it 
at least one of the proofs
yeah i was practicing proof in dimensions \geq 2
you get no retraction from H(boundary) → H(D) → H(boundary) being indentity but middle being 0
you can maybe try this also, M be matrix with all positive entries, then it has an eigenvalue

say in dim 3 for simplicity
it's just BFT
if that sum is zero means you can always make a collection of path whose boundary is 0 chain you choose
think about why that should be
just realized i forgor the hureiwicz thm
how is the hairy ball theorem related to degree
ik it's kinda relate to brouwer too right
The hairy ball theorem can be proven by showing any nonvanishing vector field on any sphere leads to a homotopy between the antipodal map and the identity
Then degree theory allows you to show that is possible only on odd dimensional spheres
what about a connection to brouwer tho? is brouwer a corollary
for this problem is the right chain Z -> Z^3 -> Z^2?
im pretty sure it's a mobius strip
but im getting H2 = 0, H1 = 0, H0 = Z
doesn't look like Mobius
you can do a cut and paste
what do you get?
wdym
after cut paste
damn i had it on a chalkboard but i dont recall atm
im 99% confident in that it's a mobius strip though
visually at least
okay
but that doesnt agree with thiss does it?
Ye

So the first map is 1 -> (2,0,1)
yeah i got that 
Which is injective so H2=0
Also here you mean (0,0,1)
:3
is the process the same if there's a 3-cell in the skeleton?
Uh similar but there are a few caveats



