#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 12 of 1
I can't really tell what you mean through the letters 🙃 But to each edge in the cover you should label it either a or b corresponding to which edge it lies over in S1 v S1
I believe there should be three distinct covers in total
The whole plane will also be in your maximal totally ordered subset.
Hi guys, can someone tell me how can i show that the triangle inequality holds? For the second one its obvious but for the first one i dont know what i have to write down
By 'the first one', do you mean the case where x and y are multiples of one another?
That is just the standard triangle inequality
So i'm not sure what you mean
If you want to prove the triangle inequality for the given d function, it seems like you are missing some cases. Take three points x, y, and z in your space. You have first the two cases x = lambda*y or x != lambda * y. In the first case (x = lambda*y), you can then have either y = mu*z for some mu or no such mu exists, so you see that there are more cases.
Yeah, I have to Show that all thre equations hold if i understand the task corectly. In the last equation for the second case its true because d(x, y) < = d(x, y) + some constant is allways larger than the left side.
Can i say for the first case i subbtrac the same amount z as i add so the worst case would be |lambday-y|=|lambday-y|
Hey all, I'm having trouble with this problem from Willard about attaching spaces:
So far, I know that you can prove this by showing that the following is a homeomorphism:
The only problem is that it seems extremely messy to try to prove that h is continuous. You would have take an open ball in the subspace of S^1 and then you would have to take inverse images of them under multiple possible cases.
After you work out what the different preimages are in different cases, it you then have to work with open sets in decomposition spaces to decide whether the preimage is open or not.
I was wondering if there was a cleaner way to do this.
Another problem with doing it this way is that it's actually not easy to compute the preimage of an open ball in S^1 directly and exactly, even if you know intuitively what the preimages look like and that they're open.
I'm trying to show that the orthogonal group is closed in R^(n^2), that is, the set of AA^T \neq I open in R^(n^2)
Is someone online who could help me? A lot of literature assumes it's trivial, but I fail to see its apparent triviality
AA^T = I is a system of equations for continuous functions of the entries of A, so it defines a closed set.
So for example it is the preimage of the zero matrix under the map A to AA^T - I
Lol
Sniped ig
This
ohhh, thank you!!
both of you!
I've been looking at this exercise for some time now but I just can't figure out how the linear extension of phi to a map from S_1(X) is supposed to work. I'd like to understand that to be able to start the actual exercise. 😓
So S_1(X) should be the free abelian group on the simplices Delta^1 -> X
so if you specify where these basis elements should be sent into another abelian group, this automatically linearly extends to a map from S_1(X) into the other abelian group
this works just like for vector spaces
concretely, an element $\sum_{i=0}^n a_i \sigma_i$ will then be sent to $\sum_{i=0}^n a_i f(\sigma_i)$ where $f$ specifies where you send each 1-simplex
Phil
the a_i are just integer coefficients here
and every element in S_1(X) is of the form of such a linear combination of simplices
Ohh wait that's exactly what I tried to make sense of - but somehow I haven't seen so far how the right sum actually makes sense as an element of the abelianized fundamental group. 🤔
well its an abelian group
Like, the left sum can be an infinite formal linear combination, can't it?
Huh
in vector spaces you also only take finite linear combinations of vectors
unless you're doing functional analysis or smth
Wait, I thought free abelian group over some index set means each element corresponds to an assignment of some integer to each generator
so if you prefer to use the path concatenation notation we could send $2\sigma - \tau$ to $\phi(\sigma) * \phi(\sigma) * \overline{\phi(\tau)}$ where the overline is again the inverse path
Phil
just you're technically dealing with equivalences classes of homotopy classes of paths since you took the abelianization of pi_1, so we often just use +
yes, but only finitely many assignments are nonzero
the free abelian group on a set X, denoted Z[X], consists of all finite linear combinations with integer coefficients of elements of X
I legitimately didn't remember that fact... That makes everything a lot easier, wow.
so $\mathbb{Z}[X] = {\sum_{i=1}^n a_i x_i \mid n \in \mathbb{N}, a_i \in \mathbb{Z}, x_i \in X,\ i=1,\dots,n}$
Phil
lmao how did you do all the homological algebra questions on the previous sheets then
Uhh I haven't managed to solve many questions these last weeks, probably rusty algebra knowledge had its contribution
haha i feel you, when i took the course last year I also had 0 homological algebra knowledge before
you'll learn a lot if you stick to it though 🙂
That's very motivating, haha. Thank you kindly, and have a nice rest of the day! ^^
the idea being that even with an infinite basis set, you still have manageable elements.
because there's a metric fuck ton of singular simplices (or maybe you're doing simplicial homology, in which case there's still often a fuck ton of simplices, though maybe not as infinitely many).
what do you call this process of taking a shape like a torus and turning it into a 2d depiction? like this
also my bad if this isnt rly topology
ah yes ty!
vague question but why is path connectedness important
atm im thinking of it as stronger connectedness that has some nice properties for ordered sets but idk
Path connectedness is quite important in algebraic topology, where you deal with paths and their homotopies a lot.
e.g. the fundamental groups at every point of a path connected space are all isomorphic.
Path connectedness is also usually easier to prove.
At least in my experience.
It's not really directly related to your question, but it might be worth noting that "connected" and "locally path connected" together imply path connectedness.
if I were given some abstract topological space, then it'd probably wouldn't be as easy
I was planning on clarifying.
I think arc-connectedness is more important
depends on the area of interest i guess
because knowing you can order some piece of your space that connects two points, is pretty nice
point set topology class 
just following munkres
another example is that fibrations with path connected base spaces induce sequences of homotopy groups
ah. Then let me give you an adequate answer.
Path connectedness is important because it might appear in your exam
why would it be a problem
you can do cool things with arcs that paths don't allow you
no

besides the other answers, it is often used to somehow extend a local property to a global property
its a pretty standard but powerful proof technique
so e.g. if you have some locally constant function into say the reals on some connected space, it already has to be constant
oh sorry i guess this is the more general phenomenon of connectedness instead of pathconnectedness, but in lots of spaces we care about thats the same thing, like cw complexes
so the general way to go about this is to take some nonempty subset and show it is both open and closed, then by connectedness it must already be the whole space
for the example above, lets say we have f : X -> R with X connected. I pick some x in X and consider the subspace U = {y in X | f(y) = f(x)}. This is nonempty since x in U. It is open since f is locally constant, and the same argument shows its complement is open: Indeed, say y is not in U. then since f is locally constant y has an open nbhd where f has the same value as y, i.e. not the same one as x, so this whole open nbhd lies in the complement of U, showing that U is closed. Hence by connectedness of X we have U = X and so f is constant
this does not need the base space to be path connected though
you just need to pick basepoints
this helps!! thank you phil 
unrelated but how does the lebsgue # connect to uniform continuity
i know this is late but did you meant that this is B right? not the maximal set it's asking for
yes you did nvm
will bump this tho bc im not sure how to put those bunch of sets between Di and Di+1 that mold mentioned
does there exist open map from closed unit disk in R^2 to R^3
Is it possible to have a (not necessarily continuous) bijection from a space that is not compact to a space that is compact?
You can certainly have one by cardinality arguments alone
R is in bijection with [0,1]
The proof for it that I saw was restricted to path connected base spaces 
Aah that was only used to have it end on 0
Nvm then
bump to this timo 👉 👈
B is already totally ordered. Use Zorn's lemon to extend it
hrmmm
im not sure i see how
from what i understand the lemon says that an "infinite process" must stop right
so do we just say that by zorn's lemon we take the maximal D_n and we're done?
Take a chain of totally ordered sets containing B
It has an upper bound
Hence we can use Zorn lemma to conjure up a maximal one
And that's mathemagic
shouldn't it be a collection of subsets though?
oh i guess the collection of every maximal subset for every possible chain?
maybe im overthinknig this
No, definitely mathemagic


for real though, a subset of A has to be a collection of subsets no
Chain of totally ordered sets containing B
The totally ordered sets are subfamilies of A

No need Zorn
You can explicitly find sets in between the integer radius disks lol
There's a super obvious choice of sets to put in between
And then you show that you can't add anything more to that collection
squares?
though idk if that fits "between"
i dont think it does
just...more disks?
Ye lmao
Non integer radius disks
The set of all disks centered at 0 is a totally ordered set
And is maximal too
Last thing needs proof but is easy
,ti
The current time for stμ₂dying is 04:20 AM (EST) on Mon, 14/11/2022.
nothing is easy right now
That's false
Wait really?
Yeah. Like open disk for instance sits inbetween them
Ah
And even if we allow open disks it's not enough
Nvm use Zorn 
What you mean is to use polar coordinates ig
so density means it doesnt work right?
What density
Density is a random thing to say
nvm then 

You can still use Moldi's idea, just take polar coordinates and order lexographically
Let the sets be open and closed intervals with endpoint an element of R^2
So it'll be open, closed balls, and things inbetween
And whole R^2, empty set, {0}
ig my main doubt now is that it says "find a maximal totally ordered subset..." not to show that one exists
actually ig the chain is that
Imo that just means to show it exists
shrug
This is called Alexandroff extension of your topo space
a) holds iff your space is locally compact Hausdorff
b) always holds
c) I'd have to think about it more
For countably infinte metric spaces, can we not take the product metric to just be the minimum of all the individual metrics? I mean will that not work because the number of such metrics are infinite?
Countably infinite product?
i was thinking this one to be false 
yes
It is. Q is not locally compact
why is that iff true then
i haven't seen that before sorry
This might give you box topology or product topology.
And probably few different topologies as well
Ah so the metric is valid
Well maybe not box topology
I was basically reading this textbook and it mentions
this for countably infinite product
Prove b) first, and assume X^+ is Hausdorff to obtain contradiction
X is its open subspace
Yessss
I was wondering if choosing the max or min would make sense for the product metric
Yeah. I was thinking of sup d_i
Ah right
Wait. You wanted min anyway
My bad
But yeah. Here they use min(1, x) to make them into bounded metrics
Is all there is to it
Right but would min(d1, d2,...) be valid?
Didn't get you
Oh right
and if it's 0, it'd mean the two points are the same which they might not be
max still works right?
For (c), try $\mathbb{Q}^+ = A\cup B$ (where the $A$, $B$ are open and disjoint), and see if you have any results about compact subsets of the rational numbers.
TimeTravellerOne
i think it's connected 
If A contains infinity, then B is contained in a compact set of Q
Can a non-empty open set of Q have compact closure?
sorry to divert a bit but some googling pointed out that proving that a cpt subset of Q has empty interior is useful
i dont really see how it's even true tbh but is it necessary?
ok i showed that it was compact but idk about a) still 
what happens if both points are in Q
Q is hausdorff so that's fine no?
blitz said it was false before though so im definitely missing something
right, the issue arises when you consider consider a point in Q and +infty
if the space were hausdorff, then every point in Q would have a compact neighborhood. Do you see why that statement is true?
they'd be closed in R since it'd contain all Q in the interval as well as irrationals no?
or is it better to say that we could a finite subcover for any open covering of a subset of Q
though idk if that's worded well/true
well the point is that Q isn't locally compact, which is why the space isn't Hausdorff
in my earlier message I meant do you see why the statement "if the space were hausdorff, then every point in Q would have a compact neighborhood" is true
ahhh nvm
i dont full see that so brb
im gonna take a break from that one - am i right to think that Q^+ is connected though?
wait if a space X isn't hausdorff it has to be connected right?
based walter listening to tyler 
this definitely isn't true but i'm too sleepy to think of a counterexample rn
The current time for stμ₂dying is 08:28 AM (EST) on Mon, 14/11/2022.
i definitely slept
but yes, I believe it's true that Q^+ is connected
yeah i mean it's not trivial to prove but I think if you start by observing that a separation of your space would yield a clopen compact set in Q then you can use some properties of these sets in Q to get a contradiction
It's not true - as a counter-example, take the disjoint union of two non-Hausdorff spaces.
Do uncountably infinite product of metric spaces make sense? If so, how? I cannot find out an instance where it does.
Yes
But it won't be a metric space
Any uncountable product of non-trivial metric spaces is not metrizable
Ah
How can I formally show that
I tried finding some reference online, couldn't
Try to see if some topological property that metrizable spaces have fails.
the metric which is imposed needs to have a finite value for all pairs of points?
And this would fail in the case of uncountably infinite spaces
You're trying to show that the product (as a topological space) is not metrizable — ie, is not the topology arising from any metric.
In particular, you need to show it can't come from a metric regardless of what the metric is. So you don't know how the hypothetical metric is related (if at all) to the metrics on the spaces you started with.
So a property whose statement depends on the metric would be more difficult to show to be true since you don't know what the metric is.
This hint is to find a topological property — ie, a property that only depends on the topology (e.g. connectedness, compactness, Hausdorff, …). That way, you can check whether it is true (hopefully) straightforwardly, since you know what the topology has to be (the product topology).
If it's a property that the product doesn't have but you know any topology of a metric space has, then you're done.
first countable
note: it can be separable
nLab defines simplicial homology in terms of S_n ⋅ A = Z[S_n] ⊗ A, for an abelian group A and n-simplices S_n. Namely, it is the chain homology of the complex C.(S⋅A)=C.(S,A). How does this generalize the typical way simplicial homology is introduced (just using boundaries of n-chains with no extra ab groups involved), and what benefit does this generalization provide?
I mean this generalization is necessary because a lot of natural geometric constructions produce classes in H_k(X,A) with A some Abelian group different from Z.
On the other hand the universal coefficient theorem says you can recover these H_k(X,A)'s from H_k(X,Z).
good example is the relationship between de rham cohomology and singular cohomology actually uses the singular cohomology over the reals instead of the integers
how do I show C is not a covering space of C \ {0,1}
do I suppose there is a covering map from C to C minus 0,1
and find some contradiction
@ me with a response 🙂
Analytically speaking? Since if you care about homeomorphism or even diffeomorphism, the claim is true.
I'd figure you meant the first one since you also posted this in the real/complex analysis channel.
Yes analytically speaking
here psi is an element of Delta^1(X; Z)
im having trouble making the connection between the values psi takes on edges of 2-simplices and curves crossing the 1-skeleton transversely
Guys please tell me where I am going wrong. I have to prove that excluded point topology in R is lindelof. However take this cover of say (0,1) where excluded point is 2 for our topology.Clearly (0,1) is open and every point is open in this topology so I collect all singletons in (0,1) as my open covers for this interval calling it O={x such that x is a point in (0,1)}. Now this cover is uncountable since (0,1) is uncountable but if you remove even one cover from this set then you cant cover (0,1) since you have lost a point from (0,1). So how this space lindelof where am I making a mistake
you need an open cover of the whole space. Not just a subset
for example all your argument shows is that R with the excluded point topology is not hereditarily lindelof
Thanks for pointing that out . 
why is the cohomology ring different for even dimensional spheres? Having trouble finding the explanation in hatcher.
how does one see the underlined part? 
He probably just uses the künneth isomorphism inductively for the S^1 components
very basic question:
I don't see how d(x,y)=d(x_1,y_1) implies xR_dx_1 and yR_dy_1 (illustration above).
(matter of fact, I just woke up so maybe I'm just missing the obvious here)
Btw I get the point of basically quotienting a semi-metric space X with the relation x ~ y if d(x,y)=0, and getting a metric space X/~ out of it, but it's the way it's being phrased that confuses me.
Semi-metric can have multiple meanings
here it means a metric where the condition of $d(x,y)=0 \implies x=y$ isn't required.
anøk
Trivial then
(it's also called a pseudometric)
yeah, it was more of an "english problem" that anything else lol

Is there any?
mmmmm (considering that the discs D² and D³ are centered at the origin) if you choose like, an open ball of radius r in R² centered at (x,y), and map it to an open ball of radius r centered at (x,y,0), does this work as an open map? I mean, the topology of D² is generated by open balls right
where does this map send the closed unit disk though?
it sends D² to the unit disc on the xy plane no?
choose like, an open ball of radius r in R² centered at (x,y), and map it to an open sphere of radius r centered at (x,y,0)
also i think you must mean open ball in R3, not "open sphere"
oh my bad
but then the map isn't open
like the image of D^2 should be an open set in R3
oh ok ok
i think if we were working with the open unit disk, something like ur idea should work tho
@little hemlock
It actually sends to the whole space
D^3, the open unit ball in R3?
Closed unit disc in R3
thats not open in R3
But it is in the D³ with the subspace topology no?
The open map is supposed to be from D² to D³ right?
yeah, but i believe they asked for an open map cl(D^2) -> R3
Oh ok
This is the question
If there is such map then D map to closed set right in this case there is not continuous open map
So in this case we need to find an discontinuous open map.
If we send to R^3 then how to show that it is open map?
Or if we can show that there is local homeomorphism
Yes this is
not sure what u are trying to say here. like, what points are supposed to map to what points?
Correct
also why do you think D has to map to closed set?
Under continuous map compact set map to compact then it is closed
ohh true how could i forget
i think that's all there is to your problem. they didn't ask for an open discontinuous map
But open map can be discontinuous so in that case how to approach
idk the context of this problem, but generally when we're talking about topology, and someone asks about a map, we're generally implicitly talking about continuous maps.
Okay then, thanks alot.
Is there any argument to show that R^2 and R^3 are not homeomorphic? Except dimensions argument
yeah, the theorem is called "invariance of domain" but it requires algebraic topology
In point set topology?
For that we need algebraic topology. Same for open ball in R^2 and open ball in R^3?
hmm, the point-set methods that show R is not homeomorphic to R^n would not work. I'm not aware of a more elementary method that could show R^2 and R^3 are not homeomorphic
Same for open ball in R^2 and open ball in R^3
yea invariance of domain also applies here
Okay, Thank you.
but an open map need not be continuous (if the condition of continuity was required, then the solution would easily follow from the fact that D is compact and R^3 is not)
Or we could solve it by looking at the fundamental groups of these spaces. (I still think tho that, even if the condition of continuity isn't assumed, we can prove that such an open map can't exist by looking at Int(D))
@little hemlock
Wait I have an idea
but an open map need not be continuous
i agree. my point is that it is very likely "continuous open map" is what was implicitly being asked for. A common abuse of language in topology.
solution would easily follow from the fact that D is compact and R^3 is not
the failure when the open map is continuous does not have to do with D being compact but R3 not being compact per se. Its because D is compact, but (nonempty) open subsets of R3 are not compact
In order to compute the simplicial homology of S^2, we must give it a delta-complex structure. The typical structure is its fundamental polygon with an edge through its diagonal. However, as far as I can tell, delta-complex structures have no notion of identified n-simplices, so such a structure must be the quotient space of a bona fide delta-complex structure. So, in order to complete the computation rigorously, must we first prove some properties of the simplicial homology of a quotient space?
I think I might also be a bit confused since in order to have the simplicial homology on a quotient space, we must have have a delta-complex structure on that quotient space, which is exactly the original problem. Where might I be confused?
you can think of S² having a the simplicial structure
- 1 0-cell
- 0 1-cell
- 1 2-cell attach via the boundary going to the 0-cell
which will give you the simplicial complex
... →0 →ℤ →0 →ℤ →0
Sure, but that's a cell-structure. I'm asking about computing it via a delta-structure.
Ok I'm no longer sure what the question is
Which part of my question is confusing?
the description I gave is a simplicial structure on S²
Sounds like ur giving it a cw structure
it's also a CW structure yes
you can verify rigorously actually,
send Δ⁰ →0
Δ² ∖ ∂Δ² → S²\0 (by the identification map)
see that the maps restricted to the interior is injective indeed and that restricted to the boundary is another delta complex.
also it's the weak topology which is by def of CW cpx. So yes it's also a delta-cpx structure
this is not a delta complex structure, at least how Hatcher defines it. If f:Δ^2-> S^2 is the map of the 2-cell, you need the restriction of f to its boundary to be maps of 1-cells in your delta complex structure, but this does not work because a restriction g:I->S^2 of f will not be injective in the interior (since they are constantly mapping to the point which is your 0-cell)
I think an easier way to see it is that, though we prefer drawing pictures of the unidentified quotient spaces, when we label the edges/faces, we really mean maps to the quotient space.
For S^2, rather than thinking of the picture being about maps f: Δ^n-> square, you should instead post compose with the quotient map π. Then, you have honest maps from the simplex to the space S^2. You should then verify that your collection of maps assemble into a delta complex structure of S^2 (ie check the 3 things on Hatcher page 103)
Does anyone have tips for like visualizing one point compactifications?
For example for (0, 1) x R as a subspace of R^2, I don't really know how to picuture it (although I feel like it will look like a sphere)
one way is maybe to see that (0, 1) x R is homeomorphic to R^2, which is homeomorphic to a 2-sphere minus any point (by stereographic projection)
then the one point compactification is just filling in that point
maybe a good way to think of it is to try to mold your space so that it looks like a compact space minus a point
for example you can think of (0, 1) u (2, 3) as the space given by two circles joined at a single point (looks like the number 8) minus the joining point
so the one point compactification is just the 8
oh yeah good point
How is an interval [a,b] closed??
Doesnt every point the interval have a neighbourhood there?
What about a and b
Doesnt specify
It says its closed cuz the complement is open
That makes sense and all but I dont see how it is closed
Does a not have a nbd in there?
Or will it go to the "left" and out of the interval?
Yes
justAwork
EDIT: [SOLVED]
I guess a shorter version of this question is How do you represent a topological space by a simplicial set so that both simplicial homologies (that of the delta-complex structure of the space and that of the simplicial set) coincide?
Hi im trying to solve this problem, im not quite sure if im on the right path. Im also not sure what im trying to do. Sure i need to get the coefficients but im kinda lost her. Can someone help?
honestly this fits better in #advanced-analysis , but let me answer it anyway
You're wrong about the part in the red, it's supposed to be an integral
$$\sqrt{\int_0^h (ax+b)^2\mathrm{d}x}$$
i see integral over the whole domain
yes because I messed up my LaTeX
Blitz
thx
@gritty widget additional stupid question but what do i do next how do i get the c? Do i just compare the coefficients because all three equations seems similar?
well yeah, you should try to vary them and find an optimal constant
ok thanks again
How can I prove that for two quotient maps q1: X to Y1 and q2: X to Y2 that if q1(x)=q1(x’) iff q2(x)=q2(x’) then Y1 and Y2 homeomorphic
Or at least intuition/structure of proof
the properties of quotient maps tell us that q_1q_2^-1 and q_2q_1^-1 are well-defined and continuous, and clearly inverses of each other
hence Y_1, Y_2 are homeomorphic
loganb
I think the space is homotopy equivalent to the genus 2 torus
and iirc the pi1 of that is <a,b,c,d | [a,b][c,d] > where the brackets denote the commutator
i dont think its abelian...
that group is not abelian
pi1 (T^2) = pi1(S^1 x S^1) = pi1(S^1) x pi1(S^1) = Z x Z is abelian no?
that is the genus 1 torus
you fatten up the s^1 v s^1
to basically the "interior" of the genus 2 torus
and then you collapse the R^3 - that interior to the surface
ahh okay
ill draw some pictures and see if i can make some sense of that
thank you!
wait sorry this is probably wrong
the same "argument" would get you that R^3 - S^1 retracts to the torus, but this should be S^2 v S^1 instead
doing this solely through imagination is probably not the best idea ^^
so yeah maybe your initial guess of S^2 v S^1 v S^1 makes more sense
because i thought like draw a sphere around the two circles and then retract onto it plus two different diameters of S^2
yeah this is a nice image for S^1
and then bring the points where the diameters intersect S^2 together
yeah ive seen that
i wasnt sure if it works with two
i think so. if you start like this where the red part is a "hole"
then you push it upwards and downwards you should just get S^2 v S^1 v S^1
what do you mean by push it upwards and downwards?
the filled in space above and below the red part deformation retracts towards the sphere
ahh
and my drawing skills cannot compare to this
hm
and then you take the two lines and move start and endpoint together
so what i mean is you can fix the bottom point of the line where it is attached to the sphere, and the top point you can move along the surface towards the bottom point until they coincide, giving you a loop
finally you can move the two attaching points of the circles together if you want
i see how to go from the last one to S^2 v (S^1 v S^1)
ah and i guess the middle step is drawing diameters through the infinity sign and pushing the inside of the circle towards it and outside the circles away from it ?
well the diameters are kind of there already
the sphere in my drawing is supposed to be filled in except the red part
like in the drawing for just S^1
you do the same thing as here
so technically everything here except the two diameters should be red but then you couldn't see anything so i didnt draw it
How does q2 and q1 being inverses of each other makes Y1 and Y2 homeomorphic
A map is a homeomorphism iff it's continuous with continuous inverse
this is definition of homeomorphism, no?
also I never said q_1, q_2 are inverses of each other
that wouldn't quite make sense
Yeah, thought when you said clearly inverses of each other you meant q1 q2. Is the homeomorphism you’re referencing the q1q2^-1?
yes
is the wedge sum of homotopies bilinear? f v (g+h))=f v g + f v h? Writing out definitions it seems like it, but it isn't written anywhere....
how do i go about this please help If ( A \subseteq \R ) is closed then ( A^c ) is open.
imnotrachel
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Let x in A^c then if every neighbourhood of x intersected A then x would be a limit point of A and hence in A since A is closed, but x in A^c so there is some neighbourhood that doesn't intersect A, this is true for all x in A^c so A^c is open
@tight oasis
That's... the definition of a closed set
some authors define closed and open sets in terms of limit points and interior points rather than closed sets as complements as open sets
Oh, I did not know this depended on the author. I thought the general definition for a closed set was "its complementary is open" because it's the only definition that you can build from scratch in general topological spaces. Or at least that's what I believe.
Yeah, but in the context of metric spaces (like in real analysis) it's often defined in terms of that
Well there's another good definition in topological spaces
A set A is closed iff for every x, if every neighbourhood U of x intersects A, then x is in A
Oh yes you are right, that's equivalent
Also, if we define the notion of limit, we actually do not need closed sets right ? If we say that a sequence converges to x if the sequence enters once and for all every neighbourhood of x, we can define the adherence of any set and define a closed set as equal to its adherence ?
and it's a diffeomorphism if both it and it's inverse are C^k/C^inf?
yes
to be more precise, a diffeomorphism is a map f such that both f and f^-1 are differentiable
and a C^k-differomorphism is a map f such that both f and f^-1 are C^k maps
but people differ in conventions here and I think I saw before the usage of the word, that two manifolds are diffeomorphic if there is a C^infinity map with C^infinity inverse between them
but to keep it short it's like homeomorphism but with differential structure (like a differentiable manifold structure)
but this is not topology 
I'm back with another misconception.
In order to compute the simplicial homology of S^2, I'm using the delta-complex structure in the image.
Since partial_2(F)=-partial_2(G), the image of partial_2 is Z<a+b+c>. Now, since there is only one 0-simplex, the kernel of partial_1 is Z^3. Hence, H_1(S^2)=Z^2.
This is clearly wrong but I'm not sure where my reasoning fails.
there are actually 3 distinct vertex for your structure
both a leaves
a enters b leaves
both b enters
Ah, so the above image (without c) is not equivalent to the fundamental polygon of S^2?
No it actually is
but the boundary maps you are getting are not the correct one
Let me redraw the picture for you
@wise ruin
So, I see how it works when you give it three distinct vertices, however, I don’t understand why identifying all of the vertices gives you the wrong boundary map. It’s still a delta-complex structure of S^2, no? And thus should give the same boundary map
Because under your identification the vertices are not even the same
Huh? In my drawing, a, b, and c are just three distinct loops based at v
These vertices are inherently different you can’t say the are same
One is starting of A and another is ending of a
I mean at least identifying them won’t give you S2
Try cutting a paper and see why
Ok, yeah so this goes back to this question. Earlier you said yes but if it is in fact no then I understand.
Well I appreciate the help
Hey guys, these are two conflicting definitions for a basis, the second conition in wikipedia uses subseteq, but munkres uses proper subset, so I'm just wondering which one of these is correct? Thanks c:
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
Though to be fair a few people will use $\subset$ for proper subset but it’s ambiguous
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
This is more standard notation
Yup
thanks <
not a few
a lot of people
Bad people
bad people use $\subset$ to mean subset
Blitz
That too
don't most people use that to mean subset lol
Virtually every time i've seen \subset it just means subset
definitely not
i wonder what you'd get if you polled mathematicians lol
\subset => proper subset
\subseteq => proper subset or equal => improper subset
my 2 cents
1 < 1 am I right
Blitz
how do you show that if you take away a finite set from R^2, its still connected?
When you go for a walk, you tend to go around the construction on the road, right?
No.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Umarell This you?
unless i happen to have a topo exam coming that week
Path-connectedness feels more intuitive here. That's what I'm getting at.
Omg how did you know???
It's arc-connected
hmm
And you can take away any set of cardinality < continuum
Normally for R^2 you would consider a linear path between x, y
Do a little wiggle.
:catwiggle:
There are continuum many piecewise linear paths from x to y, disjoint apart from the endpoints
Try justifying it
i dont get how you show that one of the non-linear paths does not intersect with any of the removed points
Compare cardinalities
If all intersected we would have a injection from a set of size continuum to a set of lesser size
{Family of continuum many disjoint paths} to {removed points} and the map injective
hmm right
How have I never seen a solution like this before?
That's nice.
It's standard you have seen it for sure
ah makes sense
how do you show that if f : X -> Y satisfies the property f(cl(A)) subseteq cl(f(A)) for any subset A of X, then f is continuous?
You're made a typo, since what you wrote always holds
yeah sorry
corrected
Cool yeah, so what you want to do I'd take a closed subset C of Y and pick an appropriate subset A of X which will show you f^-1 C is closed
That's more or less the only thing you can do, but hopefully if I put it like that it becomes more clear aha
A continuous function is one where the pull back of closed sets are closed sets.
Take any closed set S in Y. Look at its pull back T. Consider U = cl(T). f(U) = cl(S) = S. Therefore T = U. Therefore T is closed and we are done.
Hi guys how could I show the converse, $F(U_{\alpha_0\cdots\alpha_p})\cong F(P)$ for all $P \subseteq U_{\alpha_0\cdots\alpha_p}$ (the def of locally constant presheaf)?
shiburin
what's the difference between an immersion and an embedding?
Immersions are only locally embeddings.
an immersion is a local embedding
Klein's bottle can be immersed but not embedded in 3-dimensional space
immersions dont have to be injective. even an injective immersion doesnt have to be an embedding bc it doesnt have to be a homeomorphism onto its image
It's not injective and surjective....
m right??
actually I'm learning group theory for first time, so it's pretty confusing for me
needs someone help to solve this question
anyone please
Rakko's point (if a bit tersely made) was that the question off-topic for this channel. Group theory belongs in #groups-rings-fields.
Can someone recommend a good resource for homology groups for a student pursuing an Advanced Mathematical Physics Course?
topological viewpoint?
If you’re just looking to learn the basics of homology, the last chapter of Lee Topological Manifolds is pretty good. If you are looking for something more comprehensive, Hatcher chapter 2 is okay
got an interesting problem from point set topology, if anyone wants to try-
Show that there cannot exist a continuous bijection from lR to lR^2. (Not asking for homeomorphism btw).
(Generalize this to show there is no cts bijection from R^n to R^m when n and m are not the same, though it requires knowledge of homology)
Is X = [0, 1] x {a, b} with euclidean topology on [0,1] and trivial topology on {a, b} compact?
The product of two compact spaces is compact
Oh yes you're right. Didn't think about looking at them individually lol. Thanks
Wait to be clear. {a, b} is compact because it contains finite many points so that is compact and [0, 1] is compact because it is closed and bounded in R right?
Yes
Awesome thanks for confirming
In fact one way to prove being closed and bounded is equivalent to being compact for subsets of R^n is to show [0,1] is compact directly
yeah. Any finite space is compact automatically
no matter the topology of {a, b}
that's why we don't need to ask what topology you mean 
for R to R^2 what happens when you delete a point from R?
the proof doesn't require knowledge of homology tbh
but some theorems like the Brouwer fixed point theorem are probably needed
the proof I am thinking about is probably essentially the same though
I need help on 2a). Specifically, I think I've proved most parts that it's an embedding, but I haven't been able to prove that the inverse is continuous (or that f is an open/closed mapping). Any help would be appreciated
whats an elementary way to show deleting an S^n homeomorph from R^m doesnt disconnect R^m for n<m-1?
smoothly imbedded i can just use transversality
Suppose f(x_m) converges to f(x). Then d(x_m, a_n) converges to d(x, a_n) for all n.
d(x, x_m) <= d(x_m, a_n) + d(a_n, x). Choose n so that x is close to a_n
How does that show that the inverse is continuous? sorry, just having a hard time following
What does it mean for the inverse to be continuous?
It means that if f(x_m) converges to f(x), then x_m converges to x
ohhh ok
or non-elementary lol
can you explain why f(x_m) converging to f(x) implies d(x_m, a_n) converges to d(x, a_n) for all n? is there any specific metric you're using for convergence on [0, 1]^N? I'm thinking of the metric max_{n \in N}{d(a, x_n)}/n but i'm not sure. Thanks!
definition of Hilbert cube
it has product topology, the vector f(x_m) converging to f(x) in the Hilbert cube means that each coordinate of f(x_m) converges to each coordinate of f(x)
no need for a particular metric
Hello
If (X,O) and (Y,O') are topological spaces and f : X -> Y is a function between the two, can we say that f is an homeomorphism if and only if it's an isomorphism between the monoids (O, intersection) and (O', intersection) and between the monoids (O, union) and (O', union) ?
Sorry to keep using this but now I'm struggling with this component. I've proven s <= d(x, y) but I don't know how to approach the direction d(x, y) <= s
Take a_n convering to x. Then |d(x, a_n) - d(y, a_n)| converges to d(x, y).
do you mind if i ask how the second part follows from a_n converging to x? Thanks and sorry for the inconvenience.
From continuity of the metric
Alright, I get that part now! Thanks! And I'm assuming the limit as n goes to infinity of |d(x, a_n) - d(y, a_n)| is supposed to be the supremum? But how do we know that? Is it a monotone increasing sequence somehow?
We aren't taking n to infinity
And what you do is, d(x, y) is a limit of things <= s
So it's <= s
Maybe I wrote it wrong but I didn't mean that a_n converges to x
We take some sequence b_m consisting of elements of the form a_n which converges to x
oh alright I see now
You can characterise topologies in terms of which sets r closed
Knowing closure of a set how does this help
And we know whether a set is closes by comparing it to its closure
I can define topo in terms of closed sets right,but not by closure
Ah, you mean i take any subset,and if its not its closure,its not in the topology?
This is saying that first countable spaces are Frechet-Urysohn
Yes this is where I encountered it
I am familiar with Frechet Urysohn spaces
But idk why first countable spaces are characterized by sequences
Look at the proof that first countable implies Frechet-Urysohn
where's the contradiction
tbh yes, all you need is Sn and Sm aren't homeomorphic
where you able to do it using that?
?
you said " all you need is Sn and Sm aren't homeomorphic" which suggests you managed to prove it
well yes
how did you prove it?
no that's not gonna work
you want a hint or the solution itself
sure give me a hint
and then the solution depending on whether i can immediately do it from the hint 🙂
ok so we can show the any [a,b] cannot be homeomorphic to a square [c,d]×[e,f] in R² but we won't know if there is an interval that maps to a square
can you show there must be one such nbd
ur asking can i show theres a space filling curve?
use ||Baire category||
im aware there are space filling curves
ur saying you can make a space filling curve bijective?
maybe can you just tell me how you did it?
ok 1 moment
sorry to make you type. i thought it would be short
,tex say $f$ is a continuous bijection from $\mbb{R}$ to $\mbb{R}^2$. Then
$$\cup_{n \geq 1} f[-n, n] = \mbb{R}^2$$
But from Baire category, there is one such $n$ s.t. it contains an open ball $B(x, r)$. But now $f$ restricted to $[-n, n]$ is a homeomorphism and $\overline{B}(x, r/2) \subseteq f[-n, n]$. Now look at the preimage of the closed ball, the preimage must be of the form $[a,b]$ as this is a homeo and compact connected. But we know that cannot happen. $\qed$
I'm on my phone that's why it's taking so long
why it didn't even render

i got it
alright I have one final question. Albeit this may require a pretty comprehensive answer so I don't know if I expect one? I need to prove that the sorgenfrey is completely regular as defined here. It'd be easy if I could just say that the projection of a closed set in the Sorgenfrey plane is closed (in either coordinate) because then I could use the fact that the Sorgenfrey line is normal and therefore completely regular to build a function, but I don't know if I can say the projection is a closed map in this instance. For example, the Sorgenfrey line isn't compact so I can't use that theorem that states that if Y is compact then p_1: X x Y to X is a closed map
i think u might be overthinking a bit. Like, let x in R_l and B be a closed set not containing x. Then x has an interval [a,b) disjoint from B and you can just define your function separately on the pieces (-\infty, b), [a,b), and [b, infty)
Yes
not topology but fyi you can also do \bR^2 instead of \mbb{R}^2
yes
uh. Totally a preference. Let's not go this far to comment on someones LaTeX
No I meant, it's easier to type since they mentioned they were on their phone (even on a PC i use \b since it's less characters
)
as kxrider mentioned, [a, b) is clopen
well I can also do $\R$
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
this means that you can define a function which is say, 1 on [a, b) and 0 on the complement
and it'll be continuous
does the lebesgue covering dimension work for any kind of topology? or does it have to be like hausdroff or something for it to work
any
and for the Sorgenfrey plane, since product of clopen sets is clopen, we can use the same procedure
Hi! Can you help me spot what's wrong in the following proof please?
Assume CP² is smoothly embedded in some Rⁿ, n⩾5. Then, because H₄(Rⁿ)=0, we see that C² bounds some 5-manifold. But because the signature of CP² is non-zero, it cannot be cobordant zero, so there cannot be an embedding CP²⊂Rⁿ.
(because obviously, by Whitney embedding, this fails for n=8)
Oh, right...
How would you go proving that CP² does not embed in R^5 then? x')
Wait, no, your argument does not work, because H_0(R^n)=Z here, with the point as a generator
No, no, what I'm saying is also wrong... 🤦♂️
If you could embed CP² in R^5, then treating the tangent bundle as a real vector bundle over CP², then the even stiefel whitney classes vanish and the odd classes 2i + 1 are 3Ci mod 2 (so w(CP^2) = 1 + a + a² if a generates H²(CP², Z/2)), and the embedding gives that TCP^2 direct sum NCP^2 is trivial. So by the Whitney product theorem w_i(TCP^2) is the convolution inverse of w_i(NCP^2). (1+a+a²)^-1 = 1 + a, and deg a = 2, so CP² can only be embedded at least in R^6 = R^(2*2 + 2). I think that argument makes sense?
By means of SW classes I agree that you get this bound indeed! However, I'm supposed not to use them and resort to cobordisms... ^^"
My guess is that I have to use the fact that the signature is an isomorphism from the group of cobordism classes (with disjoint union) to the integers, but I don't know how x)
is a countable product of spaces necessarily second countable?
if theyre all second countable then obviously yeah
i mean arbitrary spaces
let's say non-empty
ok figures
i saw a solution for this problem that starts by saying "suppose X is second countable"
wait maybe im reading it incorrectly
does it mean a countable number of dense subsets or dense subsets that are countable
am I stupid or could you just take a space not second countable for the first space then a singleton {0} for the rest or something
so it's saying X is a product of separable spaces
fuck the terminology though
bc this isnt separable in the sense of disjoint open sets
separable always means that but it's a bit confusing that a partition into open sets is often called a separation
any hints on doing it though pls
obvious start is to take the product of dense subsets of each X_i but i doubt that works
It won't work for cardinality reasons. The set you get won't be countable.
But it's a good first guess. Maybe you can modify it to make it countable but still dense.
ok but does this depend on the topology that X has?
the question seems to be pretty vague about that so idk

X has the product topology i suppose
Products only have one important topology, despite what Munkres might have you believe.
The box topology is genuinely useless.
The box topology literally only exists to motivate the definition of the product topology.
lol
I don't know what that is. Isn't the problem stated in terms of arbitrary topological spaces?
yeah probably an unrelated consideration, nvm
back to the Q tho, showing it for a product of two spaces should be enough for it follow for countable products by induction right
agh
Ordinary induction only proves that some property holds for each natural number.
ok im gonna guess it has to be a subset of the product of all dense subsets
you said make it countable, so all points in that product of dense subset with some fixed index? that's kinda arbitrary though
I can't understand what you mean. Can you write it in mathematical notation?
The bot is dead, so consider drawing it in paint or using something like mathb.in.
im guessing that the dense subset of X_1 x X_2 x ... is a subset of D_1 x D_2 x ... , where each D_i is dense in X_i
well you said to make it countable
changing it now: but i was trying to do that by taking all the points in D (will use this for the product of dense subsets) with all but countably many indices fixed
that probably still isnt clear 
You're taking a countable product, so "with all but countably many indices fixed" is not going to change anything. You just get the original product.
*finitely many then
Sounds better. Is this countable? Dense?
sorry im kinda just poking around here, lol
False
Claim: sum 1+1+1+... is finite
Proof: if n is finite so is n+1, and 1 is finite
XD
🙈
Monke

Jesus how do you not go mad after understanding the relations with Physics?
Which relations
Relevant.
that middle point was truly crazy, I love that I picked up stoicism before going to this side man
and catholicism
I would've gone nuts without God and my admiration of stoics
but so uhm does anyone know if Allen Hatcher's book will have an updated print any soon or should I get the 200X ver?
nobody i know likes hatcher :p
so i don't plan on reading it anytime soon
moldi once told me to read jp may
ngl i prefer spanier or tom dieck cause it's like
may's concise without saying lots of stuff is easy etc
oh
this information is more useful to me depending on who 'you know', you think you can describe their beliefs a bit?
so is Hatcher a bit like Munkres in that it is talkative? I prefer books like Rudin, it makes finding what I have to remember easier
thanks for the heads up, I hate it now 🙂
lmao
lol
but not just about talkative
a lot of things it does are weird
a prof i know once said something along the lines of 'hatcher pretends that he knows a lot more than what he actually does'
and i was laughing real bad
there was another prof who my friend once reached out to asking about some serre spectral sequence thingy and again his response was to ignore whatever hatcher is doing
at my level, i think i find it annoying that hatcher delays defining categories so much and while doing homology theory sticks to Z for no reason at the start >.<
if the proofs are same, i would rather just keep the coefficient ring to be any R
there are probably other things that people find annoying about it
Rudin has a topology book??!
I am just starting to read Munkre's.
It is 🤌🏻
Where did they say Rudin has a topology book?
As far as I can tell from looking online, Rudin has never written a book on purely topology. They're all analysis.
They didn't say that but I just was guessing.
Also, Rudin's wife was a topologist.
And the proof of Nikiel's Conjecture was devoted in loving memory of her.
yes. She worked on Dowker spaces among others
lol cats
I assumed "Rudin" referred to Walter Rudin as it commonly does.
I didn't know his wife was a mathematician. That's very nice.
well. Maybe worked is a wrong word. She came up with a first example of Dowker space
And what's a dower space?
Dowker space is a normal space such that its product with unit interval is not normal
weird >.<
a space is what surrounds us, darkness and endless freezing embrace of space
😆
you just gave me some existential crisis >.<
I feel like i have only ever stumbled upon papers by his wife lol
That's what happens when you spend all your time writing books.
RIP W. Rudin
lol
Well, if I wanted to give you an existential crisis I'd talk about all the different ways in which humanity could eventually but inevitably die
And even very atoms in our bodies will eventually die, because of the ever expanding nature of our universe
No, which kind of is the point. Topology doesn't make sense for me unless it's with Functional Analysis or Measure Theory
lol your definition of space still sounds a lot more scary to me 🙈
maybe because the different ways i would die will happen a lot after i die normally :p
but the thing about darkness and freezing embrace felt like the space has trapped me and i can't escape even if i wanted to >.<
I've been numb to existential crisis for a while 
Mood
Hello, would anyone mind sharing a good resource for self research on the topic of Fourier transform please?
can i get another nudge on this pls
i think i got close before but idk
Yes.
Maybe not the curly C, but C(X, Y) is common notation for the set of continuous functions from X to Y.
ohhhh
im not sure i see how that's a subspace of R^I though
or does R^I denote functions from I to R
It does.
i thought the homotopy was called the deformation retract?
I think it should be retraction
But we are arguing semantics tbh
Yeah, there's a small misuse of terminology. Sometimes people use it about the homotopy, sometimes about the function r.
And if I can bring out an archaic reference, mathworld uses it about the set A: https://mathworld.wolfram.com/DeformationRetract.html
People will know what you mean, no matter which one you use.
yeah i know, i just want to be precise with my terminology
yeah fair enough, thanks
Good, I too am a fan of precise terminology. 😎
I still wouldn't call it a deformation retract
bump to starting this, not sure the hint is veery enlightening 
but a deformation retraction
use Stone-Weierstrass theorem
not sure it's presented in munkres? but i'll check
Well you can just use the fact continuous functions on C[0,1] r uniformly continuous
To approximate it using piecewise linear stuff
What the hint doesn't say, but it should, is that values of those functions should also be rational
Well rational endpoints ig
so that they are defined by giving a finite set of pairs of rationals
Ye
But yeah, this is like, you consider piece-wise linear function given say $f(k/n) = f_k\in \mathbb{Q}$ defined by $f(k/n+t/n) = (1-t)f_k+tf_{k+1}$, $t\in [0, 1]$
Blitz
You want to take some continuous g and use uniform continuity to find delta > 0 such that |g(x)-g(y)| <= epsilon for |x-y| <= delta
then take n small enough so that 1/n < delta
choose f_k to be close enough to g(k/n)
this will prove it
ok im sorry but i dont see this lol
starting here, that's an odd way to define a function?
You're just saying f(k/n) = f_k and extend linearly
the interior of the set of functions that verify : f(x)->0 when x goes to +infinity and f in the space mentioned later
how to even think of this
As a subset of what space
the space of continuous functions from [0,+inf] in R
yeah
Okay well suppose f is in that subspace. Is f+epsilon in that subspace for any epsilon?
the interior is empty?
Indeed
okay if we took the ones where the limit exists
whats the interior of that
i guess everything
I mean have a think like you can do a similar trick
no
okay i am gonna think
Can you add smth small to get smth not in the subspace?
no
owo?
is that a face? xd
Indeed
very nice
mmmm
i mean... any e i am gonna add isnt going to cause my function to diverge to inf, so my only hope is oscillation... but i dont see how
Ah
i see how
the periodic function 0 on most of the domain with an e every once in a while
But it works either way
okay so empty as well?
Another way to see it is uh
Well like
If it contained an open ball then since it's a vector space you'd get like
Everything
Ah right
I think lol
Nppp
if f is a vector space and A is not in f then d(A,f)>0 right?
can you elaborate on this step pls
can you show me some work
ahhh im handwriting this hw, not latex'ing
feel free to hate
im confused by most of it though but i can at least semi follow until that part
well, did you try, say, |f_k - g(k/n) | <= epsilon
ok my first simple confusion is what f_k looks like
random rationals
don't worry about it
we don't need to know what they look like
we need to know they exist
and that we have
ok i mostly got that last one but im now stuck trying to prove that a regular lindelof space is normal
ker(B_n-1* --> H^n(C; G)) = im(Z_n-1* --> B_n-1*) and coker i*_n-1 = B_n-1*/im( i*_n-1) = B_n-1*/im(Z_n-1* --> B_n-1*)
What’s the idea behind this remark
Nvm, found a SE post
How am I meant to see this as S^2
Text suggests to think of S^2 as R^2 with point at infinity
And the two circles on the left are identified, along with the two circles at the right. So alphas become circles
But how could S^2 - alphas possibly be connected
Any (nondegenerate) closed curve in S^2 will disconnect it
I guess I’m confused on what the handlebodies are meant to be
And how this identification results in S^2
i agree
retracts are sets and retractions are maps
got it
if A = B then closure of A = closure of B ... no?
A and B are 2 sets
if x is in A_, then there is a seq xn in A that goes to x, and xn is in B too, so the proof is done
yeah nvm
you're saying that A = cl(A)
you should be the one answering this question
I cant
how am i say A_=A if i am saying if A=B then clos(A)=clos(B)
listen
when you don't write something correctly, then it's entirely all your fault if people misunderstand you
it won't help if you just try to correct yourself based on my advice
you should do that actively
yeah but i dont see my mistake
were we talking about any mistake?
fine if were talking in general i agree
you have some thoughts going on in your head
and why would I correct what you write if to know what's in your head I need to know what you write in the first place
and if you write it incorrectly then it's up to you to correct yourself
there's only so much that people can guess
it does
but now its obvious
great
thanks
ive been stuck at this for an hour now
if 1/p+1/q=1
closure is a function so you're saying if x = y then f(x) = f(y) really, has nothing to do with topology
then this inequality hold
Ah
this again is called Young inequality and has nothing to do with topology
it has nothing to do with topology
@gritty widget can you not be annoying the entire time you’re trying to help someone
metal, this has nothing to do with topology nor anime :/
chrew
there was nothing unclear about this btw dont feel gaslit
I did a mistake, my bad
But I'm not "annoying the entire time". It only happens occassionally and I do try this not to happen so get off of me
it's alright, Blitz is very helpful and this was a bad quest anw :/
A = {n : n natural} and B = {n+1/n : n natural, n > 1}... how to show those 2 sets are closed
In R i assume?
What definition of "closed" are you working with?
The easy approach is to prove that the set contains all its limit points vacously since we are working in R
But the better approach is to prove the compliment is open.
yeah
any definition
you can use the seq one
or that the compliment is open
i am not sure how to move forward
there isnt really any limit points
so we're left with compliment ig?
Well since there is no limit points you kinda get its closed by default cause the set contains the empty set
But the critical approach is to indeed use compliments , can you guess how the compliment of N will look like in R? If you find that out the rest is easy.
Once you figure out the compliment of A in R and prove its open the idea for B is very similar , do give it a try! And ask if you get stuck again
the compliment is R without those points


