#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 676 of 407
Hence...
I would try to write these proofs as minimally as possible without omitting detail
oh that's even better actually
Basically what was already said but my first instinct would be to just left multiply the last line by ab and you no longer need to justify the inverses thing, you just have ab=ba
is this also valid
feels super short
oh maybe this only works for positive exponent
but expanding to negative wouldnt be much work
if gh=hg
1 = h^(-1)g^(-1)gh = h^(-1)g^(-1)hg
Corollary: Odd numbers are also even!
curious question
equivalence classes come from equivalence relations
are there other relations that have classes with more interesting properties?
not equivalence
General argument makes sense but the way you paired everything in twos doesn't check out lol
I think you meant to just yeet every g into one big thing of parens and the hs into another big thing of parens?
yeah pretty much
this class is teaching me more about proof writing than algebra kek
ohhh i see i thhink
then in the second line can i just jump to a full parens of g and full parens of h
Yeee cause if the length of the product of (gg)s is k, then we have g^{2k} which doesn't make sense for odd n
like $(gg \cdots g)(hh \cdots h) = g^n h^n$
μ₂
Yeah that makes the implied induction more clear
and i dont need to do anything to generalize it to negative powers
Exactly, yes.
neat
also
is there a clean way to do the second part of this?
other than "let x = a + bi + cj + dk and y = w + xi + yj + zk" and going into expansion hell?
cause I can do the expansion hell but I'd really rather not ya know?
Just do the computation
How do you define prime ideals for an arbitrary ring?
because this happens to be how they are defined in hungerford
oh the definition assumes R is commutative with 1
ah okay
even tho in general rings don't have to have either
I think you have to define left prime and right prime in general rings
why, P is prime if IJ \subset P implies I subset P or J subset P seems completely symmetric to me
But "ideal" itself isn't symmetric in non-commutative rings.
it seems like
commutativity you can say ab in P => a in P or b in P
noncommutativity you can say AB subset of P => A subset of P or B subset of P
an example where the latter works but the former doesn't work I think is the 0 ideal in the ring of n x n matricies?
that's what wikipedia says but I don't quite follow lol
I probably misread that
I looked up a solution to that problem I was stuck on after trying something related to the hint Mat gave me
It was a little complicated but I digested it into a couple parts: first recognizing that the set of remainders, if they are all constant, of division of elements of an ideal by a fixed polynomial, is an ideal in the ring of constants. This is very useful when quickly switching views between a polynomial ring with several variables and the naturally isomorphic one in any one of those variables
The rest of it is not hard to show with the goal in mind of generating everything with just two elements
Basically having a 1st degree polynomial show up is nice in polynomial rings and can often tell you about structure just by playing with division since you're guaranteed to get constants
Definitely didn't expect that one of these problems was gonna include an entire hidden "hey to really obviously crack this you need to prove some set that's not necessarily obvious is an ideal" so it was definitely a harder one
In hindsight it kinda makes sense from a problem solving perspective, we want to show anything in some ideal, containing this other ideal generated by k, can be written (p, q) for polynomials p and q. Just say p=k and now you have, for f in the ideal, f = ak+bq. Compare with the division f = gk+r. If we can find b so that r=bq then we're done, so you might think we need to show the remainders are an ideal, or at the very least an ideal in the constants
hey im a bit confused on how there is a homomorphism between Z/2Z and S_3 the symmetric group, can anybody help?
Im guessing Z/2Z is defined as the elements {0,1}
so how do we recover the group of S3 from this?
You don't need to recover all of S3.
Remember that a "homomorphism" is simply a map whose values lie somewhere in S3 (and which preserves the group operation).
At the very least there's always the homomorphism that maps both elements of Z/2Z to the identity permutation in S3.
(There are exactly three other homomorphisms in addition to that).
ah right that makes more sense
what does this look like explicitly?
so if we had phi(1)
phi(0) = e and phi(1) = e?
(Such a zero morphism exists between every pair of groups).
mhm im still confused 😅
i just cant see how its mapped
how does phi(0)=123-->123
I'm confused by your confusion. Do you agree that the identity map is an element of S3?
why is that?
Because that's how I defined the phi we're talking about.
Yes, as long as your choices satisfy the homomorphism condition: phi(a) o phi(b) = phi(ab) for all choices of a and b.
The group operation in S3 is function composition.
oh yeah my bad 😅
so if I wanted to prove that Im (phi) is not a normal subgroup in this case
how would i go about doing that?
I have to show conjugation is not invariant right?
That would be one way. (Notice that the image of the zero morphism I showed is a normal subgroup, though).
"conjugation is not invariant right" should be "that the subgroup is not invariant under conjugation".
so with the phi i picked
can we say let a be an element of S3
then we do something like phi(1 o a o 1)=phi(1) o phi(a) o phi(1)
so we have (12) o phi(a) o (12)
Since a lives in S3, you cannot take phi of it.
"Invariant under conjugation" would mean that whenever you pick a in Z/2Z and b in S3, the value of b^-1 o phi(a) o b always lies in the image of phi.
Right. So you're looking for a counterexample of this property.
yah :X
I.e. a concrete a and b such that b^-1 o phi(a) o b isn't in the image.
The parentheses are required in cycle notation, but the inverse of (123) is (321), yes
and phi(1)=(12)(3) right? for my defined phi
Yes.
so now i just have to compose say (123) o (12)(3) o (321)?
Yes.
and show that it isnt in S3?
Oh, it will automatically be in S3 -- it's a permutation of {1,2,3} after all, and S3 is the set of all such permutations.
You need to show that it isn't in the image of your phi.
isnt the image of my phi S3 tho?
No, the image consists only of the two elements phi(0) and phi(1), whereas there are six elements in S3.
The "codomain" if your phi is S3, but the "image" is only the elements that are actually hit.
oh yeahhh
so (123) o (12)(3) o (321) gives (1)(32) which is in S3 but isn't in the image of phi since phi(o)=e and phi(1)=(12)(3)
is that right? :X
yes
thank you so much :))
Do inner automorphisms form a normal subgroup ?
yes, they are a normal subgroup of the group of automorphisms
and the group of automorphisms is a group of isomorphisms that map back to the same codomain?
yeah, for a group G the elements of the automorphism group of G are isomorphisms from G->G
G does not contain Aut(G)
No
sounds wrong
G is a bigger group than Aut(G)
No
kk
Let me try to produce an example
Thinking of one too lel
I believe the Klein 4 group has automorpjism group S_3
The reason is the Klein 4 group has 1 identity, and 3 elements a,b,c
Yeah
And a,b,c are totally symmetric
They satisfy like
In particular, note all automorphisms map generators to generators of the same order when trying to construct them (the converse is not necessarily true, though - this process doesn't always produce an automorphism, I believe)
The square of any of a,b,c is just e
And like the product of any two is the other
So we can permute a,b,c in any way we want
This is the like qualitative reason as for why it’s automorpjism group is S_3
To actually prove it, you can just prove it haha
Fixing e and swapping a,b,c is a bijection
And showing it’s a group homomorphism is real easy
hmmm right
what would be a general characteristation of the ker of this mapping from klein 4 to S3?
What do you mean
The kernel of the map G -> Inn(G) is always the center
So in this case it’s all of the Klein 4 group

hmm 🤔
You send g to “conjugate by g”
Inn(G) are all the auto which act by conjugation
And this has kernel the center

yes :)) ty guys <33
so in general when proving a map is an automorphism do we prove it has a group homomorphism then prove it is injective/bijective etc?
yes mb
And yeah you just prove its bijective
Either by showing injective and surjective manually or like finding an inverse
kk great ty
and also 1 more thing
just to wrap my head around this
G--> Aut(G)
The image of this map is the Inn(G)?
yup
ty
does this look like a valid proof
idk if i should be explicit about the fact that inverses commute
or if it's obv enough
are automorphisms interesting?
Not just interesting. Important.
hm
Can someone help me approach this problem?
induction would have to go both ways still tho
you can substitute to show the inverse statement
why are automorphisms important
What have you done in algebra so far
(gh)^n-1(gh) = g^{n-1}h^{n-1}gh then you can just shove g through each of the h's
just the latest topics u have seen
kernels and stuff
and if you want to show that h^{n-1}g = gh^{n-1} super explicitly
you can do that by induction too
Have you seen isomorphism theorems?
just getting there
you go to hgh^{n-2} = gh^{n-1} by g and h commuting
unrelated but chmonkey can we assume u got into chmolubia - if so congrats 
:)
thanks
but this result gives intuition for a bunch of stuff (makes things make more sense)
so
I'm not sure I can make an example that would be enlightening 🤷♂️
I'll encounter them properly soon i imagine
Here's a really simple example of automorphisms being useful
I think group actions are probably very relevant when talking about automorphisms? If you haven't seen those yet, it is harder to motivate
if you want to prove some statement about like, something in R^n
like n-dimensional euclidean space
hm
and it's something like "on an open ball near x..."
hm
ohh
and often times the thing you want to prove is preserved under isomorphisms
so you can move it to the origin?
yeah
in other times automorphisms are bad
oh
as in you might know that two things agree up to an automorphism
as in like f = g\circh
for some automorphism h
oh
now for technical reasons you might really want f = g
Feeling humbled by this one person's solutions to Artin, did not at all realize during the exercise showing formal power series are rings that if it's over a field you get lots and lots of units
I had some handwavey justification that only the constants could be units but goddamn practically everything is a unit! So used to the nice degree properties of usual polynomial rings
and if you know the only automorphism is the identity then you can conclude f = g
yup
they might not be the same "on the nose"
and you can sometimes work around this
like if the group isn't abelian
other than id
causes sometimes bad things to happen for technical reasons
hm
like in algebraic geometry there's the notion of a stack which, I wikll not even begin to describe
but they are messy, technical, blech
but their existence is basically necessitated because the presence of automorphisms screws things up
ooh
have u seen normal subgroup?
yes
H subgroup of G such that forall g in G, gH = Hg
$$(\forall g\in G, n\in N)(gng^{-1}\in N)$$
i think
Shuri2060
Alternatively
N being normal in G
Now normal subgroups come up everywhere
Because you can only quotient with normal subgroups
G/N
is left and right cosets being equal an equivalent condition
Yes
ah
gN = Ng is equivalent to that statement because
gNg^-1 = N
is exactly that statement I wrote
that looks like an inner automorphism
i have heard of conjugacy classes
Is the automorphisms which are conjugations
yes
yes
Because it maps elements in N to another
yeah
This idea is important when considering various stuffs 👀
interesting
If u want a harder example
I am currently doing Galois Theory where automorphisms are important
So the field C extends R
yep
The galois group is
the automorphisms which 'fix' R
ie. f(x) = x for anything in R
oh
It turns out there are only 2 possible automorphisms
Sorry I should be more clear
We want automorphisms of C
which fix all elements in R
f : C -> C
so galois groups are groups of field automorphisms?
yes, a specific type of auto
Basically
L : K,
L extends K
We want automorphisms L -> L that fix all elements of K
hm
You know the theorem which says there is no quintic formula?
yep
In particular, some quintic solutions cannot be written in terms of +-*/ and rooting
same for higher degree
this result comes from galois theory, basically
isn't it to do with the galois group having a non-cyclic group as a factor
That, I wouldn't know lul
oh lol
I am still near the starting line for Galois
i think it has to do with A5 being a simple group
It has to do with the fact that A5 is not solvable
I'm trying to speedrun through the start of godement
because it's all quite simple stuff
Yes
i know that part
You can verify the inverse of an isomorphism is also an homomorphism 👀
and hence iso
proving what you want
i thought godement would never cover cat theory
but it's in an exercise
It's somewhat tangential but you can have f^(-1)(b) = {a in A: f(a) = b} for a non-bijective homomorphism
Isn't this just the definition of inverse image
I am confusion
I think they're saying not to confuse f^-1(b) actually saying f has an inverse
like the fiber f^-1(b) [which really is f^-1({b})] could be confused with evaluating b at the inverse of f
yeah but i didnt say anything about the correspondence theorem
it's your 3rd line
put|| on fancy G and H when appropriate
wym
The person gave a back-of-the-envelope proof with the original intuition wiped clean away, and after mulling it over for a while I figured out a very pretty argument for existence (and hence iff) of inverses of polys in F[[t]] with unit constant term:
View it as trying to find an inverse "mod" x^k for every positive k. Guaranteed since if the constant term is a unit, gcd with x^k is 1, and extended euclidean algo gives us our inverse. Repeat ad infinitum
|fancy G|
where did i miss that ? @iterbus
Oo how do you mean?
I have a question about this proof of K splitting field ⟺ any irreducible polynomial with a root in K splits completely over K
@lavish nexus
probably what you said more or less
Polynomial long division except it goes on forever
You want to keep killing terms
look at your first line
well you're counting the order of fancy G
Why must xi be in K' ? so like why isnt this just changing xi to another root in the isomorphism
yes @ zd
what is [|G|:|H|]
the right side
last line you're counting cosets why would you put ||
yeah
I think this is only true if we assume \alpha is a root of g(x), does this break the proof?
i have a question on the language of this homework problem:
When you “roll” an octahedron, each of the eight faces is equally likely to be facing up. Ordinary octahedral dice have the numbers 1 to 8 on the faces. Weird pairs of octahedral dice have certain positive integers on the faces (not simply the numbers 1 to 8 and not necessarily the same for the two octahedra in the pair) but have the amazing property that when you roll the two of them, you get the same probabilities for the sum as you do for ordinary octahedral dice. Find all weird pairs of octahedral dice.
we had a problem before where we had to answer the question of "can you create a pair of weighted dice such that each of the 11 outcomes have equal probability" and i know this is a similar/related problem, but i'm having a rough time understanding what specifically is being asked of me
this is just the start of whatever the solution will end up being, but i would like a second opinion that this is indeed what the problem is asking (this was the manner in which the professor handled the earlier version of the problem i mentioned)
So, I need to show the other direction of this subset relation at the bottom
o p e
I don’t even know their definition
ah well you may still be able to help me then
I just need to show that bottom subset relation is equality given that division property
my course covers that soon should i be worried 
Wait so
If you go to lecture (unlike me) you'll do great
The divisibility condition gives you <
oh
Well no, I'm asking how to show >
Yeah I don’t think that follows from the divisibility
The divisibility conditions only can guarantee you <
Well it's true, but idk why
Afaict
Ok well, how might I show 2 monomial ideals are equal
Idk what a monomial ideal is
Also from the setup of the problem it looks like you’re assuming they’re equal
Like is this the entire problem?
It looks like this is only part of the question
Leading Term of the polynomial g
And what’s a Grobner basis
oh fuck I've seriously misunderstood this problem
Yeah it looked like it to me
Like under any reasonable interpretation of what it’s asking
I feel like the > containment ought to be trivial
But idk what any of this avtually is so idk

It's the leading term of g
I dont know definition of grobner basis
I should know though
apparently it is useful in fracking
It seems a niche topic, apparently
It's just so confusing
all this notation
Time for some good old contradiction maybe?
CONTRAPOSITIVE MWAHAHAHAH
eh nevemind
I choose to be satisfied with what I have
I could do the (i) part in the following way:
I tried defining an element y by conjugating it by an element of k but couldn't really proceed
Could someone give any hints?
Any ides for how to show x^6 + 3x^4 + 4x^2 + 1 is irreducible over Q? A couple grad students and I have been talking about it for a few hours, but so far we have made next to no progress. Wolfram says it is irreducible, but all the standard tricks dont seem to work.
Yeah...but what's your argument for the second one?
I don't know how to use the normal subgroup condition
i think the normal subgroup condition is being used by the fact that G/K even exists
and xK is a nice enough thing to talk about
eh, it's foundational
but it could be useful with the conjugation thing idk
i remember doing this q but i don't remember how it goes, lemme see...
lemme try something out
Cool... let me know
Thanks!
i talked to wew lads about this before but am still stuck
the thing on the right, that elements of SO2(R) are rotations
im having trouble showing that Mx dot My = x dot y using the properties of SO
that is a nice large whiteboard

sorry for ping, a friend of mine solved it using elements of SO in terms of sin and cos but that is lame and i really wanna get this way
Gonna meet det in like 30 mins I'll ask him lmao
yall go to the same uni 👀
moldi lore

do ping if you or they have any opinions tho pls
I tried this
But doesn't work until it commutes
im down cataclysmically atm and am stubborn
Ye sure

does it look at all reasonable 
Kinda funny 3 ppl at the same university in India are all active users
I'm one of your twitter followers does that count
who
who’s the third
same here kek
Me too from India 
ahh
Can someone double check my proof for me? I'll be presenting it in class, so i wanna make sure that I'm not making any egregious blunders—the problem seemed pretty trivial to me.
nah
'let g1, g2 both be the identity element'
so you're assuming implicitly that there is only one identity element
it doesn't affect the rest of your proof tho
however the notion of the order of a group also sorta assumes that there is only one element? try and do it with even more basic methods
we're talking like the four group axioms, basic
kai any thoughts on my thing up there 
god
i'm trying to do like 3 different things rn, i'll maybe get to your thing later lol
There are a lot more inactive people from my school in this server 
Hi!
When you're proving that a certain structure has a unique element satisfying a property, assume that there exist two elements that have the said property (no need to assume they're distinct because that's what you want to prove anyway), and show that the property will force both elements to be equal.
det is inactive now?
No
There's a
reaction literally 3 messages above
That's the det activity indicator
can i bother u to look at this pls 
So like Mx • My = x^t (M^t M) y = x^t y = x • y
Oh, so how are you defining the dot product?
no different than normal for R2 i suppose
that's the usual definition x • y = x^t y
wait
wow
i am dense
ok well in general tho is that line of reasoning enough of a proof though
bc the claim is this
so it's implying that we should use cos and sin shit
but me like visual stuff
Ye so that's good enough

good thing im the only one who knows latex so im the one typing up the hw 
Group hw? 
That's the stupidest shit I've ever heard 
and when i paired up with someone and we agreed privately to do it independently he slapped another person on us
hey y'all, i'm once again having a case of "i don't understand what this homework problem is asking of me", if anyone here can make sense of what i'm supposed to do i'd appreciate it

"Eisenstein’s criterion says that for any prime number p, a certain conclusion follow. Show that for any number p that is not prime, the same conclusion does not follow."
You are supposed to find a counterexample to the statement you get when you replace "prime" with "not prime" in the statement of eisenstein
correct me if i'm wrong but eisenstein's criterion says that if there exists a *specific* prime number p that satisfy certain conditions, then the conclusion follows
i'm not sure where "for any prime number p" comes from
Eisenstein is for all primes
It's just that the polynomial in question will not satisfy the hypothesis for all primes

Yo I have one question. In my linear algebra course we define a root of polynomial over a field. Then we proved the theorem : b is a root of f in K[x] iff (x-b)| f. But why do we define roots over a field? The theorem which I stated might work for rings in general and we can speak about roots in rings as well no?
You are right that this holds for commutative rings in general, however the following is true in an integral domain R but may not be outside of it
For n > 1, if a_1, ..., a_n are distinct roots of f(x) in R[x], then f(x) = (x-a_1)...(x-a_n)g(x)
But we usually want our ring to be a field because a polynomial ring R[x] is a PID if and only if R is a field
And PID's are usually very nice to work with
For instance, non-zero prime ideals in a PID are maximal
see i figure it's cuz like
"math should be collaborative"
but

Alright, thank you very much!
No problem!
Does this work for all commutative rings or just UfDs?
we were given once, a single guy did the whole thing, I didn't even know what the assignment was
I thought it was only guaranteed to be true of UFDs

i mean we did the hw "together"
You just divide by x-a with remainder. The remainder is then a constant, so if you evaluate the polynomial at a you get that constant which must be 0
but im redoing most of it lol
You don’t have Euclidean division for general rings though do you
You can always divide by monic polynomials
But you still have the division I see
Yes
Only if leading coefficient of divisor is unit
If it were possible for all, then it would be ED
They are also UFDs
I guess you can do GCDs in UFDs
But not EDs
Maybe that’s helpful
Because you still can only divide by monic
coming back to say thanks for the clarification, the proof turned out to be easier than expected thanks to you :)
Yeah that holds in general for all integral domains
Why integral if we can do what moldi just said
For n distinct roots
Not sure how degree not being additive is relevant
It's a direct from definition of domain argument for distinct roots
Try inducting on n
if i have room to slide in here and ask one more question i'd really appreciate it
my last hw problem is a beefy paragraph and i'm not quite sure what it is they're asking me to prove
here let me copy paste
When you “roll” an octahedron, each of the eight faces is equally likely to be facing up. Ordinary octahedral dice have the numbers 1 to 8 on the faces. Weird pairs of octahedral dice have certain positive integers on the faces (not simply the numbers 1 to 8 and not necessarily the same for the two octahedra in the pair) but have the amazing property that when you roll the two of them, you get the same probabilities for the sum as you do for ordinary octahedral dice. Find all weird pairs of octahedral dice.
Bruh that is indeed a handful
🥴
so for a weird pair, are they supposed to have the same probability together as a single die? as a pair of normal dice?
Imagine having a homework where the prof actually asks you creative and thoughtful questions that are worded in a “fun” way
Couldn’t be me
i have issues with the american education system and you summed most of them up in that one joke
I, too, share your issues with the American education system
...i'm having the creeping realization that this is probably a global thing isn't it
More or less lol
damn
Well it should be right? I mean if it’s not an integral domain you can only guarantee f(x)=(x-r_1)…(x-r_n)g(x)
You might check out Sichermen dice because that's what this sounds like
With g non constant possibly
Ah try x^2 - 1 in Z/8Z
Since the degrees of the linear factors don’t necessarily add up but in integral they do and so g has to be constant
That’s not integral though 🤔
It has 4 roots in Z/8Z but you can’t factor 4 roots out
Oh sorry I thought you were saying
you're absolutely right yeah
You could still factor out n roots in a non-integral domain
ok glad to know there's actually a frame of reference for this problem
i can work with this, thanks
I mean if each linear factor divides out x^2-1 can’t you do it but then you multiply by a « correction » polynomial g(x)that gets rid of two of the factors
Can you elaborate on what you just said here
Write it as in here in such a way that two of the factors cancel out with g
Or is that some of the linear factors divide each other in Z/8Z then 🤔
Can you construct such g(x)?
I don't see how you guarantee that
Hmm no you’re right I can’t
But so I can’t think of a good reason for why it doesn’t factor, does one of the factors fail to be irreducible or smth
Try proving by induction on number of roots
Aight I’ll do that when I get to a desk
Ah but wait x^2-1 has degree 2 and 4 roots
I was talking deg roots
Anyways I’ll talk about this later I have class now
have fun :)
It’s amazing that degrees aren’t additive in a general commutative ring
So I know that a polynomial is invertible if and only if its constant term is a unit, and all of its other coefficients are nilpotent
Is there some general conclusion of this but more degree n polynomials
IE like if f has degree r and g has degree s, r + s > n, but fg has degree n
What can i conclude about their coefficients
Okay I tried it out and see the issue I think
Linear factors aren’t necessarily prime in a non integral domain
this claim is just wrong right
So the induction can’t be completed
dont they have to be integers
sorry for interruption, but if it's wrong then proof is a quick fix
Rational works
If you write a = p/q, take A^q to get the identity
Integer a only gives the identity
what do you guys think of this proof so far, i'm starting to lose confidence in it by the second
group member wrote this and im having a small stroke 
weather update: bleh
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this isnt finished but it's wrong right
i think im using the claim in the proof after the second equal sign
but idk how else

you still busy kai 
Bruhhhhh why do you have to prove this
dumb bad homework
i can bitch and moan all day about this class but i wanna finish
ive been polishing this hw for literal hours bc i dont trust my group
theyre smart but im not risking stupid point deductions again
but yeah this class is emphasizing some of the less interesting stuff it seems
yeah i feel like in group theory you kinda have to slog through some boring proofs unfortunately :/
on the bright side, my huge paragraph up there turned out to be an alright proof to work through, i'm glad i'm done with that
so hopefully it gets better for your work too
anyway
now i am become sleepy, the goer to bed
The current time for nitezba is 04:05 AM (EST) on Thu, 24/02/2022.
Any ideas?
Hint: rational roots theorem
Hint: 1st isomorphism theorem

i heard that $(\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z})^{\times}$ can be finitely generated using $-1$ and $5$ for any prime $p$
JustKeepRunning
and that $-1$ has order $2$ and $5$ has order $2^{n-2}$
JustKeepRunning
can someone epxlain why $5$ has order $2^{n-2}$ cuz id see why
JustKeepRunning
what is n
i dont think this statement is correct either, have you tried any examples?
5 has order 2^{n-2} in (Z/2^{n}Z)^\times though
a proof can be found in e.g. ireland rosen
yes this is what ima trying to prove
it's in chapter 4 of ireland rosen
dont think there is an intuitive way to "just see" it
Show that $n$ coprime with $|K|<\infty$ implies that
$$\begin{aligned}
K& \rightarrow K\ k & \mapsto k^n
\end{aligned}$$
is injective, hence surjective. So, there is some $\bar{k} \in K$ such that $\bar{k}^{n} = (x^n)^{-1}$. Take then $y=x\bar{k}$ and show why $n$ is the smallest positive integer such that $y^n = 1$, keeping in mind that $n$ is the smallest positive integer such that $x^n \in K$.
Mat
But for that shouldn't $\bar{k}$ commute with $x$?
I did this
ℝ𝕂
You could probably do it just considering 2-adic valuation, i.e. lifting the exponent lemma
Actually yeah it's exactly that, basically a two line proof that way lol
Letting k be the order of 5 mod 2^n since 4 divides 5-1 the lemma apllies. Hence v(k) = v(5^k - 1) - v(5-1) = v(m2^n) - 2 >= n-2
And the smallest such k is a multiple of the order so it is the order
That being 2^{n-2}
Wouldnt that only show it has no linear factors? What about quadratic and cubic polynomials?
Oh good call, that didn't cross my mind, I'm sorry. I hadn't seen you already solved for commutative case as well
I thought about it a bit but seems hard, maybe I'll try again some other time, keep me updated if you're able!
So im a bit stuck on trying to construct a diffeomorphism between SU(2) --> S^3, how do i map the matrices to points on the 3-sphere?
i can see its possible since C^2 is isomorphic to R^4, just confused how to construct it :x
oh mhm
if we say (a,b) is in C^2
and just use the sphere formula we get |a|^2 + |b|^2 = 1
so would our mapping be A=[matrix of SU(2)] |----> (a,b)?
Can anyone help me clarify if I am understanding this right: Lets say I am working over $\C$ and have $a$ which has minimal polynomial over $Q$; $x^3 + 2$. This means that in the extension $Q(a)$, $1,a,a^2$ is a Q-basis. Does this mean the degree of the extension is 3, but $Q(a)$ is still a simple extension?
MasakaBakana
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yes, in general if a is algebraic over K, then the simple extension K(a)/K has degree equal to the degree of the minimal polynomial of a over K
is there a trick to see how to write for example u^3 in the case as a Q-linear combination of basis: 1,u.u^2 if I know the minimal poly
yes. in Q(a), a^3 + 2 = 0 so a^3 = -2 for example
yea that was the easy case, but something like a^4
-2a
how do you see that?
multiply both sides by a
ah, so this works in geenral for any a^n
ye, basically the image of any polynomial from Q[x] in Q(a) can be reduced in this way to get some linear combo of 1, a, and a^2
Given an injective $\mbb{Z}$-module $Q$, and a (commutative, unitial) ring $A$, I'm trying to prove that
[\text{Hom}_{\mbb{Z}} (A, Q) ]
is an injective $A$-module. This is an exercise a book I'm reading. Any idea how to go about this?
Porphyrion
Probably useful: Just before this it was proved that for an A-module M to be injective it suffices that for any ideal I of A, and any A-linear map I->M, it factors through some map A->M.
If I have fields $K \subset L$, where $L$ as an $K$-vector space has dimension 2. I can take a K-basis $1,a$ and it is clear to me then $L=K(a)$ is a simple extension of K. This should mean that a has minimal poly of degree 2 over K. How do I see that $a^2$ is in K? or is this not true in general
MasakaBakana
Try to take an explicit minimal polynomial for $a$.
And write what does it mean that $a$ is a root of this polynomial
Adrien
I see it now from the quadratic formula 🙂
You are correct, I made a mistake
i just did a proof that left divisibility implies right divisibility in a monoid (group because it has division but whatever) and I'm happy
first step i proved that for all x,y there exists z such that xy = yz
then proved that left inverses are also right inverses
then that y\x = (y^(-1))x
and finally concluded
hello I'm learning more about vector spaces
how can I do the following exercise
Consider the quotient spaces obtained by reducing the space $\mathscr{P}$ of polynomials modulo various subspaces. If $\mathscr{M} = \mathscr{P}_n$, is $\mathscr{P} / \mathscr{M}$ finite dimensional? What if $\mathscr{M}$ is the subspace consisting of all even polynomials? What if $\mathscr{M}$ is the subspace consisting of all polynomials divisible by $x_n$ (where $x_n(t) = t^n$)?
vik
did you figure this out?
Ok this is really weird. The book i'm reading is defining the grading by degree of the free algebra F[x_1,...x_n] over F, but they insists the grading starts from degree 1. it's weird to me that they're ignoring constant polynomials. In fact in the entire book so far they're ignoring the constant polynomials, but not putting in the constant polynomials makes F[X] not an algebra, on the other hand, the subject of the book is polynomial identities, and you can't really talk about a homomorphism from the free algebra to a nonunital algebra. I think it may be implicit that all algebras are unital associative but i'm not sure. Even if all algebras are unital associative, it still doesn't explain why they start the grading from 1.
idk if there's something i'm missing or if this is just inconsistent
I hate simple looking statements that are deceptively hard to prove 
proofed it
(I think
)
You can actually do this in a very neat way using adjoints. A right adjoint to an exact functor will send injectives to injectives
Abstract Algebra: "Oh yea the stuff we're covering is pretty heady at times. I don't even know how to explain it"
Also Abstract Algebra: "Today we are talking about how to evaluate polynomials"
omgggg homomorphisms from R[x] to R 
ye lol
we covered these in my undergrad course also so this is review
it's just funny
I get why we have to do it
evaluating polynomials as functions isn't really something that's built into the polynomial ring so you have to do a slight modicum of trolling
Try first to prove the following:
Let E be a vector space, and F,G be subspaces of E such that E is the direct sum of F and G
Take (f_i) a basis of F and (g_j) a basis of G
Then the images of the (g_j) through the projection E -> E/F form a basis of E/F
ye
Considering the number of elements in these basis, you can deduce the dimension of the quotient
actually I do have a notation question. Everytime I've seen this taught I see people say "Oh write ev_a: R[x] -> R as the evaluation map of f to f(a)" but this notation is only used when introducing this topic. I've never seen anyone actually use such notation. Does anyone?
is the set of homomorphisms from R[X] to R the same cardinality as R
start with finite fields then
we don't care about the ring itself
There are only 2 homomorphisms from F2[x] to F2
Homomorphisms.from R[x] to R are uniquely decided by the image of x so this is true
oh of course
it is
ohh so I wasn't capping
oh yeahhh the generator images thing
We can think of R[x] as the free algebra of rank 1 over R then this is obvious by the universal property
if it was groups I would've remembered that 
@waxen hedge i havent yet seen general morphisms between spaces so i dont know what a projection is
so every point of evaluation for a polynomial ring is a homomorphism to the base ring and nothing else is
I considered thinking about R and R[x] as R-modules but started getting flashbacks so I stopped
this book studies spaces before transformations
Yes
the technical definition is that a transformation T is a projection if and only if T = T^2 but that definition smells
you can think of it instead as mapping one basis vector to 0 and keeping all the others the same
I think u need the ring to be commutative and unital for this tho alison
hm
wait
non-unital ring??
I thought all rings had to have monoidal multiplication
they do 
Depends on your definition of ring
This is not true
Those are for F_2-algebra maps
I've heard the term rng for these
Okay wel let me amend
No one uses the term rng
I swear I've seen tropo use rng
But this point
This is only for R-algebra maps
ok, good
R-algebra map?
It did seem sus to me
Namely for Z or any Z/nZ
Every map from Z/nZ[X] is an algebra map
Because all integers are forced to map to themself
Just by 1 mapping to 1 and additivity
because the trivial ring homomorphism isn't an evaluation map
Do u have an example of a non trivial ring homo from poly ring to base ring that is not an R algebra map @next obsidian
does the kernel give a tangent space on a group in general?
What is a tangent space on a group without any extra structure?
something something direct sum
If you have any endomorpjism
Given a map f:R -> S
You can just make a map R[x] -> S
idk, what do you mean without any extra structure?
By sending x to anything in S, and mapping the scales via f
True that's fair
Catching up on Algebraic Number Theory. I am going through the definitions of trace, norm, discriminant. Trace and norm I mostly get, discriminant not so much (I am looking for some intuition/interpretation more than anything else) @ if you reply pl 🙂
What's your definition of a tangent space
vector space at some point p on our manifold whose elements are the tangent vectors on the curve passing through the point p
So what do you mean in general in this case, a general lie group?
So actually what I did there was just write S as an R-algebra in multiple ways
Each of those f’s turns S into a new R-algebra
But if you strip the algebra structure and consider S just as a ring this gives lots of different maps
yeah i guess so
This only works if R is commutative unital right
Like otherwise you can't give an Algebra structure I think
how useful is cat theory for intuition in algebra
But also like
Literally backwards
IMO
hm
Besides some sorts of heuristics
Like “oh mapping out properties are usually colimits, and those commute. So localization and quotients maybe commute”
But in general you’re going the other direction
ah
can anyone tell what the author is trying to get at here?
I asked my lecturer and he said he's trying to say we're assuming we can compute these complex m'th roots, that if we want to solve them in general you have polynomials in cosines and sines and it's not obvious we can solve them
though I didnt totally understand what he was getting at
that's pretty much it tbh
ok cool so we're basically saying assume 'm'th (complex) roots exist'
and we know they do by the complex exponential formula?
If I understand correctly, your meaning is to use that the functor F: Ab-> Mod_A given by N->Hom(A,N) is adjoint to the forgetful functor Mod_A->Ab?
Right
Or is that quite right?
It should be adjoijt to restriction of scalars
Which is right adjoint to extension of scalars
So I think explicitly
Hom_A(M, Hom_Z(A,Q)) = Hom_Z(M (x)_A A, Q) = Hom_Z(M,Q)
And right, so all you need to note is that
If M^• is an exact sequence of A-modules
Then considering it as Z-modules it’s still exact
So I guess it is just the forgetful functor, yeah
Oh right, tensor and Hom are adjoints 😀
Yup
I wrote it this way because I’ve seen this trick used before
In particular, I saw it used to show that O_X-mod has enough injectives
Taking a stalk is like f^* from a point or something IIRC
And it has an adjoint and blah blah blah
Or something like that
Actually this exercise is part of the proof that Mod_A has enough injectives...
Yeah that's a nice trick, thanks
Like if P is projective then Hom(P, A) is?
Right it’s like
A left adjoint to an exact functor sends projectives to projectives
Just because Hom_D(fP, C^•) = Hom_C(P, gC^•)
So if g is exact then gC^• is still exact
And then the latter complex is exact because P is projective

@rapid slate I looked at it again and noticed that argument can be adjusted to general case, like so (the normality of K is needed for the steps)
Mat
Does it sound good in your opinion?
How do you do part b?
hmmm'
I guess first step is
do you know what bijection they are talking about
honestly idk bro
do you know what the correspondence theorem is?
yea if H is a normal subgroup of G then there exists a bijection of G mod H
If I have a,b are algebraic over Q. I see that [Q:Q(a)], [Q:Q(b)] is finite, but why is [Q(a,b) : Q(a)] finite. Is this dimension trivally bounded?
b is still algebraic over Q(a)
And Q(a,b) = Q(a)(b)
since b is algebraic over Q, it must be trivally algebraic over Q(a)
Yeah
Just take a polynomial it satisfies over Q
That has coefficients in Q(a) too
Cuz they’re in Q
yeah i'm dumb lol, that is indeed obvious
It’s okay, you’re just manifesting your pfp for a moment
would you say autoisomorphism or isoautomorphism
What
automorphism
oh
autobijectivehomormophism
Homoautoisoendomorphsim
wait do automorphisms have to be bijective
yes
they are isomorphism



