#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Β· Page 675 of 407
The left Cayley graph with generators {s_1, ..., s_n} is isomorphic to the right Cayley graph with generators {s_1^(-1), ..., s_n^(-1)}
So if we take our left graph, replace all the labels for the generators with their inverses
a -> a^-1
We will get the right graph essentially?
Or if you consider it as a nonoriented graph then no need to invert the generators
After we change the direction of the arrows
We flip all the arrows and get the right graph
The vertices themselves may not necessarily be the same ofc (will be G^-1)
I think I can see it
so you'll probably want S to be symmetric too
Left graph
- reverse all arrows
- replace all vertices with inverse
Right graph
I will try it π€
gm chillgebra 
yooo

is it true that for any a,b algebraic numbers then Q(a,b)=Q(a+b)?
Not necessarily
But this does work in almost all cases
You need a condition that a - a' β b - b' where a' and b' are any conjugates of a and b respectively
generally a similar result holds, called the primitive element theorem
See the proof of the primitive element theorem for details
Lol
sniped


Finding $Gal(Q[x,y]/(x^5-2, 1+y+y^2+y^3+y^4) : Q)$.\\
The roots of $h^5-2$ are $xy^a, 0\le a\le 4$.\
The roots of $1+h+h^2+h^3+h^4$ are $y^b, 1\le b \le 4$.\\
Let $\sigma(a, b)(x, y) = (xy^a, y^b)$.
$$\sigma(a, m)\sigma(b, n)(x, y) = \sigma(a, m)(xy^b, y^n)$$
$$ = (xy^{a+bm}, y^{mn}) = \sigma(a+bm, mn)(x, y)$$\\
So
$$\sigma(a,m)f(b,n) = \sigma(a+bm, mn)$$
Shuri2060
Shuri2060
Then I can see we have the multiplicative group of F5 acting on the additive group
So it is the semidirect product of C4 acting on C5
@hidden haven did u do all this in your head D:
I see I see. Finally get it now tho lol
This looks kinda right ye
Nice
But how did you prove that these are automorphisms
Ο (a,b)
I did it in scratchwork
Nice
There's a problem with that
So you are defining a map on this field by defining it on the generators
im defining it on Q, x, y
Then extending it using the homomorphism properties
Ye
This extension may not be well defined
Because there may be multiple ways to write the same element in terms of the generators
I think the most painless way to do this would be to just prove and use theorems about this stuff π
All K-homomorphisms are automorphisms, is this not enough?
We don't even have a K-homomorphism yet
Because you are defining the function on the whole field by that last equation
It definitely fixes Q. And I construct it so it follows the homomorphism rules
That depends on how that element is being written in terms of x and y
That construction is not well defined necessarily
There is only one way to write each element mod the 2 polynomials, no?
You can add one of the polynomials to it 
This will be hard I think 
arent I defining this homomorphism on the field
Q[x,y]/(x^5-2, 1+y+y^2+y^3+y^4)
This one
and each element can be uniquely written as Qx^ay^b
Not necessarily
unique up to modding?
You mean [x] and [y], where [] means equivalence class in the quotient
But then the issue is that you can instead just add [xβ΅-2] to it
It's still the same element
But that changes its representation in terms of x and y
π€
I think I see and don't see hmmmmmm
So you're saying this is not a trivial issue that can be fixed with a little notation adjustment?
ie you are picking another element of [x]
No
You have to use
That should fix it
The problem is that you've defined a map on β [x, y]
And you need a map on the quotient
So you use the first isomorphism theorem
[q] -> [q]
[x] -> [x][y^a]
[y] -> [y^b]
But then this may not be well defined
I := (x^5-2, 1+y+y^2+y^3+y^4)
Because [x] = [xβ΅ + x - 2]

So it isnt 'obvious' apriori I can write everything as
sum Qx^ay^b
with 0 =< a =< 4, 0 =< b =< 3
that looks like this
Hmm ok
eh?
How would you eliminate sums
Can I use this twice?
That tells me the those powers of x and y combined will form a basis
Ye so you'll have a 20 dimensional space
What I'm saying is that a general element doesn't just look like qx^iy^j
Moldilocks1337 β
Yes
Then once you look at this element in the quotient, this form need not be unique
Example
So this isn't directly a well defined map
I am applying this theorem on the quotient
Because what it does to an element, depends on how that element is written, and there are multiple ways to write a single element
Is that not enough ? It would tell me I can write that form uniquely
ohhh
Yes ok that will give you a vector space homomorphism because basis
And then you'll have to just check multiplication
ok, I didnt write that explicitly at the start π
didn't realise i was leaning on this
thanks for pointing that out. Edit, probably missing that the roots cycle as well to conclude they act like C4, C5

This feels like the 1st non-trivial galois group I've found π
My exercises are mostly like x^2-2, etc

Am I wrong or in Vn(x,G) are they not allowing for monomials here, or generally onoy allowing for multilinear polynomials where every factor has all n indeterminates (up to action of some g)? G is an automorphism and antiautomorphism subgroup and x^g:=g(x).
It's also not clear to me why the g_i are labelled (G is finite but not necessarily of order n) but ig it's just to emphasize that each entry has a distinct associated (anti)automorphism right?
Shuri2060
(or rather, how many)
Is that polynomial irreducible?
Usually you figure out whether you have all the roots or not by just doing subfield of β inside β memes lol
In some cases you can use trace and norm
If you have to prove $0\cdot a=0$ for a in a ring, can you basically copy paste the proof for the statement in vector spaces?
Mosh
since vector spaces have the same structure (then some) as rings
It is and ok hmmmmm. Looks like I will have to wait for my lecturer to post more content
Vector spaces don't have more structure than rings
You can't multiply any 2 vectors
But the same argument should probably work idk what argument you have in mind but you can write 0 = 0 + 0
yeah that argument
then b = additive inverse of a
oh wait, no, 0+0a=0a+0a
0+0a+b=0a+0a+b then basically done
Ye
my textbook talks about S_n before defining groups lol
this just keeps getting weirder
S_n is the prototype for groups
Rubik's cube enthusiasts in shambles π
So defining S_n first is somewhat reasonable
just wanna make sure im getting something right: the sequence 3412 isn't itself an element of S_4, but if we consider it as a permutation of 1234 then it is
also would like to continue talking abt this if it's possible/worthwhile 
@delicate orchidπ π
I'm gonna cry
s4 is not a group of sequences it's a group of permutations
the permutation (13)(24) is the element of S_4 that corresponds to that permutation of {1, 2, 3 ,4}
{3, 4, 1 ,2} is the result of applying the group action of (13)(24) to {1, 2, 3, 4}
that's what i meant! yay!
how wholesome
i will bother u about this later
i must acquire sustenance
πππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππππ...
wha t
classic
i just had a stroke
check out mlg group theory
what DID he mean by this
i know not
i am groping around in a fuckster truck of material that im probably overcomplicatiing
get this man a phd
there's a nice presentation of S_n if that's what you want
probably yes
well nice in the fact it has two generators
the uhh relations are uhh
actually why am I even bothered, this presentation is beyond useless
you can generate it with "swaps" of elements i.e. permutations of the form (1a) for all a in {1, 2, ..., n}
although now I'm sure you want to see the presentation I found, so
$S_n = \langle t, c \colon t^2=c^n=(tc)^{n-1}=(tct^{-1}c^{-1})^3=(tc^kt^{-1}c^{-k})^2 = 1 : \forall k \in {2, ... \lfloor n/2 \rfloor} \rangle$
useless
Wew Lads Tbh (200 π) β
I was wondering if I could get some help on part a). I am personally not even sure where to begin.
Here's what I do know. If we let F(x)=c_nx^n+.....+c_0, then the leading coefficient of f(x) will be c_np+1, which is not divisible by p. Lastly, p doesn't divide F(a), which means that p^2 does not divide pF(a), and that is somehow supposed to be correlated to the constant term. But I personally do not understand why this is, and I am not too sure how to show all non-leading coefficients are divisible by p.
@lethal cipher try to apply Eisenstein's to f(x+a)=x^n+pF(x+a). if f(x+a) is irreducible over Q, then so is f(x)
How would I go about proving that every image of a cyclic group is cyclic?
Would I want to show that there's a generating element for the image and if so how would I get there?
The image of the generator
o
homomorphisms are uniquely determined by where they map the generating set - which for cyclic groups is just one element
I mean it makes to sense to me I just don't know how I would start a proof
I'd do it by contradiction, assume that the image isn't cyclic and see what breaks
if elements of a group commute, must their inverses commute as well?
yes
is that just bc closure??
ab = ba
take inverses of both sides
(ab)^{-1} = (ba)^{-1}
=> b^{-1}a^{-1} = a^{-1}b^{-1}
no way jose
ah so they dont
what
no they do?
I've literally written $b^{-1}a^{-1} = a^{-1}b^{-1}$
oh i misread that 
Wew Lads Tbh (200 π) β
lol
rip
I did the proof differently
how did you end up doing it?
Idk how you would do it by contradiction lmao
I'll just ss what I wrote
Honestly idk if it works
It feels too loose
nah that's a nice proof and now that I think about it is way nicer than mine 
f(a) generates the image of <a> yeah
I'm like two weeks behind in my class so
also this is basically lin alg but in general, what kinds of linear transformations/matrices preserve the angle between vectors
I'm kinda rushing
im tryna be lazy
k*M where M is in O(n)
i.e., some orthogonal transformation plus some scaling
kind of cheating saying that "a matrix is orthogonal if it's in the group of orthogonal matricies"
so I'll say that a matrix is orthogonal if and only if it's transpose is it's inverse
my line of reasoning for this so far is that since SO is a subgroup of SL, we know every matrix must have det=1, which means that orientation and area are preserved
so the only thing to throw on that would be to show that matrices in SO preserve angle of basis vec's too
you can preserve angles without preserving orentation https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/359052581022203914/940656085893799936/unknown.png
and you can preserve angles without preserving area
trying to remember the proof I think it has a dot product in there
LETS GOOOOO
anyways
i know this much i was hoping there might be a way to show that a matrix's transpose being its inverse preserved angle
ahh yes... it's angle preserving if and only if $Mx \cdot My = x \cdot y$ yesss mmm yummy
Wew Lads Tbh (200 π) β
someone asked this exact question yesterday
classmates π
$Mx \cdot My = (Mx)^TMy$ right? I haven't used a dotproduct in 142334 years
Wew Lads Tbh (200 π) β
the dimensions work out I'm sticking with it
now $(Mx)^T$ is just $x^TM^T$ so we get $x^T(M^TM)y$ which must be $x \cdot y = x^Ty$ yesssss
That helped a lot. It does most of the work for you. Do you have any tips for part b)?
Spamakinπ·
ok I'll write it out neatly now I've figured it out
wait so that line of reasoning does work?? pog
angles are preserved by a linear transformation if and only if $Mx \cdot My = x \cdot y$. Using the fact that $A \cdot B = A^TB$ we get $$Mx \cdot My = (Mx)^TMy = x^T(M^TM)y = x \cdot y = x^Ty$$$$\Rightarrow M^TM = I$$
Wew Lads Tbh (200 π) β
I really hope this is right 
A dot B π
sure why not
mf I've been using specific inner product spaces on FUNCTIONS for the past 2 months
I'll make EVERYTHING an inner product space
i forgot for a sec that dot product is related to angle between vectors kek
yeah that's like, it's think 
that's true for the cross product as well but I doubt anything useful comes from it
non-associative
$$AB = A^TB$$
$$\Rightarrow ABB^{-1} = A^TBB^{-1} \Rightarrow A = A^T$$
$$\Rightarrow A(A^T)^{-1} = I$$
Wew Lads Tbh (200 π) β
assuming A^T and B are actually invertible, of course
If $n$ and $m$ are coprime integers, how can we show that $n$ and $1-\zeta_m$ are coprime in $\mathbb{Z}[\zeta_m]$?
Pishleback
yes?
which is... exactly what I got?
If g has order 18, and G=<g>. What are all of the generators of G?
To be a generator is just to say it has order 18
Try to figure out a formula for the order of g^n in terms of the order of g, and of n
Yup
okay cool
Try to prove it too
You can just adapt that formula to this situation
I just need a direct answer but thank you tho
more like, i needed to clarify if i was right or not
Do you mean the possible subgroups of G? Since G is cyclic they all have to be cyclic and can therefore have orders equal to the divisors of |G|.
For $a,b\in R$ (Ring), I want to show $(-a)\cdot(-b)=a\cdot b$, is this as simple as I think it is, or is there a reason I can't say $-1\cdot -1=1$?
Mosh
see if you can prove that $-1 \cdot -1 = 1$ for any ring
Wew Lads Tbh (200 π) β
(hint, 0 = 0*0 )
yeah
so do that case 1st, then use it in the general case
and then once you've done that you can adapt the proof very easily to show that (-a)*(-b) = a*b
or, if your ring is commutative, just factor out -1 times -1 lol
yeah my proof rn has it being used, so just make 2 cases, a=b=1 and then a!=b neither 1 
But I'm struggling to see where the hint of 0=0*0 comes in rn
1+(-1) = 0
0=(1+(-1))*0
Mosh
Then pick the right associativities QED?
It also feels weird FOILing here but cest la vie lol
you get a (-1)^2-1 = 0 => (-1)^2 = 1
why lol it's just polynomial multiplication
No?
- in rings aren't always commutative
wait no
addition is always commutative
π€¨
the cross terms give a problem no?
you just cancel the $1\times1+1\times-1$
Wew Lads Tbh (200 π) β
leaving you with $-1+(-1)^2 = 0$
Wew Lads Tbh (200 π) β
Wew Lads Tbh (200 π) β
Nope, any ring R
all rings are commutitive aren't we lucky
wait is -1 in the centre of the multiplicative monoid for any ring uhhhh 
wut
I'm trying to just factor out -1^2 from (-a)(-b)
It is
yeah it is
write the element (-a) as -1*(1+1+1+...), distribute, commute with 1 (1 = -1^2 as we've proven and powers of elements always commute with each other), slam it all back into a(-1)
$(-a)(-b)=[(-1)a][(-1)b]=[(-1)(-1)]ab=1ab=ab$
Mosh
so yeah now we can just do that
no I'm writing -a as -1 times a sum of 1
You canβt do that
what
What if a = x^2
god I hate ring theory so much
Inside of k[x]
right I give up
But just do this
just gonna say it commutes because it always does in any ring I can think of
-aβ’-b = -1β’aβ’-1β’b = -1β’-1β’aβ’b = ab
OH DUH, -1*1=-1, I just realized π€¦
-1 commutes with everything
yes that's what I'm trying to prove, chmonkey
Oh lol
You want to use uniqueness of additive inverse
Show that -1β’a + a = 0
And that aβ’-1 + a = 0
Then both of the things on the left are the inverse of a under addition
And those equalities follow from distributivitiy I think
yeah that's what I was thinking
(-1 + 1)β’a
factor a out
Versus aβ’(-1 + 1)
then a0 = 0a = 0
Yup
so glad I've never actually had to deal with non-commutitive rings
and I never willlllll
wait, this assumes commutativity 
multiplication in the ring
And I proved above that -1 commutes with everything
You only switched where -1 and a are in the middle there
Oh I missed that
Yee
this right?
Yup
You multiply by a on the two sides
This shows -1β’a and aβ’-1 are both the additive inverse to a
So theyβre the same

Swag
Been working through the rings section of Artin's algebra (rings defined here as commutative with 1) with a friend, and I have some leftover problems I wasn't able to crack/want to verify. One important one is showing that a function $\varphi$ on $R\left[x,y\right]$ given by $x \mapsto x+f(y)$ with all else fixed is an automorphism. By the substitution principle it's sufficient to prove that this is a bijection. I believe it is enough to say that a well-defined left and right inverse exists, in this case $\varphi^{-1}(g(x,y)) = g(x-f(y), y)$, am I nuts?
zd
Yeah mulling it over myself it makes sense, so now after that I am stumped on a problem that hints at using the result of the first problem: determining all automorphisms on $\mathbb{Z}[x]$. The coefficients of any polynomial are fixed, so it depends only on where we send $x$. My logic was that if we send $x$ to something of higher degree then the way we map it back can't be a homomorphism since the degree can't decrease, otherwise sending $x$ back gives you a constant and you lose the bijection. Hence the only options are $x \mapsto ax+b$, but if $a\neq 1$ then we would have something wacky like $x = \phi^{-1}(ax+b) = cax+bc+d = x$ for non-unit $ca$
zd
Therefore we have only $x \mapsto x+a$
zd
OH

I guess the previous problem just finishes the whole thing then? Since it's just a special case of it that this is always an automorphism
Well this one is easy
I'm wondering if there's some big brain way to crack this proof without the logic I used, using mostly the result of the previous problem
yeah
No, what you did is good
You're missing a small bit
Noting that any automorpjism fixes Z is important
Why did you jump to a \neq 1?
Yeah
Oh I guess thatβs right thatβs right
thanks for validating that there's probably not some super obvious way to use the previous problem besides what I already did, I was weirded out cause Artin writes "(see previous problem)" at the end of the problem description lol
also thanks that means $x \mapsto -x+a$ works for sure too so I missed that case, slapping any unit there gives you a nice two sided inverse either way
zd
Yeah
Now I'm gonna go back to crying about one of my lecturers
I'm not gonna be to harsh on them as they're a recent postdoc
And it's UK, so they won't have much experience teaching
But like, ree
Some bad decisions have been made
why is this called "Lattice"
like for example the diamond isomorphism theorem I get why it's called Diamond
if you draw out the lattice of a group
what is the lattice of a group 
the lattice of a quotient group is basically that lattice chopping off the part under the quotiented group
yes
neat
When we're trying to prove that any cycle is a product of transpositions
My textbook just uses the previous theorem that any permutation can be written as a product of disjoint cycles
But if we're using $$(a_{1}, a_{2})(a_{2},a_{3})etc.$$ then aren't we not using disjoint cycles
Rishi
like $$(a_{1}, ..., a_{n}) = (a_{1}, a_{2})(a_{2},a_{3})...(a_{n-1}, a_{n})$$
Rishi
this is probably a really stupid question but im blanking nr
It is a product of transpositions, not necessarily disjoint transpositions
It can be expressed as a product of disjoint cycles though
Where cycles can have length greater than 2
Does using g' to denote g inverse clash with any common notation that uses ' in Algebra? (ik its not convention)
Another problem in Artin I'm still stumped on, but I'll just mention the part I want to check so I can try the other part myself without spoilers uwu:
Trying to find the kernel of $\varphi: \mathbb{C}[x,y]\rightarrow \mathbb{C}[t]$ given by $x \mapsto t+1$, $y \mapsto t^3 -1$. Clearly $f(x,y) = (x-1)^3 - (y+1) = x^3 - 3x^2 + 3x -y -2$ is in the kernel, and viewing this as a polynomial in $y$ (isomorphism to $(\mathbb{C}[x])[y]$ formalizes this) we can see the remainder $r(x,y)$ by division of anything in the kernel by $f(x,y)$ gives us a polynomial in $x$ only. It's unclear to me to how proceed formally from here but intuitively if we send everything through $\varphi$, the remainder goes to $r(t+1)=0$. I guess now since $r(x,y) = r(x,0)$, just use that $x\mapsto x+1$ doesn't change the degree and we have $r(x,y) = 0$. Feel free to go error hunting in my sketch here, much appreciated π
zd
To be clear you only get a polynomial in x since r must be less than degree 1 in C[x][y]
Wait isn't that sometimes notation for taking the derived subgroup a certain number of times
Haven't heard of this. Staring at your Q and no clue.
Ah yeah so derived group/commutator subgroup of a group G is sometimes denoted [G,G] or just G'
Ah ok didnt know
the hyphen is useful cause you can keep going deeper and get a sequence of subgroups $G^{(n+1)} = [G^{(n)}, G^{(n)}]$
zd
so it's less clumsy notation than the brackets often
ty
agggh well I'm pretty convinced this works to show that this polynomial generates the kernel since we map to $\mathbb{C}[x][y]$, then we have an isomorphism (restricted to the constants in $\mathbb{C}[x][y]$) taking $r(x)(y)$ to $r(t+1)$, and since the latter polynomial is 0 so must be the first one
zd
it made sense intuitively already after just looking at the division argument, but I had a hard time coming up with a precise way to put a formal argument into words here with all this mapping business
Wait I think I have some more intuition I didn't realize fully earlier... say, more generally, we have $a$ and $b$ in the kernel of a ring homomorphism, and suppose there is sufficient structure to get a remainder by division of $a$ by $b$. So this isn't necessarily for all $a, b$ in the ring. Now we have $a=bq+r$, and yeet the homomorphism to get that $r$ is also in the kernel. If we can show $r=0$, we simultaneously get that the kernel is $(b)$ and we've lifted the curtain off to show that $b$ dividing $a$ and no nonzero $r$ existing is an if and only if kind of situation. This is in principle super obvious
zd
But keeping it in mind is useful when looking at divisions like these is nice because now I can go and say for this kind of setup "ah yes remainder always in kernel"
I'm leaving out a lot of exceptions but just the intuition is what I'm happy with here
even more obvious connection, without applying the homomorphism, a-bq = r, kernels are ideals boom
i think there's smth in napkin about this
can anyone give me list of the properties that can be inherited going from R to R[x]
It wildly depends on what R is, eg if R is a field, R[x] is a euclidean domain. But it usually isnβt when R is just a mere commutative ring.
just commutative rings
like i know noetherian and integral domainess is preserved
anything else
UFD too
the latter contains elements of the form 2f(x) + xg(x)
In particular (2) don't have x
doesn't the first also though
oh wait shoot
u have to have a nonzero power of 2 right
Ye
not if g(x) isn't divisible by 2 yeah exactly
oh i see ok thx so much
speaking of ideals with two generators, I'm trying to show that any ideal $I$ containing that kernel from earlier, $K=(x^3-3x^2+3x-y-2)$, can be generated by two elements. I noted that if we take $i(x,y) \in I$, $i(x,y) = i(x,y) + k(x,y) - k(x,y) = i_2(x,y) + k(x,y)$ with $k(x,y) \in K$
maybe this is a red herring route but I figured making some kind of sum would help since I eventually want that there are $a_I(x,y), b_I(x,y)$ so that for all $i(x,y) \in I$, $i(x,y) = v(x,y)a_I(x,y,) + w(x,y)b_I(x,y)$
zd
v and w unrestricted (this is all in $\mathbb{C}[x,y]$ btw)
zd
pls no full spoilers but I think I need a lil push in a good direction
I remember looking at this last week and being like uhhhhh... yeah idk lol
well if you evaluate through the homomorphism, $i(t+1,t^3 -1) = i_2(t+1, t^3 - 1)$
zd
uhh nvm idk lol
Suppose M is an abelian group, which also has a structure of a (finite dimensional) vector space over F. Is this vector space structure uniquely determined up to isomorphism?
ok so like
6ii, 7, and 8
I have no idea how to do these quickly
these are on a practice midterm for me and I understand in theory how to do them but doing them quickly I have no idea
What is C(x) and Cl(x)
oh my bad
C(x) is the centralizer of x
and Cl(x) is the conjugacy class of x
and N( <x> ) is the normalizer of <x>
you kinda a god for being able to do any of this quickly lmao
completely forgot how this works outside of the class equation
Every cycle only commutes with its powers
or something that is completely disjoint
and all cycles of the same length are conjugates
That should give you 6)
the numbers I got
but like
the isomorphisms
so like the centralizer of (1 2)(3 4) has 8 elements
is that Z_8? D_8?
ok well
clearly not Z_8 cause nothing has order 8
but like you get the idea
or better
centralizer of (1 2)(3 4 5) has 6 elements
is that S_3? Z_2 x Z_3? D_6?
The middle one is just Z_6
sure
well itβs two disjoint cycles
oh yea so no elements of order 6
so Z6
oh wait yea
there are π
Hm ok
ok then what about 7?
some of it is easy-ish
like order 2, that's elements made of 1 or 2 disjoint 2-cyces
orders can be 1 2 3 4 5 6
yea
I could have 5 choose 2 transpositions or 5 choose 2 * 3 choose 2 / 2 I think products of 2 disjoint 2-cycles?
wait no that sounds too big
thatβs about right
hm ok
Anyone have any ideas on this?
Not a hw question btw
Hmm
I saw that
So first of all I assume the structure of vector space agrees with its abelian group structure
As in, the + is the same
that's what I presumed too
I also think no
So the structure of vector space
Is the same as a map from F -> End(M)
Where this is the group endomorpjisms of M
Literally all this is saying is, any element f in F determines a map on M
It should be true for β I guess
Namely, x -> fx
Now, given a vector space structure on M
Aka a map F -> End(M)
We could compose with any automorpjism of F
To give a new vector space structure on M
I guess I didnβt have to phrase it this way but
So good
In terms of like elements

If you had the original scalar multiplication
Yes, but lets say I have a vector space M_1 and M_2, each with the same underlying abelian group M, but different induced vector space structures F --> End(M_i). Are M_1 and M_2 necessarily isomorphic as vector spaces?
I agree there can be different ways to define a vector space structure, but I wonder if there can be non-isomorphic different ways
Oh non-isomorphic
I mean yeah omegalol
Hereβs an extreme example
But this should probably convince you non-extreme examples exist
Just let V be a a vector space over F
Define a new structure by setting fβ’v = 0 for all f, all v
Oh this doesnβt work
MonkaS
lol
I feel like you can frame this in terms of the like F -> End(M) thing
Like maybe isomorphic structures on M correspond exactly to automorphisms on End(M) or something
And then you just need to find examples of those maps which donβt differ by any automorpjism
But Iβm not sure
I don't think vector space maps correspond to anything nice on F β End V
Damn. If it helps, the inspiration for my question is follows:
I'm being asked to show the Euler characteristic of a chain complex C of free Z-modules is the same as the alternating sums of the dimensions of the homology vector spaces of the chain complex C \otimes_Z F for any field F. We are specifically asked to do this via the universal coefficient theorem for homology.
My confusion is: the UCT gives the homology H_n(C\otimes F) as abelian groups, not F-vector spaces, so is there a way to naturally "recover" the F-vector space structure of the abelian group H_n(C\otimes F) given by the UCT?
Doesn't UCT also do it for F vector spaces
I think homology doesnβt care about what youβre a module over tho
I think it applies to any R-modules
Because itβs computed set theoretically
As long as you take Ext over that R
But if Exts come in, then yeah it matters
Also can you phrase this in terms of bases?
We know isomorphic iff same dimension
But yeah, idk
This is a question I donβt like
I'm talking about UCT for homology, so no Ext stuff
Specifically, we are supposed to set R=Z, is what my professor told me to do
But then the splitting gives a direct sum of two Z-modules
So I don't really know how to talk about the dimension of the vector space, when the UCT doesn't even give a vector space!
Well
So
These have a natural structure as an F-vector space I assume
This is me spitballing here
If you can show those maps are F-linear
Unless, given any abelian group M, every F-vector space structure on M has the same dimension
All you need is the fact that this sequence is exact
Then because itβs over a field, itβs split exact
And you can do your dimension calculations
I mean you can even use rank-nullity to get info about the dimensions as F-vector spaces
This is one way to maybe try and get at what you want, but Iβm not sure about what the specific setup is and how it plays out so maybe it doesnβt work
I thought I understood how you got that and I went back and realized I didn't
I think this is the correct answer, yea
Namely, for any abelian group A and field F, we can give A \otimes_Z F an F-vector space structure by extension of scalars, and similarly Tor_1^Z(A,F)
The UCT is really frustrating imo, I can't find any resources that explicitly state anything about how the R-module structure is preserved if you compute using Z
Rank is defined that way at least on cohomology of groups by brown. He defines rank A to be dim(Q otimes A) on page 242.
this ? direct product of (S_Ξ»_i Ξ (Z/iZ)^Ξ»_i) in terms of i where Ξ»_i doesnβt equal zero
For any b from S_n, b is from C(a) iff b maps any cycle of a to a cycle of a preserving the order. You are okay with this step so far?
Like a=(143)(25) ba=ab , b must map the 3-cycle of a to that 3-cycle so the b(1),b(4),b(3) can be 1,4,3 or 4,3,1 or 3,1,4. Similarly b(2),b(5)=2,5 or 5,2
in the group (Z, -), every element has order 2 right?
When a has Ξ»_i many i cycles, we only consider those i where Ξ»_i is non zero. Then b maps cycles to cycles, so it first can be viewed as permutation of those Ξ»_i many i-cycles, next if we consider the detail, there are i ways to map a i-cycle to another i-cycle, to (Z/iZ)^Ξ»_i
Take direct product then itβs finished
group? a-(b-c) = a-b+c
associativity moment unpogged
im tired
the question is to prove that there exist infinite groups with no elements of infinite order
and i think i can just be like
consider a group such that the relation a^2 = id for all a in G

Consider infinite direct products of cyclic groups
I know that this isn't what you were after in the end, but i think I can put two vector space structures on the same abelian group as follows: consider C (complex numbers), By choosing a transcendence basis over Q (which will have uncountable cardinality) and mapping that basis into itself by an injective but not surjective map, we can get an inclusion of fields from C to C that is not surjective and we can even make the second copy of C be transcendental over the first. So that second copy of C has the structure of an infinite dimensional C vector space but the additive group is still that of C, so the additive group of C is such an example.
this suffices as a proof that chmonkey fans are not necessarily isomorphic to a subchmonkey
chmonkey group 
what if i choose not to tho
too late you already did, if you mean these are relations on a free group with an infinite set of words xD
I think that makes sense though but I'm tired too
,ti
The current time for nitezba is 01:42 AM (EST) on Wed, 23/02/2022.

so you only get 1st powers of words, so you can string together stuff
Chmonkey
that condition actually implies everything commutes I think
but you have infinitely many distinct elements at the very least so it works
suck my dick and balls professro
i really want it to
I mean you can take infinite product of Z/2Z
And that does work for that
But like saying βtake X such thatβ¦β
You need to know such an X exists
counter example to FLT: consider integers st x^3+y^3=z^3
wdym infinite product
Ye do what I said and you get your desired a^2 = id for all a in their group
CHMOLUMBIA
This guy
\bigoplus 
You can use either direct sum or direct product
It donβt matter
I mean just take countable tuples
And define (a1,a2,β¦)β’(b1,b2,β¦) = (a1b1,a2b2,β¦)
since everything commutes as well in the construction I was thinking of with infinitely many distinct words I think it's actually isomorphic to an infinite product of Z/2Z so we came up with the same thing xd
i thought about Z\2Z but discarded it cuz it's not an inf. group
how is this infinite
Bro
ik im being dense
for example an element would be (0,1,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,....)
Like you have the infinitely many elements which are
1 in the i-th place
And 0 everywhere else
Taken over all i in N
so the group is all "combinations" of products of elements of Z\2Z (just 0 n 1 ofc)
again, ik im being dense i just havent seen this before
okie
I mean have you seen Cartesian products before?
And like infinite Cartesian products?
You can think of these as countable sequences
And you just multiply (add) them like term-wise
i mean yeah ive seen cartesian products before ofc, but i dont think inf. ones
id imagine
just an inf large ordered "pair"
This will become 
Yeah
de rien 
what does it mean to generate ring over a ring?
As an algebra
Think of it as taking all polynomials in the generators with coefficients over the other ring
As in, if A is generated over R by say x1,β¦,xn
Then any element of A can be written as f(x1,β¦,xn) where thatβs a polynomial in x1 through xn, with coefficients in R
If βpolynomial in x1 through xnβ doesnβt quite make sense, it means you take a formal polynomial f(X1,β¦,Xn) in R[X1,β¦,Xn], then plug in the (x1,β¦,xn) inside of it
this looks like it is for non-commutative rings, so you have to look at non commutative polynomial rings instead of the usual

I mean itβs whatever
non-commutative polynomial algebra
sad
X1X2 β X2X1
Oh but
Are a and b
Just formal things here?
Like did they get like,
Magiced into existence?
Or are a and b elements of some other ring
then how do I construct the isomorphism
without using
no
Okay
that's all I have
So actually whatβs happening is
This is just the ring
R[x,y]/(x^2, xy + yx - 1)
a corresponds to the image of x
And b corresponds to the image of y
okay
What theyβre writing there is like a presentation of an algebra
Which youβve probably seen in the context of groups
this part makes sense to me, just the isomorphism is not trivial yet
Yeh
Idk the isomorphism
I bet x and y correspond to like
Nah idk
Lmao
Gl
Kekw
Okay well
You can at least use
like I was thinking $b = \m{ 0 & 0 \ 1 & 0}$ and $a = \m{0 & 1 \ 0 & 0}$
but idk this will help
I donβt think b should have the relation that b^2 = 0
we aren't allowed to use categories
oh true
then idk
Universal property of the free ring 
I'm tempted to write it, trust me
that's like the hardest part
Also I think you need to include x somewhere
Inside one of what a and b goes to
Otherwise your map will never be surjective
I go to bed now


wew?
Ye
Free commutative ring on a set S is Z[S]
Free ring is this but non commuting polynomials
oh
You can prove that this has the universal property
over Z
All rings are over Z
In the sense that a ring is exactly a Z algebra
More generally, the free R-algebra over R generated by S is R<S>
what is this?
Where by <> I mean non commuting polynomials
Variables don't commute

also
welp
Says who 
our course
dum course
ye ikr
hmmm
Find some surjection with that kernel idk

This book I'm reading claims that if $G$ is the grassman algebra generated by countably many basis elements $e_i$, and $G^{(0)}\oplus G^{(1)}$ is the natural grading into the span of even and odd length monomials, then $[G,G]\subseteq G^{(0)}$, but this seems wrong to me since it also claims $G^{(0)}G^{(1)}+G^{(1)}G{(0)}\subseteq G^{(1)}$
ShiN
it isn't trivial 













So if you take an odd homogeneous element and an even homogeneous element and take their commutator, the result would be an odd element for example
They use this to prove the commutator identity [[x,y],z]=0 is a polynomial identity for the grassman algebra (Since G^(0) is central), but this reasoning seems wrong
So what's going on here
Wait nvm
If u commute an odd and even homogeneous element u get identically 0
I guess it's enough to check this for monomials since the commutator is bilinear
Of course, because G^(0) is central...
bruh is this just exterior algebra
Yea
Who calls it grassmann algebra 
PI algebra people
Private investigator?
Lmao

Polynomial identity
π΅βπ«
My polynomial identity is x^3-1
Shuri's is xβ΅-2
This won't be a polynomial identity for any nonzero algebra
You can't reject someone's polynomial identity like that, please apologise
oh ok 
Iβm a trivial kinda guy
Commutator bracket of algebra is bilinear right. I don't feel like doing the computation lmao
Associative.algebra
I wasn't in a rush btw
I had to stop reading anyways
Otherwise id've checked on my own
Sure.
Hello fellow abstract-algebrists
Does anyone know if the group presented by
<a, b|aba(b^-1)>
Is a known group?
I am not sure how to evaluate the predicate as a boolean.
Or hmm... is it supposed to be <abab^{-1}: a,b in G>?
That's the presentation of a group by generators and relations 
It's the group presented by the symbols a, b and by the relation
a b a b^(-1) = 1
I was calculating the foundamental group of the Klein bottle with SVK theorem and I got this
Itβs F(a, b)/<abab^-1> :troll:
technically the truth
have I ever been wrong?
not counting messages you can't see without scrolling up or searching
β
Well not in my professor notation apparently
Well if you don't answer my actual question we'll never know
I literally just worked backwards from the definition of a presentation the statement itself is meaningless if you've actually got a presentation already
ab = ba^-1 gives me some kinda generalised dihedral group vibes ngl
bΒ²=1 needs to be satisfied for that
Why do you say so? For example:
<a, b| ab(a^-1)(b^-1)>
Is just Z x Z
I was wondering if something similar might apply to the presentation I got
hence, "generalised"
a presentation <a_1, a_2, ... |R_1, R_2, ...> is naturally constructed via a quotient of the free group on a_1, a_2,... specifically quotienting by the relations
I'm confused as to what you're confused about
Yup, agreed
I was confused about why you said my statement was meaningless
yeah so I was making a lighthearted quip by just saying that's what the group is called 
no no no
sorry
MY statement is meaningless
At least now we know the answer
I've seen many finite versions of this group with the same ab = ba^-1 relation
dihedral or otherwise - no clue what they're called though 
I'll check them out then, thank you
yeah, maybe you can generalise some stuff to the case where a and b aren't of finite order
The only thing I know about presentation groups is what is needed to understand SVK theorem (that's why our professor introduced them)
So basic stuff
Universal property
And not much more
Prayers up for me I got a midterm π
Actually not technically true, should be quotienting by <<abab^-1>>, <abab^-1> might not be normal
<<>> is normal closure
Semantics
Good luck π
isn't that the fundamental group of the klein bottle?
i suppose that's well studied no?
Yes, they asked about it because they reached it after computing fund group of klein bottle
I think the question was more like 'does this have a name'
oh lol okay
also ShiN be yellow 
how long did the isomorphism theorems take to prove
how long? with relation to when?
like how long after the concept of a homomorphism was established?
Still lost on this, any hints appreciated ππ©
Use the fact that $\frac{I}{K} \vartriangleleft \frac{\mathbb{C}[x,y]}{K} \sim \mathbb{C}[t]$ is an ideal of a PID
Mat
Thanks a ton for the hint I'll give it a try!!
isnt that slightly diff from what you wrote though
You take the smallest normal subgroup containing the relations
not just the smallest subgroup generated by them
?
Basically
So my guess is that it's not anything known
A part from being the fundamental group of the Klein bottle
Damn it

it probably does
yeah shin corrected me on that
it's just a little notation trolling we do a little trolling it's called we do a little trolling
ah oki
ok so just a notational question, in the context of graded rings/algebras, does R_mR_n mean simply the set of all products of elements, the linear span of all products or the algebra generated by all products
Typically, finite sums of products.
I... think you usually have commutativity with this?
At least, I had only came across it in such contexts. In which case, we have finite sums of r_m r_n terms.
You don't have to have commutativity
You definitely don't want the algebra generated by all products, that would make the main example of the polynomial ring graded by monomial degrees not work.
Yea I figured
I think in the case of algebras we take the linear span of products
I mean tbh for the graded structure it doesn't really matter because if all the products are in certainly their linear span is in
is this a valid proof of the statement "A group $G$ that satisfies the relation $\alpha^2 = 1$ for all $\alpha \in G$ must be abelian."
ΞΌβ
i could be more explicit but im trying to work on my verbosity, i tend to write proofs that are too long lol
It can be very short symbolically
I would rather write symbols but justify each line on the right
saying exactly which law is used
you are also trying to prove ab = ba
Not your final line
Not necessarily: consider R[X,Y] graded by total degree. Then R_1 contains just linear combinations of X and Y, but R_1Β·R_1 = R_2 contains things such as X^2+Y^2 which is not itself a product of R_1 elements.
small technicality
Doing it with inverses is completely fine
(R is here the real numbers).
this is what i was worried about
They justified it because enumerating over inverses is the same as enumerating over all elements
I mean since the proof is so simple, might as well do it properly
Just take a = a^-1
And b = b^-1
This is a proper proof 
Itβs equivalent to enumerate over the inverses
that's what i figured
I meant the condition RmRn\subseteq Rm+n, but not necessarily strict equality
Like if you want to be super anal
Ah, right.
Just take a = x^-1 and b = y^-1 for arbitrary x,y
Woah now you proved the statement
Let $a,b\in G$
$$ab = a^{-1}b^{-1}$$
(a and b are self-inverse)
$$= (ba)^{-1}$$
(property of inverses)
$$= ba$$
(ba is self inverse)




