#groups-rings-fields
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Topological space momener
If the morphisms are built on set functions, yea, because they have an inverse
ohh endomorphism is for homomorphisms from G to G
I just came in this server and finally I meet people who speaks algebra x)
hello friends
I have a simple question: If I take the minimal polynomial m of a over Q, and extend Q by some other element b, is m still irreducible over Q(b)?
nvm its not necessary true i think
No. Consider a = b for any field extension Q(b) with [Q(b):Q] > 1
what is necessary to prove that some group K is a subgroup of G
intuition tells me just to show that K is contained in G and that the usual properties hold right
yes, K is a subset of G, and K is itself a group
then arent these just true by definition 
commutative square 
These two observations will be useful I think, together with the hint:
- H,K both normal in G => HK normal in G
- [G : HK] = [G/K : HK/K] = [G/H : HK/K]
K must be a subset that is also a group under the same operation of G
SL(2, R) and GL(2, Q) are defined as sets. You have to show they are actually groups under the operations induced by GL(2, R)
when someone says X is subgroup of Y they really mean to say (X,*|X) is a group where X subset of Y and *|X restriction of * to X
Oh sorry, it's just the quotient application E -> E/F, which maps x to his class modulo F, that is x+F
whats the theorem again between intenral product groups and and isomorhpisms
is there any notation to say that H "is a subgroup of" G
\leq sometimes
oh bet ok
An illustrative example would be $a = b = i$ the imaginary unit in $\mathbb{C}$, then over $\mathbb{R}$ we have $p_a = x^2 + 1$, and over $\mathbb{R}(i) = \mathbb{C}$ the minimal polynomial is $x-i$
Tโ๐(n)
An example with a not equal to b could be done using Q as the rational numbers, b as some positive non rational square root, and a as the positive square root of b
$H \trianglelefteq G$
coalison (shyshu for honorable)
that means normal subgroup
With the same operations
\leq for subgroup, \trianglelefteq for normal subgroup
what does the normal mean
hm
Trianglelelefteq?? Wtf??
left cosets equal right cosets
normal = quotient group really is a group
$\unlhd \trianglelefteq$
ฮผโ
lol
All groups are abelian
Normal means conjugation Inariant which is exactly what you need for an induced group operation on the quotient to be well defined
i.e. if n is an element of N normal, then so is gng^-1 for any g in G
All groups arise from forgetting the multiplication of rings anyway /s
Are you sure about your interpretation of a
of R^+
Since the nonnrgative reals don't form a group under multiplication
I'm saying that I think you misinterpreted R^+
oh
R^x doesn't contain 0 so R^+ can't either as a subgroup, they must mean the positive reals
i.e. without 0
Otherwise it's not even a group
Yea but the reasoning that brought you there is almost correct
You just need to reexamine whether HK=G
Your interpretation of R^+ as containing 0
R^+={x\in R:x>0} in this context
Well try to reexamine if HK=R^x now
Can you reach any element of R^x from multiplying an element of R^+ by 1 or -1
@chilly radish then what would the identity be of R+ is R+ if a subgroup of Rx
1
Yes
1 is the multiplicative identity in any subgroup of R^times
is R+ additive or just all positive reals?\
yeah
Also, for what you wrote to be true you have to have that H,K are normal in G. In this case everything is abelian so it's trivial
how would i go about proving this then
Actually, that might not be necessary in this case
idek what my answer could be
You could try just constructing a direct isomorphism between G and HxK
I'm not sure how the theorem you're basing your answer on was formulated in your class
Alright
so idk
Note that it requires normality
But G is abelian in a
So all subgroups are nor al
Normal
Yes
so all i gotta show now is HK ?
Note that there still might be an isomorphism if this condition isn't satisfied, it just won't be the multiplication map
Yes
For a
But actually the exercise wants you to give aj explicit isomorphism
It says 'give an isomorphism' not just show it's isomorphic. Finding the inverse to the multiplication map would be the same as finding the isomorphism in this case
Yes
For b, consider that both K and H are cyclic and hence abelian, and a product of abelian groups is abelian
If I have a,b are complex numbers with degree 2,3 over Q respectively, and I extend to Q(b), then the a must have either degree 1 or degree 2 over Q(b). Why can it not be degree 1 over Q(b)
Because the degree of Q(a,b) over Q needs to be an integer multiple of both 2 and 3.
It would just mean that a is some Q linear combination of 1,b,b^2, but I don't see why that would cause issues
oh I see because 2,3 both need to divide Q(a,b)
Yes.
That gives an lower bound, but where does the upper bound come from
The upper bound of 2 for [Q(a,b) : Q(b)]?
no, the upperbound of 6 for Q(a,b): Q. We know 2,3 must divide it, so it has lower bound 6
Do you know that [Q(a,b) : Q] = [Q(a,b) : Q(b)]ยท[Q(b) : Q]?
Yes, and [Q(b):Q] = 3 here. so we see [(a,b): Q(b)] must be some multiple of 2. In fact it must be 2 since a has degree 2 over Q \subset Q(b)
Oh i see
Hi guys
its been so long since when i took topology class, should I take algebraic topology?
im afraid i forgot some stuff necessary for the course
what level of point-set topology does it demand?
familiarity with the first few chapters of munkres should be enough
up to and including the chapter on separation axioms
2-4?
thank you
Can someone check a proof for this for problem 6? It seems too easy.
If I is a subset of P, then we are done. Otherwise suppose that IJ is a subset of P and I is not a subset of P. Choose i not in P. For all j in J we have ij is in IJ which means ij is in P. But P is prime so either i is in P or j is in P. By hypothesis we have i is not in P so thus j is in P. Overall J is a subset of P.
I not being a subset of P doesn't mean I and P are disjoint, so not necessarily i is not in P
He chose a specific i not in P. This exists by the negation of being a subset
^
The proof is good
damn
Oh, sorry
ya idk the rest of this class has kinda murdered me
so I was expecting more
Tho so far this is just a review of undergrad level material
so makes sense
if $x$ is in all maximal subgroups of a p-group G, then how can i prove that $x$ is in $G^p[G,G]$?
Or x1
if N is a normal subgroup and Na = Nb, you can not necessarily say a = b right?
But it means a and b are in the same coset?
yup
why is N_K a sum of [g] in K
doesn't K consists of elements?
not equivalence classes of elements?
[g] means every element in the equivalence class, as a set
I think [g] means the element of the group ring that corresponds to g.
In the second sum, g runs over all elements of the conjugacy class K.
So what the entire construction works out to is "any element of the center can be written as an integer combination of all the [g]s where conjugate elements have the same coefficients".
hm
idk that doesn't quite type check for me in my head
oh oh oh wait
nvm I get it now
it's written better in the textbook lol
this makes more sense to me
and is IMO clearer than this double sum lol
It is still a double sum, it just writes $K_i$ instead of $N_{\mathcal K_i}$.
Troposphere
Normality can be used but like since we don't know what element commutes with x or its power , it's tricky to proceed
This basically
That method just didn't lead to anything
This one works:
But yeah, thanks for taking your time to look at it!
Please Help Me with This.
eisenstein looks relevant
But shouldn't they tell over what they wants to show irreducibility?
if it has integer coefficients then it's probably asking about irreducibility over Q, since that's what the classic form of eisenstein's criterion is concerned with
Okk, so by Eisenstein's Criteria, option A should be right?

how can i even comprehend something like R[x]/(x^2+x)? All I got is some basic property about x and some multiplication property for 2 elements in the ring, but other than that, i'm stuck.
(how does the entire ring look? is it isomorphic to something more comprehensible?)
what is R? the real numbers, or an arbitrary ring?
oh, it's the reals
do you know chinese remainder theorem?
umm... yeah?
alright good, that is relevant here
i dont know how we can use crt here though
you can write (x^2 + x) in a different way such that it is more clear how it applies
Note that the second one I sent doesn't require commutativity, as I wrote I think it should work as a solution for the exercise. Anyway your method seems good as well to me!
in the proofs ive seen that the field of fractions is unique up to a canonical isomorphism, they use the universal property of a field of fractions. Like if $A$ has two fields of fractions $K$ and $K'$, we produce unique morphisms $\alpha$ and $\beta$ from $K\to K'$ and $K' \to K$ respectively and then use that to get the morphisms $\alpha\circ \beta : K\to K$ and $\beta \circ \alpha : K'\to K'$ that make the inclusion diagrams from $A$ commute, and then use uniqueness to argue they must be the identity
๐ittle โarwhal โ
my issue with this is that i dont see how uniqueness of $\alpha$ and $\beta$ in their respective diagrams implies uniqueness of $\alpha\circ\beta$ and $\beta\circ\alpha$ in theirs
๐ittle โarwhal โ
The identity will also be a map that works
Namely, you look at the maps A -> Frac(A) which are both the natural inclusion and this induces a unique map Frac(A) -> Frac(A) making the triangle commute
The identity works
but the identity doesnt necessarily factor through K' (or K)
No but if you compose alpha and beta
yeah it makes the same diagram as the identity commute
You get a map from Frac(A) -> Frac(A) also making that same triangle commute
And so now you apply uniqueness
but we dont know that there's any uniqueness there
Yes you do
why should uniqueness of a and b imply uniqueness of a o b
No thatโs not what Iโm applying uniqueness to
Iโm applying uniqueness to โmap from Frac(A) -> Frac(A) making the triangle commute@
Where the other two legs are the inclusion A -> Frac(A)
ohhhhh
im an idiot i see
you just apply universal property to that triangle right

Hey, sure, I'd start from this
$$(x k_1)^n = (x k_2)^n \iff (x k_1 (x k_2)^{-1})^n = (x (k_1 k_2^{-1}) x^{-1})^n = 1$$
Mat
But how xk_1 and (xk_2)^-1 commute
@rapid slate Oh right, I fell for it again! Thanks for pointing it out.
I may have even stumbled upon a counterexample for the injectivity, so.. my input was totally useless, I'm sorry.
I found it a very nice problem though, that's why my attempts, and thank you then for sharing your solution
No problem!
Glad that u found it useful
"Show that 0 can never be a unit in a ring"
My proof thus far is BWOC sps 0 is a unit and a is its multiplicative inverse
then 0*a is both 0 and 1, so 0=1
But 1 is unique, so contradiction
Is this good / at all true? lol
you can have a ring where 0=1 it's just trivial
if your ring is non-trivial then you can just state that 0=1 contradicts with the fact that the ring is trivial
What would a trivial ring be?
right, so if R isn't trivial, my proof is fine?
yup
but say it contradicts with the fact that the ring is non-trivial rather than 1 is unique
because yes, 1 and 0 are unique but that doesn't mean they can't be equal
right 
"Suppose M is a subspace of a vector space V. Two vectors x and y of V are congruent modulo M, in symbols x = y (M), if x - y is in M. Prove that congruence modulo M is an equivalence relation, i.e., that it is reflexive, symmetric, and transitive."
I've never proven something like that, I'm lost.
do you know what reflexive, symmetric, and transitive mean?
you need to prove those three things
you prove them by checking that they hold
it's like a template where u just put the appropriate symbols and equality
for example, reflexivity means that every element is congruent to itself. can you prove that?
is the $\lang \rang$ notation for cyclic subgroups universal or textbook-specific
universal, but LA ppl use it for inner products also
yeah that's why im asking cuz that's the only other place ive seen it
mildly related but when is $\lang \rang$ used vs C_n
what's C_n?
prof used it in class as notation for a cyclic group 
oh is the angled bracks specifically for subgroups
that's non standard
oh good lord
I've found all the indecomposable 1 dimensional ones at least (hint it's all of them
)
what's C_p


mfs who use \bZ_n for cyclic groups make me ANGRY 
\Z > \bZ
it doesn't matter because the latex bot is down
if you write C_n = <a : a^n = 1> you're just specifying that a is the generator
I hope that's what you meant
pretty much yeah merci
Angle brackets mean 'subgroup generated by'
Angle brackets with line in the middle usually mean presentation of group, but that's a different thing
You can say <S> when S is some subset. In the case that S is just 1 element, this is the cyclic subgroup generated by that element
Correspondence theorem is very stronk
Just proved that any ideal of Z[x] containing x-a must be of the form (x-a, n) for an integer n
In fact, if we already have a list of generators for this ideal then n is exactly the gcd of all the non-kernel generators evaluated at a
Are there any interesting corollaries to being able to reduce lists of generators of an ideal?
There's a rich theory of trying to find minimal sets of generators of ideals, and the problem is incredibly hard. This forms a lot of like, computation commtuative algebra
Even in the case of ideals of k[x1,...,xn] the problem becomes complicated
Woah cool
Similar idea with correspondence theorem gives us that all ideals in Z[x] containing x^2 + 1 must be of the form (x^2 + 1, ax+b)
With the non-kernel generators of any such ideal evaluated at i in Z[i] having gcd ai+b
Wait... why wouldn't the proposition you cited in a) guarantee the isomorphism for b)
one of the subgroups must be normal to have injectivity
<r> is normal, no?
You get a semi direct product otherwise
I'm not making any claim about actually using this to prove a result for b), just sayin that even if all that is true then there are conditions missing from the proposition being cited in a)
Because if there weren't you would get b) for free
By "is not commutative" you mean G right
Cause the product on the right is commutative and so is <s>
yah G
Hence them not being isomorphic
Ah cool just looks like you're saying <s> is commutative which might confuse a grader lol idk
fuck this class
fuck the grader too
im self studying everything
no teaching effort
absolute mess of a class
Fucc that I'm sorry :(
Answers are def right tho
Yeah I think so since if you introduce two s anywhere in an expression with just r otherwise the two s goes away
also yea because it has index 2
anyway, this is enough to show phi is an isomorphism
i was right before, you only need one subgroup to be normal
wait no im wrong
oops
Wait wat but (r^a, s^j)(r^b, s^i) = (r^b, s^i)(r^a, s^j)
Yeah
So it is both then?
That need to be normal
I don't remember this theorem tbh but I can see that one direction follows from the isomorphism theorem about products and intersections
So it kinda makes sense
yea both being normal is sufficient.
for part a do i show it normal
Yeah but that follows right away from the entire group being abelian so showing they're normal is a one liner
dope dope
another dumb question: do you always have a homomorphism from Z[x] (Z = the integers) to a ring R?
i know that there are infinitely many homomorphisms from Z[x] to Z, so, are there any ways to determine the number of homomorphisms from Z[x] to a given ring?
I dont know an exact answer and not sure how exact of an answer you need, but for easy cases obviously if R has copy of Z then its gonna be infinite, not sure about the cardinality. To a finite ring there for sure is finite amount homomorphisms
i kinda already figure that part out, but thanks
Itโs exactly the cardinality of the ring
The question asked you to give an isomorphism par. You didn't do that in a
The R-algebra maps from R[x] to any R algebra S is exactly in bijection with S
Itโs given by sending x to some s, then extending
Because of how Z works, any ring map at all is a Z-algebra map
To use less fancy stuff
The point is, just because of additivity
Youโre forced to send n in Z to n inside of R
If you send x to r, then x^n has to go to r^n
Now mx^n has to go to mโขr^n
There's no free object in Ring, right
And then for any polynomial in Z, by additivity you only need to know what happens to monomials
What do you want to be the property?
That's a good question
And does Ring mean all rings, or commutative ones?
Either
Because at least for commutative ones, I think Z[S] acts as a free ring on S
oh okay i finally got it, thanks chmonkey
As in given any set map S -> R, unique map from Z[S] -> R making it commute
So the thing about R-algebras is just you replace n with an element of R
So like if you have an R-algebra S, you can multiply things in S by things in R like theyโre scalars
And now inside of R[x], youโre forced to send rx^n to rโขs^n if x maps to s
Itโs the exact same thing with Z, itโs just that with Z weโre forced to send nx^n to nโขr^n
By additivity
so, like, vectors are a \bR-algebra? just wanna make sure i got it correctly
Wdym?
If by vector you mean like
Tuples
then yeah they form an algebra
Like a(b1,โฆ,bn) = (ab1,โฆ,abn)
But thereโs nothing special about the real numbers here
You can replace the reals with any ring
Ye can use polynomials in non commutating variables
And you get free ring
And more generally free R-algebra similarly
I think that's only for commutative rings tho right
Non commuting variables
Like in R<x,y>, x and y don't go past each other
So xyxy โ xยฒyยฒ
This is can also be expressed in terms of the tensor algebra
If you want free R-algebra on S, you can take the tensor algebra of R^|S|
@chilly radish
I meant the base ring moldi
That this is free in the category of commutative rings
I only know of R-algebras over commutative R
Oh not exactly
I guess you can take the tensor algebra of (R/[R,R])^|S|
@chilly radish does this work
Because R maps to the center of any R-algebra
Which means that the image of R under the structure map is a quotient of R/[R, R]
So what if we just kill it from the beginning
Wait doesn't the tensor algebra take care of that already
Since we take tensor algebra over R
Yeah I think this should work for algebras over non commutative rings
I was once again thinking here that R maps into the center therefore is commutative
don't know how many times I've made that same mistake but yeah I think construction works for any R
Kraft Macaroni
why are you sending sigm(\sqrt(a)) to +- sqrt(b)? that's not in general a endomorphism
why not?
doesnt the galois group permute the roots, why is sending sqrt(a) to -sqrt(b) not count as a valid member of the galois group
roots of same irreducible factor
wait so the galois group must send permute the roots of irreducble factors
so that must mean that sqrt(a) can only get sent to \sqrt{a} or -\sqrt{a}
example Q(sqrt(3)) is not isomorphic (field) to Q(sqrt(2))
yes
But in this case isnt F = Q(\sqrt{a},\sqrt{b})
take Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3)) then sqrt(2)^2-2 is zero in this field
the map sqrt(2) -> sqrt(3) we get sqrt(3)^2-2 \neq 0 but it must be zero to be an isomorphism which is a contradiction
ohhh wait so the galois group has to contain isomorphisms
automorphisms to be exact
our professor didn't introduce it to us as that
he defined it as the set of embeddings from F to F fixing the base field, in this case Q
ya that's not wrong
I guess from linear algebra that has to be an isomorphism
He probably took "embedding" to implicitly require it to be a field homomorphism.
because its an injective linear map between two vector spaces of the same finite dimension
AHHHHHH
that makes a lot more sense
our professor is quite good but he has a mean way of not explaining to us the full picture and leaves it on the question sheet
(or, as Ryu said, field field automorphism because otherwise you don't get a group).
forces you to figure things out by urself
okok gotchu
thanks guys
I have a feeling as I get closer to exams Ill be on this chat a lot
So speaking of "embeddings" is slightly misleading because that word sounds like they'll usually not be surjective (which is dead wrong in this case).
homological algebra got me fucked up
thats what I'm referring to when I say he leaves stuff out purposefully
a quick follow up
I'm pretty sure this tells us that G is the klein 4 group then right
bc it has 3 elements of order 2
which the cyclic group of order 4 does not have
V4 sounds right, yes.
"If S and J are arbitrary subsets of a vector space (not necessarily cosets of a subspace), there is nothing to stop us from defining S + J just as addition was defined for cosets, and, similarly, we may define aS (where a is a scalar). If the class of all subsets of a vector space is endowed with these ยซlinear operationsยป, which of the axioms of a vector space are satisfied?"
how can I add to subsets?
adding cosets made sense intuitively to me because they were "parallel lines" in my brain
so there was a "natural correspondance" between elements
but arbitrary subsets?
$A+B = \left{ a+b | a\in A,; b\in B\right}$
do you add the one element of S with all the elements of J, the "next" element of S with all elements of J, etc. ?
yes so that's all the combinations?
ok
@lethal dune in R^2, if you sum two different lines, do you get all R^2?
yes
thanks
so i guess that doesn't satisfy vector sum axiom
wait or does it
it takes two elements of the class and gives you another
it's commutative
elaborate what is meant by this
do you mean product
but those are 2 lines in R^3
They said in R^2
is a sum of sets the same as their product
I don't like the term "two different lines" though, what about parallel lines for instance
oh yeah, non colinear non parallel
Guess it's just equivalent to saying that the span of any two linearly independent vectors in R^2 is all of R^2

Your "lines" are 1D subspaces
it can be shown to be equivalent with a little bit of algebra
That's correct
what they are is an equivalence class
1 line that is
modulo some parallel subspace
yeah R^2
You will find you use this fact to show its R^2
I see what you're getting at, but the underlying idea will boil down to what I said (modulo translation/rotation/reflection of the plane)
You consider this with possibility of affine shift
okay but i haven't gotten to all that yet
? try this
i'm being asked if the class of all subsets of a vector space, is a vector space
Then try checking the axioms one by one
that's what i was doing
so if the sum of two subsets is a subset, and it's commutative
i don't think there's additive inverse though
at least not unique additive inverse?
You can't say that without even figuring out what the identity is
the set {0}
Prove it.

wait now im confused
I said prove it because i thought u cant. But {0} works for almost everything
since theres {}
maybe thats not so obvious lel
@potent briar ^
ohh wait
god now im getting confused
{} + A = {}
{0} + A = A
๐คฆ mb

So yes, {0} is the identity
Then you can check inverses
Note the axiom for inverses does not require them to be unique
That is only a consequence if you have a vector space
no, they have to be unique
i'm trying to check if it's a vector space
book says ยซuniqueยป
which of the axioms of a vector space are satisfied?
The inverses axiom can be satisfied without requiring the inverses to be unique
Thats odd, you mean in the axioms themselves?
The usual convention is to take uniqueness as a consequence
D:
hey hey hey
Well if your book says it is so, then it is so.
take it up with halmos
so, in the R^2 case (just because it's the one where i have the most intuition)
you could try to look up ยซabelian groupยป or ยซcommutative groupยป
Basically a vector space is an abelian group with an ยซexternal lawยป acting as a ยซmultiplicationยป between elements of a field (often the reals or the complex numbers) and element of the group
i know
but i'm doing this book, so this book is law
@coral shale could I write all of R^2 as {ax + by}, with a, b any scalar, and x, y the canonical base?
and then an arbitrary line in R^2 as S = {nv + c} with n scalar, v and c vectors?
well yes....
I'm just trying to write what you get when you do R^2 - a line
๐ค
Im confused
What exactly are you trying to do
I thought you were checking the inverses axiom
well in general just understanding
but sure, if two non parallel lines gives you R^2, and then you don't get one of the lines when you do R^2 - the other line
there's no inverse
uhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
That is not how I would argue for inverses existing or not
- Find your identity โ
- Use the defn of inverse to find it (or show it cannot exist for some elements)
of course it's not general
but i'm trying to understand the way arbitrary sets behave
Do it in R^2 if you have to, but that is not how to do it
compared to spaces
Look, use the defn of inverse
A + (-A) = {0}
Given a general A in R^2, then...
Also you realise that the idea of subspaces/lines is kinda irrelevant to this question
You are allowed arbritrary subsets
This includes the empty set as well as funny stuff like circles, anything
===
Basically - if you want to get an intuition for this/whatever, I would advise doing that after finishing up the question
Then checking which axioms didn't work (and why)
It seems to be confusing you for what you need to be doing to go towards the answer
Trying to identify Z[x]/(x^2 - 3, 2x+4). Since correspondence theorem tells us order doesn't matter in taking quotients by principal/finitely generated ideals, we can view this quotient as one where we kill all higher degree than linear terms, then killing off any non-monic linear terms. This leaves us with constants and monic linear terms as elements and for the latter with addition rule (x+a)+(x+b) = a+b-4 and multiplication rule (x+a)(x+b) = (1-(-1)^(a+b))x+3+ab-4floor((a+b)/2). Wtf is this thing??? I must be going wrong somewhere right? If anything, if this is actually true then correspondence theorem provides a neat way to prove really strange things are rings without worrying about distribution proofs
Hmm, the multiplication rule doesn't look obviously wrong.
Unfortunately the more time that passes the more I am convincing myself that this is fine... Which makes me feel weird LOL this ring is wacky af
ok so @coral shale it's not a space. scaling works but addition doesn't because S -S is not {0}. That is ignoring the empty set, with the empty set nothing works.
However, note that you also have 2xยฒ+4x = 0, which reduces to 6 - 8 = 0.
Huh ok so I guess a good rule of thumb with these is to play around a bit to see if you can get other relations out? That closes the case on this particular problem then anyway lol thank you
I can't offhand suggest any better rule than "play around", at least.
Perhaps something could be formulated in the special case of quotients of Z[x].
In this case you get GF(4) so that's cool
No you don't -- you get a still slightly weird thing where (x+1)(x+1)=0.
We can reformulate it as F2[x]/(xยฒ-1), so we're trying to adjoin a square root of 1 to F2. But when 1 already has a square root, that kind of thing makes zero divisors.
Pain
How would one go about showing Z[x]/(x^2 - 3, 2x+4) and this wacky ring with four elements are isomorphic? The obvious map is surjective and both sets are of the same cardinality so that does it actually
And structure keeps ofc
The wacky ring is just the dual numbers over F_2, by the way -- x maps to 1+epsilon.
Yeah true I can see that with Chinese remainder theorem
Another one: identifying Z[x]/(6, 2x-1) I used 3=3(2x) =6x= 0 to whittle this down to something with at most the structure of (Z/3Z)[x]
I might have found a non-obvious zero divisor though
Yess 0= 2x^2 -x -6 factors nicely into (2x+3)(x-2) which reducing the left factor leaves us with x=2 kekw GAMING
That felt good
So it's just Z/3Z since now we have two finite rings, obvious isomorphism blah blah
Ahh I just had an idea that I think we've subconsciously been deferring to, computing the gcd of sufficiently small multiples of the elements (since Z[x] isn't a PID) and then knowing that it must be zero as well, and will, depending on how small said multiples are, give you a really small element to kill
I guess in general you won't be able to get something similar to the process of getting a gcd but it works a lot of the time
I'm not sure how you eliminate the possibility that 2x=0 here. But reducing 2(2x-1)=0 directly gives you x=2
Oh I got overly eager and thought the relation I started with was 2x+2=0 rip
Thanks
Wait how
@tribal moss
4x-2 = 0 and then

Hmm, I think I took your earlier conclusion that 3=0 at face value, but now I'm not sure about that anymore.
That I'm certain about since 3=3(1)=3(2x)=6x= 0
Oh yes, that checks out.
Oh
Wait lol
Then reducing 4x=x ok cool cool
And x-2=0 that way as you said
Ahah
Thanks again

ok im confused again hehe
"Suppose M is a subspace of a vector space V. Corresponding to every linear functional y on V/M (i.e. to every element of (V/M)'), there is a linear functional z on V (i.e. an element of V'); the linear functional z is defined by z(x) = y(x + M). Prove that the correspondance y -> z is an isomorphism between (V/M)' and ann(M)"
I think I need to use complementary subspaces somehow.
why not just show directly that it's injective and surjective
im having a hard time even imagining them
what form do functional on a quotient space have?
x + M -> y(x + M)
that's a general question whose best answer is the exercise you're supposed to prove
ok can you help me show thats its injective and surjective?
well hmm, i already know that to each x in a complement of M corresponds a single x +M
write down what it would mean for this to be injective and surjective
with care. you have the map
to a single z there needs to correspond a single y
and this has to be true for every single z in (V/M)'
for every single z in ann(M), you mean?
yes sorry
so you have a functional z which vanishes on M
can you define a functional y on V/M with y(x + M) = z(x)?
that's what your map does, after all
is x any vector in V?
sure
i can conceive the existence of a function that takes a set in V/M and returns 0
I'm not sure how to define it though
you need a linear function y: V/M -> F with y(x + M) = z(x) for all x in V
that looks like a definition, no? maybe you can show that you can do this and get a well defined function
but @chilly ocean don't i need to define a function that goes from (V/M)' to Ann(M)?
and see if that is a bijection?
zd
Ayyy nice
Checking my logic here showing that $\mathbb{Z}[x]/(x^2 +7)$ and $\mathbb{Z}[t]/(2t^2 + 7)$ can't be isomorphic. If such an isomorphism existed, then it would be surjective so we have $\varphi(r) = t$, and $0=-7+7=\varphi(x^2) + \varphi(-2r^2) = \varphi(x^2 -2r^2) =0$ and we have $x^2 = 2r^2$ by injectivity.
But all the elements of the first ring are of the form $ax+b$ and we need an element such that $-7=2(ax+b)^2= 4abx-14a^2 +2b^2$
zd
And that's not going to be possible
I guess the big stinker in this is showing that all elements in the first ring really are of that form but I think it's fine? Aaaaa
zd
WAIT way easier way I just realized, since these are correspondence theorem related exercises: if they're isomorphic we could just kill x-1 in Z[x] before going down to the other two quotients respectively. In the first case you get Z/8Z and in the second Z/9Z by correspondence theorem
Jeez
That's pretty cool
you did. it takes a functional y on V/M to a functional z on V vanishing on M. it's that which you want to show to be bijective
and to do so you show that to each such z there's one and only one such y
hmmm but the questions says that z is a member of V', not Ann(M)
so how do i go from that to proving it's an isomorphism between (V/M) and Ann(M)
Is it because Ann(M) is isomorphic to the dual of a complement of M?
sure, z is a member of V'. it's also a member of Ann(M), as you should show.
(V/M)' and Ann(M). you prove that it's an isomorphism by proving that it's injective and surjective
(because hopefully linearity is clear)
Consulting math.se this way of doing it is completely wrong since it kinda assumes the ideals (x-1) are the same in both cases which they are NOT since x doesn't even get sent to x in that (ends up being nonexistent) isomorphism
Ugh wtf is wrong with me
It's hard getting humbled like that
Also hard to avoid if you ever want to have confidence in a result and not just be begging around all day for validating the result
Cause you will inevitably make a silly mistake and simultaneously be somewhat confident in it
/_F is the division operation in the field F (which by definition is the field of fractions of D), whereas /_L is the division operation in the field L (an arbitrary field that happens to contain D as a subring). The original D is a subring of either of the fields, but two elements of D that are not divisible in D itself have one quotient in F and an different quotient in L, so two different symbols are needed.
Your reasoning did make sense to me though
Mm I had sent a LaTex but actually now I see what they mean
Mm again, but we could use 2 instead of x-1, because 2 is fixed by an eventual isomorphism? Then we wouldn't have that problem
Ok I guess I am not understanding how with one integral domain can have two different enlarged field of quotient for two different field. Can you give an example of it?
L is not necessarily a field of fractions, just a random field that happens to contain D as a subring. There's no telling how its elements look, and in particular there's no guaranteee that they will be the same mathematical objects as the elements of the field of fractions.
That being said, the very point of the theorem you're reading is that they can't be all that different, because F is automatically in bijective correspondence with a subfield of L. But of course you can't depend on that knowledge while you're still proving the theorem itself, so at last until the proof is concluded you need to distinguish which of the two fields' division operation you're speaking about.
For example D could be $\mathbb Z$, and then F would just be $\mathbb Q$. We could take L to be, ... hmmm ..., the field of meromorphic functions $\mathbb C\to\mathbb C$, where we have replaced every constant function with an integer value with that integer itself, such that it's genuninely a superset of $\mathbb Z$. However, in this L, the function you get by dividing 1 by 2 is \emph{not} literally the rational number $\frac{1}{2}$, but a \emph{function} that returns $\frac{1}{2}$ for every complex number you put into it.
Troposphere
So $1 /_F 2$ is the rational number $\tfrac{1}{2}$, and $1 /_L 2$ is the function defined by $f(z)=\tfrac{1}{2}+0i$.
Troposphere
Oh clever yeah!!! Killing a constant removes that concern entirely
Leaves us with more to do though I think
But it probanly makes things slightly easier at least
Well wait, killing 2x^2+7 after means killing 1 so that one is the zero ring
And then likewise killing x^2 +7 after means killing x^2 +1 so you get something cool and nonzero, still contradiction NICE
AHAH I will write it up more clearly, edit, and undelete my math.se post muahahah
This angle on the problem isn't in the answers at all so that was my reason to even try
Thank you Mat!
that's the way i learned it, idk if there are other common ways of proving it
also in evan.sty does anyone know how i can change the font size
what is a weight of a Lie group action on a vector space?
@brave trail
Hey. I WTS given R-module M, M nontrivial iff Supp(M) nonempty.
M nontrivial implies there is element x in M, So localization of M at p a prime ideal has an element x/1 given by the homomorphism from localization.
We know x/1 not equal to 0/1 because otherwise this implies x*k =0 for some k in R-p. This is a contradiction because ?? Im not exactly sure but
Ye
Oh wait
Maybe it would imply that k is in Annihilator of some subset of M which is an ideal
Nah not sure
There has to be easier way
Can k be an annihilator?
if not the other ideal is taking set of zero divisors as the ideal S so R-S cant have zero divisors
but i think my method should work with any prime ideal
I think thats safe
nvm
set of zero divisors isnt a prime ideal
Wait the statement I want to show is equivalent to M= 0 iff support is empty
which is easier to prove
M=0 implies support is empty immediately
if support is empty then the localization of M at any prime ideal is empty. And we know if localization of M at all prime ideals empty implies M is trivial. By a small proof. Pretty much We assume M is nonempty so there is x in M. We look at Ann(x) which is contained in a maximal ideal. And if we localize at this maximal ideal we know that it is empty. So x/1=0/1 this is a contradiction because this means xk=0 for some k in the complement of the Annihiltor of x.
Which one is better notation for each case?\
Let $f\in K[x]$ or $f(x)\in K[x]$\
Ideals $(f)$ or $(f(x))$\
Quotient $K[x]/(f)$ or $f(x)\in K[x]/(f(x))$
Shuri2060
My galois lecturer chooses f in all cases I think
f(something) indicates the evaluation map.
On the other hand, my other lecturer (algebraic NT) uses the other notation f(x)
Personally I think the left makes more sense but ๐ค
I guess it shouldn't matter as long as it's clear/consistent but...
the function itself is better
looks cleaner
and if you use letters f,g,h its usually clear you are talking about functions
and you cant really mod out by functions
I was thinking to myself if it was an abuse of notation, but no not really
yh
if you think of polynomials as elements of an infinite direct sum then it all makes sense
could you elaborate on this?
as in sequences on K?
K[x] is
not sequences because those are infinite
K[x] is the set of finite ordered tuples of K
yes
mhm
for direct sum
right ok
Toysem Teans
im behind, so honestly not much clue yet lel
no
No, im probably near the starting line
Can you tell me some things you learned that you found interesting?
Ive yet to digest what the norm, tr, discriminant are
i have some indication
but havent properly sat down and figured it out
oh cool which one
uhhhh
L, K are number fields
ring of all algebraic numbers of K
K embeddings of L in C im guessing are functions L->C that fix K?
yes
woooo
O bar is the set of all algebraic integers
O_K is O bar intersect K
in my notes at least
its elsewhere
what textbook?
my lecturers notes
they look so nice
I wish I could learn algebraic nt like you
im taking a seminar class and the pacing is frightening
also im not sure if number theory is my thing
im not sure either atm, feeling galois a lot more
i enjoy the arguments but the results dont motivate me
ant being applied results makes me go ๐ค
do you know of any?
no i dont lol
but i get the feel from how the course is structured for me
A lot of statements could have been made for generic rings/fields, but instead are written specifically for number fields
Can anyone tell me what map from F0 to M would make this sequence exact (and why)? I am assuming the map from F1 to F0 is just the inclusion
M is that direct sum
And F has the same number of summands
on the ith summand of F, you do the quotient map
@hidden haven that's what i thought, but the kernel of that map would be $$(a_1)\oplus ...\oplus(a_m)$$ no?
By F I mean F_0
alyosha
Ah yes
But those are isomorphic to R I think
Ye they are isomorphic to R as modules
Multiplication by a_i is the isomorphism R โ (a_i)
@hidden haven why are they isomorphic to R? because aren't those just the principal ideals
Yes but this is true for any principal ideal in a domain
any principal ideal in a domain is isomorphic to the domain?
yes
oh ok thank you! related question: can we also construct the short exact sequence $$0\to M\to Q0\to Q1\to 0$$ if we apply the inclusion map to M, let Q0 be the injective module that the image of M is embedded in, and let Q1 be coker(i)? This is still for finitely generated M btw
alyosha
You could certainly do this, yes
But showing the existence of Q0 is hard, and the only reason you can conclude Q1 is injective is to know that over a PID that injectivity is equivalent to divisibility
but there is a theorem that any module is contained in an injective module
we proved it in class
Oh okay then sure
also for Q1, we know that over a PID, quotient of an injective module is injective
Ah okay well if you know that
Like I said, this follows from the fact that injectivity is equivalent to divisibility
As itโs clear the quotient of a divisible module is divisible
I just didnโt know if you knew these facts, if you have those two facts then this works
:)
ok, thanks!
I assume you asked this because you know about global dimension?
Every module having a length 1 projective resolution means everything also has a length 1 injective resolution abstractly, but it doesnโt give you a way to turn a projective resolution into an injective one
Here youโve given a direct proof that every module has a length 1 injective resolution
oh yeah, i was mostly wondering because those constructions seemed trivial
oh yeah, 
<g> is cyclic of order p (prime) then every non identity element has order p
?
Oh in a domain
idk what u r trying to do
Multiplication by the generator is an isomorphism from the domain to the ideal
ye choose any one
yes those generate the ideal as R mod
but you cant go other way around?
going from domain to R
rip
i meant going from principal ideal to R
as R mods
Multiplication by the generator is a bijective homomorphism onto the ideal
not the order of k
It's surjective by the definition of the principal ideal generated by an element and injective because domain
and i know that k^b = k
We assume that the ideal is non zero ofc
yeah
its just so weird
where does domain definition come in?
oh
anihillators of the ideal?
nah im not sure
No, multiplication by a non zero divisor in any ring is injective
Because it is a module homomorphism with trivial kernel
i didnt know this
but that makes a lot of sense
i need to level up my comm alg a lot
one more year and ill be confident ๐
A little off topic
what do you recommend for someone who took a first course in AT and wants to continue but has weak understanding. i studied from hatcher
should I just spam hatcher exercises
or look to other resources
Yeah exercises are always good
Shin keeps recommending Rotman which you can try if you wanna switch books
Hatcher exercises are good
oh wow ok
Oh wait school in India means like high school or lower so I got confused 
I mean you can always aim higher
im at weird spot where im not sure what area of math i love yet
You can try reading harder books since you have a basic idea about the subject
i am really interested in ideas in AT
and the applications are super cool
yeah I think I should try harder books
but idk any clear pathways
like focusing on homotopy theory more
AT has plenty of hard books,
Moth is doing Fumenko Fuchs and seems to like it
I am reading May
Dieck is another good one
Haha Dick
I think all of them assume good familiarity with cat theory
dieck no grothen?
Tammo tom Dieck
yeah cat theory is something ive accepted ill pick up as i get older
same with number theory weirdly
but that isnt true
At some point you need to put in active effort lol
yeah i think im at this point
With cat theory it is very worth it
because i hear of all big important things and kinda want to commit to learning them
in my comm alg class something about commuting limits came up
and some theorem about adjoint functors
Ye these are good things to know
Knowing about adjunctions can make your life a lot easier
yeah i dont think cat theory is too hard to digest either
but i didnโt see that much
Ye depends on the person
i have been trying to think a lot in terms of universal properties though
Good first step ๐
that one always looked very hard
Ye it is
how are you liking?
Definitely not recommended for first read
I'm liking some parts and hating others
I'm having to use other references while going through it
And it is slow but rewarding
Similar I'd say lol but at least May does everything formally
oh thats ๐
๐
i kinda despise hatcher
but im not above using their book and floating around others
munkres has a book ive heard
but its really chonky
one for algebraic topology
Ye then you should try Rotman I think
we referenced it in my class
Oh I haven't heard of this
ohh
we referenced it a lot near end of course
Title sounds like it's supposed to be a reference book rather than textbook
what is most recent thing you learned in mays or in AT in general?
or coolest to you?
Chain homotopy lmao I never knew that a chain homotopy between maps X โ Y could be viewed as a map X โ I โ Y where I is the simplicial chain complex for the interval
If you're asking about specific theorems or cool things
Fibrations and cofibrations were really cool
Recent thing is axiomatic homology
never got to learn about co fibrations
ppl in a lie groups course telling me a lot about them
or ig one specific instance of them being used to make a long exact sequence
That is also very nice, you can define a homology theory on just CW complexes then extend that to all spaces using the cellular approximation functor, and then derive all the main properties from simple axioms ๐ then you prove existence of such a homology theory by constructing one

I guess cellular approximation functor is the main cool thing here lol
cellular approximation functor?
Any space X is weakly equivalent to a CW complex
And there is a functorial approximation
Meaning that for every X you have FX a CW complex
Weak eq means that there is a map that induces isomorphisms on all homotopy groups
im curious for the proof that there exists a weakly equivalent cw complex for any space x
is it convoluted? or somewhat straightforward
because idk how i would start
I didn't find it that interesting, it was just induction
oh so u start with X and you have what its homotopy groups are
and you artificially build up associated CW complex
that have same homotopy groups
Inductively define the n-skeleton of the FX such that at each stage, the nth homotopy groups agree
oh ok
Or maybe (n-1)th homotopy groups agree
i love waving my hands
๐
but thats a good enuf argument
Lol
this does sound like fun tho
when i grow up i wanna make a homology theory

im also interested in motivating history behind different homology theories
because de rham seems like it came out of nowhere
but its super cool example
Ye the main idea ig is that integrals of differential forms turn out to be homotopy invariant
i like general theme of finding failure of types of sequences to be exact also
ye it's very nice
I recently learned about simplicial objects and their homologies, and how any adjunction induces a simplicial object and hence a homology theory
Clerk keeps talking about this
And it is very cool
idk what simplicial objects are. im guessing objects of simpicial category
lmao
but thats something that idk what it is
Objects of the category of simplicial objects ๐
lol


