#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 653 of 407
@median pawn I would use binomial expansion to show that it is nilpotent but I’m not sure if there’s a simpler way
yes
That would be painful, considering that f(X) is an infinite sum
Moreover binomial expansion is only for finitely many terms?
What I was thinking is $f(X) = \sum_{k = 1}^{n} a_{k}g_{k}$, then apply "n-nomial??" expansion because what matter is the coefficients
Mike Desgrottes
i wasn't able to find much on the internet about this 😦
aren't lie algebra vector spaces?
vector spaces with some additional structure
now the morphisms need to preserve this new structure which reduces the number of such
which later restricts what kernels can be, and so reduces the things by which you can quotient
Here’s what’s going on, Z_n is Noetherian. The nilradical of any ring is well… an ideal, so that the nilradical N is finitely generated, say by a1 through an. Now since there’s finitely many elements here, some M is large enough so that ai^M = 0 since each ai is nilpotent. Now, we see that for any f in N, that f^(Mn) = 0, since f = Sum biai, then you apply the binomial expansion and see every term has some ai being raised to a power >= M
There’s a much much much much much simpler answer in the specific case of Z_n though, there’s only finitely many numbers so you’re taking the max of a finite set
As for raising a power series F to the n, you do indeed use the binomial theorem
You want to look at the coefficients of F^n, each coefficient will be a finite sum of powers of things using a multinominal coefficient, the multinomial coefficient part is irrelevant though.
I can just say that if the coefficients are in Z_n, and are nilpotent then I think you f^(n^2) will always be 0, but I didn’t spend much time trying to justify it so it might be wrong, kind of doubt it tho
If K/F is a splitting field and separable extension (the requirement's probably not necessary), but let's say f(x) \in F[x] is a minimal polynomial for A \in K, and B is also a root of f(x), is f(x) also the minimal polynomial for B?
nvm if there's a smaller minimal polynomial it means f(x) is reducible
Suppose $f(x)=\sum_{k \ge 0} a_kx^k$ with each coefficient nilpotent in $\bZ_n$. Then that means each $a_k$ is a multiple of $\mathrm{rad}(n)$, the square free radical of $n$. We'll write this as $a_k=\mathrm{rad}(n)*b_k$. This is nilpotent of order $N$, and is our upper bound for the order of nilpotency of each $a_k$, in other words $a_k^N=0$ for all $k$.
Now let's look at $$f(x)^N = \sum_{k\ge 0} \left(\sum_{i_1+\cdots+i_N=k} a_{i_1}\cdots a_{i_N}\right) x^k$$
Its coefficients are the convolution of the series with itself $N$ times. It is the sum of all products with indices satisfying $i_1+\cdots+i_N=k$, which is just a reflection of the simple fact that these terms from each of the $N$ series contributes to the monomial $x^{i_1}\cdots x^{i_N} = x^{i_1+\cdots+i_N}=x^k$ term.
$$= \sum_{k\ge 0} \left(\sum_{i_1+\cdots+i_N=k} (\mathrm{rad}(n)*b_{i_1})\cdots (\mathrm{rad}(n)*b_{i_N})\right) x^k$$
$$= \sum_{k\ge 0} \left(\sum_{i_1+\cdots+i_N=k} (\mathrm{rad}(n))^N(b_{i_1}\cdots b_{i_N})\right) x^k$$
$$= \sum_{k\ge 0}0x^k = 0$$
Merosity
I didn't understand what you did
Since there are only finitely many terms, I understand the existence of N anyway
if $n=\prod_i p_i^{a_i}$ then I'm saying $N=\max_i (a_i)$
Merosity
$\mathrm{rad}(n) := \prod_i p_i$
Merosity
trying to fill in some definitions I left out I don't know if that helps
I'm not psychic through, tell me what else you're having trouble with
thanks, it was just the definitions, let me go through the argument again now
In general to count the number of morphisms between 2 finite groups G and H (G-> H) is it legit to count the elements of H which's order divides the order of G?
Only works for cyclic finite groups I think
I can tell you that if both groups are finitely generated then all morphims are just maps between generators so if you count them that’ll be the number of morphisms - I think
Which reduces it to a combinatorics problem that I can’t do without paper 
But not all generators can map to any generator
The generator for Z/2Z can't map to the generator of Z
Hence the order divisibility condition when you have cyclic groups
Ah very true
Hausdorff
I'm thinking of Gaussian elimination, and maybe x' would be a product of elementary matrices?
This is just axiom of choice 
Wait what
Think of the matrices as linear maps
lol nice
For all set maps f, there is a g such that f = fgf is an equivalent way of stating AC categorically
Hausdorff
this isnt just a set map though it's a linear map
You just gotta make sure that the g here is linear
so surely axiom of choice isnt enough
That's super interesting
ah fair enough
Wait, where do I start?
x is a map K^n to K^n
Take a basis of the codomain
define x' on that basis such that xx'x = x
extend this to everything and you should be done
that's pretty neat
will keep it in mind in case something like this pops up on my lin alg exam lmao
easier said than done
how do you know that we can define x' in such a way
Let b be a basis element
If there is some a such that x(a) = b
Then do something 
If there is no such a
Then do anything 
Ah you gotta be careful in what basis you choose too
Of the codomain
then define x'(a) = b^{-1}?
When you try to prove xx'x = x at the end, you should be able to see what conditions you need
x' goes in the opposite direction from x
x is from V to W, x' should be W to V
I mean here V=W
But just think of them as distinct copies
This is just from the fact that we can compose them both ways
oh the multiplication in this ring is composition, right
yep
xx'x(a) = x(a) = b, xx'(b) = b, so define x'(b) = a
why not? K is a field
You define x'(b) to be any preimage of b
elementwise reciprocal was what i had in mind tbh
Are you taking coordinatewise inverse
but nvm that's not needed
Some entries may be 0
true
ok it is trivial that K^n has dimension n over K right
and so we are choosing a basis of size n
Hausdorff
I've gotten so far @hidden haven
Hausdorff
Right so one thing to keep in mind is that not any basis would work, so you will have to come back later and turn this arbitrary one into a special one
for all i basically
exactly my question... can we just define x'(e_i) = anything under the sun
yep
why so?
This gives you a function x' on the basis
xx'x = x? why would this hold
xx'x(e_i) = x(e_i) but there is no f_i such that x(f_i) = e_i
yeah because there is nothing to check lul
Like what we want to say here
Is that given any element g_i in the preimage of e_i
xx'x and x agree on g_i
And they do do
because e_i has no preimage
So yeah this is the claim
hmmmm
And now that you have shown that this claim is possible to satisfy for any basis {e_i}
You have to pick a basis
such that applying this construction to that
gives you x' such that xx'x = x everywhere
So try to prove this equation everywhere for an arbitrary basis
And see where you get stuck
ok go slow
And then just impose that condition on the basis
right?
Hausdorff
Ye
but we need xx'x and x to agree on whole of K^n
yep
how does that follow
When can you say that 2 maps agree on the whole space given that they agree on a subset S
Like generally in any algebraic structure
A trivial case is when S is the whole space 
But is there anything more interesting
yep
So that's what you want here
You might want to first consider the simpler case where x is surjective
ye but do they span
Oh ye btw this proof works in any number of dimensions and even if domain and codomain are different dimensions
So there probably is an easier proof

probably doable just algebraically
Hausdorff
indeed they do span
Right, this is using the fact that domain and codomain have the same finite dimension so a surjection is an isomorphism so a basis maps to a basis

Too easy
Shouldn't have given this case lmao
Because I don't see how to generalise this argument to when x is not surjective
With this strategy yes
but
I had a different thing in mind for when x is surjective
lol 
I am TAing a data science course linear algebra and its applications this semester
and I gotta learn about all those things and how to implement them in python
damn that's painful i would never
But yeah since they are assuming square matrices of finite size it would make sense that there is some purely symbolic thing you could do
which I do not want to think about 
I made a bad decision 
Also how come this is a thing that you have just proved
When you have already done so much analysis

Did you not know what matrix multiplication was about this whole time


Do you think Dummit and Foote is good for Galois theory?
Or perhaps is there a better book
I have never seen it recommended for Galois theory
don't
Probably for recommending more modern texts to others
😌
Try Milne's notes or Lang's book
Milne is good
lmaooo so
i had an algebra exam today on which they asked both these questions
obvs i had proved it earlier but they made me do it again today
Ok nice 😌
My professor also was recommending Lang and Stewart. He also mentioned Duaady
Never heard of Stewart and Duaady
i read that as daddy
Actually mapping endomorphisms to matrices is an interesting problem imo
And requires some thinking
Ye I am not saying it's not
I’d say you could do a fuck ton without actually proving it and just using the isomorphism implicitly
I was curious because Hausdorff asks grad level analysis problems
And I would assume that someone who does that would know this 
Yeah and I’m saying they might’ve like, intuitively known it, but never actually proven the connection
Especially if they’re an analysis enjoyer
perhaps
Anyway that’s all I wanted to say 
Hey, so I'm just trying to make sense of a solution to a question, say i have A_5 x C_2 acting on a dodecahedron. The question asked me to find the order of three subgroups of A_5 x C_2 that fix 1. a vertex 2. an edge 3. a face
The solution was basically "a dodecahedron has 20 vertices, 30 edges and 12 faces so the stabilisers have order 20, 30 and 12 respectively. A_5 x C_2 has order 60x2 = 120 so the size of the respective subsets will be 120/20 = 6, 120/30 = 4 and 120/12 = 10" I'm comfortable with the second sentence of the solution but i'm not comfortable with the first sentence, why does the order of the stabiliser for a vertex = the # of vertices???
their orbits have sizes 20, 30 and 12
and orbit stabilizer gives that stabilizers have size 6, 4, 10
hows judson compared to pinter for algebra(ideally for ppl with no algebra experience)?
I need to prove that for every odd prime p, there is an element a such that x^2-a is irreducible. Now, of course there are a lot of ways to prove this, but the hint specificlaly says to look at the squaring homomorphism on the group of units. I don't.understand what the purpose of this is. Of course I want to show that the kernel is nontrivial (probably by some order considerations)
but I don't see how to do that
squaring is a group hom from F_p* --> F_p* with image being precisely the non-zero squares mod p. we need to show that the map is not surjective, which is achieved by saying kernel of this is non-trivial.
kernel is the set of elements satisfying x^2 = 1, so just 1 and -1. (which are different as p is an odd prime)
but yea you can say this directly as well, since square of b and -b is the same thing, there can be at most (p-1)/2 non-zero squares.
this is actually what I did
oh wow
i've been working with abelian groups and modules so much recently that I forgot the kernel is 1
lmao
thanks
"group mode" as like to call it 
I just said the map is 2-to-1 so can't be surjective, which is what you said, but I thought that was too simple
Anyone know how to do 3b(ii)
i dont understamd
So you just have to eliminate all other options
Is this fine?
This is the definition of normal
yes
If the stabiliser(A) = G
Yeah
i got that far
Equivalently, orb(A) = {A}
So what are the subgroups that could lie in the orbit of A?
Use part i
Yep, so you only have 2 options
But this doesnt show that Orb(A) contains a single element
But how does this show that A and B are normal
yes
You have to eliminate the other thing using orbit-stabilizer
ahhh
Because G has cardinality odd
So orb(A) can only contain 1 element A or B not both
I think
Yep
thanks dude
Am I plugging in correctly?
This is to show homomorphism btw I know I have to show iso
yes, ideally clean it a bit to show phi(ab)=phi(a)phi(b) in 1 line
write a chain of equalities phi(ab)=...=...=phi(a)phi(b)
idk how manipulate this
to make is look like phi(a)phi(b)
Simplify the expression in the last line of the first pic you sent
You will make the connection
Wait uh
Yeah
i cant
Wym
i can simpify further??
there's a g and g inverse right next to each other
oh shit
im blind
What happens when inverses of each other kiss 😘
All good 😩
got it
do you guys know how i would prove its isomorhpic?
thats simply proving its a homomorphism right?
And bijective
u also need to show its bijective, either by showing its surjective & injective or by providing an inverse function
yeah if the homomorphism is bijective its an isomorphism
You can have homomorphisms that transform a group into one of its subgroups, so not every homomorphism on a group is iso :P
Yessir
my prof never taught us how to prove its iso
he just said if its bijective then it is
lol
should i start with injectivity?
lets x,y be in G?
Sure
f(x) = f(y) at the end right?
then its injective
in this case ||providing an inverse|| is somewhat faster
yes
but showing injective+surjective is also valid, just maybe a bit slower
explicitly write an inverse & show its actually an inverse
the goal is
to have my function and the original function to equal identity right?
if by "and" you mean composed together then yes
its
yeah I should have clarified, when you said "identity" it would only be true if you meant "act as the identity function"
(g)(a^-1)(g^-1)
not meaning "a function that just spits out the identity as a constant"
ah
which I think you may be confusing
how do ieven do this lol
take any element a of G
okay
yes]'
yes so this is what our inverse should do
ie $\vp\inv(a)=g\inv ag$
RokettoJanpu
recall that the inverse acts as an undo button
if i apply phi on a then apply phi^-1 on the result i should get back a
thats the thought process we just went thru
ohhh okayyyy so
now just verify this function actually is the inverse
yes
fog & gof must be identities for g to be an inverse of f
ie f(g(x))=x & g(f(x))=x
I like that lmao
so we must show $\vp\inv(\vp(a))=a$ and $\vp(\vp\inv(a))=a$
RokettoJanpu
oh so i plug thm into each other
both ways
it worked
beautiful
this is the first thing in abstract algebra that made sense to me
I think the whole exercise (a,b,c,d) may be interesting to you
although it might be hard to see it from a birds eye view coming at it for the first time
imma be lost on those portions for a while haha
yeah
mapping a to gag^-1 is called conjugating by g, it comes up again later on
what resources did you use to learn
abstract alg
its honestly a tough subject for me not going to lie
big tuition money bags 
i didnt use any particular book
my uni is ass
i cant focus on this class and operating systems at the same time
both require unlimited hours of work
book recs can vary a bit depending on if u need more/less exercise
If algebra as a subject interests you, you will end up seeing these concepts again and again in different contexts and your intuition will continue to deepen
honestly whether you like it or not if you're studying math or something math related LOL
the usual recs on this server are in #book-recommendations or the list of stickers
wait nvm the only aa sticker we got is d&f
i appreciate both of your help
roketto helped me lots when i took introduction to proofs too haha
ah then it helps to review proof stuff for these problems
If K/E is a finite algebraic extension and is purely inseparable, how to show that [K:E]_sep = 1? 
What definition are you using? If you are defining it as the degree of the separable closure of E in K, then since that is just E, you get the result from that. If you are defining it as the number of homomorphisms from K to the algebraic closure of E fixing E, notice that every element of K satisfies x^q-b as its minimal polynomial in E and this has a unique root in the algebraic closure, so if a homomorphism exists, it must be unique. But a homomorphism obviously must exist as we can just take the algebraic closure of K and that will be the algebraic closure of E
thank you! We are using the number of homomorphisms.
Np
Stuck on showing that 2k + 1 | r
or is there a better way of showing the orders are equal
start with a = b^2. || raise both sides to the power of r ||
npnp
I am working on (2). I can show that for each a in K/k, the minimal polynomial of a over k is x^{p^n} - a^{p^n}. But I am not sure how to use that to show [K:k] = p^n.
I want to use if L/F/E, then [L:E] = [L:F][F:E]. If I write K/k as a tower of simple extension, then [k(a)/k] = p^n which means that for example, [k(a)(b)/k(a)] = 1. If so, it basically means that b in k(a). But I don't think that's true. Am I wrong?
The particular n we get for each element of K we choose can differ, so in that sense when you take some random a in K the extension k(a) need not be the whole field K. So there is still some room to choose b outside of this.
So in some sense the n in the second part is not necessarily going to be the n in the first part (and there is no single n in the first part anyway)
i see. so should I aim to find an alpha such that k(alpha) = K?
No, such an alpha won’t necessarily exist. It seems easier to find a finite tower of extensions each of which has a power of p as its degree over the previous extension
ok. I'll try to work on that
btw, sorry I'm a little confused on this too. why x^q - b has a unique root in the algebraic closure?
let a be a root in the algebraic closure, so we have that a^q=b. (x-a)^q = x^q-a^q = x^q-b. So that means a is the only root of x^q-b
gotcha. we can rewrite this way because characteristic = q. thank you!
Sorry i should have clarified, characteristic = p and q is p^m for some m (the rewriting in the case of p^m works in exactly the same way as the rewriting for just p)
i see. thanks! 
Np
This is a research task for us. I already searched but I couldn't find any answer on the internet. I don't know how to prove these statements because our professor haven't discussed it yet.
hard to help you if you don't tell us what you do know
why do they say "A is nonempty" it still true if A is empty
Probably didn't want to think too hard about whether the empty map is a map or smth lol
Suppose the characteristic of k is p. how to prove the characteristic of k(alpha), an algebraic extension, is also p? I know it's true but I don't know how to say formally
Like the identity is not changed, so it should remain the same?
The characteristic is all about which expressions of the form 1+1+1+...+1 evaluate to 0. In a field extension (algebraic or not), these additions all happen purely in the smaller field, so whether they are 0 or not cannot be influenced by what happens outside that field.
I see. Thank you!
Can someone help me as to how is this part done? I know i can find it using 8 mod 65 then 8^2mod65 8^3mod65 and so on
But that methods seems wrong assuming it will make this question like 30 mins long
So what other method do i use
,rotate
ig you can quickly say that a^12 = 1 mod 65
It’s already told you what to do in detail, why don’t you just follow it…
and since a^16 = 1 mod 65, you get a^4 = 1 mod 65
I think you really do just have to grind it out or use Euclid’s algorithm if you want specific orders of each element
Yeah i guess so
No elements of order 8 and not all elements are of order smaller than or equal to 2 so those 2 possible situations left… If it’s the latter case then there should be at least 7 elements of order 2 so the former one
I was hoping there will be a short way
Bcz these kinda questions are asked in my university exam previously
Well as we’ve said you can eliminate a lot of the possibilities
So you only need to check a^2 and a^4 in this case
Yes
I’m not seeing where this comes from though
Quick question are u guys allowed to use calculater for this?
Oh right it’s number theory 
For a^2 or a^4
there are other ways to this this btw, but i'm guessing your book doesn't want that.
U(65) is isomorphic to U(13) x U(5) which is Z/3Z ⊕ Z/4Z ⊕ Z/4Z
now G is a subgroup of this of order 16
because U(p) is isomorphic to Z/(p-1)Z and we can then use CRT to break it further
Hmm I'll try it out and see
Yeah i cant use different method. My teacher is picky.
So ill have to stick with the book
That’s not the way to teach abstract algebra at all 
Maybe her method can be shorten a little bit, x^4+1=0 mod 5 or mod 13 doesn’t have solution so the first and the second are ruled out, 8^2=-1 so an element of order 4, the fifth is ruled out, then you just calculate the square of those elements to see how many elements are of order 2, so 15 times of multiplication.
(If 65=5*13 divides a^16-1=(a^4-1)(a^4+1)(a^8+1) then 65 must divide (a^4-1) from my first two rows)
non commutative rings without unity are ugly 
That is why we say they don’t exist

I do quite like how they're a group and a semigroup though
also delete non commutative rings
it's neater than a group and a magma

Hence forth all rings are commutative and have unit 
i like the ring of integral quaternions
ZQ_8?
ok include only non commutative ones which has a unit
nah, the one i know is
{a +bi+cj+dk | a, b, c, d all in Z or all in Z+1/2}

Z+1/2 wtf
there's probs a good reason for including that and now I want to know what it is
i think it's the same situation as in Z[sqrt(-3)] where you add the extra element (1+sqrt(-3))/2 to make it nicer
Was about to say the same
like 1/2(1+i+j+k) is a very nice invertible element
what if you take i/2*j/2 though surely this is k/4 which isn't in the set
and you can use the structure of this ring to prove 4 square theorem
it's pretty much a euclidean domain but not commutative
Literally no
Use the Chinese remainder theorem
I don’t care what you say you can’t change my mind
And just write every number as products of prime powers
Pick up a commutative algebra book
Hurb
Predictable

schemes are scary
Is ur pfp wearing a Dino onesie? Also yes
Confirming?
Scheeeeeemeeeeeee
yeah
wait
can i take the lcm of all the orders overall
like in edp
since its
and then use the fundamental abelian theorem
and make paritions easy
You don’t want to do it that way
why?
You can only break things up when they’re coprime and like already in “blocks”
Like if you had say Z_10 x Z_5
The lcm is 10
yes
oh z5 x z5 x z2
Yeah
Just factor every number there as products of prime powers
And you’re done
You can then regroup them to make it look nicer if you like
Like here you will have four Z_5’s
So you can write (Z_5)^4
To make it look neater
(z5)^4 x (z3)^3 x (z2)^3
okie maybe a better way to write would be Z[u, i, j, k] = {au + bi + cj + dk | a, b, c, d in Z} where u = (1+i+j+k)/2.
also so i/2 isn't there because we want either all to be integers or all to be 1/2 + an integer in the old definition
So the last one is off
From Z_60 you get a Z_4
ok I get you now
Z_4 ≠ (Z_2)^2
yeah true they are not relative prime 2 and 2
chmonkey really has the not equals to symbol on their keyboard gosh darn
wait what phone is that
iPhone
huh doesn't work on mine
Tf?
how... peculiar
What phone? I had it even on iPhone 7 years ago
Can’t you type accent marks like that too? Like ñ
is there a way to type unicode characters through keyboard without copy pasting stuff
I can do accents and stuff
(on a laptop)
I think there’s a shortcut
you got a numpad?
Like alt+ some numbers
^
alt+numbers gives you uhhh some unicode and control+alt gives you the rest
╚ is alt+456 for example
Is that only if you input it via numpad?
yup
ah
Wtf is gnome
it's like a little man with a big hat
(the Desktop Env i'm using >.<)
DEez
Is that an OS
nah
mfs really can't just install windows and be happy
if you just install linux you'll be thrown into a black ttyl screen
you need to install a desktop thing on top of it
but most of it is automated by popular distributions
I would assume the way to input Unicode is based on the Linux OS you use
Not the DE then
D:
the DE manages the keyboard shortcuts, so idk
well it gives you the required control over everything if you think about it like that
okie now the question is how do i memorize unicode numbers
maybe there are other ways, i'll look
ok I've been thinking
if you have an integral domain D with some homomorphism D -> Z then there's a homomorphism from Frac(D) to Q right?
i don't think so
No
Z[x] --> Z sending x to 0
It has to be injective
ohhhh yes of course
or you could end up with 0s on the dominator in the homomorphism to Q right?
That’s a way to think of it, yeah
A different way to think of it is
You can obtain the map on the integral domains by restricting the map on fraction fields
And maps of fields are injective

Existence of the map from the injectivity uses fractions tho, yeah
ok yeah actually true
I didn't think about trying to see if it worked backwards I was only looking at inducing a homomorphism from D to frac(D)
there’s always a map there?
no sorry, I'm inducing a homomorphism between D and Z to a homomorphism between frac(D) and Q
Ah sure
mb
There’s nothing special about Z here
Taking fraction fields is a functor from domains with injective maps to fields
yeah I can see it working for any 2 integral domains (with injective homomorphisms between them)
I was just working with mapping to Z because it makes it easier 
oh
but then I'll need to remember the unicodes for the chars
unlike in my gboard where I can just do \oplus
⊕
given some polynomial in the rationals (but if you know for general fields I'd be interested too), is there some algorithm that can construct a matrix over Q that has that polynomial as characteristic polynomial?
yes
one brute force technique is to just find the roots (if possible and put them in the diagonal)
otherwise you can construct the matrix replicating the rational canonical form
but that doesn't work when the roots aren't rational though does it?
that is given $p(x) = x^n + a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+\cdots+a_0$ then the matrix will be given by ...
oh wait that's it

(side note: that's also the minimal polynomial, and the matrix may not be unique upto similar)
that's ok, I just wanted to get a matrix that had that property, didn't really matter how many there are
I just found it cool that with the help of tensor products one can explicitly construct polynomials that have the sum and the product of algebraic numbers a,b as roots, given we have their minimal polynomials (or just polynomials that have each as roots)
Let F be a field of characteristic 0, if A^n \in F for some natural number n, then let k be the smallest natural numbers such that A^k \in F, then is
x^k - A^k
The minimal polynomial for A in F[x]?
how many times will you edit the question 


That’s the last time I swear 😂
ex $\omega ^ 3 = 1 \in \mbb{Q}$ but that's not the minimal poly
Thanks 😂 okay so I guess I will ask the larger question behind this
So I saw 2 different definitions of a radical extension and I wasn't sure if they are equivalent but here are the definitions.
-
$L/F$ is a radical extension if there's a sequence of field
[F = E_0 \subset E_1 \subset ... \subset E_r = L]
, where for every i, $E_{i+1}$ is the splitting field of $x^{n_i} - A_i$ over $E_i$, where $n_i$ is some natural number and $A_i \in E_i$. -
$L/F$ is a radical extension if $L = F(x_1, ..., x_r)$ where for each $x_i$,
[x_i^{n_i} \in F(x_1, ..., x_{i-1})]
for some natural number $n_i$
I think I figured out 1 $\implies$ 2, but I am not sure if the other way is true?
ScarletScorch
Well this is a little odd because in the first x is a variable, in the latter x are elements
sorry lol i can switch them up
But starting from (2), just let E_i = F(x1,…,xi)
And then you just get the statement of (1)
I think… 
Is that the splitting field?
Well but is E_{i+1} necessarily the splitting field of the polynomial tho?
My brain says something something separable
Or something about the fact that a power of x lies in it that you’re okay
But 
well like
I feel like
If you take n minimal for a
So like let a^n be in F
n minimal
Then a^i should all be linearly independent or something
But is this true 
If it is, then F(a) is the splitting field
And then the proof of (2) => (1) works
This is true if a is like a root of unity over Q
yeah i guess that;s kinda why i asked the question earlier
problem is kind of like a general kummer extension
usually needs to like adjoin 2 elements
rather than 1
I wish I knew more linear algebra?
but yeah it would definitely work with a primeitiveroot of unity
what's the splitting field of cbrt(2) over Q?
isn't that degree 6?
it feels degree 6 to me
i think yes?
yes
then you have a counterexample
Q(cbrt(2)) is deg 3
but it isn't the splitting field of something or something like that
unless you have to change what element it is, but idk this seems fake af to me
yeah the galois group is S3
how could Q(cbrt(2)) be the splitting field of something over Q which is like an n-th power
This is a rigorous proof of that fact 🙂
"how could it"
Can you do something using Galois theory?
lol
well i don't think anything significiant splits in Q(cbrt(2))?
Like if it was a splitting field it would have to be of an element a which satisfies a^3 being in Q
but not a^2 or a
yeah
Idk like
Q(cbrt(2)) isn't normal over Q?
but if it was a splitting field it would be?
¯_(ツ)_/¯
it's not a galois extension
oh yeah that does it then
I think
which is equivalent to normality here cuz char 0
so everything is always separable

oh yeah then truly
I proved a field theory thing
or well, I said words and then other ppl proved it

well i guess the first definition of radical extension was pretty cursed
literally i have not seen this outside of my textbook yet
What I need to know is
why for a radical extension in char p you can assume the n is a power of p
or something idfk
I think I read a proof that used this once and I was like wat

Well in char p you like run into some Artin Schreier flummery
Which is like disgusting and gross
I think characteristic 0 is already enough for me
hey i'm slowly getting into algebra, and i had proved it earlier lol don't make fun of me
I was doing the opposite, I was defending you
Hausdorff
So I have an argument for this
and since determinant is the product of eigenvalues we are done?
am I missing some justification? or is the argument fine?
did you mean $A+iB$ has eigenvalues ${\lambda_{1, k}\pmi\lambda_{2,k}}$
Wew Lads Tbh
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Nope
I meant C
I missed the ^2 in the original question whoops
How to find the number of permutations that commute with a given permutation in Sn? Any hint
Consider how conjugation in Sn works
How this will help me to solve this?
the issue is that "analysis enjoyer" is a slur

gl!
Two elements commute iff one fixes the other by conjugation
And conjugation in Sn is nicely characterized
If $R_1$ and $R_2$ are two irreps of $\mathrm{SU(N)}$ and $T^a_{R_j}$ the generators in a given rep, is the following true? How?
$$\mathrm{Tr} (T^a_{R_1 \oplus R_2}T^b_{R_1 \oplus R_2}) =\mathrm{Tr} (T^a_{R_1}T^b_{R_1} + T^a_{R_2}T^b_{R_2})$$
Siupa
There are 6 people, each person can either be friends or strangers with the others. Want to prove that there are either 3 mutual friends or 3 mutual enemies
why is this not a valid counter example?
you haven't drawn all the lines
you need to color every single line between each person, then show that there's always a triangle with all the same colors (in order to prove the fact)
also, this isn't really abstract algebra, I think this falls into Morse Theory
I can outline a proof in a different chat if you'd like
b commutes with a iff the image of any cycle of a under b is a cycle of b so n!/Π(j^λ_j) I think where a has λ_j j-cycles
Aha it's because one of the conditions is also that any given pair must be either friends or enemies, i missed that
yeah
and for sure, i'm going to try doing the proof myself and then maybe ask you if I cant figure something out?
sure
Looks like something like Tr(diag{A,B}diag{C,D})=Tr(diag{AC,BD})=Tr(AC)+Tr(BD)=Tr(AC+BD)
Thank you, I was getting derailed by all the proprieties regarding Lie algebras and stuff, while it seems that it was a more general result
About really any matrix and about direct sums
It's hard sometimes to recognise which specificities can be ignored
can someone explain why this is true
like why for every polynomial there exists a multiplicative inverse?
i thought this was only true for power series
i don't think its true for polynomials but apparently d&f says it is
for reference this is on page 234 in the book
and i think that R is assumed to be a commutative ring with identity but idk why that implies R[x] is as well?
It didn’t say “for every polynomial there exists a multiplicative inverse” at all…
basically an isomorphism would have to be injective and surjective, so because its injective, there can only be one solution (the kernel is trivial)
they are just the number relatively prime to 30, because this way there is a unique sol, otherwise, there are no sols or many sols
so there would be only one solution in this case?
the ideal generated by 30/gcd(30,m)
Don’t know what you’re asking, better if you can just give me your original question
Oh I see
the first part was easy
how did u get that so fast lol?
I meant |U(Z/30Z)|=φ(30)
Any homomorphism f, f maps 1 to k , it’s an isomorphism iff it’s surjective
And the order of k in Z/30Z is 30/(30,k)
ohhh
so to find the number of isomorhpisms
i find all the coprime numbers to 30?
that are under 30
?
Yeah
There is a formula of Euler function
You can deduce that yourself using, like combinatorics
hmm okay
do u know waht this theorem is called
or link me to it pls
Just Euler function
If you want a number theory proof Cohen’s number theory has it
But just seems unnecessary, using combinatorics is more straight forward
ahh okay
Inclusion–exclusion principle
You mean it is Z/kZ ?
Yeah there is only 1 cyclic group of order k up to isomorphism
ohh okay
Sorry I misread it
It’s not a theorem
Just some calculation you do it yourself, not worthy of a theorem for it
i know the left side is order of it, but why do you set it equal to phi(30)
k is invertible in Z/30Z in terms of multiplication iff k is coprime to 30
alrighty
so bascially i can use this method for all type of problems in this manner right?
if they are cyclic
and say the gcd between the two groups were 10
I don’t know I used any method… you have to ask a specific question…
hmmm
And I don’t know what gcd of two groups mean
it means that there are that many homomorphisms between the two finite groups
You mean how many homomorphisms from Z/mZ to Z/nZ?
yeah
|{k: n|km}|
which is exactly the greatest common divisor of m and n.
Yeah I am dumb😂 , it’s (m,n)
There are φ(m) many injections when m|n, none otherwise. And φ(n) many surjections when n|m, none otherwise right?
why is it so hard to understand what is given to my in an abstract algebra problem
like idek what b means
i know i have to show its associative inverse and identity
what is the actual thing im going to run these tests on?
ψ_g•ψ_h is defined to be ψ_gh
hmm, pretty sure I saw a long discussion about pretty much that question only a few days ago, but I wasn't in it myself ...
I mean the composition of ψ_g and ψ_h is exactly ψ_gh
(If you're talking about Par's problem, note that his variant uses phis rather than psis).
Bad at distinguishing them😂,this? φ
its the one taht loosk like a y lol
Yeah. Just wanted to ward off unnecessary confusion.
actually cogwheels for the problem we talked about before this
a lot of people are getting 1 for isomorphism
not 8
this is how my friend did his proof
? Mapping a to a^7 already give you another one other than identity
wym
that discussion was about part a for this problem
The mistake in your friend's proof seems to be that he the only way he can find a g^a such that g^(ka) = g^m is if ka=m. But we could also have ka=m+30 or ka=m+60, and so forth, and this freedom allows a lot of k's other than 1 to work too.
His last 7 rows make no sense at all😂😂
ohhhh okay lmfao
Yeah, those 7 lines are pretty opaque, but I think I've at least gotten the gist of where it goes wrong, namely where he starts writing m/k for what I called a in my explanation.
alrighty ill let him know
We can only give counterexamples to disprove something, can’t give examples to prove something. Also “any k” in the fourth row from below is completely nonsense…
yeah i see it now
just wanted it to get checked
anyways for part b i assume i would compose the phi above with itself?
im kinda confused on that that notation means
Isomorphisms from G to itself is a group right?
yeah
under composition, Inn(G) is a subgroup of this
class syllabus finally dropped
anything stick out to anyone?
i would've thought groups would've come first
$\phi_g(x) = gxg^{-1}, ; \phi_h(x) = hxh^{-1}$ and so on, you have to prove that the set of all functions of this form is a group under composition
Wew Lads Tbh
ty lol
so compsoing phi(h) into phig
i would i just check if associativity inverse and identity exist?
and closure
look at my syllabus and give me excuses to complain 
im so excited to actually take this class tho
I've got my own classes to stress about 
lol my semester starts next week im chillin still
catch me pulling 72 hour marathons 2 months from now
I got an exam in 5 days and another in 7 
I've ran out of past papers and revision material as per usual
sure
Like this?
yup!
D_2n thing is up to convention because it describes the number of elements
Q_8 is cuz it has 8 elements, there's a generalized quaternion group which has other numbers
Q_8 is a universal standard lol
hey guys
can someone explain how associativity of multiplication of group rings follows from the associativity of the group it is based on?
the pruple part in d&f
isn't it because of associtiavity in the ring not the group?
both
oh so like its because of associativity in both of them?
yeah
i mean ig that is pretty obvious but like idk the book only says group so i got a bit confused
bruh i literally just spent an hour not knowing why the stuff in the book was true because they used this weird unconventioanl notation 😦
Didn't this formula will number of elements conjugate with given cycle( idk i am confused now)
I was dumb, actually it should be
b commutes with a iff b maps any j cycle of a to a j cycle of a
u can also do it by using orbit stabilizer
Therefore in total Πλ_j!j^λ_j
I tried i also get the formula , but didn't get the motivation behind that , how they get there
it's basic combinatorics
And this is what over head projector for me
Yeah b looks like permutation of cycles of a
Therefore Π λ_j ! Then there are j ways to map a j-cycle to another j-cycle
like I could explain but I'm low on energy, just woke up
So Πλ_j!j^λ_j
Anyone know what Irr() stands for?
minimal polynomial of alpha in K (it is also the only monic irreducible polynomial that alpha satisfies in k)
thanks!
@rustic crown hey u know mathematica?
nope 😦
oh okieeee
.<
Wait what the, when did you become chmonkeynumber1fan >_<
.<
.<

O_o

Pls
Is this about subrings with a different 1?
Cuz this is trash, it isn’t considered a subring if you require 1 to exist because it breaks too many things
also 4 in Z/6Z is the unit for 2Z/6Z 
Any ring with unity with a non-trivial idempotent will have these sorts of “subrings”
They never said subring 
subrngs 🙏
have seen one definition where the author requires to have unit to be subrings,
like 2Z is not subring of Z

Yes that is the legit definition
legitimacy is relative 

I would consider 2Z to be a subring
It is the most common and perhaps the most reasonable one
(like if you don't bring some shit out from category theory and show it's wrong def)
It’s the wrong def because theorems no longer work lol
It should only be a subring if you don’t require rings to have unity
If you do, the “sub” structure should respect that
And I think you can formalize this in like a universal algebra way
Or model theoretic
(LIkE if YoU dOn'T uSE MatH)
ye that's the definition I would go with but like... why do ppl can't just formalize a subring
why do ppl can’t just formalize a subring

Does this book require rings to have a unit?
this is the correct thing
no
That’s why this definition is like it is
you could in the same way argue "why do we care about homomorphisms"
the unit is part of the data of a ring
so maps (and substructures) have to respect that data
But now the problem is just one step deeper because YOU SHOULD HAVE A 1 
this book even considers 0 to be zd in Z, (but not in {0})
Wtf is zd
zero divisor
Hurb
i mean that is fine?
this book does not even require integral domains to have 1 or be commutative, FFS i'm deleting this book rn
what book
Introduction to Rings And Modules by C. Musili
this is the book our prof is following

literally never heard of this
yeah reason is clear
but sounds like a book written by an italian dictator

i TAd some linear algebra class that started with monoids
and it had theorems like "if an element in a monoid has an inverse, it is unique"
there are probably reasons to keep the theory general (at first)..
I helped someone with their French math hw
It said to show that a finite associative regular magma is a group
bourbaki moment




