#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 654 of 407
is this a ligma joke
And same with a on the right
ok nice
ye that one's fine
Finite means finite as a set, not something weird
I hate the finite module thing so much
Finite CW complex I am good with tho 
It also has weird implication for your ring
left cancellative magma
Like it has to have a finite as a set ring quotient
What's weird about that? That is part of the definition of a ring
Right next to all rings are commutative

what are your guyses strategies to keep track of lots of different steps and implications during a longer proof. I'm currently trying to read through a proof of Krull's principal ideal theorem, more precisely the height part of the theorem (which for some reason is a lot longer than the one given on wikipedia)
I guess you just read it… no short path
But the version of proof I read is only one page I don’t see that how that’s a long proof anyway 😂
idk how my prof turned it into a long proof either
Probably the same way I turned the proof of n^2 even iff n is even into a whole page a long time ago.
Break the proof into steps and then try to explain it to someone in your head
(who's that someone >.<)

Many imaginary students 

I think the breaking into steps part was kind of exactly what made my profs proof long lol.
Better to go into too much detail than not enough
Making the proof modular has a lot of advantages, but yeah if the proof is already short then it will make it longer
TBF the Principal Ideal Theorem is just a rally long proof. There's a lot of stuff that goes into it
what's an example of a non-commutative algebra
matrices over a field
wdym over a field
Chmatrices
still very new to this lol
Just n×n matrices with real entries, then.
Yes, with addition of matrices.
Non commutative algebra just means that multiplication is non commutative
oh 
If addition is not commutative in any structure you don't even call it an addition 🙈
im studying from lecture notes rn, that was written no where lol
probably why i was having a hard time coming up with non-commutative addition lol
for context im not being terribly dumb, the lecture is next week, prof just uploaded notes early
so he'll probably actually say that in the lecture lol
Why are you studying it a week early 
because.
diligentNitezba 
idk bc i can lol
im gonna have an ~interesting~ semester ahead
five classes, one of them is independent study, so any headstart helps
also bc he dropped the hw along the notes 

the algebra
What kind of algebra is being talked about here
algebruh
Can you send definition
something being closed under multiplication but not addition feels weird so im just gonna assume it's for definition's sake
Though I guess the earlier answers still make sense
You don't even have an addition in the first place
So your question makes no sense
oh

that's so cool
that you can just define an algebra and say fuck you, you no add
Formal sumz

Does anyone know what this means? If I could get an example it will help greatly
Try to apply the definition to find the order of every element in Z/6Z
^

Yep
And 1 as 0 
so 0 isnt in the set
No 0 is in the set, it’s the additive identity
Looks right to me
i know how to find these
but what does the last sentence of this means
these are the orders of indvidiual elements of the set
how is it "the same as..."
Consider the subgroup of Z/6Z generated by <2>
You get a subgroup containing every multiple of 2 mod 6
But you’ve just shown that 3 times 2 = 0 times 2 so there’s only 3 elements in that subgroup, which is the order of 2
<2> looks like {e,2,4} right?
Yes
woah
so the order of the group
is 3
adn the order of the indvidual element is 3 too
Yup
The way you’d define a general cyclic subgroup of order n from the free group is <a such that a^n = 1>
The connection there is clear
Also 0: 1 
Yes
Yes a group needs the identity
No 1 is as well 
It’s really not that bad

Why wouldn’t 1 be in the set
I think you saying 1 is 0 really threw them off moldi ngl
It is the definition of Z/6Z
oof perhaps
i get it
isnt this modular stuff
0 is the identity for additive right
yeah
Yes
Yes
an operation in an algebra can be anything right
Yes
algebruh
well aktually 

Here have your other definition

set of all humans is closed under the operation of sex 
sex literally makes new humans how can it be closed 
That doesn't make sense 
I'm going to cry 
all humans already exist

Bit of a stupid question, but can you find such a H and a map which is zero on 6Z but doesn’t reference Z/6Z?
tfw humans arent an algebra 
Bro 0 map is zero on 6Z

x -> x mod 3
x -> x mod 2
god I love being annoying
Ker=6Z is what i mean
algebra feels like such a meme to study for some reason
I was smartasser than you before you smartassed 
then no if you want a homomorphism
precisely because people can be annoying
by the first iso theorem
Not really, Z/6Z can be a subring, that will work just fine for me
ohhhhh you want RINGS
Sorry group
ok but you want ker = 6Z right?
Poor guy was so hyped
you can't handle the ker = 6Z
So done
yeah moldi's kinda right 

Point is, H can be some group that contains Z/6Z, and still be defined without mentioning it
I was thinking map 1 ∈ ℤ to the 60° rotation
D_6 is defined without reference to Z/6Z

*D_12
Yep exactly what i wanted
a+b=c
It's a good number theory problem
It's like fermat's last theorem except there is a solution
Pretty cool
I could find a solution
nobel prize
maths
that's the joke
what joke
YOUR MOM
#abstract-chill
anyway what were we talking about
something to do with a^n = 1
a+b=c
we looking for integer solutions or something
What's this class about btw
it's just called "algebra"

wtaf is this
Group theory + sneak peek ring theory 
ok around week 6 it starts making some semblance of sense
god reading this makes me nostalgic
I'm so OLD moldi
I am withering away
i love my math department 
yeah that looks alright
anyway!
Wew did this stuff in grade school
they're introducing polynomial algberas before groups
yummy
book is A First Course in Abstract Algebra with Applications, 3rd Edition by Joseph J. Rotman
But not as rings though
idk about you but I didn't see my first algebra algebra until my 4th year research
Or as algebras over rings
yes that's what makes me concerned
Here algebra just means algebraic structure
ohhhhhhh
Which is set with operations
does it mean something else???
Ye 
yes

2+3=5 give me my fields
imagine you have a vector space but you can also multiply the vectors
that's an algebra to my understanding
omg
I've only seen group-rings though and weird FG-modules so there ARE more wacky ones out there, like equipping R^3 with the cross product that's a classic
god these WORDS
I simply do not believe it
where's my rep theory book
What you said earlier can be generalised to modules
An R-algebra is an R-module with a compatible ring multiplication
But since it itself is a ring S
ok i have a few days to self study some stuff before this class starts
oh I see now
You can say that it is a ring S with a compatible R module structure
anything yall recommend i look at ahead of time
ok I'll let it slide... for now...
And then r•1 where • is scalar multiplication
Is the image of r ∈ R under this structure homomorphism
basically just shove a ring over a ring rather than a group over a ring right?
i know basic definitions but dont understand them annd their significance yet but that's just a matter of time
like which ones
So this homomorphism R → S is precisely all the data you need
but yall scaring me lol
we're talking about fairly advanced nonsense
ring, group, "algebra", field, isomorphism
And another interesting definition you'll see in terms of tensor products
I'm stopping you there

I need to go get my tensor time hat on first
nerd
you just posted one
That's just the first isomorphism theorem
it's tensor time chat
pls 👉 👈
oh not that
asking for things to self study
or just prep in general for this inevitable shitstorm
.
look bro, you've just walked into a fluid dynamics lecture before taking calc 1 - don't let us spook you
Generic one would be like
x → Fu u
\ | :
↓ ↓ ↓
Fy y

I regret it
I regret it as well
Moldi I want to go back and struggle to understand quotient groups again
it was so simple (get it chat) back then
Just stare at the universal property enough
And you'll start struggling again
Better yet see the Yoneda lemma proof of the isomorphism theorem (G/H)/(N/H) ≈ G/N

Then you'll struggle with the other proof 
I still have fuckin no clue what the universal property of the tensor product actually means
I know it has something to do with guaranteeing some bijective map from Hom(M, N) to Bil(M, N)
im gonna go play minecraft now
Based
too much lingo for a day 
im gonna have so much fun with this class
literally bursting at the seams with joy
Yoneda Lemmas is just spicy Cayley's Theorem, change my mind
Bijection between Bil(M ⊗ P, N) and Hom(M × P, N)
that's the one
i'm literally playing right now, hi brother
you understand linear maps, but dont understand multilinear maps
wouldnt it be cool to transfer your understanding of linear maps to multinear maps
It turns bilinear maps into linear maps, that is all
oh yeah I get the motivation
except Yoneda's lemma is useful 
Univeesal properties are the best
I just don't know what a "universal property" actually is
pls name me 3 cases you actually have used Cayley's theorem
Is a terminal object in a suitable category
That's why I find this analogy kind of weak like
Spicy = more useful, chmonkey

Idk I don't even view it as a generalization of it or something
this might as well be in Slovakian
it's just so much better than Cayley's
it's like saying a ring is a spicy Z
I dunno
A group is a groupoid with one object
yeah I mean
Actually true
it was kind of a joke
I'm just saying people say "oh have you seen Cayley's theorem? Yoneda is like that but souped up"
except now you set it up to be some theorem that you learn and never use
At this point I won't be surprised if there's an actual category theory formulation of this "spicy"
It is interesting
or is there to just provide some sort of like philosophical meaning like "oh woah everything embeds into a functor category woooooooooooooooooooaaaaaaa"
#category-theory PLEASE
It is philosophical
Someone drank too much of the cat theory kool-aid 
Just today I was reading about integrals and fubini's theorem in Category theory 
I don't really see the philosophical stuff in this
Was it interesting?
Yes
just motivation, it is useful when explaining, stuff like that
And I don't mean integrals done categorically or something
May god have mercy on u bro
How do u even do that with just objects and arrows
was it a coend? 
Yes
knew it
Yeah, once I read about coend calculus
Ends and coends lmao
but dont understand them
I almost learned about coends
to try to understand how a tensor product is a coproduct
Oh you weren't joking
I think yoneda lemma can be stated in terms of coends and stuff like that
Oh ye I just learned about that today
share it! sounds interesting
I mean so like
the underlying abelian group
ohw ait
No I know that it's a coproduct
fml
So once you have tensor of abelian groups
I mean a cokernel
You can write tensor product of any 2 R-modules over R
As a coend of their tensor over Z
And this case be used to define a more general notion of tensors over stuff in general monoidal categories
Have to read further to know why this is useful though
Mac lane just says yeah this is a thing you can do
ok
I was trying to figure out how to understand this
The thing I didn't understand was like since we're doing tensor products over different rings in which category this is a coequalizer
I think the answer is as abelian groups
and then like, I think the module structure comes in abstractly because an R-module structure is just a map R (x)_Z M -> M
and I think you can naturally induce this via the direct limits or some shit, idfk
I read parts of "tensor categorical foundations for algebraic geometry" or something
well like, to show it is a coequalizer when I was looking into it involves writing it as a coend
But then again the coend thing comes down to coequalising the obvious tensors
or something, idk I went hard on this last year then gave up because I decided this was dumb as fuck
Ye right
and I had better things to do
Lmao
Like after reading someone's PhD thesis I decided I was done with this bs
since I can just write a direct proof of the fact
and it's even in Bourbaki lol
Having read >10 chapters of mac lane, I haven't even used anything past the first 5 outside of cat theory itself
yeah
I'll be using the 6th one in homological algebra though 🙈
I read a bit of it to figure out the diagonal being cofinal thing
This actually mattered for me before
since I was doing weird direct limits over doubly indexed stuff
Right 
I still don't really understand how that stuff works
I just try to avoid situations that this becomes important
lol
It's just diagram chasing
Yeah I mean like I'm confused if I'm doing a direct limit followed by another
or if I'm like doing a single direct limit over I x J
or something
so I just try to avoid having to ever think about what's going on lol
by coming up with different arguments
I think those should be the same lmao
¯_(ツ)_/¯
Assuming all existence
It popped up when I was reading Serre's local algebra
to define the like, completed tensor product
piece of shit

were you reading martin brandenburg's thesis?
would you read my PhD thesis Prof. Chmonkey 
I was planning on reading it sometime, it seemed pretty cool (or atleast the idea was cool)
If you make it on commutative algebra or AG, maybe
yeah idk, I don't really at the moment care about these big categorical generalizations
I just cared about how to frame things in a more categorical way for the specific thing I cared about at that time, and I found the thesis a source that explained the things I needed
I see
Everything is a presheaf 
would someone be able to enlighten me as to what is meant by a transformation-group groupoid
I'm probably missing something, but I don't see why the hypothesis of IBN is needed for 1, and also maybe for 2, since R^n is always finitely.generated by definition while R^infty is not
For 1 i'm pretty sure it isn't necessary but for 2 it probably is. The point being that R^infty is not finitely generated by the particular basis that you used to define it but there is a chance that there is some other finite basis for R^infty, without IBN I don't see how you can immediately conclude that such a basis doesn't exist.
I see, that's fair. I'm still not sure how you'd reach a contradiction even with IBN, if such a basis did exist, then you'd want to construct some other finite basis with a different cardinality for a contradiction, but i'm not sure how you'd do that since you don't have much to go off of
Wait what
Direct sum with R on both sides and use the isomorphism in 1
Produce an infinite basis for R^infinity
Produce a size n basis for R^n
Then IBN handles the rest
Ohhhh right
IBN only concerns finitely generated modules
IBN is for two finite direct sums
Well this exercise shows that you can conclude that from IBN
part 3 specificlaly
Commutative rings always have IBN so it doesn't matter
Yeah you have to prove that is my point
And I proved it directly for all cardinalities
IIRC
Or maybe at some point I just extended the finite case without knowing I can 
For some reason I didn't think of using 1 at all, but it's immediate from that
Assuming choice
Or not?
The proof I saw used zorn to assert that existence of a maximal ideal but looking it up it seems to hold in constructive settings too
You can do it via constructing a theory of determinants/adjugate matrices for free modules over commutative rings

Yea with commutative rings you can do this directly to conclude for cardinalities without using IBN
is the smallest transcendental extension of F always isomorphic to F(x)?
it contains an injective map from F[x] so if we extend the map to be from F(x) it should be still injective right?
Yes the map is still injective (because any map from a field is injective)
yes this should be true
I don't understand the circled part
v_i's are cosets of E
how can I sum them and get an element in K
nvm this is not a basis for the quotient K/E but for K as a v.s. over E
I think you should review the notation
K/E is not the quotient of K by E
oh sorry lmao you figured that out on your own
yeah the notation is somewhat odd, but it's standard when talking about field extensions to write K/E to denote that K is a field extension of E
the reason is that in this kind of field theory, the "fundamental object" you're studying is not a field by itself, but the extension of fields, as a pair
and so we want to keep that in the notation
and "K/E" emphasizes that
hey guys can someone explain how to do this
how can we find all the ideals of $\mathbb{Z}/12\mathbb{Z}$
JustKeepRunning
I know the definition of an ideal but i am not sure how to find all of them
well if you know all the ideals of Z, you can see that ideals of this ring are in correspondence with ideals of Z containing 12Z. If you haven't seen that before you can find all the ideals by hand by first noticing that all ideals are just principal ideals and then seeing what ideal each element generates by hand
JustKeepRunning
thats the set of all ideals?
no
it will be nZ/12Z where n divides 12
maybe d&f are talking about the corresponding quotient rings
oh shoot i misread sorry
np
wait why isn't it just nZ why is it nZ/12Z
because doesn't nZ contain 12Z?
and it also satisfies ideal definition?
nZ isn't even a subset of the ring
If [E:F] = m and [E’:F] < inf, prove [EE’:E’] <= m
can I suppose every element in EE’ is a sum of a*b where a is in E and b is in E’?
And if so I feel like my argument is flimsy
Suppose E/F has a basis {e_1, … e_m}
Then writing a’s as linear combinations of the basis elements we have that everything in EE’ is a linear combination of them and we cannot have more than m linearly independent elements
Because I’m concerned about infinite sums
There is no infinite sum…
umm why
You didn’t define infinite sum…😂
If a, b are algebaric over F, and $F(a) \cap F(b) = F$, does this imply that $[F(a, b): F] = [F(a): F][F(b): F]$?
CelesteCrow
EF is defined to be E(F) , extension of E containing elements of F, so any element in EF has the form of finite sum of ab where a is from E and b is from F
<=
ok I guess it’s the same thing as the smallest field containing E and F
which is the definition I got
Yeah, equivalent
Then my argument works?👀
Yeah
excellent ty
Oh shoot thanks i just came up with a counter example
What is the counterexample?
well i wanted to prove or disprove it for a general n algebaric number, so that their pairwise intersection is F, and i thought about i, \sqrt(2), and i\sqrt(2) for Q
well so lemme rephrase my question
Suppose we have a_1, ..., a_n algebraic over F, if
[F(a_i) \cap F(a_j) = F]
for i \neq j, then does this mean that
[F(a_1, ..., a_n): F] = product of [F(a_i): F]
That's the counter example i was talking about ^
is the relationship that if we had a group S, this would satisfy as the subgroup of S containing all orders? And we can prove this by proving that this subgroup is closed and has an inverse
idfk
I'm dumb
because like |a| -> a^n = e, and |b| -> b^n = e
Ahh if gcd(|a|, |b|) = 1, then |ab| = |a||b|?
yeah
the order of an element in a group
i know
if |a| and |b| are relatively prime you say?
yeah
If the order of a and b are relatively prime, and i think the group has to be abelian
bruh
I've never heard of that property until now
yeah it's a cool exercise if you wanna try it (it only works in abelian groups tho)
Also I think for 13 you can just think of the dihedral group
well so in a dihedral groups, 2 flips = 1 rotation right
I forgot what the identity of a dihedral group is
Where is 3?
So I have a_1, a_2, a_3 where a_1 = i , a_2 = \sqrt(2), a_3 = i\sqrt(2)
so the identity element is the rotation feature then
yeah the identity of dihedral group is to literally rotate by 0 degrees
Oh I see
I see
which is the same as rotating by 360 degrees
you have r and s
r is rotation s is flip
rs is another flip
try for example D_8
so squares
now what is the order of flips?
well if you pick 2 different flips, you can also compose them to get a just a standard rotation
yes rs*s=r
2
ok so s^2= 1
since it takes 2 flips for 1 rotation
mhm
you see what you want for a and b now?
would this be right?
but when multiplied gives something of a different order
that gives you order 1
you want 345
no it’s not
|ab| can be whatever you want
|ab| = 3 -> (ab)^3 = e
yes so what should n be
n is 3
yes
is there anything more I can do with this?
so ab is a rotation
yes
Umm the first two They are orders
yeah so just a and b
yeah those are elements
so since ab is a rotation and a and b separately are flips, |ab| = 2, and |a| and |b| are confusing for me
what is |a| and |b|?
like a and b are flips, but you need to find how many times some element repeats to get 1 flip
This is wrong
what's wrong about it?
why is the order of a rotation 2
wait
unless you’re in D_4 but that’s abelian
What is order
the order of ab
since ab itself is a rotation
it doesn't even need to move to reach itself
I mean the rotation is the identity element, if it was a different element the order would be different
Rotation is not id
what does id mean?
oh
means you do nothing
ohh
that cleared up some stuff
so it would be 1
it takes 1 rotation to get to the identity element
so |ab| = 1
no
|ab| = 4? ;-;
|ab| can be arbitrary
doesn't it depend on the dihedral group you're dealing with?
yes
I mean I can rotate by 180 degree
or I can rotate by 1 degree
or 0.0001 degree
or infinitesimal degree
yeah
In D_2n the order of rotation is n
I mean
my problem is just to find specific groups such that |a| = |b| = 2, |ab| = 3, |ab| = 4, |ab| = 5
Yes and I already told you what you can take to be a and b
you used the dihedral group as an example
here
and since there is 2 flips in a rotation, the first property is satisfied
I have to find groups that satisfy all these properties listed
I can find a group that simultaneously satisfies all three
what group is it?
you can then find powers of rotation with order 3 4 or 5
Or <a,b,c,d,e,f:a^2=b^2=c^2=d^2=e^2=f^2=(ab)^3=(cd)^4=(ef)^5=1>😂
🧠
that's some spicy group presentation right there
it's alright
you should try a tietze transformation to simplify it down
No problem, hope I was helpful
what subgroup would that be of?
it has the subgroup brackets
<>
😂
so in D_inf for any n positive there exists corresponding a and b
it's this thing called a group presentation, you usually should learn what a "free" group is first and it takes a while to get to that
The quotient group of free group generated by {a,b,…} over normal subgroup generated by {a^2,b^2,…}
That’s generator relationships
damn
oh there's a thing going on here isn't there
That's some High-Key way to do this when you learn more algebra
I'm sooo fucking nooby at this stuff
lemme do a simpler problem and I'm gonna come back to check
Let F(T) be the field of fractions, and consider the map T -> T^2, is there anyway to show this is a homomorphism without like doing a lot of messy algebra
what is T?
in the F(T)
well, here is a fun thing you can say: first construct the map F[T]->F(T) which sends T to T^2, such a map exists as that is pretty much the defining property of the polynomial ring (read: universal property). Then notice that all nonzero elements map to invertible elements (since they map to nonzero elements in F(T) all of which are invertible) hence by the defining property of the field of fractions (read: universal property) this factors as a map from F(T)->F(T)
sorry let me clarify F(T) is the field of rational functions (aka. the field fraction of F[x])
ah okay
Thank you so much!
I thought you were trying to say T was some ring, and F(T) was its field of fractions
So just making sure I am getting this correctly.
Actually I am not getting this correctly, my power level in category theory is way too low for this
what part do you want me to clarify
How do I get good at this subject
This is literally the hardest math course I’ve ever taken
Ye you get used to the abstraction
Just gotta accept the fact the fact that it is abstract and everything suddenly works out 🙏
Understandable
So if I am understanding this correctly, you are saying that by the Universal Property of Polynomial Rings, for any ring homomorphism between F and F(T), there exists a unique homomorphism \phi from F[T] to F(T) such that \phi(T) = T^2 (in fact you can send it to any element of F(T))
Then by the Universal Property of the Field of Fractions, for any injective ring homomorphism from F[T] to F(T) (which the map from T to T^2 is), there exists a unique field homomorphism \psi: F(T) to F(T) such that \psi \circ i = \phi, where i is the inclusion of F[T] into F(T)
yeah pretty much, except that the universal property of fraction fields talks about nonzero elements mapping to invertible elements, not non zero elements mapping to non zero elements (in case of F(T) it doesn't matter since all non zero elements are invertible)
That depends
What upendra gave isn't actually a universal property
formally
This is
if you make sure that the codomain is a field
You are talking about a universal to the forgetful functor from Field to Dom_injective
okay there's just 1 more question (well i mean there's a ton of questions running through my mind rn)
How do I know that the \psi I found is like the original homomorphism I described that sends T to T^2 in F(T), for all I know \psi only agrees on T to T^2 for the isomorphic copy of F[T]
I might be making a very trivial mistake here
The original homomorphism you described was "identity on F, T maps to T^2"
yes
and it's unique
Yep
bc of universal property
yes
well okay i guess my problem is that
it sends T to T^2, but like what if I have like \psi(1/T)
You can figure out what it will be from the homomorphism properties
Like what does \psi do to elements outside of the isomorphic copy of F[T]
i just realized i asked a pretty dumb question
That's not a problem 
Universal properties are magic so always good to ask dumb questions
So for like any 1/f(T), \psi(1/f(T)) has to be (1/f(T^2))
bc of the homomorphism property stuff
yep
Np
How do I get good at Algebra
Universal properties 
what exactly are universal properties
They are ways to define things without referring to their elements
oh boy here we go
( ̄▽ ̄)
The point is, that most of the time (all of the time) you will be working with homomorphisms in and out of things rather than those things themselves
And in that case, it becomes a lot more convenient to have a definition that tells you exactly how those maps behave rather than giving a messy element level definition and proving this as a theorem
Or you could of course just treat the universal property as a theorem and use it
But there are philosophical benefits too
For example you could define the polynomial ring to have the underlying set of finite formal sums
So like you kind of get a more dynamic view of algebraic structures rather than the static interpretations?
Philosophical benefits: virginity protection
or you could define it to have the underlying set of infinite tuples of coefficients, only finitely many of which are non zero
But then you would want to call both of these the polynomial ring
So you would do a definition by elements, and then say anything that is isomorphic is also a polynomial ring
which is dumb
That's some direct sum flummery right there

Yeah you could say that
I feel like you had to stop yourself from talking about modules
which admittedly i know nothing about
not really
the infinite direct sum gives me unpleasant memories lol
It is slightly different since you also have a ring multiplication here
You can multiply tuples and this is not done coordinatewise
but ngl definitions through universal property is hard to comprehend sometimes 
One might say part of algebra is that you relearn the same thing 10 different times
Only the first 3 times

Not with universal properties
there is only 1 product
ah
I still don't understand tensor products through UP
please don't tell me there's a thing called universal product
Try to understand simpler universal properties first

There is a universal property of products
well tarnation me
and this universal property doesn't change whether you talk about rings, groups, modules, topologies, etc
Any category you could imagine
Products in that category are defined with the same universal property
Which is another advantage of universal properties
bc ... they are universal?
Products are not always Cartesian products, and in the long run it is harmful to think that product thing = cartesian product of underlying sets with thing structure
Because products are not that
This is easier to see with coproducts
That's not even a pun, that's just reality
The coproduct of 2 sets is their disjoint union. The coproduct of 2 modules is their direct sum. Of 2 rings, their tensor product. Of 2 groups, their free product
None of these look like any other
At all
But they behave very similarly
Because they have the same universal property
wait hold on so does this universal property here have a version where you amalgamate something?
Coproduct of A and B is an object C along with maps i_A: A → C, i_B: B → C, such that whenever you have another object D with maps j_A and j_B, there is a unique f: C → D such that j_A = f i_A and j_B = f i_B (what we formally call "everything commutes
")
The i_A and i_B are called "inclusions" because that's what they often are in the above examples
You can try to think of why coprod of 2 sets is their disjoint union with this definition
Ye usually it takes a while to see why this property is satisfied by the usual disjoint union
Have to work through the proof once in your life 
okay i will take your word for it
don't, moldi is lying, verify it yrself
That the objects satisfying the universal property
are always unique up to isomorphism
(and a nice isomorphism at that)
This is something that can be checked completely formally once you know that formal definition of a universal property
And then you can start proving facts like this about universal properties in general
Okay so real quick, on a scale of 1 to 10
I am taking Commutative Algebra next semester, how fucked am I, with 1 being absolutely fucked
I would give a solid 6.9
I have realized i have retained absolutely nothing from my last semester of algebra
after this enlightening conversation here
You are welcome 😌
Thank you, I am grateful
i had a call with uppu, and i realized i started to forget raq already >.<
You probably don't need to know all the universal property stuff beforehand though
death
We touched like a very little smidget of 🙀 theory at the end of last semester
Thanks, I hope I know my flummery before going into CA then
Do you play town of salem
lol yes
Seeing how you are censoring shit to flummery 
I have an atuomatic filter on my cursed words in an academic discord server
Nice
Tarnation Me
Thank you so much for your patience
Hey guys, I'm trying to prove the following but it just feels like I'm hitting a brick wall:
Let $\nu : R \to R/I$ be the natural homomorphism. If $K$ is an ideal in $R$, then $K = \nu^{-1}(\nu(K))$.
vov&sons
That is not true
oh it's not?
You need K to contain I for this
how come?
try K = 0
The correct equation is ||K+I = nu inverse (nu(K))||
ah right
but how does having K contain I make this easier
or like
why is that key
to my equation
If K doesn't contain I, then the preimage of its image contains I (because of what det said) so certainly can't be equal
If K contains I, then this is true because
that's what you have to figure out
yeah but I've tried doing this with K containing I and it still felt like I was missing something
we know that nu is surjective
and the preimage is also an ideal that contains K
Try the first isomorphism theorem
moldi let the people use elements for once >.<
Yeah probably not good advice 
I mean you would chase elements even with the first isomorphism theorem 
det
yeah that's where I've been hitting the brick wall haha
I just don't see how to incorporate I
but I'll keep trying
I've been doing it by proving one is a subset of the other
or trying to
right, you're almost there.
det
we need to prove that a is also inside K
Probably read whatever book your course is following unless it is bad
I read it for both alg2 and alg3 because Clare followed it religiously
Some of the chapters were so unreadable I gave up on the course and still got AB because she didn't ask anything from the post midsem syllabus in the endsem 🥴

we have nu(a) = nu(b) for some b in K, so nu(a) - nu(b) = I. But that means that a - b is in I...
which implies that a - b is in K, and so a is in K + b
but b is in K
so a is in K
nu(a)-nu(b) = 0 >.<
right that makes more sense
thank you, it just wasn't getting through to me that there must be an element b that is also mapped to nu(a)
Here is the solution using the first isomorphism theorem
You have 2 quotients, R/I and R/K. The natural map to R/K contains the kernel of the natural map to R/I, so there is an induced map f: R/I → R/K. Now the kernel of the natural map to R/K is exactly K, but it is also the preimage of the ker f under the natural map to R/I. This is exactly the equation you have to prove 
we start with R, and we draw two arrows branching out of R: one to R/I and one to R/K yes?
ye
I'm just trying to do this visually
You should
Have you seen the first isomorphism theorem?
this thing
It is
a+I maps to a+K
There are a lot of issues like well definedness etc
but first isomorphism theorem says that this all works out when K contains I
Also you don't need to read this solution lol
Just read it if you are interested 
I want to understand it
It is more abstract and no one would expect you to do this kinda tricks early on, but it could be helpful sometimes
I'm taking an alg. geometry course and I'm just derusting with these first few assignments
ah I see
it's been a long while since I took an algebra course 😢
but even with this, you have to prove that the preimage of ker f is K
so you still have to do things element-wise
Here is a general thing
ker(fg) = g inverse (ker f)
Works for any maps f and g
Or a more symmetric phrasing
(fg)^-1(0) = g^-1(f^-1(0))
hmm I'm gonna be honest this isn't really resonating with me rn. I think I need to take a break for a bit haha
nevertheless, I really appreciate the help
Ye understandable
hey guys can someone check this solutoin for this problem cuz it seems a bit too simple
Can't we just say that becaluse all the elements in $p\mathbb{Z}/p^m\mathbb{Z}$ are multiples of $m,$ raising any of the elements to the $m$th power results in the zero ideal in $\mathbb{Z}/p^m\mathbb{Z}$ so we are done?
JustKeepRunning
yea multiples of $p$ sorry
JustKeepRunning