#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 652 of 407
the usual way to think would be to lift(extend?) the action of Z to an action of Q, now they have different dimensions as Q-vector spaces.
as a Q vs they have diff dim, but does it mean they are non isomorphic?
but if you wanna remove this language, then consider (1, 0) and (0, 1) on the right, if there was an isomorphism, then you can pull these back to rationals a and b.
||But any two rationals are Z-linearly dependent, which will prove (1, 0) and (0, 1) are dependent||
Yes, but this requires a little work
Wasn't what I meant by the last one
I didn't want to say which ones my hint solves

(oh oops)
so it's like if we had an isomorphism between Q and Q x Q as Z-modules, then we can lift it to an isomorphism of Q-modules. But Q-iso would imply the dim are same.
You have to use the fact that Q = Frac(Z) for this to work
ye (took no work at all)
is there a nice way to find the inverse of a polynomial in Z_n[x]
sry this is a vague question i guess
but say i give you a polynomial and tell you it has an inverse
is this just super annoying
or maybe just check if its a unit at all
can we say that all coefficients other than constant term will be divisible by every prime factor of n?
So like
There’s a criterion for a polynomial being invertible
Constant is a unit, all others are nilpotent
Under those assumptions you can manually compute the inverse
So yes, you can
no one tagged me
what is nilpotent
some power is 0
r^n = 0 for some n
ah ok
interesting
i realized that in my specific example i was just fucking up something w a system of equations but very cool
like (example)?
i just want to know any subgroup of Q , other then Z , {e}, itself
p-adic numbers?
so moldi which options does that solve... i'm confused 🙈
The numbers of the form m/2^n
They don't sit inside ℚ
i missed this one
3, 4
so what about this... given a subset P of all prime numbers, consider the subgroup generated by 1/p^n for p in P and n in N
That's what this is
Oh wait
All primes
(i meant for the first one)
Isn't that just ℚ
we can recover that subset P from the subgroup
right
Nice
no my statement was independent of yours
is this work for first one?
Yes
since there are infinitely many primes, there are uncountably many such subsets P. which gives you uncountably many subgroups of Q
so say you wanted 5/4 * 9 * 7
since 4 * 9, 4 * 7 and 9 * 7 are coprime, we can find
x * 4 * 9 + y * 4 * 7 + z * 9 * 7 = 5
yes
I was thinking about the finitely generated one
(kinda not sure)
like one of gens doesn't necessarily have to be 1/pⁿ, could be 2/pⁿ, not sure if that'll make a diff
though the set not being dense automatically makes them cyclic
but I'm not fully convinced
i am not getting it who this is uncontable?
Prove that adding a generator to a non dense subgroup can't make it dense
Or like sum of 2 cyclic subgroups is cyclic lul
that approach is clear, just wondering about a purely number theoretic approach
purely nt would be just show that subgroup generated by the rational is the cyclic one generated by their gcd 
This is all number theory though 
🙈
But GCD in a field 
GCD in field of fractions of a UFD 🙈

gcd of num/lcm of denom
translation: find the lcm of 4/3, 8/9, 3/5
W.B
bengali


looks like this is not form UPSC
idk where it was from but one of those

But that's not even defined though 
because as per i know they ask subjective questions
pseudo mathematiks
idk shit about upsc
Classic "find the next number 1,4,9,25,..."
16 
no it's iota
Sorry the correct answer is 18961

see carefully it should be iota raise to power iota
Not well defined 
loks like prime square so i will go with 49
It's obvious if your IQ is high enough
🙈
No, it's a meme
1 is not prime 
sometimes yes sometimes no
depend upon question asked
it can be fibonacci squared idk


What kinda math you been studying

OEIS time
Uniqueness up to multiplication by the special prime 
Bruh
well a formalization might be something like find the minimal length first order formula that defines a function that works for the given values or something.

is there a way to prove stuff with that definition?
probably not easily
Absolutely not
(abstract nonsense)
its look like just author knows what will happen next in missing sequence question
ie you would upper bound by the polynomial trick then do the rest by case analysis
You could define a first order formula ascribing any value to the missing term though, right?
Maybe it won't be minimal length though 
only take the values you are given?
Oh
BTW Thankyou all for helping
what is bking?
bleak cat king i suppose
there was probably bking emoji at some point, don't remember
It was so bad though even though
and it were made from literally the same cat photo
I am working on (b). Any hint on how to think of such an example? 

Add a root of a polynomial but don't add all the roots 
And then in L do add all the roots to make it normal
If you still have a hard time you first gotta see that the polynomial has to be degree at least 3 (otherwise adding even a single root splits the polynomial)
I saw this https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2078494/show-that-mathbbqa-mathbbq-is-normal-where-a-is-a-root-of-the-irred and I thought it is some general theorem.
will try that!
Yeah so sometimes, adding a single root automatically adds all the roots
You have to avoid that
And there are simple enough ways to do it for a polynomial over Q
Like you have to choose a polynomial
A hint that works for some easy choices is that R is a subfield of C
You can also use this hint to come up with sort of a stupid example lul
With the fact that C is algebraically closed
Thanks! will try that now 

The great bleakening must come to an end
when you define in formal way you give the answer (a general theorem says the next term of any series is
)
by choice axiom
there can be multiple functions
for infinite series U{x}
I guess I can let F=Q, E = Q(a) where a = sqrt(1+sqrt(3)) and L = algebraic closure of Q.
f(x) = x^4 - 2x^2 - 2 has a as a root but doesn't split completely
any hint?
For what
for first one
Oh the 17 thing is wrong
i think 14 will work 14 = 7 x 2 and (sqrt(13)-1)(sqrt 13 +1)?
Ye that sounds fine, you'd have to show that all those factors are irreducible though
i will
can you please help we in 1st one?
Seems true but 
but

okk i will try
every time i have to google what these emojis says
This emotion has not been invented yet
Hello, I have a question. Let $B$ be an integral domain. Then $B$ is noetherian of Krull dimension $\leq 1 \iff$ for all $b \neq 0$ the quotient ring $B/bB$ has finite length. I have already shown the implication $\implies$. Assume $B/bB$ has finite length for all $b \neq 0$. Then $B/bB$ is an artin ring, hence any prime ideal is maximal. Since the prime ideals of $B/bB$ map bijectively to the prime ideals in $B$ which contain $bB$, it follows that $B$ has dimension $\leq 1$. But how do I show it is noetherian?
shu
A ring is Noetherian if all the prime ideals are finitely generated, a proof can be found in eg Matsumura
Now, let P be a non-zero prime ideal, and take b in P nonzero, then P/b is finitely generated, say by the images of x1 through xn
It follows that P is generated by x1 through xn and b, so that P is finitely generated
This shows all of the height 1 primes are finitely generated, and all that’s left is the 0 ideal which is finitely generated
@rigid depot
Actually, I think you don’t even need to use the fact that you can check Noetherianness just on primes
Just replace P with any non-zero ideal, and run the same proof and you get that any non-zero ideal is finitely generated
Then all that’s left is the 0 ideal which is finitely generated
Cool problem
Why is P/b finitely generated?
B/bB is Artinian

I guess you can say something more general
A ring R is Noetherian iff R/r is Noetherian for all r in R
You just run the same proof for the <= direction
And the => is immediate
Is that really true? I only know that R noetherian => every finitely generated R-algebra is noetherian, in particular R/r is noetherian
How would you show the converse?
Just do the same proof
Grab a non-zero ideal
Grab an r in I
Look at I/r
Lift up generators, and then add in r
It’s exactly the same thing I did in the proof I outlined above
Cool, thanks
Oh I guess I should say non-zero r here
If you let r be 0 then this is trivial lol
Yeah lol
Why wouldn't just saying this work, that the mapping argument with prime ideals pulling back to B from B/bB gives you the ascending chain condition since B/bB are all finite length by hypothesis
wouldn't one have to prove that bB is noetherian anyways if that line of reasoning is used?
What do you mean that bB is Noetherian?
And no, it works fine because if you had an infinite ascending chain
I_0 < I_1 < … then WLOG you can assume I_0 is nonzero
Then for some b in I_0, append (b) to the front of this
Mod out by (b) and you have your infinite ascending chain in B/b
yeah that makes sense
some one would like to help me in first option?
If it factors into linear factors, then that factorization would also be a factorization over Q[sqrt 13], so it must be the same as the factorization you found before up to units, just show that then it doesn't work out (I think it won't but idk)
The problem is that it could factor as a quadratic and a constant
Oh wait it is monic

It can't fact as a quadratic and a constant because then that constant would have to be a unit making the factorisation trivial
So it should be fine
this is the same method i tried to apply , but get confused so much that i leave the question
hey guys i am a bit confused about the concept of an ideal in a ring
is an ideal a subgroup of the ring or a subring?
what does it mean for something to be a subgroup of a ring (like it is only additive and it has no multiplication operation?)
it's neither a subgroup nor a subring
an ideal is just any subset that satisfies the properties of an ideal. It's useful to think of them as analogous to "normal subgroups" from group theory. Ideals aren't subrings in general though unless you're talking about rings without identities
a subgroup of a ring would be a subgroup of the additive group of the ring
ah ok thx for the clarification
then what does this part of the book mean
is that incorrect?
an ideal is a subgroup of R but with additional properties
so all ideals are subgroups but not all subgroups are ideals
that's a really weird way of defining it
it is a subgroup I of R such that forall r in R, rI is contained in I
it's a pretty concise way of defining ideals
I'd just say an ideal is a subset $I \subseteq R$ such that for all $i_1, i_2 \in I$ and $r \in R$ we have $i_1+i_2 \in I$ and $ri_1 \in I$
ok thx so much
Wew Lads Tbh
I prefer this definition actually because I think you can then show that I is an additive subgroup just from these two properties, which means less checking 
An ideal of a ring is **always **a subring of that ring. Moreover, ideals aren't defined for groups, only for rings.
Ideals are not a subring
Unless you don’t require rings to have a 1
In which case, perish
So the only ideal that is also a subring is the ring itself?
Yes
If you want to treat ideals and rings similarly you treat them as modules
Which is a very fruitful perspective
im having trouble figuring out how to approach this problem, I went to the help channel and was recommended to come over here for help.
You can characterize maps out of a cyclic group in terms of the order
Note that if it’s generated by g, that where you send g determines the entire map
i.e. phi(g^n) = phi(g)^n
So you just have to figure out how many choices of what phi(g) is are valid
This is true for maps from G to any group H even, not just for maps G -> G
okay so
The criterion is given purely in terms of the order of the thing you set phi(g) equal to, and I’ll let you try and figure out what it is exactly
i would first find the generators?
No
You just assume that into existence
It’s generated by g, okay done
Let H be any group, and G be a cyclic group of order n, generated by g
Try to find out when phi(g^n) = h^n is a valid homomorphism for h in H
It’s purely in terms of the order of h
And n
Surely you don't mean "in terms of the order of h and n"?
Maybe try to figure out if you can say something about |h| relating to n if there existed a phi:G -> H such that phi(g) = h
(Order of h), and n
n and the order of h
im so lost man
Idk is that less ambiguous?
whats the best book for abstract alg
Oh! It looks like n has two different meanings here. You meant a fresh variable instead of n when you wrote phi(g^n)=h^n, right?
One big reason we like to talk about ideals rather than "subrings" is cause people often carry two definitions of what a ring is that are at odds. Some define a ring with identity necessarily, and some don't. This makes "subring" ambiguous. But the definition of an ideal is unambiguous, and also ofc it plays the role of normal subgroups in the context of rings etc etc
Oh, yeah
I meant n the order of G
And I guess phi(g^k) = h^k
for all k.
Yeah
I'm not sure if i understood anything you wrote tbh
Okay, I tried to generalize this to get at a really general statement
So let's take it a small bit of the time.
Let’s just do the case you have where G is order 30
First note that if you had a map phi:G -> G
yes
That you’re forced to set phi(g^k) = phi(g)^k
And since g generates G, all elements are of the form g^k for some k
So phi(g) determines what you have to send everything to
Now there’s 30 elements in G
e,g,g^2,…,g^29
yes
("Let G be a cyclic group of order 30" implies you're being promised that there is a g that generates G; you don't need to "find" it before you can use it).
You have to determine when the map given by phi(g) = g^m is valid, as in it actually is a group homomorphism
Aka phi(g^k) = g^mk
I wrote it as phi(g) = g^m because this is the only choice you’re making
Once you pick where g goes, everything else is forced to go to a power of g^m
i thought homomorphism were when phi(xy) = phi(x)phi(y)
Yes
our phi function doesnt act the same since we have
So you have to determine for which m the map phi(g^k) = g^mk actually satisfies that rule
Note that if you set both x and y to be g in phi(xy)=phi(x)phi(y) you get phi(g^2)=phi(g)^2.
And if you then set x to g and y to g^2, you get phi(g^3)=phi(g)^3.
And so forth. That's what Chmonkey has summed up as phi(g^k)=phi(g)^k.
ohhhh okay it makes sense
Sorry, I didn’t realize that part was unclear
where does the m take play here
m is any integer
Since every element of G is of the form g^m (that's what we're assuming about G), it means that the value of phi(g) is all we need to know about phi to reconstruct all the other values of phi.
You’re picking an element of G to send g to
Elements of G look like g^m for some m
If you like, you only have to let m be from 0 to 29
Because of this
yeah
Anyway, it might seem trivial that under this definition of the map that phi(xy) = phi(x)phi(y)
Like, if you have phi(g^kg^j)
This is phi(g^k+j) = g^m(k+j)
But phi(g^k)phi(g^j) = g^mk g^mj = g^m(k+j)
So wtf???
Actually so this shows it is a group homomorphism
The actual problem is if the map is well defined
note that g^k can be equal to g^j even if k ≠ j
An example is that g^30 = e
So you need to know that then, phi(g^30) = phi(e)
Note that if you tried to like, send g to 1 inside of Z, then this would be asserting that 30 = 0 inside of Z
Which is false
Maybe that last point is more confusing than anything else
I think it might be a bit confusing that you're solving a problem that doesn't actually arise in Par's exercise.
It's still work that needs to be done, of course.
Yeah, but you have to address it still
Does the issue of well-definedness make sense?
I can try to illustrate an example again to show what could go wrong
Let's try a concrete example.
Do you know what it means for a map to be well-defined?
For example, we have proved that if there is a homomorphism phi: G -> G such that phi(g)=g^5, then it must be that phi(g^k)=phi^5k for all k.
my notes look nothing like what you talked about
But is there actually such a phi or not?
oh okay
well defined means one element from g could be mapped to something in h
right?
Or well
To not be well-defined
Means that one thing might potentially be mapping to more than one thing
And what we need to check is that, for example g^17 = g^47, so it had better the case that g^(5·17)=g^(5·47) too; otherwise phi could not have all of the properties we have assumed about it, at the same time.
So the issue here is the map phi we defined
Is that phi(g^k) = g^mk
But k that we took there can vary
Like if k = 1
Or k = 31
I think "is this phi well-defined" is a confusing way to word it. We should be saying "have we actually defined a phi at all"?
g^1 = g^31 = g^61 = …
So when we want to send that element to g^mk we need to know that for k = 1,31,61,… that those are actually the same thing
alrighty
yes
Oh okay well how would you write down the elements in Z/nZ
If you have to list them off
Okay let’s just list them off as k mod n
Where k mod n = j mod n if k - j is divisible by n
this subject is too hard for me
So suppose we wanted to make a “function” f:Z/nZ -> Z
Which said I map k mod n to k
This isn’t well-defined
Because look, 0 mod n maps to 0
And n mod n maps to n
But those are the same thing!
0 mod n = n mod n
So it’s like saying, if I set x = 0 mod n
Then I need f(x) = 0
But also f(x) = n
ohhh okay
So going back to the thing with G the cyclic group of order 30
I want to make the map phi(g^k) = g^mk
But g^k = g^(30+ k)
So I need g^mk = g^m(30 + k)
It’s the same thing like with Z/nZ
Does that make sense?
yeah kind of
i just lack knowledge bro
imma just read the book
and hope for the best
Alright
no no
its like literally
i know what a group is
and its properties
i know a subgroup and its properties
you know generators
i know generators kinda
yeah i know definitions
thats it
im a dictionary rn LOL
anyways imma take a break
thanks for helping out everyone
hey guys
for this probelm
why can't you just do $a^m = a^n\implies a^m(a^{n-m}-1)=0\implies a^{n=m}=1$
JustKeepRunning
because $(a^{n-m}-1)$ might not be zero, it might just be a zero divisor, take the element 2 in the ring Z/6Z as example for a
Dr. J. Stockfish
2 is a zero divisor tho so that can't be a anyway
I think the argument you (justkeeprunning) are trying is pretty close to what the author does anyway
Well it's trying to show that a is either a zero divisor or a unit. So 2 can definitely be a.
But yes the argument is essentially the same
If one writes literally one additional line to be more precise
it's a field iff <x^2 +c> maximal
Consider what happens if x^2 + c is not irreducible
do we end up with a denominator of zero in that case? So we need x^2 + c to be irreducible?
You'd end up with zero divisors -- most unfieldlike!
right
Im still confused as to why the notation is <x^2 +c> though
is it for a ring?
That's the usual notation for a principal ideal, isn't it?
dumbo
State the equality in terms of individual elements of the (shared) domain of f and g.
Sure, but it sounded like you wanted a more detailed phrasing.
f(a) and g(a) are each an element of G×H, so suppose f(a)=(g1,h1) and g(a)=(g1,h2). Then g1 = pi1((g1,h2)) = pi1(f(a)) = pi1(g(a)) = pi1((g2,h2)) = g2, and h1 = pi2(f(a)) = pi2(g(a)) = h2, and therefore f(a) = (g1,h1) = (g2,h2) = g(a). Since a was arbitrary this shows that f = g.
in the def of a product of ideals presented here
why is the third definition equivalent to the first definition?
shouldn't the third be $\sum_{i=1}^n \sum_{j=1}^n a_ib_j$ in order to generate all the elements of the first definition?
JustKeepRunning
no it shouldn't because that's more restrictive, your sum factors as (a_1+...+a_n)*(b_1+...+b_n) which is only an element of the form ab for a in I and b in J, but there are more elements that we get by adding elements of this form together that can't be factored
the additive subgroup generated by elements of the form ab means we take elements of that form, and then let ourselves add them in every possible way. Elements of the form ab are not in genearl going to be closed under addition
how the definition of irreduicibility varies over I.D, UFD and fields ?
it doesn't vary
an element a in R is called irreducible if any decomposition of a = b * c satisfies that exactly one of b or c is a unit.
over a general integral domain you can't say much more... but over UFDs these are same as non-zero prime elements.
fields have no irreds because 0 = 0 * 0 and for a unit u, u = 1 * u.
for maximal ideal do we need the ring to be commutative or that it has an identity? (like R/M is a field so commutative)
but all rings are commutative
if you're quotienting then your ideal would be two-sided, i wonder if that makes the difference
no like M is maximal <=> R/M is field, is it true even if R is not commutative
(but usually i've only seen these definitions for commutative rings, for non-commutative they explicitly say maximal left ideal and stuff)
oh that should false lol
the ring M(n, k) of n x n matrices over k is simple
on the same not I've seen ppl requiring 1 to be in S for a subring S or R, i.e. ideals are almost never a subring 
yea the usual notion of subobject is like the inclusion S --> R should be a ring homomorphism
(even rings may not even be associative, so much variation fuck)
so not just that S needs to have a 1, that 1 needs to be same as that of R
(most people have associative rings with unity lol, only non-associative thing i've seen are lie algebras)
I don't even know what I'm reading anymore
every author seems to have their different definition of a ring,subring stuff

also in general for a commutative ring R, the (two-sided) ideals of M(n, R) are precisely M(n, I) for ideals I of R
yea lol, but the more general you go, the less nice theorems you get
ye
also this reminds me....
I had a question about lie algebras which i was trying yesterday
so are epimorphisms of lie algebras surjective or not?
the situation of lie algebras feel pretty similar to that of groups, so i'm expecting it to be true... but the proof for groups was kinda whacky, it first says that it's enough to show for inclusion maps H --> G, and if H was normal then we're done because G --> G/H the quotient map and the zero map both agree on H, so they need to agree on G, which means G = H. This told us that H has at least 3 cosets, say H, Hu, Hv. We can define a permutation f of G which swaps hu and hv (for each h) and leaves everything else fixed.
Then the proof constructs two maps G --> Perm(G) such that they agree on H but don't agree on all of G. one map is the usual left multiplication thing. other one conjugates this by f.
I tried to copy something similar, but wasn't able to succeed
for a lie algebra L and a subalgebra K i need to find some object Z and two maps L --> Z which agree on K but not on L.
looking at the thing for groups, I hoped that L --> gl(L) the adjoint representation would do the job...
for the conjugation thing then i required something in GL(L). but to make this agree on K i would require some properties, but the obvious ones were not working out nicely
the map f in GL(L) would need to satisfy [x, f(y)] = f([x, y)] for each x in K and y in L. how should i find such a map? (but not for every x in L and y in L)
one condition where this would hold is when f : L --> L is a map of lie algebras and f fixes K. but it doesn't feel like something this would work, idk
when will you wake up >.<
So, I'm pretty new to abstract algebra and I'm studying the Fraleigh book on my own.
What is exactly the difference between an orbit and a cycle?
Fraleigh defines a cycle to be "at most one orbit containing more than one element."
But AN orbit is also ONE orbit.
Finally ,i think i got it
Any suggestion for this problem? 
you wanna prove that minimal polynomial looks like x^(p^n) - a for some a in k
so start with minimal polynomial of alpha, say it's f in k[x]. what can you say about f given that K/k is purely inseparable?
it has repeated roots. its derivative = 0
well just a little thing... alpha could have been an element of k to begin with, so we can't say that for sure
but you're right, if we assume that f was inseparable, then f' = 0
so f(x) = g(x^p)
notice that eventually we wanna show that f is a polynomial in x^(p^n)
we've already kinda seen that it's a polynomial of x^p
I dont quite get this
oh try thinking about
start with any such polynomial say a_0 + a_1x + ... + a_n x^n, what does f' = 0 tell us?
the coefficients in f' are 0 so either original coefficient is 0 or a_i * i is zero
so a_i * i are multiples of p
yep, so a_i * i is 0 in the field k, if a_i was non-zero this would force i = 0
so i is a multiple of p
does i have to be a multiple of p?
yep, that's the only way an integer in the field k would be 0
(recall that p was the characteristic)
a_i * i has to be multiple of p, is it possible that none of them is multiple of p, but their product is
a_i * i has to be multiple of p
this statement the way it is written is incorrect
because the coefficients a_i are in k, so a_i * i is an element of k... what does it mean for it to be a multiple of p?
p = 0 in k
right right
now if a_i isn't zero then by field stuff we can say i must be zero
also maybe i should say that we're confusing an integer n in Z with the element 1 + 1 + ... + 1 (n times) in k so it could feel a little weird
anyway, so i = 0 in the field k. This can only happen if i is a multiple of p in Z
nah... just any multiple of p would also make it 0
all we can say that is the polynomial now looks like
a_0 + a_p x^p + a_{2p} x^{2p} + ...
which is what i wrote f(x) = g(x^p)
why dont we have a_{p-1} x^p-1?
oh because we proved that if a_i is non-zero then i is a multiple of p. So if i isn't a multiple of p then a_i must better be 0.
ohhh I see. 
only way the derivative is gonna die is because of those p from the powers of x
this a pretty standard thing... issokie, you might be seeing it for the first time
so if f is an inseparable irreducible polynomial, then we get that f(x) = g(x^p)
yes
we'll repeatedly use this now
let's go back to the problem
so we had alpha in K, with irreducible polynomial f in k[x]
if f was insep, then f(x) = g(x^p)
notice that this g is also irred, because if it were reducible then so would be f
now iterate the reasoning
if g was insep, then g(x) = h(x^p)
with h irred...
since the degree goes down, we'll eventually hit a separable polynomial!!
f(x) = g(x^p) = h(x^(p^2)) = .... = f_{sep}(x^(p^n))
so alpha^p^n satisfies f_sep right
which means alpha^p^n is separable /k
right
(this n, may even be 0, in which case f was separable to begin with, that is alpha itself was in k)
that pretty neat right... it basically tells you that inseparability occurs in clumps of p^n
because otherwise, these alpha^p, alpha^p^2 ... can be distinct roots so it will be separable?
alpha^p may not be a root
all we know is that alpha^p^n is a root of f_sep
and f_sep has no repeated roots
which by definition means that alpha^p^n is separable over k
it satisfies a polynomial with no repeated roots
(f_sep is actually irreducible, so it's also the minimal polynomial of alpha^p^n)
sorry I still dont get it. if a^p^n in k, then f_sep probably looks like x - a^p^n
I dont understand why a^p^n in k...
take a look at the definition of K/k being purely inseparable
nah, that's probably my fault, i should have written pure here >.<
this is too hard for me... I feel so stupid. Thank you for helping me out
you'll be good with some practice 
inseparability felt very weird the first time i read it
yeah, I still dont quite get this concept. I'll probably understand better after this problem 
yee, good luck!
i had to work through these things a couple of times before finally understanding it nicely
Hello Ryu 
ahhhh could i ask another question about the problem above? I didn't see where we use f is inseparable to derive f(x) = g(x^p)?
we used that its derivative is 0
wouldn't happen without insep
insep + irred => f' = 0
right!!
I was also confused about a_i i = 0 again.. is it because field don't have zero divisor so if a_i != 0, i = 0? (which means that i is multiple of p)
right
then is i an integer or element of k
hi
like when we write an integer n inside a ring R, we're basically using the fact that there is a unique map Z --> R
so if you really wanna be explicit, i lives on the left
the map would be Z --> k here
and its image is 0
there are two ways to think about n * r inside the ring R
Rings are abelian groups, so n * r already makes sense
it's r + r + ... r (n times)
this is same as thinking (1 + 1 + ... + 1) * r
and 1 + 1 ... 1 is nothing but image of n under Z --> R
yea but if i is in k, I can just use k don't have zero divisor. but if it is a_i + ... + a_i for i times, I am confused on why i has to be 0 again
oh that's what we're saying right
i is an integer
but i * a_i = phi(i) * a_i
where phi : Z --> k is the unique map
right
this says phi(i) = 0 by no-zero divisors
so i is in the kernel of that map
which is pZ
make sense
but in practice people confuse i and phi(i) all the time, it's usually clear from the context
so in general I don't have to care too much if it is integer or element in k right
it's actually the same
yep
this is the equation which translates the two
on the left i * means action of the integer i on the abelian group k.
on the right it means multiplication of phi(i) and a_i inside of k
i * a_i = phi(i) * a_i is because of this reasoning
yep

so have u decided where to apply next?

ok i see
but why do they like have the same indices $i$ like i thought that restricts it even more does it not?
JustKeepRunning
why do you say that
idk maybe i just don't get the notation but it seems like each a_i corresponds to a b_i, and for example, if a_ib_i is used, then a_ib_j cannot be used in the sum for any i\neq j
I thought for the first question I should check possible remainders for polynomials when divided by x^3 and create a multiplication table to see if there are any zero divisors. i. e 2 elements ab = 0 or ba= 0.
would the possible remainders be 0,1,x,x+1,x^2, x^2+1 ?
You aren’t dividing by x^3
You’re setting x^3 equal to 0
The elements are gonna be of the form ax^2 + bx + c
aren't they the same things?
I mean…
Brain power 🧠
Maybe
It’s just hella more complicated to go about dividing
Also I’m not sure
What do you get as a remainder from x^4 + 1?
I feel like you don’t just get 1
No, yeah no way right?

I’m not gonna lie
I don’t remember how division with remainder works
I’ll just say yeh
I guess so
¯_(ツ)_/¯
a = bq + r >.<

so I need to consider possible remainders of ax^2 + bx + c?
(no, they are the possible remainders where a, b, c vary over {0, 1})
you basically missed the quadratic remainders which also had some linear terms
yes, I mean over the field Z_2 .
For any sufficiently nice ring R (I think a domain is sufficient?) you can do a division algorithm on polynomials with unit leading coefficient; given a(x) and b(x), there exists q(x) and r(x) so a(x) = b(x)q(x) + r(x), where deg(r) < deg(b). Because in a field, any polynomial is monic you can do this to whatever, so thinking of Z_2[x]/(x^3) is the same as thinking of the remainders when polynomials are divided by x^3, but I agree it's way more cumbersome
I think you can do division by a monic polynomial in any ring
I had to do it once
And I don’t think it was assumed to be a domain
But idk
you probably won't have uniqueness >.<
¯_(ツ)_/¯
oh yeah maybe
no wait, uniqueness also works idk
leading coefficient needs to be a unit
@rustic crown so, x^2 + x +1, and I need to consider x^2 + x, x^2 +1
right x^2+x and x^2+x+1 were missing in the earlier list
0,1,x,x+1,x^2, x^2+1 , x^2+x+1, x^2+x, x^2 +1
and the rest of the questions follow very easily after I have constructed the multiplication table
you wrote x^2+1 twice 
(i also want to note that you are actually dealing with equivalence classes, you just computed "canonical" representatives that you now work with)
as in "obvious choice"
yeah
smallest degree in this case
aha)
(i only mention this because in polynomial rings with multiple variables, the choice isnt necessarily as obvious and you need to be aware that you are actually dealing with equivalence classes of polynomials, not polynomials)
I need some help >.<
i need help my teacher said prove to me if there is integer solutions for a, b and c and n > 2 for the equation : a^n + b^n = c^n
(0,0,0)
also theres another problem
y isnt the trivial ring initial in the cateogry of rings?
I don't think it's easy enough in order to post a help on these channels to be honest :s
.<
if you have an odd number you multiply it by 3 and add 1 and if its even you divide by 2 is there a starting number that doesn't end with the pattern 4,2,1
because we require 1 to map to 1.
so if 0 --> R is a ring map, then as 1 = 0 on the left, we would get 1 = 0 in R which means R = 0
so how much do you know about elliptic curves?
(it is final tho)
i am andrew wiles
i know loads about modular and elliptical curves
ahhh yes i remember now
thankyou good sir


what did I just witness
VERY FUNNY
i'm going to bed, should be up in 9hours or so. let me know if there is a simpler approach which i'm completely missing >.<
How can i prove that a fuction X is epimorph. I mean, i know that i need to prove that its a morph and its surjective. Am i right?
uh
can you be more specific?
is this about groups? vector spaces? rings? what?
ah, i forgot to mention, its rings
okey
then not all epimorphisms are surjective
however every surjective morphism is a epimorphism so if it is surjective you can just do that
okey perfect, then, how can i prove that a fuction is 2 rings its surjective?
exactly, i wrote it bad sry, can your explain it
f surjective means that for every element y in the codomain there's an element x in the domain such that f(x)=y
oh, LOL, i forgot that "theorem". Thank you for the time spent with me
it's not a theorem it's a definition
you might want to learn basic set theory better before doing abstract algebra
for odd n, take a = 1, b = -1 and c = 0
0 doesn't end with 4, 2, 1
since 0 just goes 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, ...
i don't need it tbh, its my last "abstract subject". Sooo. Just need to study this and move on. And don't have time too ahah. But thanks for spending time explaining
ahah.
why are you laughing
,,, it’s way too basic perhaps you better figure it out yourself…

aba^-1b^-1
Note that ab = ba => b = a^-1ba
=> a^-1b = ba^-1
So a^-1 and b^-1 commute
You should be able to see where this is going
As for the other direction, start by multiplying both sides by b on the right
Something most magical will happen
What is the smallest simple group with an order divisible by 37620?
I don’t know, technically you could use the classification if you can understand how it works. But I want to know, why on earth do you want to know this?
I can give you an upper bound of A_37620
idk, cyclic group generated by an element of order 37620
I guess it's not simple 😭
I can give you an upper bound of A₁₉.
The https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/O'Nan_group is smaller than A_19.
of course not, since the only simple cyclic groups are Z/pZ
for p prime
and the orders of the simple groups of Lie type all have fairly specific factorizations that seem to make it difficult to fit one in below O'N.
I still want to know why you want to know this 
Where could this possibly be showing up
I want a simple group with subgroups isomorphic to both PSL₂(11) and PSL₂(19).
It should be equal to the number of elements a of Z/mZ st na=0 mod m i think. So given a prime factorization of both m and n you can probably get an explicit formula out of this
gcd(n,m) I'd guess.
I’m getting an answer like product over i of (k_i+1) where k_i is the power of the prime p_i in m which is in the prime factorization of n

Is k_i the prime power itself or just the exponent?
It was the power of the prime, i realise I made a mistake and the +1 is not supposed to be there. That makes it the same as the gcd lol
ah, then it looks like we all agree.
The stupidest proof I know of is that Ext^i_Z(G,H) ≈ Tor^Z_i(G,H) non-canonically for finite abelian groups G and H
And then computing it via tensor product is easy
I think this is circular tho, lol

I think you get the result by just manually computing Hom, Tensor, and the first derived functors for Z/nZ and Z/mZ
Then apply the classification
Then because everything is an additive functor and by direct sum being direct product it just gets pooped out
I am trying to work out the Legendre symbol $\left( \frac{2}{p} \right)$
bchaotic
here we treat it as a homomorphism from F_p to {1,-1} , taking a to a^{(p-1)/2}
there are two nice approaches for this, one is to go from Z to Z[i] because 2 ~ (1+i)^2
second one mimics the proof of euler's theorem and gives you some sort of summation which is easy calculate for a = 2.
(in the first one you could also use F_{p^2} if you liked finite fields more)
Hi everyone hope you are having a good day
Can you recommend a book or source that provides lots of examples in abstract algebra?
especially in ring theory
I'm not, but thank you
Have you tried dummit foote?
yep
thanks
The problem uses some #point-set-topology and #multivariable-calculus too, but it seemed like something I'd call #groups-rings-fields
is F_p the prime subfield?
Q and all the F_p are prime subfields
it just depends on what the characteristic of the field is
the basic way to think of it is, in every field you have 1, so now you can add this to itself as much as you like and as long as you don't get 0 you can divide these as well, these are the elements of the prime subfield
if it's characteristic 0, you get Q, if it's characteristic p, you get F_p
Thanks! I am not entirely sure about the definition of F_p. Does F_p equal Z/pZ?
yeah

why is that?
I guess simplest reason is Z/p^2Z has an element p which satisfies p^2=0
so it can't be a field with zero divisors
I see. thank you 

you're welcome 😌
Context: $K_1/K$ is a separable field extension and before we constructed a $K-$embedding $\rho: K^h \to K_1$. where $K^h$ is a subfield of $K_1$.
Can someone explain how do you extend $\rho$ to an automorphism of $K^s$ (separable closure of K)? I only know that such an extension is possible for algebraically closed codomains
shu
extend to the algebraic closure then restrict to the separable closure?
the map K^s --> K bar will factor through K^s because it's image will be separable inside of K bar, so contained in K^s
What's the motivation for the definition of a split short exact sequence? here's the definition that I have
and like, I kind of get that diagram commuting; it's saying that (after identifying M with M' oplus M''), the image of M' under f loooks exactly like the copy of M' in M' oplus M'', and the copy of M'' in M' oplus M'' looks like the image of M under g
but there are lots of commutative diagrams you could draw
why this one?
i can't say too much right now but it's basically just that the middle term is built out of the first and last ones
in a nice way
by this definition, the five lemma immediately implies that alpha is actually an isomorphism. i've never seen this definition though
i'd personally wave around my hands and say something like "the SES is the same as the one you trivially get from M' and M'' "
Would the image again be the set of positive reals? Im not sure how I can have a kernel for x^n, n>0 as its impossible for elements to be mapped to zero.
The group is with multiplication. What is the identity element here?
The commutative diagram means that the top row and the bottom row are basically the same short exact sequence. That diagram is just an isomorphism of short exact sequences.
When you work with vector spaces, it turns out that in an any short exact sequence, the middle thing looks like a direct sum of the other 2, and the first map is the inclusion of the first factor and the second one is the projection onto the second factor. This is not always the case with modules. When this does happen, we call the SES split. The diagram just puts this "looking like" thing into formal language using isomorphisms of sequences
I guess you kinda already said that
But maybe this helps idk
The direct sum is like the trivial way to fill in the middle thing in an SES
@keen sparrow The multiplicative identity would equal to 1
Right, so what is the kernel?
A slightly more technical reason for caring about split SESs is that if you apply a functor to a random SES, it need not give an SES, but a split SES always a split SES if you apply a functor (assuming that the functor is additive)
@worthy haven
This is a very important property when you do anything homology related
It is very helpful to know that that always happens with vector spaces
also this is very interesting; I only know an epsilon worth of category theory but this seems like a very helpful property
We haven't proven the five lemma. This was one of the first definitions in the course
@rustic minnow is it clear now what the kernel should be?
no, its not as I cannot choose 0
The five lemma here will just tell you that α is an isomorphism as soon as the diagram commutes. Since it's anyway assumed to be an isomorphism in the definition itself, it's not necessary to use the five lemma
You can read the five lemma statement it's very simple
@keen sparrow so I choose 1 as it is the inverse image of 1
And also tells you things about SESs which you should know
yeah I looked up the five lemma, the proof and the statement both don't look too difficult. I think we're gonna do them at some point
Namely that these weird isomorphisms of SES really do capture sameness
Well it doesn't entirely
@rustic minnow right, in the positive real the only number whose power is 1 is 1
The point is that you say that 2 SES are isomorphic if each corresponding pair of modules is isomorphic, and the maps in between also look the same. This second thing gets captured by saying that the squares commute, and to see that you just gotta think about it yourself for a couple minutes lul (The commutativity of the squares says that elements that correspond under the isomorphism map to corresponding elements when you apply the respective map)
@keen sparrow right thanks. For the last part of automorphism to I need to show the surjective property? I have already showed that the property of homomorphism holds.
Right
Positive Real numbers have positive nth roots,yes
so this property holds an we can conclude that the group is an isomorphism onto itself
Right
And if we have homomorphisms which are both into and onto itself then we can say that we have an isomorphism as it is defined as a homomorphism with a mapping which is bijective?
Yes, that’s right
@keen sparrow Thanks. So, one final question. If I was dealing with the group of positive rational numbers (Q_>0, *) instead I could not say that the isomorphism is onto itself as the positive nth roots might not exist (i.e irrational numbers) ?
If we have H normal sub group of G, g in G and h in H do we have the following equality for right class of H: hgH=gH? As proof I would write hgH=Hhg=Hg=gH but I’m not sure if it is true in general
yep that's true
if you've seen quotient groups, hgH = (hH) * (gH) = (eH) * (gH) = gH
Kk thank you I was juste told that it might not hold in general so I was a bit confused
I think they meant for H a general subgroup
But on the other hand I have a proof xd
ie not normal
for general it's false
(your english is kinda cute >.<)
🇫🇷
frenglish
@rustic minnow If you were dealing with the positive rationals, then you wouldn't be able to guarantee nth root. So, the homomorphism wouldn't be an isomorphism because, for example, f_2 then 2 wouldn't be in the image since the square root of 2 is not rational
yep, thats what I thought.
its the next part
although will the function be defined as: $ f_n : \mathbb{R}^* \longrightarrow \mathbb{R}{>0}$ and $ f_n : \mathbb{Q}{>0} \longrightarrow \mathbf{R}_{>0}$ in these different groups?
For the second one, you might as well make the image Q since power of rationals are rationals
How do I know how many isomorphisms exist between 2 finite cycle groups each having an order of 30?
I know there are 30 homomorphisms
Cause gcd(30,30)
you have to figure out which ones are bijective
which ends up amounting to counting the number of elements with order 30
so the elements of the set are {0,...,29}
and i count the number of elements inside that set with order 30?
and that will be my answer ?
Yeah you are essentially picking a generator to map 1 to
Yeah, so the idea is that you can map 1 to x
And then your homomorphism is gonna map n to nx
So when is "multiplication by x" invertible mod 30?
hmm
so am i basically finding an element g where g^k = e?
where does the mod30 take play in all of this
where did this come from?
I mean G is a cyclic group of order 30, I'm thinking of it as Z/30Z
i know this
So the basic idea here is, and in fact I can say it without resorting to thinking of it as Z/30Z so I'll do that
A map between finite sets is injective if and only if it's surjective, right?
yeah
So if we have a map phi:G->G where G is cyclic of order 30
Well take a generate g of G
The image of phi is what?
Well, I meant by that to describe to me the image of G under phi
But this is step 1 in doing that
We know phi(g) is in the image
yes
Yes, but try to write h in terms of g
h = g^k for some k
So phi(h) = phi(g^k) = phi(g)^k
So the image of phi is actually going to be generated by phi(g)
yes
So if we want phi to be surjective
Fix a generator g of G. Then we can map phi(g) to any element which generates G
And that's all
Well, fix one in advance
So given G, take g
Now what's a hom phi:G->G? You can set phi(g) = h for any h, and then you've determined phi
When is phi an isomorphism? It's precisely when h is also a generator of G
So the number of isomorphisms G->G are the number of elements which generate G
Hmm
Can anyone help explain what an action actually does? And how the first and second definition in the attached image relate?
My understanding is an action on a group takes elements of the group and maps each of them to a permutation in the set omega, is that correct?
Honestly I think the easiest way to think about group action especially at first is a function f: G x Omega -> Omega, (g,x) maps to gx. This map has to satisfy 1x -> x and g(hx)=(gh)x. So it's just multiplying elements of Omega by group elements from the left side
I think I understand. Cheers
on the part about u, why does the order of x1 and y1 switch around?
omg wait im stupid lol
i was pondering this question for like 15 minutes and the second i posted it here the reason popped up into my brain : |
thanks brain

is this good enough for me to learn group theory from? it seems short but I wanted someone to skim through it and lmk if it's sufficient https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&rct=j&url=https://www.maths.gla.ac.uk/~mwemyss/teaching/3alg1-7.pdf&ved=2ahUKEwj0kLvoqLr1AhVBSTABHclpC5QQFnoECBAQAQ&usg=AOvVaw30jXL--dtOBp7PCSGOPIWn
it looks fine if you're just looking to study some introductory group theory
okay ty
If the supremum is finite and equal to M, then I can possibly consider f(X)^M?
Otherwise I do not yet have ideas on how to solve this
Hausdorff
So I'll explain the idea by identifying G = Z/30Z
So if I have a homomorphism Z/30Z -> Z/30Z
Then it's determined by where the number 1 goes, correct?
@median pawn the coefficients are element of the finite group Z_n
Agreed
So, does that give you a bound for the nilpotent index?
Hausdorff
Well, if you just want a homomorphism, then you can send 1 to anything. If we want it to be a bijection... well let's say we've sent 1 to x. Then our homomorphism is just multiplication by x. When does it have an inverse? It has an inverse if x has a multiplicative inverse mod 30



I think I get it now. Thank you again