#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 651 of 407
I am reading this note. Does anyone know why "its minimal polynomial over K(β) divides it minimal polynomial over K"? I don't quite get it..
if f in K[x] is the minimal polynomial of alpha over K, then it's also a polynomial in K(beta)[x].
and minimal polynomial over K(beta) has to divide any polynomial in K(beta)[x] which alpha satisfies!
right! I see. thank you!
i used to run my old laptop with no battery inside 
it's 100% now 
there's an example I'm having some trouble with
so recall a field extension $L/K$ is separable iff $\overline{K}\otimes_K L$ has no nilpotent elements. in this case, I'll set $K=\mathbb{F}_2(t)$ and $L=\mathbb{F}_2(\sqrt{t})$ where $t$ is transcendental
wy
so $\overline{K}\otimes_K L$ is isomorphic to $\overline{\mathbb{F}_2(t)}[x]/(x-t)^2$, which has the nilpotent element $\overline{x-t}$
wy
I wanted to figure out how this element looked like in $\overline{K}\otimes_K L$
wy
but passing $\overline{x-t}$ through the isomorphism, I get $1\otimes\sqrt{t},+, t\otimes1 = 1\otimes(\sqrt{t}+t)$ which doesn't seem to be nilpotent. so I'm confused
wy
The minimal polynomial of sqrt t over F_2[t] would be x^2 - t, not (x-t)^2
It will factor as (x-sqrt t)^2
And then it is clearly nilpotent
in the tensor
right, that was a dumb mistake 😳
hmm so the nilpotent element is $\overline{x-\sqrt{t}}$, and passing through the isomorphism now gives $1\otimes\sqrt{t},+,\sqrt{t}\otimes 1$
wy
that makes a lot more sense now
it's char 2 so isn't it the same
oh right
because the tensor is over F_2(t), you can't bring over one of the sqrt(t)'s to the other side
So this is probably not the usual question that gets asked in here, but would anybody be willing to share their class's syllabus? 😛 Trying to look at syllabi to figure out how to pace my own course I'm teaching starting in February
This is for undergrad intro to abstract algebra. We're going to use Judson's book
I tried a similar idea for $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})\otimes_\mathbb{Q} \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}) \cong \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})\times\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})$, and found that the non-unit $(0,1)$ is mapped to $-\frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}\otimes\sqrt{2} + \frac12\otimes 1 \thonk \catthink$
$\thonk$
wy
cool
there
Magic 
pick any nonzero matrix A and show that 1 is in RAR the ideal generated by A ?
oh so I is the whole ring itself
well you have to show that the only ideals are {0} and R
so you show that if I is not {0} then it is R
that's the same as showing that for any nonzero A, 1 is in RAR the ideal generated by A
thanks its clear
maybe show that 1 0 // 0 0 and 0 0 // 0 1 are in RAR separately
actually RAR is kinda a bad notation
maybe I should have just written <A>
because strictly speaking, if RAR = {r1 A r2 | r1,r2 in R} then that may not be closed by addition
but the ideal generated by A is
You know, under Bourbaki’s definitions this would be a field I think
Since they explicitly distinguish between a field and a commutative field


You'll thank him when you don't have to say "A vector spaces over a field or a division ring always has a basis"
why stop at division rings then, go up to semisimplicity 
if a module is sum of simples, then it's direct sum of simples

I got stuck a bit. What if an ideal contains an element 0 0 // 0 a for a non-zero a, how do you get that it contains 1 0 // 00 by matrix operations?
got it
I despise ring theory
:(
:(
I revise my stance to be >:( as well
Let $I$ be a two-sided non zero ideal of $M_n(R)$ (where $R$ is any ring with unity). Then prove that a matrix $A$ is in $I$ if and only if the matrices obtained by placing any entry of $A$ in any position, and 0 elsewhere, belong to $J$. Using this prove that if $J$ is a non-zero two sided ideal of the ring $M_n(R)$ (again, $R$ is any ring with unity) then the set $K$ of (1,1) entries of matrices in $J$ is a two-sided ideal of $R$.
If $D$ is simple, you can use the last statement to prove that $M_n(D)$ is simple.
Potitov06
help me understand why i should care about rings
probably an anger inducing question but i have yet to really understand the use of restricting operations and saying this is a ring
shit, why do i care about any math
who am i
Cry more 
Det gave some reasons right after that message lol
But also a very realistic reason for caring about rings is that you will need them later 
it's a surprise tool
the use of restricting operations
lots of things might have an addition and a multiplication but not everything else
ok well first is Z[i] the integers mod i ? i feel like ive seen that notation mean something else but i dont recall
also integers mod i feels... weird
It is the lattice of integer points in ℂ
All the grid points
It is the smallest subring of ℂ that contains ℤ and i
I mean in the sense that most of the time if you see some elementary application of the theory you could feel like yeah I could have just used integers here why do I need to develop ring theory just to do some integer stuff. But then there are a lot more places which will really tell you how powerful the general theory is but then you can't get there without doing ring theory first 
Was continuing from here
I felt this way about modules for a long time and whenever someone would give me some bs I'll eat it but still feel hungry
Until I did actual stuff with modules
that's exactly how im feeling rn
like i feel like i just memorized the definition of a ring and can do nothing with it
And now if someone asks me why they are useful I can confidently say that they are useful in developing homological algebra
ik that'll change later w my actual class in algebra but me impatient
If they ask me why that's useful I'll eventually loop back to saying to develop module theory so it becomes a self sustaining loop 😌
Number theory and polynomial factorisation problems etc is the simplest motivation I suppose 
that's what im trying rn 
Factorise x² - 4, but you are not allowed to use any ring theory
Yeah Fermat's Last Problem is a motivation.
Not so easy now is it 
you mean like none of the operations/properties associate with a ring?
oh wait that was probably a joke
Ye lmao
woooooooooosh
You need an optimistic person like det to answer a question like this why did you even ask me 🙈
im stuck in a loop of try to do problems -> get bored -> get upset at myself for being lazy and not persisting -> try to do problems
with random "ask math discord for motivation" sprinkled in at all parts 
Oh yeah if you have just seen the definition then you're at the most boring part because you'll be solving the shittiest problems
It will improve significantly in a week or two
Maybe the answer is not that great. For example, why would you care about studying group theory? Well, the real answer is why not? If they are natural and appear in maths, why should we resist in developing group theory? The same happens with ring, modules and etc. Usually they come up when mathematicians tried to solve other problems. For example, as Moldilocks said, many of algebraic structures are used in number theory and algebraic geometry.
these are the problems in my book

im one of those people who drives normally in GTA every once in a while just cuz
🤝
What book are you using?
Algebra, by Theodore Shifrin
only bc i cant stand pdf's and this is what i was able to steal from my math department
Never even heard that name 
ik it's random but it's what i have
i was talking about this before but it's apparently a weird book
starts w rings
I think Aluffi's, Algebra: Chapter 0 is the best book for learning algebra. He writes beautifully.
It is common to think that group theory comes before ring theory. Lately, many profesors I know are inclined in teaching ring theory first because it is more "natural".
Please don't compare me to a discord m*d 
is this valid
Yeah, it is valid, but long.
im making my solutions purposefully verbose so when my monkey brain looks back at them it gets the help it needs
yeet
is there a way to do it without Bezout
i think think det said there was but me no remember
also the implications can all basically be reversed so it's kinda obvious but did you do the reverse direction too?
I don't think so
the task looks like it was to prove if and only if
yeah just need to type it up
nice
also idk whether using the "there exist" symbol is good practice
Usually I'd prefer to write "there exists some b \in Z_m" instead
oh nah im always gonna use $\exists$
nitezba
Hmm as long as your professor is happy with it. Our professors always told us to avoid it for clarity I guess
Yeah. As long as yours is okay with it 🙂
yeah it's standard for math literature that everything, even equations etc are part of sentences and symbols should be replaced by English (or whatever language) whenever possible so I always did that writing up homeworks
but tossing symbols down is great for scrawling in your notes cause it's fast af
lul
yeah my professor's lecture scribbles always use those symbols and they're like "ok but in a proof, don't do that pls"
hahaha
Is it accurate to say that a subset H of a group G is a subgroup iff each element in H is left/ right congruent modulo H with each other element in H?
could you define left/right congruent modulo H?
I would guess a = bh1 and a = (h2)b respectively, h1, h2, in H
Actually either gives you subgroup criterion right? And the other direction is obvious from closure
I'm a bit confused on something from Eisenbud. In chapter one, they vaguely introduce the notion of the Hilbert function, and then say simply that it agrees with some polynomial for large s, but doesn't really explain how to find it. In the exercises, they ask you to compute, explicitly, the hilbert polynomial for k[x,y,z,w]/(x,y)\cap(z,w). I know the dimension of each M_s is 2(i+1), but is that the hilbert polynomial? or how would I go about computing that
Can anyone here help me prove $x^6-6x^3+4$ is irreducible over $\mathbb{Q}$?
I've thrown everything I know at it. I've used the Rational Root theorem to prove it has no linear factors, but other possible factors still exist. I've tried Gauss's Lemma, Eisenstein's Criterion, Manual factoring into arbitrary quartic/quadratic pairs and cubic pairs. I'm not sure if I'm missing something obvious here.
darkninja175
Find all the roots in C, then arbitrarily bash together all of the possible linear factors (in C) and show they don’t result in rational coefficients
This is going to be unbelievably tedious but it would work
You can set y = x^3 then use the quadratic formula to find roots for y
Then taking cube roots gives you all the roots as complex numbers
But I feel like directly dealing with roots only implies information on linear factors, how does it prove it can't be reduced into two cubics for example
oh
You have Gauss’s lemma which says it would have to even have integer coefficients
So you probably can just show certain combinations won’t work
Yeah, this maybe isn’t the best way
But it’s guaranteed to work
I mean it either factors like
4-2
3-3
Or 2-2-2
So this reduces the stuff you have to check
Maybe handle every pair
Or something idk
would it not be like 6! ones to check or something
No
It’s far less
Look at how I broke it up
For the first one, it’s just a choice of the two
So 6 choose 2
The other one is 6 choose 3
Then the last one is a a bit harder to count
But it’s picking 3 pairs from 6 things
And like I said, you might be able to argue more abstractly certain things can’t lead to integer coefficients
Since Gauss’s lemma is also here to help you
There’s probably better ways
This is just one way
I think there's some trick using the fact that $\omega^3=1$ gives a symmetry $f(x)=f(\omega x)$
Merosity
for context, this polynomial is constructed based on showing $\sqrt{3+\sqrt{5}}$ is algebraic. So that's like the core (real) root it revolves around.
after that I'm looking to simply show this polynomial is minimal, so irreducible.
darkninja175
I tried that trick that irreducibility of f(x) holds iff $f(x+a)
but my "searching" yielded nothing
like there are 2 distinct roots $r,s$ such that all the other roots can be written as $r, \omega r, \omega^2 r, s, \omega s, \omega^2 s$
Merosity
if it's irreducible that is, otherwise wlog we could say r=s and are both on the real axis I think
then I think we just have to look at gcd(f,f')
gonna go for a bit, curious to see what happens
I mean WolframAlpha says it's irreducible, and I've tried to look into the algorithm they use for that but i couldn't find anything
Wolfram doesn't give context or information though
well are you picking up what I'm laying down? 🤔
I... think so
my book kinda mentions that polynomial rings are commutative but im not seeing it
any help?
Multiplication between two elements is the same regardless of the order
(X+1)(X-1)=(X-1)(X+1)
Fist show that x^n and x^m commute for all m and n. Then show that if a and b commute then any linear combination ra+sb and ta+lb commute. Now notice that a polynomial ring is made up of linear combinations of powers of x and elements of the base ring, all of which commute with each other
You just have to check that multiplication commutes
ahh ok
Suppose I had a cycle $\tau$ and a permutation $\sigma $ both in $S_n$.
Is the cycle type of $\tau \sigma \tau^{-1}$ related to the cycle type of $\tau$ or $\sigma$?
fajitas
Thank you!
Is it true that $\tau \sigma \tau^{-1}=\sigma$ if $\tau$ and $\sigma$ are 2-cycles?
fajitas
That's actually where I ran into this. If $N={e,(12)(34),(13)(24),(14)(23)}$ then this is all the 2-cycles in $S_4$. Im actually interested in showing $S_4/N\cong S_3$
If $\tau\in S_4$ I know $\sigma\in N $ and $\tau \sigma \tau^{-1}$ have the same cycle type so implicitly $\tau \sigma \tau^{-1}:(N\setminus e) \to (N\setminus e)$ is a permutation. Then since $|N\setminus e| =3$ so $\tau \sigma \tau^{-1}\in S_3$ is an induces permutation of 3 elements where $\sigma\mapsto \tau \sigma \tau^{-1}$. I figured that if $\tau \sigma \tau^{-1} =\sigma$ for $\sigma\in (N\setminus e)$ then $ker(\tau \sigma \tau^{-1})=N$ and the isomorphism is proved by the first isomorphism theorem. Is there some key idea I'm missing?
I know that N is normal
fajitas
(To me, none of those are 2-cycles, i mean things like (12) for example)
I must be using a wrong definition ...
Is it sensible to say the element of N are the elements which can be represented by 2 disjoint transpositions?
I think this is a bit unclear though e.g. when you say ker(tau sigma tau^-1) i assume you mean the ernel of the map sigma |-> tau sigma tau^-1 or smth
Yeah that map exactly
ye (plus e)
I think what I need follows from normality of N
I mean also your map is an isomorphism so the kernel will just be trivial
I'm not really sure what you're trying to do with that map if it's just conjugation
My lazy method for this would just be to say at there are only two groups order 6, and S4/N can't be Z_6 (think why)
Yeah that. I didn't like it cause what if I forgot the groups of order 6 lmao
Yeah sure, fair enough
I had this as a homework question last year and the guidance in the question was to consider the subgroup H of S4 of elements that fix 4
[Sym{1,2,3} if you like]
Show that that map sending x to xH is injective and then you can use that to deduce the isomorphism
Hmmmmmmmmm okay thank you I'll try that
The idea is just that H is a 'copy' of S3 within S4
If I have a group like G= (Z,+) I cant take a subgroup to be a modulo group right?
subgroups of Z are nZ
elements of Z/nZ are cosets of the form m+nZ which are not elements of Z, so Z/nZ is not a subset of Z let alone a subgroup
Is n here an integer?
yeah
right, so even numbers form a subgroup
yup
you can prove there's no NON-TRIVIAL finite subgroups of Z by considering that if there was such a finite subgroup, then it would have a largest element M but also has to include M+M = 2M as it's closed under addition. Which is a contradiction as 2M > M
Why did you mention the condition of cosets. Does it refer to the fact that groups must have cosets which are distinct and contain new elements not found in the group?
groups don't have to have cosets...?
I mentioned them because they're elements of Z/nZ
ok
I thought the idea of cosets was to construct new sets, although in these case with integers we dont get any new sets.
cosets are formed when you quotient a group by a normal subgroup - just so happens they also form a new group
they're not for arbitrary "new sets" they're specifically x+N where x is a member of the group and N is a normal subgroup
Yes, I understood that they are not arbitrary "new sets" and for group operator multiplication we would get xN right?
yup!
I'm still confused by what you mean with "in the integers we don't get any new sets" though
I just mean that when we use x + N we dont obtain any elements outside of Z
x+N is always a subset of whatever group you're working in so you should never get any elements in a coset that's not in the group
sorry I'm just confused
no worries. Im still confused as to why its called to "quotient a group"
ok there's a cool way to explain this
a quotient group G/N is basically whatever group you get if you look at N and say... "hmm... what if this was ZERO?!"
it turns out if you do this via cosets it's actually a valid thing to do
this relates very closely to the first isomorphism theorem if you know about that
oh, that is cool. Does the first isomorphism thm. relate the condtions that must be satisfied for isomorphism because I do know that or is it something else?
it relates the "kernel" of a homomorphism to the "image"
the kernel is basically the set of all elements that go to 0 under the homomorphism, and the image is every possible value the isomorphism can take.
For example, take the map x -> x mod 2, the "image" would be {0, 1} and the "kernel" would be all the even numbers, cause every even number is 0 mod 2
the first isomorphism theorem basically says you can take the group and, just like with a normal subgroup, "pretend" that the elements that map to 0 (elements in the kernel) ARE zero
and it turns out this G/ker(f) is actually both a group itself AND is isomorphic to the image of f
the actual statement of the theorem is
for all homomorphisms $\phi$ we have $G/ker(\phi) \cong img(\phi)$ but that's boring and doesn't tell you what it's actually saying
AbelianRings
TFW {0} isn’t a subgroup
correct
TFW M + M > M for M in Z
there has to be a positive element due to the existence of additive inverses THERE
my lord this is why I hate posting in here lmfao
:^)
@uncut ridge you have been super helpful
ty
So do we treat kernels in linear algebra and abstract algebra as different topics?
very similar
yeah, cause Ax = 0
yup
there are also kernels in machine learning
it's all the elements that are zero under a linear map (which are actually vector space homomorphisms)
yes
machine learning is uhhh different I think
yep
oh btw @rustic minnow since you mentioned linear maps, the first iso theorem holds for vector spaces as well - just replace the group homomorphism with a linear map
it also holds for rings
it really says something about the structure of structure imo which is why it's my favourite result of all time™️
cool. When proving homomorphisms exist is it based on the operator of the group, i.e addition , multiplication whether to use f(a*b) = f(a) * f(b) or f(a+b) = f(a) + f(b) ?
This was confusing when I was doing exercises
groups only have one operation - use that one
say you have a group $G$ with operation $$ and another group $H$ with an operation $#$, then $\phi$ is a homomorphism between $G$ and $H$ if and only if $\phi(gh) = \phi(g)#\phi(h)$
AbelianRings
thanks.
Also wondering how we can use thm. of Lagrange when we dont have finite groups.
you can always use that cosets partition
you mean the fact that every coset of a subgroup H of a group G has the same number of elements as H?
that is true, but also that cosets are disjoint
meaning if something is in one coset, it isn't in any of the other ones
But how can the order of H be a divisor of order G if both are infinite
for example if we take all real invertible matrices and choose the subgroup as the real invertible matrices with det= 1 under mtx multiplication
are not both groups infinite?
yes
keep in mind that even for finite groups, n divides n
G is a subgroup of itself
infinity divides infinity
Oh would H not be a proper subgroup in this case then?
as G is a subgroup of itself
no H is absolutely a proper subgroup
it's a proper subset
it's just an infinite subset
We just need H to not equal to G then in order for it to be a proper subgroup
So even numbers under the integers would be a proper subgroup as well right?
yes
What did u mean with G is a proper subgroup of itself?
A group action induces a permutation right?
not just one permutation, you get a permutation for each element of the group,
more precisely a group action on a set X can be thought of as either a function G * X --> X satisfying some nice enough properties or as a group homomorphism G --> Perm(X)
Is there a way to determine the kernel of this homomorphism?
I've seen some criteria like conjugacy
kernel will be the elements that fix all element of X, i.e. stabX itself
I was reading on Sylow's Theorem 1 and in the proof here there was a few parts I didn't understand, I was hoping if someone could clarify them for me.
THe proof is as follows, Orb means orbit and Stab means stabiliser
The first thing I don't get, is why m has to equal p^ru. Desnt such a form for m mean that the proof does not work for all multiples of p^n?
Secondly, it says "there must be an omega element of S such that |Orb(0mega)|=p^st. Why is it that the size HAS to be in the form p^st?
Lastly, I don't understand the last sentence which says "FOr this choice of .... is thus a subgroup of p^n". That part just kinda doesn't make sense to me
pls help
any natural number k can be written as (p^a) * b where p and b are coprime
so writing m = (p^r) * u doesn't restrict any values of m, and proof works for all multiples of p^n
same for the second question, every number can be written like that. the real question is why can we require s to be smaller than or equal to r. And that's because if each orbit had size divisible by p^(r+1), then |S| would be divisible by p^(r+1) which it is not.

in the first page of the proof, we showed that for any omega, it's stabilizer is at most of size p^n
in the second part, we find a specific omega for which size would be bigger than (or equal to) p^n
both these inequalities show it has to be exactly p^n
OHHH I see now that makes a lot of sense thanks
the part of |stab(omega)|<=p^n completely went over my head lol
Can anyone help with part b)? I'm pretty stumped
Honestly, I’m not too sure myself
One thing I noted was, if f is in R_0, then consider g(x,y) = f(x) - f(y) for x,y indeterminates
Then g(a,b) = 0, so that g is in the kernel of the evaluation map k[x,y] -> k sending (x,y) to (a,b) so it’s a routine result that g is in the ideal (x-a,y-b) of k[x,y]
Perhaps you can try to reinterpret that in terms of f??
Honestly I don’t really have any good ideas for this one
The given ring is certainly a subring of R_0. It is not clear to me that they are actually the same.
Is the given ring the same as (x-a)(x-b) k[x]?
Uh... I did not phrase that right. Hm..
Right side in the left side is obvious. Now take some f in R_0, divide it by (x-a)(x-b) and show that the remainder is constant. You will get some quotient q(x). Divide it by the same thing and this time you can't argue that the linear thing is 0 but that linear thing multiplies with the first divisor to get you x(x-a)(x-b) so you are fine. Induct.
@untold sapphire
bruh moment
It is there I think
Write x^2 as (x-a)(x-b) + linear
then distribute
Eh?
argument by mostly saketh lmao he was just too lazy to type it out 
I feel like I have seen this same argument for a question ... two weeks ago?
x^2 = (x-a)(x-b) + (a+b)x - ab
Nothing in the purported R_0 is linear
Now substitute and distribute
Eh?

How can you add in (a+b)x tho
multiply with (x-a)(x-b) on both sides



No algebra at 2 am challenge
what book would you guys recommend reading for fields and extensions other than Dummit Foote?
i like field and galois theory by morandi
i like aluffi
Milne goob
catpill everyone 
yeah aluffi is what bridged the gap to CT for me
for me it was aluffi and moldi 
how wholesome

hah
I still can't do modern AG tbh but thankfully I think I'll be able to avoid it for a bit
(abstract nonsense aside)
i wanted to understand this
I don't read cat because not knowing it makes me feel smart
(
)
I still don't understand this
I picked my research topic so I wouldn't have to understand scheme theory 🙈
(i think it's not supposed to make sense, unless someone enlightens me)
moldi
lol
This one is tho 
that's just what induction is
You prove that some claim is true on a subalgebra of N and therefore must be true on N 😌
We need more nonsense stickers
makes zero sense
You can visit #category-theory when every fifth day the whole gang comes together to explain Yoneda to some noob 🤓
The meme makes sense
Because the person saying the category theory nonsense is making no sense
And it’s a complex analysis class
Perfectly capturing the behavior of the UGCT
Apply zero functor to chmonkey 


choldilocks
Go is a strong term 

hooray for zoom classes
Why
He lives in the US 
What’s on the other side of the earth from India anyway
Why tf does he go to an Indian university?
Used to live in India when enrolled 

Born in the US lived in India for few years then moved back
Now he doesn't want to come back, they gave us an option to return this sem which eventually got cancelled but he said he doesn't want to come back so he will continue to attend remotely until I peer pressured him into saying yes in the form in a 15 minute call by calling him a bunch of names



4am algebra
,ti
The current time for Chmonkey 2.0 is 07:01 AM (PST) on Fri, 14/01/2022.
Who is Saketh?
lol
Yes

Your class or just a meme?
Okay.
just a meme
,av @gritty sparrow
oof
Clearly 13+ or maximum 16+.
You don't get to decide, major conflict of interest
Okay
.
lul
check #groups-rings-fields
ecchi

Chmonkey det ryu and moldi made abstract-algebra a better #discussion.
I came here cause when I ctrl-escaped this channel was the first to have a message.
chat if you don't mind I have an actual abstract algebra question
ik a bit of a
moment
does anyone know of any nice degree 3 representations of Q_8
the irreds either 1 or 2 dim?
doesn't have to be irreducible
I've tried constructioning a few from smashing together irreducibles but they don't act on a nice geometric object
it's just for a presentation about representation theory from a really introductory level I have to do
trivial direct summed with itself thrice 
ok I will be serious
sign direct summed with itself thrice 
is that the same
in this case 
what do you mean by sign?
I think that's the same 
Maybe this embeds into S_4 and then it's not in A_4 😠
idt it embeds into S_4
Sigmaoldilocks
like sylow subgroup of S_4 will be unique and stuff and so it should be D_4
I'll just use the regular representation of Q_8 lol 
Maybe just start by finding number of irreps then direct sum then make char table then direct sum them as you want for interestingness 
oh I've done all that
ok what about S_5
ha
owned
idk >.<

the idea for my presentation is that you can actually see the representations acting on a geometric object which isn't fantastic if they're complex valued 
maybe I should just bitch out and use S_4 acting on a cube
that's probably eaiser
anyway ty for the advice
Can someone explain to me why it follows that A is noetherian? I guess it's obvious but I don't see it right now
well any chain of ideals in A is a subchain of the written one with the m_k, but in that one, no matter where you start, you have only finitely many steps until you reach m, the largest one
its basically the same argument why the natural numbers are well ordered i guess
Hey
Hausdorff
Note that subrings may not contain the identity
Does anyone have any ideas? I've already come up with examples where S,R have different identities or one of them does not have an identity element
if you think being able to invert elements is algebraic enough, then how about Z in Q?
otherwise you could maybe look at things like integral closure
Z in Q sounds nice
What's that?
its like algebraic closure but for rings instead of fields
I'll read about it!
seeh e.g. atiyah macdonald for more details
I'm currently trying to produce S,R where S is an integral domain/field/division ring but R is not
then Q in Q[x]?
i mean Q[x] is still integral but not a field
you could also just adjoin some nilpotent element maybe to get something that isnt an integral domain anymore
Q[x] is not a field because certain non-zero elements don't have inverses, right? For example, x+1? (x+1)p(x) = 1 means p(x) = 1/x+1 which is not in Q[x]
yes
I suppose Q[[x]] is a field though
dont know actually
Ah, I'll check
but division ring is like a field without commutativity right?
Correct
if so then maybe take invertible matrices included in all matrices
lower thing should be division ring, but the ring of all matrices has zero divisors
That's a nice example, yeah
Nah that's problematic
Invertible matrices don't contain the zero matrix
oh right
So that set is not a subgroup, hence not a subring
also not closed under addition now that i think about it 
the reals are contained in the quaternions for field contained in division ring
I like this one
Yup, did that!
ah yeah you can embed the quaternions into M_2(C), so you have division ring contained in not division ring
How many do you need lol
Omg degree 2 representation my most loved
I guess this is good enough lol
I was thinking of something with Boolean rings
Z/2Z is a Boolean ring, can we view it as a subring of a non-Boolean ring?
Is Z/4Z Boolean?
Right, it's not, since 2^2 = 0
Excellent my random shot in the dark well educated guess payed off
is 0+4Z, 2+4Z not a subring
because 1 + 1 = 2, which is not 0 or 1
I mean true, Z/2Z is only isomorphic to a subgroup of Z/4Z
Yep yep
I assumed that would be good enough though 
We need S to be a subring of R, not just isomorphic to one 😦
in that case take {0+4Z, 2+4Z} as S 
Yes, but that's not a Boolean ring (a^2 = a for all a) so what's the point LOL

take R=(Z/2Z)[x]?
That's brilliant!
Being non zero 🤡
Idk what even is the point of this stupid exercise
Having a non trivial automorphism group 🙈
wtaf do rings even have that many properties
Being initial in the category of rings 
Well I'm trying to find S such that S is a PID/PIR but R isn't
Field and polynomials over it
^

F[x1, ..., xn] is a noetherian subring of F[x1, ...] which is not noetherian
problem is we don't really know how advanced our properties can be
like I'd say noetherian is a bit of a stretch given that this seems to be a question showing that not all properties are preseved in substructures
Z[i] is a PID which is not a field
Yes
Endomorphism ring of some abelian group 
Idk if this one works lol
Countable 
Interesting, what's this property?
ℚ is an ordered ring, no way to make ℂ into an ordered ring
Ahh okay
I still believe
Here we are using the fact that R[X] is a PID iff R is a field, right?
it's the image of Z[x] through some homomorphism
same thing (first iso my beloved)
Put R = Z[i]
Oh lol
oh you want Z[i][X]
Yep
You can find some example directly too
hmmm
Z[i][X] is going to be isomorphic to something wacky and I want to find it
And also you could do k[x,y] over PID k[x]
i = y, then y^4 = 1 so take Z[X, Y]/(Y^4) yessssss
It's isomorphic to ℤ [i, X]
Is the second part an exercise?
Are you sure about that 
absolutely not
Ye you just use axioms of ordered rings to find a contradiction
but I don't see where it fails 
You've proven that the quotient ring you have surjcets onto the ring you want
Because of
ah yeah it might not be injective
Yep
Oh this isn't the general statement 
Yep
But then quotienting by (y²+1) will work

I'll credit you in the paper
Yo I thought I was getting that coauthor clout
you know what... I've had enough of you category theorists and your "co" nonsense
what's next? copapers?
A coauther is just a reader 
ah yes cause the arrow from the writer to the paper has been reversed
the paper is "writing" your brain if you will
quite intuitive...
Yes, I have coauthored quite a few books at this point 
HAHAHA
I'm going to start saying that and when people call me out I'll just blurt a load of category theory-adjacent nonsense
This is probably the funniest thing I saw today
Did you have an example in mind for this, or?
Z is a good one
fields are so boring honestly
wait we're supposed to be working with non-unital rings?
That's what the hausdorff say
Hausdorff
I need bleakdevastation
Oh but even for non unital this is true
Negation is not an automorphism
I'm actually going to cry
That's what I thought for a moment
waitttt a minuite
But -1 and 1 can be distinguished by squaring
Wait, I'm confused - so the Z and C example does not work right?
It do
the automorphism group of Z is not trivial moldi just had a moment
ℤ has trivial aut group even when non unital
wait are you sure
Because of this
Yes
Negation ain't an automorphism
I need to get out of "group mode"
Oh shit wait, Aut of rings is not same as Aut of groups

I'm being an actual moron
sorry moldi
wait so, sub-rings in non-unital rings are just ideals aren't they?
oh yes true
Subrings are just closed under it
anyway how many more examples do you need @median pawn
before my brain dribbles out from my ears
that's it haha, these are good enough
Hausdorff
Right? I'm trying to show that Aut Z is trivial
yep
that's true for groups so something something category theory yes the image of the generators uniquely determines the image
This is the category definition of generators 😌
Hausdorff
subset such that agreement on it implies agreement everywhere
Not sure if it always lines up but yeah
more over you can just see that f has to be of the form f(n) = mn and invertible, the only such m are -1 and 1 and you can then show those two cases are equivalent
that's how I did it on my 2nd year algebra exam 
wait why is f(1) = 0 not valid
oh ok nvm that's not an auto
f(1) = 1 gives f = identity, wow yes
yeah f(1) = 0 is definitely not injective lol
Hausdorff
in fact I'd go as far to say it is the exact oppositve of injective. Outjective if you will
very big
C is the complex plane lmao (as a ring)
as they say in the textbook I coauthored, absolute chomker

But a non trivial automorphism is conjugation
Other automorphisms may not be constructed because very choosey 
Hausdorff
I was thinking about groups again
that's why I said it was trivial
That does sound good to me
As long as you give the example of the non trivial automorphism
i -> -i my most beloved
Interesting thing is that the reals have no non trivial automorphisms
No because np maps to mnp not mnmp
quotient it out
I am getting some kinda tensor producty vibes from that actually
f(ma, mb) = m^2f(a, b) hmmmm
Yes multiplication is always bilinear
That is exactly what distributivity says 
Some books define an algebra as vector space A with a multiplication A ⊗ A → A
If I want to show closure for the following set I can multiply two arbitrary elements and show that the result belongs to the field of complex numbers, but do I need to write the elements in a + bi form first for the set $\varepsilon_n = { z \in \mathbb{C} | z^n = 1}$?
Fredrikpiano
You don't need to do that actually
a^n = 1 = b^n, just prove that (ab)^n =1
Chmmutativity
dont I get ab = ab^2n ?
oh right, now I got it, since a^n and b^n are equal
so you know the complex numbers are an abelian group under multiplication because they're a field, take a and b inside that set, then a^n = b^n = 1, then (ab)^n = ababababa...b = aaa.aab.bbb. = a^nb^n = 1*1 = 1
so you know that ab is also inside that set
non zero complex numbers 
Also you could just say ring and then take multiplicative monoid lul
works just as well
moldi be like
this is real lmao


bruhhh
moldilocks in real loife

2019, my name is older 😌
what does moldilocks mean 
Not gonna say 
you can buy moldi here https://www.amazon.com/Moldilocks-Three-Scares-Zombie-Tale/dp/1454930616

Just think of it as a misspelling of my real name 
Now consider the ring of polynomials in the variable X with real coefficients, R[X], and the ideal I = (X2 + 1) consisting of all multiples of the polynomial X2 + 1. The quotient ring R[X] / (X2 + 1) is naturally isomorphic to the field of complex numbers C, with the class [X] playing the role of the imaginary unit i. The reason is that we "forced" X2 + 1 = 0, i.e. X2 = −1, which is the defining property of i.
Can I get some help understanding why we force x^2+1=0 for this equation
like
why do we think of R/I as sending everything in I to zero
I get that R/I comes in with a universal property which associates it with a homomorphism where I is its kernel
but is still doesn't make sense to me
the zero element in R/I is the coset containing 0, which is nothing but I

It's just that when I see something like R[X]/(X^2+1) my brain only sees equivalence classes, so when I consider a specific element, I think of some p(X)+X^2+1 since the equivalence classes still contain polynomials, so how does that make sense if X^2+1 goes to 0
It's not p(X) + X² + 1, but p(X) + (X² + 1)
Brackets denote ideal generated by
(X² + 1) is the zero element so you might wonder why we even write it here
That is because the + between p(X) and the ideal is not the + of the ring
p(X) + (X² + 1) is a single object
p(X) alone isn't an element of the quotient ring
I'm assuming you've verified that the operation on these cosets is well defined, that is we can take the representatives, do stuff with them and then look at the coset containing that to find what we wanted.
in ℝ[X], we want to force the relation X^2 + 1 = 0, which is why we quotient by the polynomial. This works out in the quotient ℝ[X]/I where I = (X^2 + 1), the coset [X] actually satisfies the equality, [X]^2 + [1] = [0]
because the left side is precisely [X^2 + 1] by the well-definedness and the coset containg X^2+1 is just I itself = coset containg 0 = [0].
two elements are equivalent if and only if the equivalence classes containing them are equal
So here's how I see things. We've taken a polynomial ring, in our case R[X], chosen a polynomial, X^2+1, considered the ideal it generates, (X^2+1), and then created a new ring of equivalence classes R[X]/(X^2+1) which is understood by declaring that X^2+1 must go to zero. What I want to get at is how we go from "choose the polynomial X^2+1 in R[X]" to
we want to force the relation X^2 + 1 = 0
Why are we forcing any relation
why do we care about sending it to 0
what does =0 do
it gives you a way to abstractly add roots of a polynomial
for the ring ℝ, the polynomial X^2 + 1 has no roots. That gives you a recipe to find a bigger field in which that polynomial does have a root
One thing that might be confusing is the equation X² + 1 = 0 is only true in the quotient, even though it's written as if it becomes true in the orginal ring somehow
From my perspective I'm not exactly interested in talking about its roots. I just want to know why "forcing the ideal to be zero" paints a picture of the quotient ring.
In the quotient, X² + 1 + (X² + 1) = 0 + (X² + 1)
And the right side is the zero of the quotient ring
You can say this about any other element of the ideal (X² + 1) as well
So in the quotient ring, they all become 0
And nothing else becomes 0, because it won't satisfy that relation
And what happens to an arbitrary polynomial, say X+1
Does it just belong to [X+1+X^2+1]
In the quotient ring its image is X + 1 + [X² + 1]
Using square brackets now to stick with your notation
() for ideal, [] for equiv class right
Oh
Then it belongs to the element [X+1] of the quotient
Which is the element X + 1 + (X² + 1)
And could one say that [X+1]=[X+1+X^2+1]=[X^2+X+2]
Yes
Yeh yeh yeh yeh yeh

just to make sure
is this the group of rational numbers under multiplication?
{...1/4, 1/3, 1/2, 1, 2, 3, 4...}
Not quite
It’s just everything of the form m/n for m,n integers
Except m,n ≠ 0
3/7
-27/4
4/2 = 2

Under multiplication doesn’t mean anything when listing all the elements
then what set would this be
damn
And then you rip out 0
I'm trying to get a random group and use it to prove that for any group the order of the element is the same as the order of it's inverse
just like a test or something
Or |g|>= |g^-1|
LEt me figure this out
You only need one inequality
Cuz (g^-1)^-1 = g
just prove that one is a subgroup of another
Wut
?
what does >= and <= mean then
oh
in my textbook it's also used to represent that one is a subgroup of another
math notation :/
I mean how would you prove |g| <= |g^-1| for a general case
like if you were given a set this wouldn't be so difficult
oooh
If g^n = e, then (g^n)^-1 = e^-1 = e = (g^-1)^n
This shows if g^n = e, (g^-1)^n = e
So |g^-1| <= |g|
bro my braincells
so if g^n is equal to the identity
then the inverse of g^n is equal to the inverse of the identity which is just the identitiy
Yeh
and the identity would be equivalent to the order of the inverse of g
Inverse of g to the n-th power
oh yeah
so if g^n is equal to the identity then the inverse of g to the nth power is the identity
Yeah
that makes sense, but it would be pretty difficult for me to think this off the bat
😂
¯_(ツ)_/¯
how do you think of how to prove things like these so quickly
I’ve been doing algebra for like 3 years
damn
Anyway
You have to now show |g| <= |g^-1|
But my claim was that you get this for free just from |g^-1| <= |g|
Do you see why?
why <= instead of just =?
Because all you’ve shown is that if g^n = e then (g^-1)^n = e
This is only enough to get you an inequality
so to show |g| <= |g^-1| I just show if (g^-1)^n = e then g^n = e?
Sure, but you can be more clever
We know this for arbitrary g
If you “plug in” g^-1 for g
OOO
so since |g| <= |g^-1| and |g^-1| <= |g| that means |g| = |g^-1|?
Yes
There’s a tiny tiny bit of subtlety here
Mainly in how you interpret <= when |g| could potentially be infinite
But it works out fine
that is true
The proof here shows that if |g| is finite then |g^-1| is also finite
And that’s symmetric so like it’s true if you flip g and g^-1
This is enoigh to tell you that one is infinite if and only if the other is
Or you can just extend what <= means to include infinity
Which is perfectly fine
hi
what is the index of a submodule?
I encountered this definition and I´ve never seen it
maybe it has sense when taking about free R-modules
context
Index means number of cosets of the submodule
Since everything is abelian, it's just the size of the quotient
Let $G$ is finite Group , If for any two subgroups $A$ and $B$ either $A \subset B$ or $B \subset A$, then this implies $G$ is cyclic?
TheStudent
yes i think so, here is a sketch of the proof: consider the maximal cyclic subgroup of G (which exists since G is finite) , say (x). for any y in G we know (y) is a subset of (x) hence y=x^n therefore G is cyclic
but what if this is contained in some other group?
wdym?
isn't the only group G?
You took it to be maximal
This has to exist because G is finite as Saketh said, if there wasn’t one you’d get an infinite ascending chain of groups each with an element the prior didn’t have, so in particular you’d have infinitely many elements
Now this is clear to me
any hint for these 1,3,4?









