#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 643 of 407
whaaat
MacHale (2020) shows that there are infinitely many values of n for which there are more groups than rings of that order
What the hell
is it because of some weird quirk of 2 or like is it like groups of order 2^n and 3^n are pretty same in number but 3^n just ends up taking far longer to appear if we look at group of order <= N
Apparently there’s at least 1.7quadrillion groups of order 2^n
Yeah so prime power ones get a lot
Because I think there’s a lot of freedom
You can see it like even with abelian groups
My shit-test for this is basically p-groups are simple
This means like the Cayley table isn’t as restricted
It’s “easier” to be a group
So a lot more binary operations end up giving you a group
Then as det said
2^n once n is liek… 10
Is just way smaller than 3^n
So you get that huge freedom from being p^n for a high n
And p^n is as small as it could be for that n
Since p = 2
😵💫
eevee fainted 🙈
yea
(2048^2)^2048
If I did that right
The number of operations on a set just grows so unbelievably fast
other way i think, but that would be number of functions
but like having more groups than rings?
Eh?

Didn’t what I wrote count the number of functions from
this
G x G --> G
should be like |G|^{|G x G|}
Yeah
Yeah this is fucked
I guess it means there’s a lot more groups compared to abelian groups for that
Along with some other fucked shit
yeah this makes more sense
good night! 💤


@rustic crown test turned out to be easy lol 😂 but f i didnt do 1 half question. Read it afterwards

1st part was hard so i skipped that ques
And after submitting i noticed that i could have done the other half of that ques


But rest was easy
will do far better in mid sem

btw are left units i.e. a*u = e are also right units? i.e. u.a=e or maybe some other element v.a = e?
in a ring
Consider the ring of linear operators on real sequences. The shift-left operator is a left unit, but not a right unit.
with non commutative unital rings there is a nice thing you can use for intuition and coming up with examples
every rings embeds into End(A) as a subring, where A is an abelian group
Similar to Cayley embedding for groups
Here you could use a free abelian group on N many generators, and take the endomorphism that sends each to the next
same idea as the shift example
And maps can be easier to think about
because you might already know that injective maps are left invertible and surjective maps are right invertible

so you just need an injective non surjective endomorphism of an abelian group to exist
nicee
Cool.
so for zero divisors, it's also false?
How do I interpret the notation $\mathbb{Z}/12\mathbb{Z}$ ? Is this Z_mod12 with its corresponding cosets?
Fredrikpiano
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
yes
take a surjective endomorphism with non trivial kernel
in a free abelian group
ah yes right
Yes. 12Z is the set of all multiples of 12, which is an ideal you can quotient out.
(In general you'll sometimes see the notation aR for the principal ideal of R generated by a).
lol interesting that the same counterexample worked for both your questions
@tribal moss what do you mean by quotient out?
It's an instance of the general concept of a quotient ring. If you haven't learned that yet, just take it on faith that it means modulo-12 arithmetic.
ok, thanks. The def of an ideal makes sense when seeing this notation in the context of kernels as we know that ker(\phi) is closed.
The set of automorphisms of any object in any category forms a group, and it's easy to see that in fact all groups arise in this way. Similarly, the set of endomorphisms of an abelian group forms a ring. Do all rings arise in this way?
lol were you reading chat or is this just a coincidence 
Any (possibly non commutative, but unital) ring R embeds into End(R^op, +)
I am not sure if you can make it an equality
and I write (R^op,+) because that might make the proof easier to see
maybe the correct equivalent is to look at End of preadditive categories
but (R^op, +) = (R, +) since we are forgetting the multiplication anyway
lol then it just becomes trivial
My gut feeling is that something like the free ring on countably many generators might be a counterexample to equality. A group with sufficiently many independent endomorphisms could end up having continuum many of them in total.
damn I guess embedding is the best we can probably do
yeah that seems like it would work
yea... i was comparing it to the group situation we just do the 1 object category with morphisms as G
similarly 1 object preadditive category with morphisms as R
Yeah
Are all finite cardinalities achieved by End(A)
they aren't for Aut(S)
but here it seems like they would be
Is the totient function surjective onto N?
isn't totient like always even
oh is it
except like 1, 2
idk I took a number theory course from a post doc 🤡
lol
Then maybe we can try and prove that like Z/3Z isn't End(A) or something
nvm it obviously is
for klein 4
I think
no its not
wait how do you see it so fast
Yes.
lol F
coincidence. I've been thinking about this for a while now
This is interesting! I'll get my hands dirty and try to prove this.
Actually, rather than a free ring it might be more promising to start with something like (the algebraic closure of?) Q with countably many transcendentals adjoined. Since it's commutative it ought to put pretty tight constraints on what the group and its endomorphisms can look like.
is there a way to identify Aut(U(n))?
U(n) has order phi(n), but the structure is not known in general I think

What is U(n) here? It doesn't look like the unitary group ...
Its structure is known and follows from the Chinese remainder theorem applied to the ring Z/nZ, and then we can use the fact that Aut(A x B) = Aut(A) x Aut(B) when A, B have coprime orders.
ok so $$U(n)=(\mbb{Z}/n\mbb{Z})^{\times}=(\mbb{Z}/(p_1^{k_1}p_2^{k_2}\cdots p_n^{k_n})\mbb{Z})^{\times}$$
now I apply CRT to get
Okay, and these are cyclic
it's not obvious to me really
It's not supposed to be obvious
It was proved by Gauss that (Z/nZ)* is cyclic iff n = 1, 2, 4, p^a or 2p^a for an odd prime p.
ok i'll look up the proof later,
I think it's related to primitive roots of Z/nZ
I'll have to check that chapter again
At any rate, my argument falls apart because the orders aren't prime
Aren't coprime*
I don't even know how to compute something like Aut(C2 x C4)
in the screenshot, why is it true that if the identity on the last line holds, then the A1 oplus ... oplus An is both a product and coproduct?

Does first 2 conditions here refer to p_m i_n = δ_mn?
ok yes found the source of the screenshot 
You can verify the universal property of the product or the coproduct
Suppose you have maps f_k: X → A_k
Then you can get a map (sum i_k f_k): X → direct sum
check using those equations that this is the unique map making everything commute
Think about vector spaces
yeah
i managed to figure it out though haha
i constructed the morphisms which would satisfy
the universal property of the product
and the universal property of the coproduct
and then the last line in the screenshot
guarantees that those morphisms are unique
which makes F(A1 oplus ... oplus An) the direct sum
right
it took me so long to figure out but its so satisfying
putting all the universal properties together like that
true 😌
Also true
@sturdy marsh remember that problem you helped me with
so I showed the counterexample to my prof
and he said "The issue is that the statement of the problem assumes implicitly that under the isomorphism $A$ with $I \oplus J$ the ideal $I \oplus { 0 } \subset I \oplus J$. This is not satisfied in your 'counterexample'. "
Spamakin🎷
I don't get how that is implicitly understood from this
If you read the direct sum as an internal direct sum then it is
But it's bad wording
They should then have said A is equal to that not just isomorphic
What’s meant by multiplication map here?
I’m dumb I was thinking of a vector space
The point is just that if you take the elements which are homogeneous (as in it looks like (0,…,n,…)
And multiply those
It goes up in degrees properly

how though
I guess I'm not clear as to what internal vs external direct sums are
I was never taught a distinction, just "yea this is a direct sum"
that's precisely what liquid, kxrider and I asked yesterday
if it was an internal direct sum
"implicitly assumes that it was an internal direct sum" lol
the first part involved an external direct sum 
as A/I is not a subthing of A in a natural way
so I + A/I cannot mean internal direct sum
Internal is like everything can be written uniquely as i+j where i is in I and j in J
And this + is the + of the ring
So this addition is happening internally
or in other words, the iso I + J ----> A is induced by the inclusion maps
did you figure out the M \simeq M + M thing @barren sierra
yea I used the ring you came up with yesterday
yup!
?
J is an ideal so contains 0
yea

wait wait wait
how do we know J is an ideal?
J is an ideal?
that would make things easier yea
wasnt it assumed to be an ideal
no

J is just some set
First sentence of the problem
then direct sum doesnt make sense...
Bruh
ask your prof what I + J means then lol
It says ideal
they said I is an ideal
oh 
anyway, assuming J is a ring (possibly w/o identity), you can prove that it's an ideal
it eats all elements of the form (i,0)
if J is a ring, (0,a)(0,b) is in J
very poorly written
Wrongly written
the response is also 
when I stop being 
wdym the response is 
I look at this one and think terra
lol
"implicitly assumes"
I got points off on a midterm for not taking the most straightforward approach
which yes cost me time but it was correct >_>

hopefully next sem's algebra class goes better for me
what's the next sem on
who
ah
yeah he seems pretty cool
class seems really small only like 10 people
his notes on quasicats are really good
also 50% HW 
isnt this intro algebra?
this is the grad version
interesting
undergrad is much larger
only 10 people 
are there a lot of "algebraic" grad students at uiuc
I've met CS grad students through my courses
I might get in 
nice nice
my only interaction with math grad students are they grade my HW
the CS classes seem much better about student TA interaction
but I've never met any of my math TAs
that's weird
yea
which sucks cause I'd like to talk to some math students about what I want to do for grad school 🤡
talk o your profs
yea
grad students probably dont know a lot about admissions
not admissions
just like
what to do
my algos TA has been a godsend in being able to try to figure out what I want to do
skool depends on what field I want to do lol
oh youre trying to figure out what kind of math
I'm debating between theoretical CS and Math
kind of math I'm kind of set on something algebraic
which is hella broad
noice
but I do not know enough to say anything more
did you do analysis yet?
no
that's a next fall problem
from what I've self studied I greatly dislike it lol
it's very convoluted to me
you should probably do an analysis class before you decide lol
yeah
I could see my self doing CS stuff tho considering my research is algos rn
I had the opposite opinion right after I did some algebra and analysis
algebra seemed to have no substance
to be fair I am comparing taking a nice algebra course with self studying analysis
and then I read about the weil conjectures 
what are the A_k's here?
alternating k-linear functions i forgot
just a quick sanity check
if I want to determine whether a group is abelian or not
if I have even just one example where x * y =/= y * x
it's not abelian right?
yes
possibly
smh why did my prof take points off for that
he really takes off points for the dumbest shit
what happened
4b
So I said my field is Z_3
showed everything has order 3 for the matricies
by BSing a diagonalization argument 🤡
but I found 2 specific matricies
that don't commute
but this was the answer key
so he showed it more generally, fine whatever
but like
_>
I hate this class sometimes
like
idk man
That's a very straightforward verification using the composition formula already provided in the image.
Start with stating what "G is abelian" means in terms of the T_a,b.
a hopefully not too obvious hint is that addition is commutative.
<insert video clip of Tom Lehrer triumphantly declaring: "... because addition is commuative!">
would a working proof be something like: let a be the inverse of b, this implies that $ba = ab = e$, which implies that $a^{-1}e = a^{-1} \ne b$
ChubbyMuffins
therefore, there exists a group such that $a^{-1}ba \ne b$
ChubbyMuffins
idk 🤣
why should a^{-1} not be equal to b?
i think they want you to give a specific example of a group here
how would I construct the group?
Just get an inverse and an identity?
I don't get it 😂
what if ba is e
the identity element is ba, and the inverse of a is a^{-1}
so would that work?
I mean according to the associative property, $a^{-1}ba \implies (a^{-1}a)b \implies eb \implies b$
ChubbyMuffins
I don't get how I'm supposed to construct a group that contradicts this
are these \implies supposed to be ='s?
is it because not all groups are abelian?
probably
I don't know much groups that aren't abelian except this one 😂
GL(n, R)?
invertible n by n matrices
unfortunate
😂
S_3 is the smallest non abelian group !
S_3?
ahh I see
It's the smallest with respect to cardinality (6 here)
I assumed ab = ba which isn't always true, so what do I change
Well this doesn't work, since, if a is a inverse of b then a=b^-1 so a^-1=b
a^-1 b a = b is equivalent to ba=ab so you just need to find two elements which doesn't commute
Whats the context of this question ?
I gotta give an example of a group with elements a and b with the property a^(-1)ba is not equal to b
so I have to find a group that isn't abelian
and prove that it satisfies this property
Ok, then I might have given you one above 
but like how do I use it to prove the property?
do I just put in the group and because it's non-abelian it satisfies the property and no further proof is needed?
You can pick two elements a and b in this group
Compute ab and ba
And if you choose them well you will have ab≠ba
I don't have to manipulate the elements or anything like that?
Yes you need to
Because, even if the group is not abelian, you still can have ab=ba for some a and b
You just know that there exists a and b such that ab≠ba
Look at the neutral element e
Then for every x in the group, you have xe=ex=x
yeah
I have to go, I hope you will understand !
Hey, can anybody help me with this?
I want to find the largest number $c$ such that $\mathbb{R}^{3 \times 3}$ (the vector space of all $3 \times 3$ matrices with real entries) has subspaces $S_1, S_2, S_3$ with $S_1 \cap S_2 \cap S_3 = {0}$ and $dim(S_1) = dim(S_2) = dim(S_3) = c$.
How do I prove that (to maximise $c$) $S_1 \cap S_2 = {0}$ $S_2 \cap S_3 = {0}$?
miku
here is some more info https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4330525/1003675
I'm not really sure how to find the largest possible $c$ then
miku
My idea was to show that $S_1 + S_2 + S_3$ is a subspace of $\mathbb{R}^{3 \times 3}$ and thus has a dimension of at most $dim(3\times 3) = 9$
and then show $dim(S_1 + S_2 + S_3) = dim(S_1) + dim(S_2) + dim(S_3) = 3c$, which implies $c$ is at most $9$
However (my proof for) $dim(S_1 + S_2 + S_3) = dim(S_1) + dim(S_2) + dim(S_3)$ relies on that statement being true
miku
so this guy says that its a well known result
that F(M) is isomorphic to M (x) F(A)
but why is that true
ok a more specific question
what does the author mean here by
"F is entirely determined by F(A)"
and how does it follow from the exact sequence?
here's an idea: so since $\mathbb{R}^{3\times3}$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^9$, we may choose an orthogonal basis $e_1,\ \dots,\ e_9$ with respect to the standard inner product on $\mathbb{R}^9$. then, for any $c\leq 4$, we have that $9-(c+1)\geq c$, so we may set $V_1=$span$(e_1,\ \dots,\ e_c)$, $V_2=$span$(e_1,\ \dots,\ e_{c-1},\ e_{c+1})$, and $V_3=$span$(e_{c+2},\ \dots,\ e_{2c+1})$. since you can choose a basis of $V_3$ which is orthogonal to the bases of $V_1$ and $V_2$, their intersection is 0, and they clearly all have the same dimension. you can check that it fails for $c=5$, and so it fails for all values of $c\geq 5$
shortcut
something like this i think. i pinged the bot at first
is $\text{Gal}(\bar{\mathbb{F}}_p/\mathbb{F}_p)$ uncountable
wren
yeah it is nvm

my galois theory instructor lied
not about Z_p being uncountable but about which elements in it don't represent ordinary integers
what'd they say?
she disguised the inverse of the frobenius automorphism to look like something that "can't be a power of the frobenius automorphism"
it was only considering the extension of F_p to contain all extensions of degree 2ⁿ
so basically she was like "take a map such that the restriction to each F_(p^(2ⁿ)) is frobenius^(1+2+...+2^(n-1))"
but that's just frobenius^(2ⁿ-1)
and frobenius^(-1) has all of those same restrictions
well 1+2+...+2^(n-1) = -1 mod 2^n so I don't see the problem
in Z_2 you have that 1+2+2^2+... = 1/(1-2) = -1 still
I guess I had to be there I didn't follow which part was the lie lol
that the automorphism you get from the described restrictions is not a power of the frobenius map
are we talking about F_(2^n) or the algebraic closure of F_2?
-1 is not a positive integer so there's no way to get it by repeatedly applying the frobenius map a finite number of times
I'm talkimg about the union of degree 2ⁿ extensions of F_p
whoops that's what I meant not alg closure
also yeah it's not a positive integer but it's still the inverse of the frobenius map
when I say "power" I mean basically an element of <frob>
oh I see, your professor should have motivated it with something more interesting
so my instructor basically said frob^(-1) is not in <frob> 💔
like -1/3 or something which is more obvious you can't get
yes
I later figured that out by playing around
ok I gotcha lol
but -1 wasn't even a correct choice to pick was it?
like to find an automorphism that isn't in <frob> don't take frob^(-1) haha that's what I mean
because the integers are generated by the cyclic group <frob>
yes
that's why I said -1/3 would be a good example
besides non integers are way cooler to think about anyways 🥱
cause -1/3 = 1/(1-4) = 1+4+4^2+4^3+...
yeah
-1/3 is actually the first example I thought of hahaha
or even $\sum_{n\ge 0} n!$ why not
Merosity
point is there is more to Z_2 than just rationals without 2 in the denominator
I guess as far as automorphisms are concerned, you can just randomly pick a sequence of 0s and 1s and put those on powers of 2 to get an arbitrary automorphism
so don't need to worry too much about it too much past that I suppose
yup
thanks everyone for helping me
I did well in my exams
@hidden haven you know what, the thing we discussed about free groups and not being injection but subjection was asked in the exam



what was the problem?
it was something of a T/F question
there is a surjective homomorphism from a ring to a ring which is not injective
interesting question for an exam lol
Nice 
yeah those discussions helped me a lot
I wasn't able to answer this one, let K be the cantor set, then there is an injective homomorphism from C([0,1], R) to C(K, R)
T/F
There is a continuous surjection from K to [0,1] right
I hope I am not recalling this wrong
but that gives the injective homomorphism almost immediately if you know about hom functors
i don't know, is there?

these are category theory terminology?
continuous subjection from [0,1] to K?
Nah I am just saying if you are used to cats then there's motivation for this
Let p be a surjection
Ye
Then an injective map as defined by
f ↦ fp
Precomposition by p
But if you don't have this fact then idk
ok then it's obvious
but is there a nice description of the surjective map p?
or is it like some ugly shit
like binary expansion?
to real number??
Moldilocks ✓
I was close
Moldilocks ✓
I thought first changing 2 to 1 in the expansion then converting the binary to decimal
oh it's the same one
now it looks like I could have answered that one as well
please send more of them lol. they're fun to think about
What exam is it?
Hey all! Here' s Wikipedia's definition of the ideal class group. I've seen this definition elsewhere but with an equivalence relation on regular ideals of R, not fractional ones. See https://math.stackexchange.com/a/296094 for example. Are these definitions equivalent, or is Wikipedia's definition wrong here?
Hi, guys, is there anything will go wrong if I have a set of left coset of N, {g_1 N, ..., g_n N}, but N is not a subset of {g_1, ..., g_n}
if H is a normal subgroup of G and g in G has order m, are the only possibilities for |Hg| in G/H 1 and m?
Z/3Z, 1 has order infinity in Z, the order for 1+3Z will be 3?
i meant if g has finite order m
maybe it is not true, because g^m = e, but perhaps g^k\in H, where 1<k<m
G = Z/4Z, H = <2>, g = 1 should work
for example, G={1, w, w^2, w^3}, then H={1, w^2} is a normal subgroup, but w has order 4 in G, but wHwH=w^2H
lol same example
lol
I don't get it, what are you trying to do with this set?
I actually want to show that if N is normal in G and G_1 is a maximal normal subgroup of G containing N, then G_1/N is maximal normal subgroup of G/N
This should follow from the correspondence theorem
normal subgroups of G containing N are in an order preserving bijection with normal subgroups of G/N
So i write it as this, but then i realise that is N is not a subset of K, then i cannot see any contradiction
Sorry question 15b I'm a bit confused
So i should define K as the group of equivalent class of g_i?
as the union of equivalence classes
It is not a group as defined because you have a lot of freedom in choosing the g_i's
but I think you mean take all possible g_i's
but as written, it is wrong
sry, i see, i mean set....
yeah, I think i know it, thanks!
Hey, I am studying automorphism groups, and I am struggling to come up with a way to compute them for integer rings like $\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt[4]{3}]$. Any tips?
pastalover69
You need to check what 3^(1/4) can map to, automorphism will have to be an identity on Z
I don't need to consider the other roots (1/2, 3/4)?
tifr
after j wake up
So I've shown that no matter what the kernel of $\phi: K[x] \to K[x] / \langle q(x) \rangle \oplus K[x] / \langle d(x) \rangle$ is $\langle p(x) \rangle$. So this reduces down to showing $\phi$ is surjective if and only if $\gcd(q(x), d(x)) = 1$. I am struggling to show that if $\gcd(q(x), d(x)) \neq 1$ then the function is not surjective. Any tips?
Spamakin🎷
In particular I want to show there is no $f \in K[x]$ such that $\phi(f) = (1, 1)$
Spamakin🎷
At least that's my idea
I mean if some $f(x)$ existed like that then we would know that $q(x) \mid f(x) - 1$ and $d(x) \mid f(x) - 1$.
Spamakin🎷
but I'm not sure where to go from here
or is there a better way to do this whole problem?
No, because they are not part of your ring
given A = Z[sqrt(-5)] and a mapping pi: A x A -> (2, 1 + sqrt(-5)) given by pi(a,b) = 2a + (1 + sqrt (-5))b
how do i show that (2, 1 + sqrt (-5)) is isomorphic to ker pi ?
Isomorphic in which sense? Just as an additive group?
Okay, makes sense.
Sorry my algebraic number theory knowledge seems to be too rusty to be of help.
@hidden haven
what does this show, though? w^2H isn't equal to H, and so the order of wH isn't 2
consider G = Z12 x Z12. let H = <(2, 2)>.
how do i find the order of H + (5, 8) in G/H?
i know the order has to be divisible by the order of (5, 8) in G
but im not sure what to do
or rather, not divisible by
but has to divide that order
i know the order isn't 1, because (5, 8) is not in H
is there any way i can determine the actual order though?
am i just going to have to do computation until i reach H again
or is there a better way
In $R$ a commutative ring, when is $R_p$ a free $R$ module?
glittersparkles
If they weren't part of the ring, multiplication wouldn't be closed (3^1/4 squared is 3^1/2). But I see that they are determined by what 3^1/4 maps to
@barren sierra did you figure out your problem?
you're on the right track except (1,1) is not the point in the image you should care about. Rather, i think its || (1,0) and/or (0,1) ||
Yea I got it
But ye
Thanks @thorn delta
ohhhh 0 or 1 yea yea
Cause I want it to divide either or
@barren sierra Sorry for the ping, but just to offer an alternative perspective: if there exist elements $f,g$ such that $\phi(f) = (1,0)$ and $\phi(g) = (0,1)$, then given any elements $r,s \in K[x]$,
\begin{align*}
\phi(rf + sg) & = \phi(r)\phi(f) + \phi(s)\phi(g) \ &= (r + (q(x)), r + (d(x)))(1,0) + (s + (q(x)), s + (d(x)))(0,1) = (r + (q(x)), s + (d(x)))
\end{align*}
so the whole map has to be surjective.
kxrider
Damn that's nice
Ah, okay. 
let G be a group and H be a normal subgroup of G such that [G:H] = 20 and |H| = 7. consider an element x in G such that x^7 = e. how do i show that x is in H
my first thought is that every non-identity element of H has order 7
but that doesnt get me anywhere
hmm my initial idea doesn't work
i can't seem to understand what the last answer at the bottom is trying to say
how could ord(xH) = 1? im assuming xH means the left coset of H by x
but all left cosets have order 7
oh yeah of course lol...
e is always a solution to x^7 = e.
no, the can have order 1, 4, 5 or 20
by lagrange ^
and since those are the only possibilities, x = e
a coset of a subgroup can have a different order than the subgroup itself??
oh, by order, we mean the order of the coset as an element of the group G/H, i.e. the size of the subgroup <xH> of G/H
not the cardinality of the set xH
oh
so the whole idea is that since H is a normal subgroup, you can apply lagrange's theorem to the group G/H
npnp
for x in G such that x has finite order m, will every subgroup of G contain x raised to some power that divides m? if so, is there any intuition for why this is true?
This mf said id for the identity element of a group 🤣
let G be a group and let H be a subgroup of index 2. im supposed to show that for every a in G, a^2 is in H. but i dont understand how this can possibly be true... if we square every element in G, we have |G| elements, but |H| = |G|/2
so why isnt that false?
G/H has order 2
Either a is in H so it’s identity in G/H anyway
Or it’s not, then a^2 is identity in G/H so it’s in H
why is this true?
Because if it wasn’t then G/H has more than 2 things
It can’t be a
If it isn’t identity
Then it’s a third thing
More generally
If |G| = n
Then a^n = e
Always
Because it isn’t true that if we squares everything we have |G| things
oh
Think about like
Z under addition
Squaring is actually multiply by 2
Wel okay wait
That’s bad
Since that’s the same cardinality cuz infinite lol
Take Z/4Z
Under addition
Squaring = double
That’s not everything
im confused
Z/4Z is a group of sets
how is squaring doubling?
oh
do you mean squaring 4Z in Z/4Z? because that's still 4Z
0Z + 0Z = 0Z
1Z + 1Z = 2Z
2Z + 2Z = 0Z
3Z + 3Z = 2Z
so it doesn't cover everything
given A = Z[sqrt(-5)] and a mapping pi: A x A -> (2, 1 + sqrt(-5)) given by pi(a,b) = 2a + (1 + sqrt (-5))b
how do i show that (2, 1 + sqrt (-5)) is isomorphic to ker pi ?
as A-modules
2a+(1+sqrt(-5))b=0
a,b that satisfies this are in kernel of pi
you can expand out a and b as such,
a = x + ysqrt(-5) and similarly for b
then you can multiply and combine like terms, and it may become easier to see for which values of a and b that pi(a,b)=0
You first need to talk about why G/H is a group tho, to do that, no ?

You can probably do it manually without passing to a quotient
And I don’t wanna justify it even tho it’s as simple as looking at gH and Hg

Wait
Is G finite
If it is, we can do something simpler
(just considering the translation map)
It's not 😔
i did this and it rly didnt seem to get me any closer to reasoning about why ker pi is isomorphic to I
im now attempting to construct a mapping from ker pi to A whose image is I
3+4i goes to what tho?
4i?
yeah loo
under addition C is R^2 so this makes sense
funkier: R^2 ~= C and R are isomorphic as groups, assuming choice
lol I thought proof was that [G:H]=2 implies |G/H|=2 implies g^2 = e for g in G/H implies g^2= H in G/H implies g in H.
thas odd to think about
it is 
That works btw
I was just wondering if we could do a proof without talking about quotient group
in terms of cosets only?
idk if index has meaning unless G/H is a group
you seem to know logic
what is term for that
where definitions dont apply to the object, is it just not well defined?
it does make sense without G/H being a group
It's just the cardinality of the set of cosets
And yeah ig ?
Well, if the index of H is 2, indeed H is normal so G/H has a group structure, but yeah we ignore that
lol what if we think in terms of group actions on cosets lol
lol xd :p
G x G/H -> G/H
group action is simply transitive and G/H has order 2
actually the group action doesnt need to be free
neither transitive lol
well nvm it does need to be transitive
if we define it like (a,gH) mapsto (ag)H
nah lol
doesnt work you need to use fact that G/H has group structure
let H_1=Z/2ZxZ/2Z, H_2=Z/2ZxZ/2ZxZ/2Z, K_1=Z/2Z, K_2=(Z/2Z)^4
Lol that's a lot simpler
kind of dumb but it works i think 
Yeah this
Any nontrivial finite group G works, with H1 = G, H2 = G^4, K1 = G^2 and K2 = G^3
got it thanks
If A is an integrally closed domain, K its field of fractions, L a finite separable extension of K, and A’ the integral closure of A in L, why can we choose a basis of L over K consisting of elements in A’?
Pick any basis and multiply its elements by all the denominators ?
Yes
If R_p is free as an R-module then we have a basis E for R_p. now for any x1, ..., xn in E, r1 x1 + ... + rn xn = 0 implies the r_i all equal 0. But the x_i have the form a_i/s_i for s_i notin p so we can rewrite this sum as
$\frac{\sum r_i a_i \prod_{j \neq i} s_i}{\prod s_i} = 0$
so basically we can take $r_i = 0$ for $i \neq 1$ and $r_1 = 1$ and we see that all we need is some $t$ with $t a_1 = 0$. and since the $a_i$ can range across all the elements of $R$ (we only need to find some $r_1, \ldots, r_n$ not all 0 for our module not to be free) this means that if any element $R$ not in p is a zero divisor then $R_p$ cant be free
Kosher Nostra Chaya Moth
@lofty trout kind of long winded but basically the idea is that localizing introduces new relations between elements not contained in your prime ideal and being free necessitates having a generating set with no relations so unless you have some pretty specific criteria it wont work out
@maiden ocean excellent! Thank you for your help
no problem
Note that an example that DOES work is when R is local, because then p is all the non-units
so elements of R not in p will not be zero divisors
Yes, I sent this to my prof and that’s the case where it’s true
Which is good because if you localizing a local ring at its maximal ideal you recover the local ring
nice 
is there a 'globalization' of rings?
ring with a unique maximal ideal
but fields are
one maximal ideal makes it a local ring
why the word local though?
whats the intuition behind the naming
so like when you do algebraic geometry, you can think of the set of prime ideas as a geometric object, so points here are prime ideals, and if you wanna understand "functions" which are elements of the rings near this point, you look at the stalk
the collection of these germs is a local ring
you can think similar to usual real numbers. if you look at germ of a function at x, then you basically know this function in a neighborhood of x, so like if this function is infinitely differentiable, then you would know all it's derivatives at x and stuff.
so the collection of these germs forms a ring and it has a unique maximal ideal corresponding to the germs which evaluate to 0 at x
i don't know a lot more about this tho
A more intuitive example might be manifolds
do non-commutative local rings have geometry in them?
If you want to think about local real valued functions around a point p in a manifold (or maybe just R^n) you'd define germs, which are functions defined on open neighbourhoods of p, and you identify 2 germs if they agree of the intersection of their domains (so germs are equivalence classes of pairs (U, f: U → R)). These form an R-algebra under pointwise addition and multiplication. There is also a unique maximal ideal of all the germs which are 0 at p, so this is a local ring
The AG example det gave is just a more 😵💫 version of the same kinda thing 
germs 
whats the intuition for why there being an isomorphism between two groups means theyre "the same group" in a sense?
You can "translate" everything through the isomorphism
im having trouble seeing why, just because theres a bijection f such that f(ab) = f(a) * f(b) means theyre the same
The inverse is also a morphism of group in this case
think of it like two languages, and f is the translation tool like Adrien says...
you'll say the two language are same iff f respects structure of both languages, right? i.e x and f(x) as words should mean the same thing, grammar should be respected and other stuff
is there maybe an example you could show that seems intuitive?
you can consider all reals numbers under + and positive real numbers under *
what exactly do you mean by "structure"
so you can understand multiplicative things by taking logs and understanding additive things then take exponential again to finish
i'm using it kinda loosely, a set is just a nice collection of things, there isn't any "connections" between any two elements. it's rather arbitrary. but groups on the other hand have some extra "flavoring", you can take two elements and squish them together to get a whole new element
we want this "structure" which is an operation in this case to be reflected in the map
can you show an example with {e, x, x^2, ..., x^n-1} and Zn ?
Sure. Switch e with 0, x with 1,..., x^(n-1) with n-1 and your group behaves exactly the same way as Z_n
As has been suggested before, isomorphism between two groups means they're essentially the same things, modulo the way we "label" or "name" the elements-the underlying properties of the group and how the elements interact with each other is the exact same
i get that thats what an isomorphism is supposed to show
You could try to work out the isomorphism between Z/nZ and n-roots of unity
but i dont get how showing that e^(x+y) = e^x * e^y shows that the operation/elements are just being relabeled
Addition of x and y in (R,+) corresponds to multiplication of e^x and e^y in (R*,×), where I suppose R* denotes the set of positive reals
So there’s something more you can say here
A localization of R is faithfully flat iff it’s actually just R
This shows R_p can’t be free unless R is local and p is maximal
The group operation on the two elements in the first structure is translated to the group operation on the images of the two elements in the second structure
This is essentially what homomorphism is
If you can further ensure your map is bijective, you get an isomorphism
@barren swift You may find this very useful: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/242348/intuition-on-group-homomorphisms/242370
ok am satisfied with germ explanation
on isomorphisms tho
how many equivalence classes of groups are there
that are useful atleast
because there can be a lot, but idk if its useful to categorize this way
thats one thing ive wondered
what do you mean by equivalence classes?
how many useful relations are there on algebraic objects
isomorphism classes? classes with same size? or something else...
is there an equivalence class of groups under the relation that there needs to exist atleast one nonzero morphism between them
so i guess the something else
use definition of free group on X
i:X->F is the inclusion ?
what if its only onto? what if its an epimorphism? what does that say about the two groups?
i(X) generates can be interpreted in two different ways
brb going to aluffi
then the other interpretation is that any element in F can be written as a formal sum of i(X) elements
That still gives you some data, but if your map is known to be not one-one, then some information about the structure is "destroyed", since the only way you can compromise injectivity in homomorphisms is by having a non-trivial kernel, i.e., sending "extra" elements to the identity in the second group. All data about them is lost in the process.
I'm more or less rewording that MSE post actually :p
like what are examples of groups with |Hom(A,B)| = 2,3
i don't think this is transitive
Z/4Z --> Z/6Z --> Z/9Z
there is no non-zero map between Z/4Z and Z/9Z as they coprime
so the composition of the maps is the zeromap?
@paper flint so in {e, x, x^2, ..., x^n-1} i can say that the x corresponds to the 1 of Zn. but in the case where we had e^(x+y) = e^x * e^y, what corresponds to what?
yeah ok
x->e^x
cuz first iso theorem |im| = |G|/|ker|
o
tbh my attempt for the relation is sort unmotivated
so idk why it would be useful
but ive always felt that the bigger the hom-set the more related two objects are
related by what? i dont know? potentially isomorphic subgroups?
or ig substructures
I don't have any context but the only ring endomorphism of ℝ is identity
🙈
It's supposed to be very related to itself
so in the way that if i were to multiply x and x^2 im doing the same thing as adding 1 and 2, if i were to add x and y in R, im doing the same as if i were multiplying e^x and e^y?
aq
what does it mean then lol
i cant just accept that number of morphisms is meaningless
R is very related to itself id say
maybe the most related?
Yep!
ok are commutative ring with 1 and algebra same thing?
this makes soooo much more sense now. thanks a ton!
nah, algebra is a more general term... algebras can be even non-associative
No worries
even more general than rings?
yee
like consider a vector space V/k and a billinear bracket [-, -] : V x V --> V satisfying some different conditions than a ring... this is called a lie algebra
(specifically it's [a, a] = 0 and [a, [b, c]] + [b, [c, a]] + [c, [a, b]] = 0)
I interpreted your statement as |hom(A,B)| being big means A and B are more similar
yeh this is wrong tho
And A = B = ℝ in Ring is a counterexample
ur example

There is only the identity homomorphism from R to R
Same for Q
Q is simpler
R is more amazing
maybe size of hom is irrelevant
Q is awesome >.<
I am saying the fact about R is more amazing
oh right
Stop being so det det
🙈
🙈
sort of off topic
but what are coinvariants supposed to represent
measure of how transitive a group action is?
because i did presentation on group cohomology
and the takeaway was that people care about it because it tells you how much coinvariant functor fails to be exact
i have no intuition for what that means besides definitions
Just a quick question, let $\phi:\oplus_{n\in \mathbb{N}}\mathbb{Z}\to \mathbb{Z}$ a homomorphism, are there any other non-trivial homomorphism $\phi$ aside from the one determined by $(\eta_n 1_n){n\in \mathbb{N}}\mapsto \sum{n\in \mathbb{N}}\eta_n?$
blackiris
multiples of that homomorphism?
what morphisms are you looking at?
Well, I'm trying to
ring homomorphisms?
left side isn't a ring





