#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Ā· Page 644 of 407
what's the identity?
oh
lol
Look at what the boundary map is on $H_0(\mathbb{Q})\to H_0(\mathbb{R})$
blackiris
But this is not abstract algebra
one from singular simplicial complexes I guess?
Is that what you're asking?
One induced by the injection i:Q to R
so what is H_0(Q) supposed to be? , Q has subspace topology?
Yes, Q has subspace topology
I'm answering an exercise about proving that $H_1(R,Q)$ is a free-abelian group. Everything will be nice if I can just convince myself that the induced map from $H_0(Q)$ to $H_0(R)$ is essentially what I gave above.
blackiris
I'll try asking in the other channel
i think the map you gave is correct up to multiples between the sets as groups
because maps from Z to Z are uniquely determined by where 1 is sent to
Yeah, up to multiples
I see, I'll think about this more. Thanks!
š¤®
I may be dumb but we know all polynomials over $\mathbb{R}$ are reducible if they have degree greater than 2. But how do I factor $x^4 + 1$
Spamakinš·
assume its factorization is (ax^2 +bx +c) (dx^2 + ex +f). Solve for coefficients 
obviously a lot of coefficients you can guess right away
factor over C, combine (x-alpha)(x-alpha bar)
You factor it as (x^2+i)(x^2-i), then further factor it
you can also cheat if you want
write it like (x^2+1)^2 - 2x^2
use difference of squares
yeah i remember this x^4+1 gave me good lesson
Semidirect product?
Let me check.
is the quotient ring of a PID a PID itself?
Anybody have any idea how to solve this? Since we have to show that the Galois group is Z/6Z and the extension is Galois, it must be the case that g is reducible. Rational root theorem tells us it has no rational roots so linear polynomial divides it. Then I tried forcing x^2 + ax + b to divide it by requiring that the remainder when you divide g by that is 0, but very quickly the computations for that get out of hand. I can check using desmos or something graphing calculator like that sqrt(2) is a root, so x^2 - 2 must divide it. So I guess I have two questions. First, how would I know to check if sqrt(2) is a root? Just...guess things that we hope will help? Finally, once I know this, I have that g(x) = (x^2 - 2)(x^3 - 3x + 1). So then Gal group = Z2 times Z3 = Z6?
Indeed
dope
Why is true that if I have an infinite torison-free group G and a element a s.t the index G: <a> is finite, then G is cyclic
Determine the size of the smallest subgroup of Z177 containing 57 and 516. anyone know how to do this? im lost
if i have an ideal I in C[x1,...,xn]
and i consider the radical ideal \sqrt(I)
how can i show that \sqrt(I) ^m is a subset of I
for some m
@hidden haven
This follows by the ring being Noetherian
If sqrt(I) is finitely generated by x1,ā¦,xn
Then for each xi there is a number n so that xi^n is in I
So you can take a max and then get one N that works for all i
Consider an element in sqrt(I)
It looks like (a1x1 + ⦠+ anxn)
If you take a product of nN many of these (this is what a generic element in sqrt(I)^nN looks like)
Expand this into some humongous sum of products
each term will have at least one xi^N inside of it
Which is in I
So it becomes a sum of a bunch of shit in I, so itās in I
hmm wait so doesnt the fact that A is Noetherian just mean that sqrt(I) is generated by some finite set of polynomials? how do we know that its generated by the xi
Sorry Lmfaooo
xi arenāt the like
Variables
I was proving t for a general Noetherian ring
xi there are polynomials
I just forgot the specific case was one where xi are also the indeterminates
Sure
the a_i here are also polynomials right
Yeah
wait isnt an arbitrary element of sqrt(I)^nN going to look like
finite sums of this?
ahhh ok
so is it going to look something like
$$ \prod_{j = 1}^{nN} \left(\sum_{i=1}^n a_{ij}f_i\right)$$
pdk
@next obsidian
im a little confused as to why its necessary to take the product of nN many
and not just N
Because
Think about the term thatās just like
Okay letās say N = 2
You could have
f1f2
With some coefficients
You donāt have a high enough power of any fi
You have n things and need to guarantee that anyway to distribute k of them means one of them gets used N times
Distributing N of them wonāt guarantee this
You need nN - 1 I think is the lowest you can go
Or maybe (n-1)N or something
n(N-1)?
But whatever who cares, nN works
If I have G, and an abelian normal subgroup N, is G/N always abelian?
yea lol
So I have the following situation. G has order 3x5x19 and so the sylow 5 and 19 groups are unique. Let N be the sylow 19 group, and I have in my notes that triviall G/N is abelian, but Im not seeing it now that im revewing it
ahhh okay i understand this reasoning
tyty
so if N has order 19 then G/N has order 15. all groups of order 15 are cyclic and hence abelian
how can I determine whether (R-{0}, *) and (R+, *) x Z2 are isomorphic or not?
my first instinct is to check whether theyre each cyclic
neither is cyclic, so isomorphism is still possible
oh, i think they might not be isomorphic because no element exists in the latter group with order 2
the identity is (1, 0) and in order for an element a to have order 2, a^2 must equal (1, 0) and also not be the identity. the only possibility is (-1, 0) which is not in the group
but the former group has -1 of order 2
...is this logic correct? im not 100% sure
They are. Try to construct an isomorphism
Think about an operation that turns multiplication into addition
or the other way aroudn
does there exist an element of order 2 in the latter group?
(0, 1)^2 = (0, 0) which isnt the identity?
Oh, sorry, never mind. I misread the question
ok
(1,1) is an element of order 2
how do i prove ideal I of Z[x] that contains 1+x^3 and x^2 contains 1? i think that finding y in Z[x] st (1+x^3)y=1 or x^2y=1 or doing some algebra to show some combination of (1+x^3) and x^2 is 1 but idk how to do the algebra
if it contains x^2, it contains -x(x^2)=-x^3. so it also contains 1+x^3-x^3=1
lol true im idiot ty
does anyone know an approach to my problem?
im trying to think of an isomorphism but blanking
This is actually how we really multiply real numbers: numbers and signs are multiplied separately. ( ,1) models the negative sign.
maybe it's easier if you think of Z2 as the group {1,-1} with multiplication as the operation
so i could map -x to (x, 1) and positive x to (x, 0) ?
yes
what would get mapped to 0
?
R+ doesn't have 0
how could i determine if (Z, +) and (Z, @) where a @ b = a + b - 1 are isomorphic? my intuition says they aren't but i dont know how to prove it
as far as i can tell, every element has infinite order in both so that doesnt get me anywhere
Isomoprhisms take Id to Id while maintaining addition and @, think about what happens to 1 for example
0 to 0? do you mean the identity to the identity? so 0 to 1 in this case?
Yeah my bad
what do you mean by think about what happens to 1
Actually give me a second I think I though wrong about this lol
ok
Think about what happens when you shift by 1
not sure what you mean
Phi(x)=x+1
hm
interesting
that does seem to be a homomorphism
now i need to determine if its bijective
hm
It's easier if you can just conclude there is an inverse
yep
ah
so they are isomorphic
still, i wonder if i can determine bijectivity more... manually
oh
im thinking about this wrong
alright
thanks for the help :)
Yw
ive been trying for the longest time on this problem, and i cant seem to get anywhere.
let G = Z2 x Z2 x Z2... (one copy of Z2 for every positive integer)
is there an isomorphism between G and G x G?
truly do not know how to approach this
You can enumerate the copies of Z2 in GxG the same way you can enumerate them in G
the isomorphism essentially looks like the identity map
anyone have an idea?
think about the bijection of the natural numbers N with N x N
an element of GxG is a pair of sequences ({xn}, {yn}). How can you take two sequences and combine them into one sequence (in a way which doesn't destroy "information")? That will be your isomorphism
i cant even see a bijection here
(someone else is going to have to explain im too busy rn
)
if an isomorphism means two groups are exactly the same, what does there being a monomorphism mean? ...that more than one element in G is "the same" as H?
It means that one group embeds isomorphically as a subgroup
You get this from the first isomorphism theorem
Pain
Tagged the wrong message, but this is the idea behind showing a bijection between N and NĆN
If itās not clear you map 0 to the top left
1 to the thing that arrow points to
2 to the thing that points to
ā¦
This is a countable enumeration of every element in N x N
Do it all the way to \omega 
Anyone know how one could show whether or not an infinite group can have a trivial automorphism group ?
Of course you can take it to be abelian but I asked my algebra teacher and he wasnāt sure
All I was able to conjure is that it can if it is simple but I donāt think there is any simple infinite abelian group
And if itās finitely generated classification of finitely generated abelian groups gives us an answer
If someone has an idea pls lemme know
What about (Z/2Z)^N
I am not sure if for infinite products that the automorphism group of the product is the product of the automorphism groups
But the automorphism group of Z/2Z is trivial, so if it does then this gives you an example
https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/032P
I donāt see why the ideal $\mathfrak{q} = yS$ in this proof
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
Kanga Gang Boss Chmonkey
Indeed if you have f in S so that f^q in xR we can write
f^q = y^qr for some r in R
But unless r is a q-th power, I donāt see how we write f as some multiple of y????
Unless you can show that yS is radical or something, Iām not sure how this completes anything
Oh I think you can just show that itās radical
Fuck my life
f^n = ys
Raise it by q
f^nq = xs^q, note that s^q is in R
So f = xr
Now you see f = y^qr in yS
Yeah Iām tying with $\prod_{i\in \mathbb{R}}\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$
šittle āarwhal ā
But struggling a bit
I mean I was just doing a countable product
Trying*
I know Aut(G x H) = Aut(G) x Aut(H)
Oh right countable isnāt finitely generated
So if you can extend this to the countable case youāre done
In my head it was
Lol
Yeah itās what Iām trying
But I was trying uncountable countable is probs easier
Try a countable direct sum instead maybe
Does a countable product satisfy the same universal property?
Mm fair
I think you have a better chance to have the automorpjism group become the product
am I being dumb or are all of your examples Z/2 vector spaces
Yeah they are
so they have automorphisms
What
Uhhh
Hmm
Wtf
Swap the basis vectors
Is what heās saying
But isnāt Aut(G x H) the same as product of automorphism groups?
Lol
Iām not used to working with infinite bases thatāll work?
Maybe this is only true when theyāre coprime
Ohhhhh right
Thatās the issue I think
Lmfao
I dont think there's an infinite example
Oh yeah lol
Okay I have no fucking idea
You got me confused
it must be a Z/2 vector space
Well what about the general question
otherwise inversion will be a nontrivial auto
Is there an infinite group with no automorpjisms
That does it
What?
It canāt be nonabelian
Yeah
im saying there isnt
Because conjugation
And the abelian ones are F_2 vector spaces
Wait what
Because g^2=e
if abelian, then inversion is an auto
The duck?
Since inversion is an automorphism
it needs to be trivial
What the hell are you saying
so Z/2 vect
Why is g^2 = e
we need g = g^-1
Because inversion is an automorphism that must be trivial
yeah there are no examples
Insanity
Thanks a lot @sturdy marsh
Doesnāt this like
Wait why does this need infinite lol
Like donāt you just need to not be Z/2Z
they asked for an infinite example
Okay
If itās finitely generated you get nontrivial automorphisms

Except for Z/2Z
I mean Iām point out
This shit proves it
For literally any group
That isnāt trivial or Z/2Z
yes
Yeah
But I guess my point was
what
This just handles everything
yes
Right
Oh fair enough
Okay
Of course yeah
I am confusion
It is simpler I think than doing classification as well
Lol
No worries Brofib
I am do grad appa
Yeah it definitely is
Itās just the first time I had classification in mind I hadnāt realized g^2=e
Yeah
hm maybe a dumb question but I was discussing a problem from my school's most recent algebra qual and someone proposed an iso between Z[x]/(f(x)) and Z[a], where f(x) is an irreducible polynomial having a as a root. but this seems a bit fishy because I know the usual iso when adjoining roots depends on division with remainder. If f is not monic, perhaps it's possible to find another integer polynomial g with a as a root but which is not divisible by f in Z[x]. yet I can't find any examples.
is there maybe some quick Gauss's lemma argument that explains why I'm an idiot and there are no examples?
Since f is irreducible, any polynomial ā 0 in Z[X] with $a$ as a root will be a multiple of f.
You can look at the kernel of the evaluation to $a$:
$\mathbb{Q}[X]\rightarrow\mathbb{C},\ U\mapsto U(a)$, the kernel is generated by a monic irreducible polynomial $P\in \mathbb{Q}[X]$, and here $a$ is a root of monic polynomial in $\mathbb{Z}$ so $P$ will be in $\mathbb{Z}[X]$
Now, any monic $Q\in\mathbb{Z}[X]$ such that $Q(a)=0$ will be a multiple of $P$ in $\mathbb{Q}[X]$, and by working a little more you can show that $Q$ will also be a multiple of $P$ in $\mathbb{Z}[X]$
Adrien
I've read that since the space $H([0,1]^3)$ can be viewed as a tensor product of $H([0, 1])$ like $H([0,1]^3)=H([0, 1])\otimes H([0, 1])\otimes H([0, 1])$, the Laplace operator is the kronecker product of lower dimensional Laplace operators. https://scicomp.stackexchange.com/questions/35165/kronecker-product-representation-of-the-finite-difference-laplacian
The laplacian equation when discretized gives a system of linear equations that can then be solved. See the answer to this question: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3120948/discretization-...
Casper
Does anyone have a source where I can read more about this?
cycle length and cycle order are not always the same, no?
wait i think my brain is melting a little... wtf even is the length of a cycle? artin doesn't even define it
oh yeah you're right lol
What is the cardinality of the dual basis to the space R^N of infinite sequences of real numbers? I know it must be greater than uncountable, because the space of infinite sequences has uncountable basis, so the dual basis must be larger, but I was wondering if anyone knew if it had some well-known cardinality that has applications elsewhere.
by "cardinality of the dual basis," do you just mean dimension of the dual?
because "dual basis" sometimes refers to a particular basis, which is ofc not a basis in the infinite dimensional scenario
yes, sorry
the "dual basis" probably refers to the set that takes the basis of R^N to (1,0,0....) which will have same uncountable cardinality and will not span (R^N)*
also probably i was imprecise when i said "greater than uncountable", when really i meant "greater than cardinality of the reals"
i'm guessing that the answer to my question is |2^R| or beth-two or whatever you want to call it
cardinality of power set of reals
but i'm not sure how to prove it (not really looking for formal proof, just intuition)
hey quick question: If N <= M <= G where M is maximal and f:G->G/N is the natural projection then is f(M) maximal in G/N?
and then more generally: if f:G->H is a surjective homomorphism s.t ker(f) <= M where M <= G is maximal then is f(M) maximal in H
cant find either result anywhere
So, lets call the space of real valued sequences $\bR^\infty$. Assuming the dimension of this space is $\mathfrak c$, we can write $\bR^\infty \simeq \bR^{\oplus \mathfrak c}$. Then you can write the dual as
$$ (\bR^\infty)^* \simeq (\bR^{\oplus \mathfrak c})^* = Hom(\bR^{\oplus \mathfrak c}, \bR) \simeq \prod_{\mathfrak c} Hom(\bR, \bR) \simeq \bR^{\Pi\mathfrak c}.$$
From here, $$ \prod_{x \in \bR} \bR_x = \prod_{x \in \bZ} \left(\prod_{y \in \bZ} \bR_y\right) = \prod_{x \in \bZ} \bR^\infty.$$
I think in general, $|dim(\prod )| = \prod |dim|$, so it would follow that
$$|dim((\bR^\infty)^*)| = |dim(\prod_{x \in \bZ} \bR_x^\infty)| = \prod_{x \in \bZ} |dim(\bR^\infty)| = {\mathfrak c}^{\aleph_0}$$
idk hopefully there is some truth to what i wrote
kxrider
not sure if there are any applications of this
npnp
just boosting this since i kind of covered it up
actually this is immediate if correspondence theorem respects maximality
which it does it respects inclusions ok cool
if anyone knows anything about the general situation let me know!
Lets say $\varphi : G \to G'$ is surjective and $M \leq G$ is maximal. Suppose $\varphi (M) \leq N \leq G'$. Then $M \leq \varphi^{-1}(\varphi(M)) \leq \varphi^{-1}(N)$, so by maximality of $M$, $M = \varphi^{-1}(N)$. Since $\varphi$ is surjective, $\varphi(M) = N$.
kxrider
Could you give an example of a ring homomorphism, which doesn't send identity to identity?
f: Z -->Z, f(n) = 0
Ah yes! That just struck me lol
there are def less dumb ones tho
Why do some authors have this assumption? It is only restricting the choices of homomorphisms for us. Why would we do that?
in order to preserve the multiplicative monoid structure of rings with identity
groups do preserve the identity automatically but monoids don't
Hausdorff
are you trying to apply cancellation here or something?
no that's just how identity is defined right
x=xy doesn't mean y=1
Hausdorff
ah okay, ye
Hausdorff
This just by convention isnāt a ring map because 1 doesnāt go to 1 lol
^ the author decides not to put that condition
I guess the thing here is that
When you distinguish 1 as important
{0,3} isnāt a subring of Z/6Z
Because the 1 in the subring has to be the same as the 1 in the super ring
ahh okay, cool
I think so
I mean if ring maps donāt have to take 1 to 1
Then you certainly have much less of an emphasis on 1
In commutative algebra you basically need this assumption
So itās just implicit for me
oohh cool
I have no idea how rng theory works
Or what breaks when you donāt have a 1 lmfao
Anyone that can keep straight in their head what exactly needs a 1 and what doesnāt is gigachad
Their brain is much bigger than mine lol
It's minor but the image of the identity of a rng hom is an idempotent, so when you're working with integral domains (or rings with no nontrivial idempotent), the theories coincide. (Well, there is the zero morphism..)
there must be something wrong with my solution there, because c^aleph0 = c and this would imply R^\infty is isomorphic to its dual hmm
yea the problem is definitely on the second centered equation there
because that product in the second (incorrect) equality only gives Z x Z many copies of R, not prod_1^infty |Z| many copies
i tried 
you could ask the same question, why assume that a homomorphism preserves multiplication or addition? it restricts the amount of functions for us. The reason is simply that we see interesting properties that pop up when we add this restriction that aren't there for general functions
careful, it is true that x=xy for all y means y is the identity, but the ring homomorphism might not be surjective, so not every element s in S may be expressed as phi(r)
phi(1_R)phi(r)=phi(r), but there might be some s not in the image of phi such that phi(1_R)phi(s) =/= phi(s)
therefore without explicitly making it an axiom, its not true in general that a homomorphism will send the identity to the identity
keep reading, they settled this already and came up with an example even
i saw that they had a counterexample to the statement, but I didn't see whether or not they realized why their proof didn't work
there was already a counterexample (the trivial one mapping everything to 0) before they gave their proof, so i didn't know if they were still confused
I have a quick question about a symbol, not exactly sure where to ask it, it's about quandles
The top part says definition, the top blue underlined word is automorphism group, the bottom left one is homogeneous, and the right word is transitive
Can someone tell me what the half circle arrow means?
Aut(Q,s) "acts on" Q
ahhh thats right, thank you so much! for the life of me I could not find it lol
Got my algebra exam in an hour or two
And everything I read on ring theory is just leaving me
Yes, I'm aware of how this works when f is monic. My point is that there are irreducibles in Z[x] that aren't monic
actually hold on a sec maybe i misread
@waxen hedge okay no I don't buy your argument. you're assuming a satisfies a monic integer polynomial. I'm not making any assumptions on a other than it being a root of some irreducible integer polynomial, not necessarily monic
Gallian's abstract algebra book doesn't assume rings have unity
Ideals are my favorite kind of ring
Yes and technically D&F doesnāt either but then they start assuming it because the theory is much improved with a 1
Keeping straight what does and doesnāt need a 1 is something I gave up on long, long ago
yeah i wasn't advocating for it
We have recently talked about Kummer extensions
Let $F$ be a field containing a primitive $n$-th root of unity and let $a \in F$ be nonzero. Show that any irreducible factors of $x^n-a \in F[x]$ are given as $x^m-b$ , $m , | , n$ and $b^{n} = a^m$.
eM
Guess I can't put my code here lol I'll have to write it down here then
Ok then
We can characterize the irreducibles of Z[X] as the union of irreducibles of Z (i.e. the primes numbers) and as polynomials of Z[X], irreducibles over Q[X], and such that coefficients of such a polynomial has no common divisor in Z; that's a standard result about irreducibles of A[X] with A an UFD
Now let f, g in Z[X], irreducibles in Z[X] and both having a as an root, this implies that f and g are not prime numbers.
They are both irreducible over Q[X] and having a as a root, so there are both the minimal polynomial of a over Q[X], up to a unit of Q[X]
So we have f=rg with r a rational, rā 0
Since coefficients of f (or g) don't have any common divisor, r has to be 1 or -1
This is related https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gauss's_lemma_(polynomials)
Oh okay thanks. Now I'm convinced.
Great !
Suppose $x^n-a$ is reducible over $F[x]$ and let $g(x) \in F[x]$ denote its irreducible factor; then we may write $g$ as
$$g(x) = (x-\sqrt[n]{a})(x-\omega^{k_2}\sqrt[n]{a})\cdots (x-\omega^{k_m}\sqrt[n]{a}) =x^m - \cdots + (-1)^m \omega^l \sqrt[n]{a}^m \in F[x]$$
where $l = k_2+\cdots + k_m$. Since $F$ contains a primitive $n$-th root of unity, observe that $\sqrt[n]{a}^m \in F$, i.e., $\sqrt[n]{a}^m = b$ for some $b \in F$, for which we can rewrite as $a= b^{n/m}$. I understand where the $b$ comes from now. Now, I want to make sure $m , | , n$ and that the middle coefficients are all zero--as an example, from the theory of elementary symmetric polynomials, the first term after the leading coefficient is
$$(-1)^m\sqrt[n]{\theta}\sum_{i=2}^m \omega^{k_i},$$
but I'm not exactly sure what to deduce here. Hmm.
eM
Should be a, not theta. Since g is irreducible over F, my guess would be the nth root of a cannot be in the base field $F$, so that the only way for this term to be in F is if its zero, i.e., the sum of those powers of primitive nth roots of unity are zero.
oooohhhhhh
I think I got it now
Ahat do they mean by group of p-th roots of unity here
do they mean Q(Z_p)?
or do they mean adjoing each root of unity
is there a simple algorithmic way of generating all elements of Sn in their r-cycle forms?
for example for S4
i could think of each permutation of 1234 and then figure out what it looks like as an r-cycle composition
but is there a better way?
yep, got it!
thanks
is there a field extension E/Q where gal(E/Q) is a lie group?
wait lol
context is missing ig
Finite groups are all Lie groups
So you can find a lot, but this isnāt really well-posed
yeah i messed up my bad
also is that true?
i thought you need to give the group the topology to be a manifold
But this is why I said it isnāt really well-posed
Usually these groups donāt really have a topology
rip
If theyāre finite itās the discrete and if it isnāt then itās some fucked up inverse limit but
I donāt think youāre really getting anything good here
yeah i didnt pose question correctly
also is there a way to think of galois groups in a context of regular covers?
the phrasing might be weird
but i know for topologies E->X is regular if Aut(pi) acts on p-1(x) freely
so it preserves fibers and it only stays fixed if you are considering the identity
wait lol
we cant think of a projection map from E->F since field homs are injective
lol nvm its going to seem like rambling
but im wondering if there is a covering space perspective we could take
There is lol
This is like the idea of a Galois connection and Grothendieckās Galois theory
oh man
ok
so its just something i need to look into deeper
will do it later unimprtant rn
Krull topology on the finite Galois groups should be discrete
So putting the discrete topology on it wouldn't be an arbitrary choice
Ye my understanding is that Aut denotes the aut group and Gal denotes the topological group when you put the Krull topology on it. At least this seemed to be the implicit convention from where I studied
@hidden haven I said that here yeah
So like in the finite case I mean the discrete topology is just always the canonical topology if you had to put one on
oh right
But I just mean in general likeā¦
Idk the question just doesnāt seem like the right question
I guess
I want to say the Galois group naturally exists as a group w/o a topology but this isnāt really true
It just doesnāt seem like the right sort of thing to be asking I guess
How do you extend Z_3 into Z_9?
My understanding is because Z_3 is a normal group (and the quotient group is isomorphic to it too) there should be some way of extending Z_3 by Z_3 into a group isomorphic to Z_9
But obviously it can't be the semidirect extension since the only possible homomorphism into the automorphism group is the trivial one
and everyone knows the direct product isn't isomorphic
what's the problem with Z3 x Z3?
It isn't isomorphic to Z_9.
then some kind of field extension ig
My question is how you extend Z_3 by itself into an isomorphic group to Z_9
oof okay so I still got a lot of reading to do
I've only read up to chapter 6 in Dummit & Foote, so apologies if the question is dumb lol
there are only 1 groups iso to Z9, so 
Those edits lmao
Is the Extension Problem still more or less an open question?
are integral domains and fields identical on finite sets?
yes
but not nessesarily for infinite because Z is an integral domain but not a field right?
true
this basically follows from the fact that an injection from a finite set into itself is a bijection
so it doesn't have any nice generalization to infinite domains
where does the injection come from?
so, pick an element x in your integral domain A. we want to find an inverse for it, so define f : A --> A by
f(y) = xy. f is injective
I dont see how that falls apart for infinite sets
map integers into even integers
well from here, since A is finite, f is also surjective
so in particular there is z such that f(z) = 1, and z is the inverse of x
yea and mero has a good counterexample for why injectivity does not imply surjectivity for maps from an infinite set into itself
npnp
what would be the group generated by <e> ? (e the identity), I am afraid to say is G = {e}
<e> = {e}
Quick question
When does the semi direct permute over Cartesian products of groups? (e.g. (G x H) < K is in the same isomorphism class as (G < H) x K).
I want to say something about (Z2 x Z2 x Z3) < Z3 and (Z2 x Z2) < (Z3 x Z3)
I just have a notation question
$M_n(R)$ is an n by n matrix over the real numbers?
CaesiumIsFake
the set of n x n matrices with entries in R. whatever R is.
Thanks. my prof means real numbers by that. He does that a lot with Z and R.
and $GL_n(R)$ is the general linear matrix on reals then? As in not needed to be n by n? and $SL_n(R)$ is the special linear group where the determinant is 1 right?
CaesiumIsFake
GL_n(R) is the set of invertible n x n matrices with entries in R
Ah that makes sense
SL_n(R) those elements of GL_n(R) with det 1, yes.
Alright, thanks again. This would be 30 minutes of googling, thanks this helps me a lot.
30 minutes is a bit of a stretch lol
true, but it feels like 30 minutes when you cant find the one definition you need for notation.
Hey guys, I want to show T is linear but I don't understand how
I would need to have $T(v_j + v_k) = T(v_j) + T(v_k)$ but I don't understand how to represent the image of $T(v_j + v_k)$
mns
I thought about $T(v_j+v_k) = \sum^m_{i=1}a_{ij}(w_i + w_c)$ but I am 100% sure this is wrong
mns
T is assumed to be linear
Well ok but if it is assumed, shouldn't I be able to confirm it?
Well you dont have formula for T, you know that on basis elements the image is lin combination of w_i's so by linearity, T(v1+v2)= sum (ai1+ai2)wi
hum I see
But if you haven't done this before, then you should check that this map is linear
The theorem is that given a basis B of V, any set map from B to a vector space W extends to a unique linear map from V to W
It's called the universal property of a free vector space, it's a big reason we care about bases
Been working on this the entire day
There has to be a better way than determining all groups of order 36 (15) and shifting through which one these groups canāt be (anything Z_4 or Z_9 are auto-eliminated)
Hhhmmmmmmm wait a second
All of those groups look like they have (at least?) three elements of order 3 and that no normal subgroups of order 9 are in any of them
Gonna need to look into this more, I think I found a more efficient working path
Anyone have any idea why X canāt have a submodule isomorphic to k?
X looks like a quotient of a free module, so if I write it as like F/K, then having a submodule isomorphic to k means that F has a submodule T such that T/K ā A/m
So thereās a submodule such that (K:T) = m, but idk how that contradicts anything
For showing M doesnāt have a submodule isomorphic to k this is easy, M is a submodule of Lā and Lā doesnāt have one since it has depth 2, and depth 0 <==> submodule isomorphic to k
cant you just say that X cong L'/M so if k is a submodule of X then M can be embedded in k? maybe this is allowed but i would assume not
@next obsidian
Hi, guys, does the ideal for algebra only makes sense if the algebra is associative algebra?
Hello. Is there an easy and intuitive approach showing that a finite p-group having a unique subgroup of order p is either cyclic or generalized quaternion?
is there an easy way to know which of the quadratic integer rings are UFD/PID/ED other than memorizing?
ideal in a general sense means "subobject closed under some action from the entire algebra", and this still makes sense in non-associative algebras
i dont have much experience on non-associative algebras except for lie algebras
and there as you can imagine its a subspace closed under [a,-] for all a in the algebra
thanks, but doesn't the definition of ideal I for an algebra A is: ax in I for all a in A and x in I? But for the ideal generated by b, Ab, i need a(xb)ļ¼(ax)b to let Ab to be an ideal?
well you want it to be closed under multiplication by A
so if these are not equal
you would want both a(xb) and (ax)b in your ideal
oh, i see, thanks
Hi, guys, how to define an ideal generated by infinitely many elements?
No, you get a submodule of Mā so that (M:Mā) = m
So like
X = Lā/M
Then if that has a submodule iso to k
It looks like Mā/M
But actually maybe this is fine
Since maybe I can do something like
Make a composition series involving M < Mā
Then Iāll have to check but
Mā/M has m as an associated prime
So maybe this implies Lā has m as an associated prime
I donāt think this is necessarily true?
I forget tho
Anyway I have to go back to sleep why am I awake rn
[thing] generated by a set of elements inside a structure is always(?) defined as smallest [thing] inside the structure that contains that set
This may not always exist, but in the case of ideals it does, intersection of any collection of ideals is an ideal
i see, thanks

To prove Fermats little theorem (n^p=n mod p), my idea is to take group Z_p*. Z_p has order p-1 hence n^p-1 = 0modp. Then n^{p-1} n=n mod p. Does this seem correct
Other than checking their gcd being 1?
cause that's the one that falls out of the definition fastest @ember field
I was gonna type another trick but then double checking it realized there's a huge mistake in the report I sent to my old research prof related to that
I did not realize until now
Hey
for each $r \in R$, consider $A_r = {(x,y) \in R \times R : y = 3x + r}$
mns
I need to show that ${A_r : r \in R}$ is a family of lateral classes of $R \times R$ relatively to $A_0$
what does the "relatively to A_0" means?
mns
oh wait
nvm
I already proved A_0 is a subgroup of R x R
like, ${A_r : r \in R}$ this is a family of cosets if their union is R x R
mns
considering the finite field Fāāµ, and multiplication modulo the irreducible polynomial xā“ + x³ + 1, what would be the multiplicative inverse of x³ + x + 1?
i know the formula to use is a(x) * b(x) + m(x) * c(x) = 1
with a(x) being x³ + x + 1 and m(x) being xⓠ+ x³ + 1
and i'm trying to use the answer here https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/124300/finding-inverse-of-polynomial-in-a-field to figure it out but its kinda difficult
is there an easier way?
what should be my first step?
use the extended euclidean algorithm
search that term up to try to find easier to understand examples, I'd walk you through it but I'm about to head out now
How would I find the rational form a matrix given the minimal polynomial?
I know I have to identify the invariant factors but I'm not certain of how they should be chosen
Sorry, is this not the appropriate channel?
it is the okay channel
maybe this helps
Quick question: If $G/N \oplus N \cong N$, must $G\cong N? $
blackiris
or G=N
No for equality
For isomorphism Iām unsure
Take a countable product of Z to be G
Let N be the same thing, except you omit the first coordinate
So itās like Z (+) Z (+) ⦠for G
And 0 (+) Z (+) Z (+) ⦠for N
Then G/N = Z
And when you direct sum with N you still have a countable product of Z
Then you have G/N (+) N ā N because both sides are a countable product of Z
But clearly N ā G because itās a proper subgroup
If I had to hazard a guess
Itās no for isomorphism as wel
But idk
Also: if G is finite
Then it is true that N = G in this situation just because of size stuff lol
sorry to interrupt but let's say we are talking about (finite) cyclic groups, so $C_n={i, \sigma, \sigma^2,..., \sigma^{n-1}}$. This makes me think that $i=\sigma^0$, is this true?
gmod
Yeah I mean this is true for any element ever
Either by convention
Or to make it true that g^nā¢g^m = g^n+m
So whether itās a result or a definition is kinda up to you
Also in general the identity is denoted e
Or 1
I would avoid using i
I have $G/(Z^2)\oplus Z^2 \cong Z^2$ in particular. $Z^2 = Z\oplus Z$
blackiris
Is G abelian?
Then yes Z = G
The reason is likeā¦
Invariant basis number
The point is, okay do you know what a module is?
Yes
Yeah, I know what a module is
Okay so you know how for vector spaces
Theyāre classified by cardinality of a basis
So like
V ā W
Iff their dimension is the same
The same is true for free modules over a commutative ring
An abelian group is a Z-module
So here you can see
G/Z^2 (+) Z^2 ā Z^2
so we have '2-dimensional' free-modules here
Yup
oh okay thanks for the tip
thanks gang boss
gang boss
I think I can go on from here.
I just want a quick reality check
But Iām a little tiny bit worried
In the non finitely generated
Point was if G is finitely generated, if it isnāt free then it ha torsion
This is a contradiction
So itās free
Then by that dimension shit it has to be 0
Butā¦
Actually I think youāre fine anyway⦠probably
I bet
You can show that like
The left hand side is
Free of rank 2 direct sum something
And itās iso to free of rank 2
I bet you can somehow show that like
This means the āsomethingā is 0
Ah yes!
Okay so G/Z^2 has to be finitely generated
Cuz if not then G/Z^2 (+) Z^2 isnt
But itās iso to Z^2 which is
So now the argument goes through
ah yeah,

G/Z^2 finitely generated, Z^2 finitely generated, then G finitely generated right?
Yeah
gang gang
is it not required to have every factor in the min poly be in each of the invariant factors?
Ok, maybe as a concrete example, if I had the min poly $(x-a)^3(x-b)^3(x-c)$ what would the invariant factors be
TylerUno
for a 7x7 matrix
wait is it just one companion matrix?
because the deg of the min poly is the same as the space?
yep, that's right.
Some proofs Iāve seen for showing a symmetric group cannot have a subgroup of a given order usually makes use of the index of the subgroup being the smallest prime divisor and getting wonky stuff with normality.
I decided to look at S_7 and tried to see what goes wrong if I donāt have the above tool and supposed a group of order, say 45, exists. My gut tells me such a subgroup shouldnāt exist (GAP confirmed that but I donāt want to rely on it). š¤ How would I argue this?
Hmmm. So it seems S_7 has no normal 3- or 5-Sylow subgroups and groups of order 45 are abelian.
i think you can just say that groups of order 45 have an element of order 15, but S_7 has no element of order 15
Yes
Anyone have any clue why C^(p)[1/f] = B_f??
What is that typesetting 
Hello. Is there an easy and intuitive approach showing that a finite p-group having a unique subgroup of order p is either cyclic or generalized quaternion?
Have you seen that a finite p group with every abelian subgroup being cyclic is either cyclic itself or generalized quaternion?
No.
I really donāt know an easy and intuitive approach to this
The only partial approach I know, which is certainly not easy and intuitive is to show that for an odd prime p a p group P that is not cyclic must have a normal subgroup isomorphic to Z_p x Z_p (by induction, not very easy to do)
But Iām not sure how to go about showing that if P is a 2-group with a single subgroup of order 2 then it is a generalized quaternion group
Oh actually I guess for the quaternion case you can show it must have a normal subgroup isomorphic to Z/4Z and one isomorphic to Z/2^nZ and then construct the semi direct product 
Itās called a book originally published in 1969
Well itās gross
Read another book
No
This has the info I need
Itās like the only book which does which isnāt EGA
Which is French
So even more gross
Then type up the book again properly tabs then read it
-_-
The book has been typed up again. Itās called āCommutative Ring Theoryā instead of āCommutative Algebraā
Itās just that the info I need didnāt make it into that newer version
Oof
Because I already read all of the latter, so the info I need is exactly Commutative Algebra \ Commutative Ring Theory 
Lmao
That's weird
.
It would be impossible for it to not be the case
Could someone explain me the intuition behind why Z/nZ represents the integers mod n?
they are isomorphic. Also you can think Z/nZ have the elements equivalence classes of 0 and 1. You can interpret them as 0,1 which are elements of Z_2
So they arenāt equal, only isomorphic?
Z/nZ and the set of integers mod n I mean
I like to think of it as, declaring all multiples of n as 0
This is same as caring only about remainders modulo n
Let $\alpha = 2^{1/3}$. Show that the set of elements ${1,\alpha,\alpha^2}$ is linearly independent over $\mathbb{Q}$. In other words, prove that if $a,b,c \in \mathbb{Q}$, then $$a+b\alpha+c\alpha^2=0 \rightarrow a=b=c=0$$
Espio
This problem is related to field extensions. I'm not exactly sure how to show this, even though it's intuitively obvious.
its like $\alpha$ being a root of $cx^2+bx+a$
Noob666
Now can you think of an approach?
I would have thought we cared about alpha being a root of $x^3-2=0$
Espio
did that help?
Yes, exactly
Hm. So if I show that polynomial is irreducible over Q, I'm done?
Noob666
What is your definition of Z/nZ?
{[a]| [a]={b|b is congruent to a mod n}}
[1]
Yes !
You can find a proof here
https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/00CT
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
I didn't find much success in the other channel, so I'm reposting my question here:
If $A$ is a fixed $n\times n$ matrix, and the function $f_A:V\rightarrow F$ is defined $f_A(X) = trace(A^tX)$. How do I show that $A\rightarrow f_A$ is an isomorphism from $V$ to $V^*$
TylerUno
The linearity of the map is straightforward but I'm not sure how to approach showing the bijection
I'm thinking I have to come up with $n^2$ matrices $X_i$ such that $f_{X_i}$ spans $V^*$
TylerUno
by V in this case do you mean square nxn matrices?
id intuitively say try evaluating linear forms on the elementary matrices that form a basis for V
that might get you somewhere not sure
yeah
That's also what I was thinking but it seems tedious
shouldnt be too tedious
just evaluate the dual basis for V^* (easy to evaluate) and then extend it to any linear form
maybe I'm misunderstanding. could you elaborate?
the dual is simply the basis s.t. $f_{i,j}(X_{i,j}) = \delta$ right?
TylerUno
Take some f in the dual, look at its actions on each E_ij where E_ij is the matrix that is 0 everywhere other than the i,j entry where it is 1
I think those are what narwhal is calling elementary matrices
This will allow you to define a map backwards
and then check that the 2 maps are inverses of each other
naw man I'm at my limit
Anyways my prof said that I shouldn't do ANT next semester because he could tell I was a bit lost during the second half of the semester and I also had a fairly low grade in the class (probably bottom 5)
Is this from some sort of quiz?
Given that you asked a similar question before and also deleted it later 
very sus
if d divide the order of G does their necessarily exist a subgroup of order d
no
try and find a counterexample
wait counterexample is trivial, any non-cyclic group
Yeah, the converse of Lagrange's theorem is invalid, but there are some nice partial converses
with Cauchy's theorem being a nice starting point
if G is cyclic then it's true?
It characterizes them
The Sylow theorems deal with many of the cases where it is true, but it's not in general
yes
many cases where it's true otherwise also
if G is cyclic of order n then given d|n we can consider g^(n/d) where g is a generator
now for G finite d divides its order
if the set of x such that x^d = 1 has size at most d, does the elements form a group
of order at must d
or does G need to be abelian for this to work
if it's abelian, it definitely works, if not it can fail
in the group of all invertible 2x2 matrices there are matrices with order 2 that multiply to give an matrix with infinite order
but G is finite
there's probs still something where it fails
hmm
yeah just consider Sn
wait no
the sub won't have size at most d
there may not be an element of order d. for example, S_4 doesn't have an element of order 15
yeah that was resolved
oh
i feel like D_2n will disprove this
take all the elements with order n
or something
wait yeah let's just take S_3 = D_6, there are three 3-cycles but they don't form a group
how many 3-cycles
wait fuck
2
i'm a fool
damn
ok fine, D_8: r, r^3, rs, r^3s are all that have order 4, but they're not a group
What about those with order dividing 4
D_8, 4 or 8 edges?
8 elements
So the Dihedral group with 8 vertices
the group of the 8 symmetries of a square
4 vertices
Sylow strong.
So it's true then
I am not familiar with this
not necessarily
for the set ${a \circ g : a, g \in G}$ I saw it written as $aG$ for a group $G$, can this also be written as $a \circ G$?
gmod
and is this kind of a distribution law?
one more thing, can someone explain to me what cayley's theorem states, with the proper intuition? im lost
the operation, i.e. ā is implied there, when working with one group, it can be imitted because it's not ambiguous
alright I thought so
is this considered some sort of "distribution property" @lethal dune
on an entire group?
I mean it ends up being equal to the group but still
no that's kinda definition
like extending the notion of aĆb to a whole set
alright makes sense
also would you be able to explain what cayley's theorem is saying?
ever finite group is iso to some subgroup of Sn?
like you were thinking of something else? I'm absolutely certain that this guys more than one theorem named after him
no it's because these videos im watching never explicitly stated it
bruh lol
and I checked wikipedia and it confused me
proof is obvious I suppose?
yeah just enumerate the elements of the group, then see multiplication sends what element to what
but the comments sometimes say that he shouldn't be teaching groups exclusively with set permutations
honestly sometimes doing the permutations seem time confusing
simple but time consuming
yeah
tagged wrong message
lol
yes you don't actually compute it, just state that it exists and use some properties of Sn. You'll only compute them one/twice, like when you are explicitly asked to
if E is a linear isomorphism of R^n that preserves orientation
how do i show this?
(the hint)
so R^n = V (+) W by assumption
maybe post the entire question and not the hint?
sure
this is the lemma that i want to prove
these are the first set of steps that i need to do to prove it
frankly im stuck on (a) too lol
any help would be rly appreciated
i konw that the lemma mentions homotopy, etc
but these first two steps (a) and (b)
should purely be linear algebra
im just very stupid
what is homotopy in this context?
also are you suck with why should we have such V?
i.e. there is an 1/2 dimensional invariant subspace of E
the continuous deformation of one map to another
ok
is that where you are stuck?
yeah why do we know that fact
