#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 641 of 407
You’d have to be insane and it would probably take > a year I imagine
There is some fucking ridiculous exercises in there
didn't Narwhal do a huge portion of the book with all the exercises
Idk, I think Narwhal did
But I think Poros did even more
They did like every group theory exercise IIRC
This is coming from a guy that did every Matsumura exercise and wants to do every Hartshorne one
Aiming to do every D&F exercise is just absolutely insane

No lol I got to PID’s and that chapter was too boring for me and I haven’t continued since
Group theory was so much better
No like
I meant that you’ve done a large portion of the exercises
At least on the parts you covered
I think if you’re focused doing all of it would take a year
Did all except like 3 on some classification results of finite groups
didnt poros do literally all of it besides last few chapters
But I’ve gone ridiculously hard on stuff for large periods of time
like his solns were 500+ pages
I don’t think like any normal human could possibly keep it up
You’d have to have something in your brain that’s wired backwards or something
wtf
Kinda wanting to finish it before June and prove you wrong 
I mean
But most definitely couldn’t lmao
Me neither lol
With Hartshorne and Matsumura like a lot of those results are useful
Those are alg geo though no?
With D&F like, the payoff quickly steepens off
Commutative algebra and AG
But like the point is there aren’t like 5
right
Those are fun okay
That’s more fun I agree
I love Sylow-bashing shit
But like, you aren’t gonna be an algebra GAWD
Cuz you did every D&F exercise
You’ll be super good at taking your algebra qual
Yeah they don’t teach you much I agree
But like after another 1 or 2 years a lot of that is kinda pointless
I don’t remember most of the results from the exercises lol
Whereas the other books I’ve done a lot of exercises from, the exercises form a large part of the core theory
I think even more than that, even if you did, a lot of them just aren’t things that will come up
If you enjoyed it, then more power to you
Yeah exactly
But like, doing every group theory exercise there isn’t really gonna help much in your career
There are a few fun ones but most are pretty pointless
I had fun through the group theory but the ring theory exercises are hella boring mostly
Which is why I stopped lol
Are there alg prerequisites to doing comm alg?
Like from harthstone or matsumara?
Yeah
I mean you should know rings and modules lol
But you don’t need too much module theory, that kinda gets developed as you go
In good detail or just the basics?
Eh
Basics is fine, like most textbooks start from a sorta elementary point
And build it up
Depending on your source you might need varying amounts of stuff tho
Like Matsumura assumes you know homological algebra
Tensor product, Ext, Tor, direct limits
There’s an appendix
But man, if you haven’t seen it before I have a hard time imagining you’ll have a fun time
Yeah no lol
Atiyah-Macdonald however like has an entire chapter on the tensor product
That’s a pretty large prerequisite id say
And I think has no Ext and Tor
Eisenbud I think builds up that stuff too
So like in terms of prereqs the subject itself doesn’t have much
You don’t need to know like all of a graduate algebra course
Just be somewhat comfortable with rings, fields, modules
It’s up to the book whether or not there’s more prereqs
pain
You can tell I hate A-M and have done like 1/2 of a chapter of it
Because I have no idea what’s in it

Oop
there's nothing in it
So what should I look at before comm alg lmao
I mean if you don’t want to deal with tensor product stuff
You can try Undergraduate Commutatige Algwbra
I believe that book actually has very few prereqs
tfw "undergrad" means "no tensor products"
I worked through a bit of it
I’m fine with dealing with tensor product stuff if the prerequisite book teaches it
I mean Atiyah-MacDonald doesn’t have too much even in-spite of what Stain posted haha
That’s… only in an exercise?
granted most of A-M’s content is in exercises but it won’t kill you to miss a few
Still I suppose it’s nice to know that stuff to get a broader view
Honestly if you are comfy with rings and fields and stuff
It wouldn’t hurt to try and jump into some basic homological algebra
Maybe I’ll skim through the rest of d&f while doing only a handful of exercises
Don’t do like the Weibel shot
With abelian cats
Or like chain homotopy blah blah
Or tbf I bought Lang I can work through it slowly
You can do a lot more adhoc treatment
I think D&F has like 1-2 chapters on it
And that section is actually okay
I may be misremembering
Alternatively I learned a lot of it from Aluffi
I really like how he introduced Tor and Ext
On another note what are the prerequisite to representation theory
Cause that seems very interesting
Right so I’ve got a good way to go then I only know very basic stuff on modules and fields
Yeah I mean it isn’t even like
That advanced stuff on modules
I wouldn’t say I “knew” module theory
Until after I learned rep theory
Module theory does seem pretty interesting in its own right though
You really only needed like some basic shit about them and definitions
I feel like module theory really isn’t something you study by itself
It’s developed in-tandem with either like the noncommutative stuff or with rep theory or something
Or alongside commutative algebra and algebraic number theory
I guess you get a hint of it when you do classification of fg ones over a PID
I think if you can get through that
You know enough to be able to go to rep theory
fg?
Finitely generated
Oh right
Okay good to know
You probably covered the classification of finite abelian groups?
Maybe even finitely generated?
Okay well
The classification of fg modules over a PID looks like that
There’s an infinite or “free” part
I think the proof for finitely generated is generalized from classification of fg modules over PID’s actually now that you mention it
Which for groups is just Z^n
Then the torsion bit which is finite
And looks like the sums of Z/nZ
Like there’s two ways to present it
Either prime powers
Or like increasing with divisibility
For a fg module over a PID R it looks exactly the same
Free part is R^n
Then direct sum the torsion part which is just R/aR for various a
Either prime powers
Huh
Or in increasing order by divisibility
That’s kinda cool
The proof goes through some module theory obviously
And introduces like canonical forms of matrices
I guessed that much lol
And so for abelian groups it’s the Z-module case then?
Yup
Nice
Show that if $K$ is a ring then there is a bijection between congruences and two-sided ideals in $K$.
can anyone help me with this? i understand that congruences are equivalence relations that still "preserve" the ring structure on the equivalence classes, but idk how to start the proof
sikfeng
you could start by defining some function between the set of congruences and the set of two-sided ideals
idk how exactly to do this...
i think i could have a function f, that could map like the identity relation to a zero ideal, and the congruence that has every element in the same congruence class to the ring itself(?), but i cant see how to get it to work
or maybe a function from the set of two-sided ideals to the set of congruences
hmm... i still dont get it, do u have more hints on how to construct this function
if you have a two sided ideal, can you make a congruence out of it ?
(this should be a very easy thing to do)
quotient of the ring?
yes
so now you have a function f : { two sided ideals} -> { congruences } and you can start actually talking about whether it is injective or surjective or constructing an inverse
so first you try to show it's injective
then try to figure out, if you are given a congruence that you suspect is given by a two-sided ideal, how to get the ideal from the congruence
and finally try to show that this will work out for every congruence
hmm ok thank you
Let G be a group of order n which has no subgroup of index 2. show that G is isomorphic to a subgroup of An. I kinda understand how to do it but not completely sure. Like if it is not a subgroup of An ( but is of Sn) then we can define the homeomorphism sending phi(G) to {-1, 1} giving us a subgroup of index 2.
Yeah that's it
You embed it into Sn and then kernel of sign homomorphism is a subgroup of index 1 or 2
ok
Show that $S_n$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of $A_{n+2}$. So for this do I just adjoin the cycle $(n+1 ; n+2)$ at the end of each odd permutations of $S_n$ and find the homomorphism that way?
Is that even a homomorphism

think yes, because (n+1 n+2) has order 2 and odd perm * odd perm is even
ig it will work
Yes
G be a group of order $2l$ where $l$ is odd. We have to show that $G$ has a subgroup of index 2. For this I know an approach that will work, looking for a better one. We will look at the permutation representation afforded by left multiplication. Now $G$ has an element of order $2$ call it $x$ then $\pi(x) \in S_G$ is a product of $l$ disjoint 2-cycles. So $x$ is an odd permutation. So $S_G$ contains an odd perm. Now we'll look at the homomorphism from $S_G$ to $\mbb{Z}_2$
thank you
that's the only proof i've seen really
but i didn't look further, so there might be something neater
i've seen a generalization of that statement tho,
Say G is a finite group and S is a sylow-2 subgroup,
if we assume that S is cyclic, then there is a normal subgroup of index |S|
"Annihilating Radical Left Ideals and Blowing Up Points on a Plane" <-- I cant tell if this PDF is a math whitepaper or a terrorist handbook
sounds like some #algebraic-geometry
yes... I cant think of anything else points could mean in the phrase "Blowing Up Points on a Plane", so it must be geometry.
yea there is a notion of blow-up and stuff relating to rees algebra
idk anything about it 🙈
Its like a click bait title, but on a mathematical doctoral theses

arn't all Sylow subgroups cyclic?
Consider Z/2Z × Z/2Z
This is what my presentation was on 

have fun
Hi! I want to know if (P(e),∩) is a group, P(e) set of sets of e. I found P(e) as identity element ,[∀A,∈(⊂?)P(e) A∩P(e)=A] but does an inverse element exists or is this not a group?
Alright
additive inverse or multiplicative inverse? because it wont have a multiplicative inverse if its just a group
intersection only ever decreases or at best keeps constant the cardinality of the elements
another way to see this is that in a group G, the equation x*x = x has only one solution, namely multiply by x inverse to get x = id
in our case, A ∩ A = A
so it's group only if P(e) is singleton
which happens when e is the empty set
Ho yes e is not empty so it's not a group, thanks
Yes i can see that with ∅ as identity element may be
yep!
Alright thanks for your help!
is it worth it to completely finish it? and not every problem, maybe like 90% of the problems
80?
because it'd take too much time to do everything? and it's not worth it to spend that much time?
so I should do like half the problems in D&F and move on to a graduate abstract algebra book?
it does seem inefficient since some problems might be really difficult
In need of some advice
im picking modules for my next semester and I want to study galois theory
I'm good at ring theory and field theory but I can't get my head around group theory that much, its just not something I like particularly
Should I take galois theory or not?
how group heavy is it
I guess my main question is if I'm not good at group thoery how will i fair in galois
That I quite like tbf
okok
I'll have a think about it
thx!
Whatever you do it's probably better to know some group theory
Can someone recommend some of those books (#book-recommendations message )? Please 
It is probably a good call to get some experience with abstract algebra if you have not already
btw
why are regular covers called galois covers
ig this falls under alg top sorta
but i dont see how a covering space being regular has anything to do with galois theory
Its because the spaces are part of a Galois correspondence
Which is more abstract than Galois theory the algebra field
o ty
i didnt know it was a more general idea
i always thought it wad strictly fields and groups
Yeah its subtle and not clear unless you are shown that the correspondence is also it's own thing
wikipedia page giving lots of insight
It even shows up in like data math stuff iirc
Yup it's a good one
also do you know much about cohomology of groups?
Naw not really I just finished my first AT course
same here
That might be a good question for Kanga Gang Made Man
the big thing for me rn is finding motivation
there are so many topics
that i wonder why ppl care
stack exchange doesnt always help
In homology and cohomology or in general
sort of in general
like yesterday learned about (co)homology of groups
and the takeaway is that group homology tells you how much the coinvariant functor fails to be exact
now i dont see why people care about this
Lol yeah I dont like that kind of motivation I work on applied math and algorithms mostly
Yeah it's cool stuff algorithmic analysis and complexity theory are cool and their motivations are clear
"Make program work" is a solid motivation
yeah motivation always exists
and is clear cut to understand in those cases
atm my motivation for algebra is just the potential connections to geometry
which has inherent motivations
but im feeling this masculine urge to quit everything in math and just go deep into number theory
because number theory motivation is honest as heck
Yeah algebra and geometry sorta become this huge monstrous superfield which tbh scared me away
Yeah it drives me crazy
like recently I was thinking about something
so like group homology and homology groups of lie groups
two different functors you can apply to this object
i wonder what im supposed to take away from their applications
in general objects like topological groups scare me, or objects that are a mixture of two very well structured things, but are seemingly unrelated
or ig to be specific objects that have a high potential to be abstract scare me
like R-Algebras
Yeah algebra gets really intense and becomes it's own pure math language thing
yuh
and examples are always feeling sparse
but thats either because im young and dumb or because they really are sparse
You just get this crazy object in 3 different fields that you can do all the algebra to, I guess the takeaway with those topics is you need more algebra lol
lol fr
The 100mile high mountain of advanced algebra
then the idea of studying morphisms between objects
just spooks me
like category theory wasnt too bad for my first informal introduction, but it only gets crazier and crazier the more I learn
too many examples of categories show up
and i dont always have a nice interpretation of functors between categories and universal properties arent always super intuitive
There is a categorical generalization of Galois theory and covers of nice topological spaces, which was invented by Grothendieck
Also, maybe more "elementary" the analogy is concrete for Riemann surfaces
But I don't know much about it
ok ill look into this
There is a book by Szamuely
"Galois groups and Fundamental Groups"
Which covers this subject
to be honest i have too many topics rn
im trying to go over 3 different books atm
commutative ring theory by matsamura, rotman introduction to homological algebra, dreaded atiyah mcdonald
only rotman’s isnt dense
i will put that into a book list tho
Wow
wuh
Read Lang @chilly ocean
ive done for a little
but it isnt my focus rn
commutative alg is my focus
lang isnt bad but its just standard grad alg stuff
With how many D&F has I feel like doing 50% is more than enough
I’d try to do problems until I feel like I could do the rest in a reasonable amount of time
Maybe go through a proof sketch in my head, see if I can argue through most of the problem and come up with something that seems@fruitful
hey, so the order of an Abelian group (i.e. the number of its elements) does not necessarily coincide with the order of the corresponding $\mathbb{Z}-$module, right? As an example, the Klein 4-group $G=\mathbb{Z}_2\times\mathbb{Z}_2$ has order 4, whereas G viewed as a module has order two since $\text{ann}(G)={z\in \mathbb{Z} \mid zg=1_G \forall g \in G}=<2>$
No…
iruneachteam
It’s exactly the same…
huh
I mean
What is your definition of order of a module
Frankly I’ve never heard anyone use it
the order of a module $M$ over a PID $R$ is the generator of the $\text{ann}(M)$
iruneachteam
alright, thanks a lot!
What the hell is this definition tho lmfao, i have never in my life heard of this
Hi! What is the value of the transfer homomorphism on a central element?
haha apparently it makes sense, I encountered it in Advanced Linear Algebra by Roman
it is very useful for decompositions of modules over a PID
Oh sure, I’ve just never assigned this a name
i've been pulling my hair out over something that has to do with this, if you know any other name for this notion i'd greatly appreciate it if you could tell me
😧
Hey
I have V,W finite dimensional vector spaces and T : V -> W linear. I want to show that if dim(V) < dim(W) then T is not onto.
Proof: Assume contradiction, T is onto. Then W = im(T). (can I assume the following: dim(W) = dim(Im(T))?) According with the dimension theorem, dim(V) = rank(T) + nullity(T) < nullity(T) = dim(W), thus implying nullity(T) < 0. Contradiction.
your proof works
if W = Im(T), dim(W) = dim(Im(t))
this is really linear algebra, not abstract
thanks and sorry
no problem
can you have a commutative ring without identity but no nontrivial ideals?
if so, is there an easy example?
0

not sure if 0 counts since 0=1 in {0}
rngs 
Hello, so I have been teaching myself abstract algebra for a little while now and I just learned about something called the commutator subgroup. My book says that the subgroup is normal in G and also that the quotient group formed from it is abelian but doesnt prove it so I tried to prove it myself and was wondering if my proof was mathematically sound. Thank you! ps sorry about how messy my paper is(my kitten really likes my math paper) 🙂
just had my abstract algebra final today, and I gotta say it wasn't very abstract, thank you all for the help!
Why does that H exist?
You can’t just magic in an abelian group H where you could define a map phi(a) = a
Well not necessarily
It would contain it
But yeah it’s essentially going in circles
nah they defined phi(a)=a_1
Wat
but they only showed that the kernel contains G' so still isn't complete
some element of H
It isn’t multiplicative
Yeah this is what you want to do
You I think need to sneak an e in
By multiplying by something and its inverse
It’s kind of tedious IIRC
Yeah
TRUE!
Thanks everyone for the input. I've seen that other proof but I'm still learning and wasn't sure if it was ok to just define a different group that's abelian and define a homomorphism from elements of the first group to elements of the abelian group so that way the commutator subgroup would be the kernel of the homomorphism. My cat and I really appreciate it!
I believe the problem was that I can't just assume that H has a group structure, correct?
you can't just assume that such a group exists
you have to define it
and then show that the homomorphism has such a kernel
Ok, thank you so much! (:
Hey, I'm trying to show that rational canonical forms are invariant under field extensions
So here's what I have in mind:
So I mean in my eyes the biggest issue was you said phi(a) = a
So it seemed like H would have the same objects as G, like they have the same set
But then it seems like H just is equal to G
But G isn’t abelian…
damn actually i have no clue
so a good first step can be to show minimal polynomials are left invariant when we pass to a larger field
but idk how one would proceed from there
My bad. I chose bad notation. I thought it would be more clear what I was trying to do if I chose my elements to be represented by symbols that looked similar so I choose a to map to some symbol called a1. I should have just chosen a more distinct symbol so people didn't think I was just trying to map to the same group
Oh I see
Well then your proof actually does show something very cool, but not what you want
There’s two issues
The first is, why does G ever have a map to an abelian group H?
What if somehow there just wasn’t one?
Two
This only shows the kernel contains
G’
But it might be bigger
What you did show though is any map G -> H when H is abelian factors through G/G’
Because the kernel has to contain G’
This is why G/G’ is referred to as the abelianization of G
It’s an abelian group which like, most closely approximates G as an abelian group
Because there’s a bijection of maps G -> H when H is abelian and the maps G/G’ -> H
I imagine what I’m saying doesn’t make too much sense right now, so don’t think too hard about it right now
But maybe later you’ll see this idea again and you’ll have already seen it before :)
Actually I can describe this bijection explicitly
Given a map f:G -> H when H is abelian, you showed that any element in G’ maps to 0
So we can define a map f’:G/G’ -> H by declaring
f’(g + G’) = f(g)
That does sound really cool! I'm not in school anymore. Got my degree in chemistry and only a minor in math but I've taken math as a hobby and group theory always seems to make me really excited! Everything in it just seems so cool to me!
The issue is if this is well-defined, but g + G’ = h + G’ iff h = g + k for some k in G’ by definition
Then we see f’(h + G’) = f’(g + k + G’) = f(g) + f(k)
But f(k) = 0 since k is in G’, and f has to send elements of G’ to 0
So this assignment f:G -> H goes to f’:G/G’ -> H defines a map {maps G -> H} -> {maps G/G’ -> H}
To go the other way, we simply take a map g:G/G’ -> H and send it to the composition G -> G/G’ -> H
These two maps I described are inverse so the two sets of maps are in bijection
The benefit here is like, in terms of maps into abelian groups, G and G/G’ are the same because there’s this way to go between the two
The benefit is just that G/G’ is abelian which is nice
This exact thing actually shows up in representation theory eventually
Cool! I've heard of representation theory and it seems really cool because it seems like it has a lot of applications! Can't wait to study it eventually!
for polynomial p(x)=x⁴-4x²+8x+2 in ℚ(√-2) do I have to prove it's irreducible the long way?
will eisenstein work or I'm missing something?
Am I right to call it false thinking about Sn group? given any 2 elements are conjugate means they have the same cycle type, or there is a semidirect product that makes them conjugate?
it is not necessary for a group of even order to have a subgroup of index 2. but then how do I separate the elements of G mod g?
g has even order so you can find an element that has order 2
that gives you a subgroup of order 2
hmm then?
then the answer is like 1 sentence away
hmm you're right
well just look at the cosets of <g> and see what happens
you have an even number of them
hmm like if there are even number of them I think it can be concluded

I'm getting confused by the ordering
like yaking the even powers and odd powers will work i think
where'd you get all these interesting problems from 👀
by the looks of it, you already know 
this?
oh lol

this one seems interesting but idk if I know enough to solve it
maybe think group actions?
<g> would act on G by left multiplication... if we show each orbit has even size then we're done
I was thinking of symmetric groups
yes that's what I ended up doing
but with 1 err
noh wait
that's equivalent to young_smasher's solution above which considers cosets right
hmm yes
number of cosets can be odd right?
yeah
this follows because the stablizer would be trivial as g * x = x implies g = e which has order 1 and not even.
so size of orbit = |g| which is even
what matters is the size of the coset (orbit), not the number of cosets though
right
same but I didn't make much progress
ah right
maybe you can consider smth like the double cover of Sn lol?
I barely know anything about that, just remembered it's a thing
I'm having trouble with orbit stabilizers again
|G| = |orbit of x| * |stabiliser of x|
so {g, g^2, ... g^2n} acts on G by left multiplication. g^k*x = x means g^k=e. so |<g>| = 1 * |<g>| is even
now like for each x we do the separation by following {x, g^2x, g^4x, ...} and {gx, g^3x, ...}
it should be |<g>| = |orbit size| * 1
g^k*x = x
also this should be true for each k to be able to say x is stabilized by <g>
else k = 2n is sad


what about this one tho?
I strongly want to call it false
or like we do some shit like S_2n and adjoin cycles to make them compatible idk what I am saying rn
it's probably true

hint: what does the action of g and h on G look like
||they should have the same "cycle type"||
like (12) and (12)(34) in S4?
those arent of the same cycle type
think I lost you there
what does the corresponding map G ---> S_G look like
i.e. what do the images of g and h look like
so they have the same cycle type in S_G
yes
and therefore are conjugate in S_G
so I was on the wrong track to begin with
yeah the only reason I initially said that it was probably true was because constructing a counterexample seemed too hard
and if it's a hw problem, it cant be too hard
so every element of same order in Sn are conjugates in Sn!
sure, but S_n doesnt sit in S_n! in the usual way
yes think that's where I messed up
so stating it that way can be slightly misleading
anyway cool problem
Has anyone got any tips on computing the maximal ideals of a quotient of a polynomial ring?
i.e. something of the form k[x_1,...,x_n]/(f_1,...,f_m)
I thought of using Nullstellensatz, to classify the maximal ideals of k[x_1,...,x_n], but since k is not necessarily algebraically closed, I'm not sure if that is a valid approach
what's the connection between free modules and projective modules?
I mean I know there is some theorem about some embedding I guess, but I don't know it precisely
M is projective iff M + M' is free for some other M'. Over some nice rings, projective = free, but in general freeness is stronger (take M' = 0)
So basically M can be embedded into a free module?
No, it has to be embedded as a direct summand, which is strictly stronger.
Well maximal ideals of k[x1, ..., xn]/(f1, ..., fm) are maximal ideals of k[x1, ..., xn] containing f1, ..., fm ie (g1, ..., gk) with gi dividing fj and this is going to depend a lot on the field
like x^2 + 1 is maximal in R but not in C, so R[x]/(x^2 + 1) has no maximal ideals whereas C[x]/(x^2 + 1) has (x + i) and (x - i)
Basically theres not going to be a simple general solution to this because its very dependent on the base field
In a free abelian group, does $x-y=a-b$ imply $x=a$ and $y=b$?
blackiris
With x,y,a,b in the generator of course.
If they are distinct generators then yes
assuming that the group is the free group generated by these
Yeah, I can look at them as if they're basis elements, I see now.
One question
G a group and S a subgroup of G
I want to show ${g \in G : gS = Sg}$ is a subgroup of G
mns
I already proved closure under G operation
but now I want to prove $\forall x \in A, x^{-1} \in A$, where A is the set above
mns
If this holds then $x^{-1}S = Sx^{-1}$. So I choose to start with $(x^{-1}S)(Sx^{-1})^{-1}$ and try to get e (identity)
mns
So I did $(x^{-1}S)(Sx^{-1})^{-1} = (x^{-1}x)(SS^{-1}) = e(SS^{-1})$ but $SS^{-1}$ seems odd
mns
You are multiplying sets here, you definitely won't get just identity
you will get a set
There is an easier approach
yeah
possible dumb question, are quotients of principal ideals principal?
Yes, the images of the generators under the quotient map are generators of the quotient
like $S = eS = g^{-1}(gS) = g^{-1}(Sg) = (g^{-1}g)S = eS = S$ ?
mns
no I mean gS = Sg
now left multiply both sides by g inverse
then right multiply
and you get exactly the equation you want
g^{-1}(gS) = g^{-1}(Sg) ?
S = g^{-1}Sg
yes
now multiply both sides on the right by g inverse
and the g g inverse on the right will cancel
I feel like you are not comfortable with this because we are multiplying sets
indeed
so just try to justify these equations set theoretically and it will make sense
like cancelling g and g inverse
Roger that, thanks man!
Feel free to try Q2, Q3 here lol
it has been unanswered for quite a bit
Personally, I think d = 1 mod 4 might have something to do with Q3, but not sure
Hey could someone check my logic here? I have a ring A=k[x^2,x^3], and B=A/(x^4). Firstly, k[x] is an integral extension of A, so then (x)^c is a maximal ideal in A, then (x)^c/(x^4) is a maximal ideal in B
If I have a complex rep of a finite group, is it true that the corresponding character is multiplicative, that is is chi(ab) = chi(a)chi(b)?
idts
det
which need not be true
chi(1) = dim V
chi(1)^2 = (dim V)^2 which is not chi(1 * 1)
hmm, the situation I have is the following. I have a finite grp G and an abelian subgroup A where the character vanishes outside of A. I want to take the all the elements of A which have nonzero character, and consider the subgroup generated by all those elements, say H. Certainly H is a subgroup of A and H is abelian. I want to show that H is normal in the G, but the issue is that the character of some element in H might vanish as well
Another approach I had was to take the subset of all elements in A with nonzero character. However since character is not multiplicative, I can not guarantee even that "group" is closed, and Im suspecting that it might not even be a subgroup
sowwy i'm too sleepy to think
how can i show that
if f \circ g = 0 => g = 0 for all g
then f is injective
like i kinda see how this might imply f has a left inverse
but im stuck on how to show it explicitly
Is this for maps between modules over a ring?
It doesn't imply left inverse
This is left cancellability (you can get from this that fg = fh implies g = h for all g and h)
Left invertibility is slightly stronger. For example the inclusion of 2Z into Z as abelian groups is left cancellable (follows from injectivity) but not left invertible (there is no map from Z to 2Z that sends 2 to 2, because 1 has to go to half of that but there is no such element in 2Z)
hmm okay
so im currently trying to figure out
let's suppose phi_1: M1 -> M2 is a module hom
apply the functor Hom(N, _) to phi_1
giving us a map
phi_1*: Hom(N, M1) -> Hom(N, M2)
given that phi_1* is injective, how do i show that phi_1 is injective?
@hidden haven
Yeah so this is the injectivity implies left cancellability bit
You can check this element by element pretty much
if phi_1 g = phi_1 h, then evaluate both sides at an element and see what happens
Oh wait you are going the other way
So if phi_1 is left cancellable, then suppose (going by contradiction) you have 2 elements x and y in its domain which map to the same thing
ok so phi_1(x) = phi_1(y)
well you don't actually need contradiction just assume non injectivity
Try defining maps into the domain so that the same thing gets mapped to x and y under the 2 maps
but then phi_1 puts them back together
to make the maps agree
that will make it not left cancellable
how do i explicitly define a map
that maps something to x
or maps something to y
like thats what i was stuck on earlier
like even withotu this contradiction stuff
Try the simplest module over a ring A
if we assume phi_1(x) = phi_1(y)
if we can create maps that like
map the same shit to x and why
then we get like
compositions on the left and right hand sides
x and why 
ok so A itself?
yep
A is the free A-module on 1 generator
if you know the universal property of free objects
this should become obvious
or even without it its not so hard
This is a useful thing to keep in mind, because the universal property of the free object on 1 generator says exactly that giving an element of an A-module is exactly the same thing as giving a map from A to that A-module
so having elements x and y
you can immediately start thinking of them as their corresponding maps from A
If you haven't seen this, it isn't hard to prove, ||map the identity of A to whatever element you have||
right yeah
if we call the map
that maps 1 to x
x*
then x*(a) = ax
so then phi1(x) = phi2(y)
means phi1(ax) = phi2(ay)
means phi1 x*(a) = phi2 y*(a)
for all a in A
so then x* = y*
so x = y
right
tyty
ok so if we have
im phi_1 = ker phi_2
i want to prove that im phi_1* = ker phi_2*
is it true that if i have some f: N -> M2
such that phi_2 f = 0
then there exists some g: N -> M1 such that
f = phi_1 g?
i kind of feel like it directly follows from im phi_1 = ker phi_2
but im not 100% sure how to explicitly prove it
@hidden haven
phi_2 f right?
sry yeah
So f maps into the image of phi_1
and phi_1 is an isomorphism onto its image
so compose f with this "inverse" of phi_1
and you get the map you need
oh aight
are additive functors always right exact?
the definition of additive im using here is
that the functor is a group homomorphism
with respect to addition in a module
@hidden haven
ok hmmm
so the problem im doing
gives additive functors F,G which are adjoint
and somehow theyre right exact and left exact respectively
and idk how to do this at all
It’s the dumbest thing
A left adjoint preserves limits (or colimits I can’t remember)
So assuming it preserves colimits it’ll preserve cokernels or something like that
And that’s right exactness
left adjoints preserve colimits
Yo I can't seem to figure the problem out, even though it seems easy: say we have a group of order pqr with p > q > r all primes and G has no normal subgroup of order p. The question is how many elements of order p it has
So I figured out that the group needs to have order 2pq
but then idk where to go from here
meant order p instead of "order H" lmao
Oh wait a second I might already be done lol
so I have that np = 2q, and so since p-groups intersect trivially or are the same group, and every nontrivial element in a group of prime order has order p, there must be 2q(p-1) elements of order p!
where doe the additivity come into play here
What’s the exact problem
ok
so F: A-Mod -> B-Mod
is left adjoint to G: B-Mod -> A-Mod
and F,G are additive
as in they're group homomorphisms with respect to addition
in the Hom module
and the bijection eta in the definition of adjiont functors
is also a gorup homomorphism
i want to show that
F is right exact
and G is left exact
Hmm if you’re not allowed to use continuity of adjoint functors then I guess you’ll want to show that F preserves cokernels directly
Cause it looks to me that these are extra assumptions since adjunction implies left or right exactness right away
yeah this is only the first part of the problem
wait so withotu
any of the additivity business
the fact that F is left adjoint to G
immediately means that F is right exact?
also what does it mean for a functor to preserve co kernels
Yeh
Hmm that’s a good question cause I’m just parroting what my algebra prof told me
But it should be like if C = M/im(f) then FC = FM/im(Ff)
On which part?
like
how to even start tbh
like ok ig i start with an SES
say 0 -> M1 -> M2 -> M3 -> 0
and i want to show that F(M1) -> F(M2) -> F(M3) -> 0
is exact
but like im rlyyyy confused about what the additivity or adjointness
have anything to do with this
like im absolutley lost
at what the connection is supposed to be
Well Ff is in Hom(FM1, FM2) = Hom(M1, GFM2) so that’s a start
I’m just writing random stuff btw I don’t remember how the proof goes
wait does this follow from F, G being adjoint?
ive never learned this fact
The bijection should basically be the thing I wrote right?
It’s a bijection between two Hom things
yeah yeah
but the hom things are in bijection
but theres no equalities anywhere
ok this is a hint from stack
@small bison
is the adjunction isomorphism
the bijection between the homs?
is there a formula of how many elements of order p a group can have? p being prime
Wdym?
This can vary wildly
What would you want this formula to depend on?
The order of G?
If so, it can’t exist
no like for example if 2| |G| then there are odd number of them
like now if 3 | |G| then is it possible that the number of elements of order 3 is ≡ 1 or 2 (mod 3)
Hmm
I feel like it should be 1 mod p
Like if x is order p
Then <x> is size p and contributes…
I dunno


maybe something can be said if the powers are taken to be pⁿ and not p? like using syllow's thms?
do syllow p-groups intersect non-trivially?
@past temple you have a short exact sequence and you apply G to it and you want to show that the result is left exact. Apply the functor hom(GX, -) (for an arbitrary object X) and you already proved that this won't affect exactness. Therefore it suffices to check left exactness of
Hom(GX, -) ∘ G
for any object X.
To do that, we have the natural isomorphism between functors
hom(GX, -) ∘ G = hom(GX, G-) ≅ hom(FGX, -)
And this last functor is known to be left exact.
If G is finite, then number of solutions to $x^n=1$ is a multiple of $n$, assuming $n$ divides |G|
Noob666
any proof?
in S4, x³=1 has solutions as 1, and all the 3 cycles, i.e. there are 4+1=5 of them, and 3 doesnot divide 5
😶
Aren't there 8 3-cycles in S4
The general thing is frobenius's result
The prime case can be done just using Cauchy
ahh ty
i eventually was able to come up with that strategy
Hausdorff
Can you relate GL(n, A x B) to GL(n, A) and GL(n, B)? (I really don't know, this is not a hint)
Just going by intuition, I would think it is the direct product of the other two.
sanity check, a syllow p-subgroup is normal iff its unique
sounds right


tks
pillow p-subgroup 
Is my line of reasoning all right for this one? given $|G| = 105=3\cdot 5\cdot 7$ and given it has a normal 3-subgroup. This means $n_3=1$ now for possible order of $Z(G)$ is 5, or we get an abelian group because otherwise we get a cyclic center. This means $n_5=1$.
I have to show that $G$ must be abelian, what do I do next? how do I show n7 = 1?
Cyclic center does not imply commutativity. But it's true that the order of Z(G) is either 1 or a prime, say p, and this would give n_p = 1.
Maybe a more fruitful approach would be to quotient by T, your given normal 3-group. Then G/T has order 35 and thus abelian (known result).
if the quotient of the group by the center is cyclic, the group is abelian, is the one i remember
but T is not the center
Not directly. For example, if G/N is abelian, then G' is contained in N. So for example if you have G/N and G/K abelian for disjoint normal subgroups N, K, then actually G is abelian!
that's some high level explanation
ok can we do this? we do have subgroup of order 5 and 7, say H, K then HK has order 35 and hence index 3. So HK is normal. but HK is also cyclic. meaning abelian. Now G ~ HK x P_3?
Now, for n7, we have n7 dividing 15, so it's either 1 or 15. If 15, then we get 15 * 6 = 90 elements of order 7, and then maybe use the usual counting argument works.
yes with this we can show that HK is a subgroup
because atleast one of them is normal
this is a good argument tho, nice
Yeah, it's easy that at least n5 = 1 or n7 = 1, or else we would get too many elements
Ohh, I see it now
Well, we could say G/HK is abelian and G/T is abelian, and HK n T is trivial, so we are done.

It's not trivial that HK is cyclic, though. We will still need the "only one group of order pq" result
Yes
though not needed, all we need is the normality of HK
any subgroup of index 3 is normal anyway
Well, now G is a semidirect product between HK and T, and Aut HK has order 8, and thus no nontrivial homomorphism from T to Aut HK is exists.
all we needed was the normality of T
Here we actually prove the normality of T by proving that the semidirect product is trivial.
can you elaborate why Aut HK has order 8?
Aut HK is the unit group of Z/35Z
Which has order phi(35) = phi(7)phi(5) = 4 * 6 = 24
Oops, I was wrong
But on the bright side we have all the groups of order 105 now: There are two of them, Z/(105) and some semidirect product.
Wishful thinking. I thought of 21 for some reason haha
nice nice
After finding the automorphism of order 3, we will get an explicit description of this other group K!
will it give me all the groups of order 105?
Yes, because we started with an arbitrary group of order 105 and showed that it has a normal subgroup of order 35
I mean G = NT where T is a 3-Sylow subgroup
ok
K is generated by a, b, c, of orders 5, 7, 3, and a and b commute. Finally, c commutes with a and conjugation by c sends b to b^2.
semidirect 
nice
Yeah, seems like that to me too
I think you can use the fact that G/C(P_3) is isomorphic to a subgroup of Aut(P_3), which has order 3 - 1 = 2, and since G is odd this has to just be 1, so that P3 is contained in Z(G)
@lethal dune
but I haven't found an isomorphism yet
Then since P3 is in Z(G) G/Z(G) is in G/P3
so it should follow that G/Z(G) is cyclic
bc |G/Z(G)| should divide |G/P3| = 35 and hence is either 5, 7, or 35
and any group of any of these orders is cyclic
Probably
since any group of order 105 should have a subgroup of index 3 but idt theyre all abelian
Probably some semidirect products
nice result and nice proof, tks
If so, we can just work out GL(2, Z/(3)) and GL(2, Z/(2)). I know the latter is S3.
A question from ring theory, I am given a ring of order 35. I have to find the number of rings upto isomorphism. I know the (R, +) is Z35 and we have two classes, one is zero ring and another is Z/35Z. Are there any other? If so is there a general way to count them?
makes sense, let us think
Yes. There are two groups of order 105, one cyclic, and the other has the presentation above. I didn't work out n_3 in this case, though.
The GL(n, A x B) = GL(n, A) x GL(n, B) thing seems shady honestly
yes counting groups is kinda tedious
satisfying tho
maybe it works if A = Z/pZ and B = Z/qZ where p,q are both prime
Yeah maybe. But in general we have an embedding of the RHS in the LHS.
Not sure how helpful this approach is. There are way too many groups of order 48. (Edit: Nevermind. This is non-sense.)
Do the preceding questions provide any hints?
I remember reading somewhere that GL(n, Z/(m)) = GL(n, Z) / GL(n, mZ), where GL(n, mZ) is the ideal of n x n matrices whose entries are all divisible by 6. Using the Chinese reminder theorem, I think we can show that this follows.
I still don't know about GL(2, 3), though.
I dont see what you mean exactly? like
what do you mean one is zero
The zero ring does not have 35 elements
no, i mean the product a*b=0 for all a,b
Does your definition of rings require identity
yes, it does
Id assume yes
also yes
Well the zero ring structure has no identity
ring homomorphism by definition maps 1 to 1
yeah, not that one then
if a * b = 0 for all a, b, then a * e = a = 0 for all a
contradiction
in general our ring structure will be determined by our choice of identity here i think
since every element will have the form e, e + e, e + e + e, and so on
ok brain fart moment, I though we require associativity to be a ring
Well ok lets not say its determined by the identity thats harder to show
But if e = 1 in Z/35Z then theres only one ring structure right
because xy = (1 + 1 + ... + 1)(1 + 1 + ... + 1) and then distribute
makes sense?
yes
also do we not require associativity for a ring?
by default?
usually we do there are just a lot of competing defns of rings
ohh
anyway so we just want to show that e has order 35 and hence = 1. order meaning as an element of the group. the order of e divides 35 so it is 1, 5, or 7. if e has order 5 then e + e + e + e + e = 0, so k + k + k + k + k = k(e + e + e + e + e) = 0, that is, every element has order 5. this obviously isnt true bc any group of order 35 has an element of order 7
for the same reason e cant have order 7
so e has order 35 and is 1
@lethal dune
yes reading
why not using some vector space stuff?
i think that makes the proof almost immediate
consider a ring R of order 35, look at the unique map Z --> R, say the kernel is nZ
so we have injective map Z/nZ --> R
which means n divides |R| = 35
n can't be 1, as that would force R = 0
n can't be 5 or 7 as then R is a Z/5Z or Z/7Z vector space
(i might need to verify we don't need commutativity)
so n = 35 done
is this actually any shorter lol
yes
well the thinking is... because Z --> R is a very common thing to do
i mean it is pretty much exactly the same thing
nZ being the kernel means exactly that e has order n
in this case
yea lol nvm
e has order 35 implies e = 1 right
like we define a*b = (1+1+..+1)(1+1+...+1) = ...
yes
so yeah ab = (1 + 1 + ... + 1)(1 + ... + 1)
and now we can just distribute
hence its determined
yeah nice
ok so I was trying your approach of using Aut(P3) for another problem
this time group is of order 1575 = 3^2 5^2 7

similar argument shows |G/Z(G)| possible orders are 5, 7, 35, 5^2*7
for first 3, it's clear, what do I do for 5^2*7?
though I am supposed to use Syllow, aut approach seemed cool
are you trying to show that G is abelian again
yes and I also realised that $Z_{5^2}\times Z_7 \simeq Z_{5^27}$

yeah so the last case is going to be G/Z(G) = Z_175 or G/Z(G) = Z_5 x Z_5 x Z_7
yes another one too
was too fixated on using syllow that I forgot basic gcds
only have to deal with $Z_{35}\times Z_5$ now


