#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 640 of 407
you should see that
S ∪ T ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T))
and then apply
if S \subset V for a vector space V, then span(S) \subset V
don't overthink the chain thing. Its just to make truth of S ∪ T ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) more clear
ye, i already understood that, but how come
span(S ∪ T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) is deduced from that,
I just don't get how span(S ∪ T) is connected to this
sorry if this should be pretty obvious
this i understood
if C is closed
np, let V = span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) and X = S ∪ T.
We have X \subset V so span(X) \subset V
ie. you can't combine anything in C to get anything not in C
then for any subset A of C
span(A) is in C
because you can't get out of C
alright, until now i got it
wait does that mean you understand now, or you don't understand anymore?
I do understand
alright cool, so that's one direction of the equality you want to prove
I meant that I understood this part
this span(S ∪ T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) is still a mystery to me
span(S ∪ T) = span(X) ⊂ V = span(span(S) ∪ span(T))
hold on V = span(span(S) ∪ span(T)), this I didn't know
S ∪ T ⊂ span(S) ∪ span(T)
and span(S) ∪ span(T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T))
ie. A ⊂ B and B ⊂ C
so A ⊂ C
C is a span of something, so it is closed, so span(A) ⊂ C
ie. span(S ∪ T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) which is what we want
that's what I wrote here. Indeed, span(....) is always a vector space
but is this always the case if S and T are subsets of V?
yeah. S ∪ T is just some bigger set, still contained V, so the span of it should be contained in V
but why is the span = V?
well so we have span(S ∪ T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T)), and now we have to show span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) ⊂ span(S ∪ T)
i.e. its a separate argument
what do you mean by that?
the span isn't V
there's no reason it should be
wait
yeah so
span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) is a different vector space, a subspace of V
span(S ∪ T) = span(span(S) ∪ span(T)). We just showed span(S ∪ T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T)). You asked why span = V, i.e. why span(S ∪ T) = span(span(S) ∪ span(T)). The answer is that we have to prove that by showing span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) ⊂ span(S ∪ T)
^ RE: "what do you mean by that?"
I let V = span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) to try to make something more clear earlier oof the confusion
yep
okay, I think I slowly start to understand what you are trying todo
in any case, S ∪ T ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) implies that span(S ∪ T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T)), which is one direction of the equality we're trying to prove. Now, we have to prove the other direction: that span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) ⊂ span(S ∪ T)
so, any idea on how to get started on showing span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) ⊂ span(S ∪ T)?
You shouldn't need any new ideas here
so you're saying that in your class, you proved that a finite sum of noetherian submodules is noetherian?
if that's the case, then yea you should be able to apply that fact to show that finite direct sums of notherian R-modules are noetherian
This is because each summand of a direct sum of modules is isomorphic to a submodule of the direct sum, and the sum of all of those submodules is the whole direct sum
I don't think that's the correct way,
but as span(M)= span(span(M)), so
span(span(span(S) ∪ span(T))) = span(S) ∪ span(T)
is that until now fine?
no
span(span(span(S) ∪ span(T))) = span(span(S) ∪ span(T))
but you can't go any further
oh wait you're right
so we've still got V = span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) ?
as this was the assumption
I just did the V = span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) thing so it would be more clear how the lemma
if S is a set, and V is a vector space, and S \subset V, then span(S) \subset V
applies in showing that S ∪ T ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) implies that span(S ∪ T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T))
much appreciated, thank you!
npnp
i am sorry even though you guided me this far, but I've still got no clue
no problem. Are you stuck on span(S ∪ T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) or span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) ⊂ span(S ∪ T) now?
span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) ⊂ span(S ∪ T)
alright yea, this one is a little tougher tbf
so, span(S ∪ T) is a vector space, right? So if we can show
span(S) ∪ span(T) ⊂ span(S ∪ T), then by our lemma,
span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) ⊂ span(S ∪ T)
which is what we want to prove
therefore, we need to show span(S) ∪ span(T) ⊂ span(S ∪ T)
span(S) ⊂ span(S ∪ T) and span(T) ⊂ span(S ∪ T) so span(S) ∪ span(T) ⊂ span(S ∪ T)?
yep
and we're done just with that?
yep
alright, I am gonna go over it again after a good sleep!
thanks for keeping me company until now! and kaisheng aswell
npnp
Is there anyone available to tutor Galois theory with me for the next 5-6 weeks? I’m really committed to learning with someone, even if they are wanting just to refresh themselves on group and field theory. Please message me if you are interested 🙂
If I knew a single thing about Galois theory, then I'd definitely be interested. But that is just not the case
Is there a good way to check if R is a field for different choices of F?
or is this just another painful problem?
Hausdorff
So if the matrix on the left has an inverse, ac - bd = 1 and ad = -bc
R is already a commutative ring with identity, so I think we don't have to check any other conditions for R - {0} to be an abelian group
there is uwu
if you think in terms of matrcies, you want the determinant to be non-zero whenever at least one of a and b is non-zero
det = a^2 + b^2
yeah true
so we want a^2 + b^2 to be non-zero if and only if both a and b are not zero
yep
without loss of generality, you can assume that b is not 0
so we get (a/b)^2 = -1
does this equation have any solutions?
this makes sense in Q,R,C but in F_p can you divide like that?
yep, that's what a field is... i can divide by non-zero things
equivalently i'm multiplying by the multiplicative inverse
which exists because all these are fields
yes makes sense
if x^2 = -1 has no solutions, the condition will hold and we'll get a field
conversely, if it has a solution say a, then the matrix
[a -1]
[1 a]
is non-zero and not invertible
there is an equivalent way of doing it btw
which is more ring theoretic
Hausdorff
yep!
nah you don't have to write it out entirely
just plug in x = 0, 1, ... p-1 and see if there is a root or not
you can save a lot of trouble with some simple group theory
it turns out x^2 = -1 has a solution in F_p for odd prime p if and only if p = 1 mod 4
x^2 = -1 in Z_p means x^2 = p-1 right?
yep
very cool, thanks a lot!!
the other way of doing this is this
we have a map F --> R
which sends a to the corresponding scalar matrix a * I
we can extend this to a map F[x] --> R sending x to the matrix
[0 -1]
[1 0]
this matrix squared is -1 * I
so the kernel of that map is x^2+1
this gives us an isomorphism
R = F[x]/(x^2 + 1)
so R is field if and only if x^2+1 is irreducible
you're too good, @rustic crown!
extending follows from the universal property of polynomial rings
you just need to specify where x goes
rest everything is forced upon you
yep i figured
so R is like a way of adjoining sqrt(-1) to your field
if it already contains a sqrt(-1) then you'll get something weird
yes like in C
just confirming. for F_5, R is not a field, but for F_7, it is
yep!
what if it isn't a prime number?

nice, i got a contradiction to the minimality of n!
yay!!
A way to do this question is to look at the (unique) morphism of rings from $\mathbb{Z}$ to $D$, which send 1 to $1_D$ (and so $k\in\mathbb{Z}$ to $ k\cdot 1_D$)
It's kernel is a prime ideal of $\mathbb{Z}$ since $D$ is an integral domain, so it's either $0\mathbb{Z}$ or $p\mathbb{Z}$ with a prime $p$
Adrien
This explains why we say "characteristic 0" instead of "characteristic ∞"
Isn't this too direct? It's the last exercise in a section so I thought it might be somewhat challenging
Hausdorff
yes.
and since F_j is a field, we're done lol
😌
I think this will hold for other stuff also
Rings in general? Integral domains?
nice! it really wasn't worth being the last exercise was it
This is a special case of a construction called a direct limit
oh cool
Hi, I'm trying to prove that a permutation in S_n is a power of a cycle iff it has a cyclic decomposition with cycles of the same length. What I've done so far, I just considered the cases when we have a m-cycle, and gcd(m, k) = 1 or gcd(m, k) is not 1, for k being some power of that m-cycle. In the case of gcd(m, k) = 1, it's clear that there can be only one cycle with order m, but I have trouble when gcd(m, k) != 1. Then, I've supposed having less than gcd(m, k) cycles in decomposition, but that's not possible, since we'd have a cycle with order greater than m/gcd(m, k). But the issue is, what happens the when number of cycles is greater than gcd(m, k), then all cycles have order less or equal than m/gcd(m, k), since otherwise we'd get the previous case?
This generalizes to uncountable chains + directed sets (special kinds of preorders rather than totally ordered)
oh nice lol
I think you can explicitly construct the cycle that gives this permutation when raised to some power
See what happens when you exponentiate a cycle, then work backwards
This construction won't be unique
I don't think you have to worry too much about gcd's anywhere
I realize what I get when I raise some cycle to some power, but I'm not sure how to use that
Let the cycle decomposition of the permutation be into c_i, i=1,...,m. Let each cycle have length k, with jth entry of c_i being c_ij (this is after you fix a way of writing the cycle)
Then consider the cycle
c_11 c_21 ... c_m1 c_12 ... c_m2 ... c_1k ... c_mk
You should just be able to read off the mth power of this
Just noticed that I might be using different variable names than you were, so be a bit careful with that
Ah, I was proving the other implication
But it seems that other implication would be useful here
Wait you want to prove that mth power of a cycle decomposes into cycles of the same length?
Yeah, and also if a permutation has cycles of the same length then it is a power of a cycle
Yeah I've given a proof of this
I think it's extremely cool how x² + 1 = 0 has infinite solutions in quaternions (over ℝ) but only two solutions in ℂ.
what the sols?
x = ai + bj + ck where a² + b² + c² = 1
"a finite group cannot be written as a union to 2 proper subgroups". how do I approach it?
I've seen the notation $\mathcal{O}_K$ in my commutative algebra class where $K$ is a finite field extension of $\mathbb{Q}$. It seems to be related to the ring of integers but my lecturer makes no attempt to explain it. I've looked online and can't fine anything either, anyone have any explanation?
Kraft Macaroni
This is usually the notation for the ring of integers !
I guess the thing that confuses me is just the fact that $\mathbb{Z}$ is usually used
Kraft Macaroni
I guess what I'm trying to get at is how does $\mathcal{O}_K$ differ from $\mathbb{Z}$
Ok I inderstood
It's not the classic ring of integers composed of integers
It's the normal closure of $\mathbb{Z} in your field extension
Kraft Macaroni
Use the fact that cosets of a subgroup are either equal to it or disjoint
It's the set of $x\in K$ (a finite extension of $\mathbb{Q}$) such that there exists integers $a_1,...,a_{n-1}\in\mathbb{Z}$ such that $x^n+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+...+a_1x+a_0=0$
You just have to decide which coset you want to consider
Adrien
It's the ring of integers of $K$
Adrien
that's way easier to work with
my lecturer literally just plucked it out of thin air
With that definition, you could try to show that $\mathbb{Z}$ indeed is the ring of integers of $\mathbb{Q}$
Adrien
(with $\mathbb{Q}$ considered as a extension over himself)
Adrien
(of dimension 1)
The ring of integers of a finite extension share many properties with the usual ring of integers (the most important being that there are both Dedekind's rings)
It's a "natural" generalization
Be careful : most of the time there are not UFD or ideal principal domain
(see the "ideal class group")
how do you know Q is a male
I don't 
I asked him, I can confirm 
Thanks for all your help mate
you can play around with orders. let n,a,b,c be the orders of the large group, the two proper subgroups and the intersection respectively. then n = a+b-c. since a,b <= n/2, the only possibility is a=b=n/2 and c=0, which is impossible since the intersection contains the identity
@waxen hedge Hey I'm here to bother you again. Lets say $K = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{-5})$ then in this case $\mathcal{O}_K = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{-5})$ right?
Kraft Macaroni
are there algebras in which operatiosn distribute over themselves?
No ! Actually it depends of the residue of -5 mod 4.
It can be either $\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{-5}]$ or $\mathbb{Z}[\frac{1+\sqrt{-5}}{2}]$
I never remember which one it is, if I'm not wrong here we have -5=3 mod 4 so it will be the first one
You can search "ring of integers of quadratic extensions", it's pretty standard
Adrien
it was a putnum problem, what about 3 subsets?
V_4={1,a,b,c} is the union of {1,a}, {1,b} and {1,c}
can someone give an explicit example, which is in H_1 otimes H_2,but not the set tey give?
linear combinations of those?
because arbitrary element in H_1 otimes H_2 is a linear comb of $\sum_[i,j} a_{ij} e_i \otimes f_j$, where e_i ,f_j are basis of H_1 and H_2 respecitely
ProphetX
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
I think so, yea.
and now,coordinate-free
how could one argue this?
without choosing any basis a priori
@sinful mirage coordinate-free doesnt do anything for you here. To produce such an element, you would need to choose a bunch of linearly independent vectors.
yes, what about it
Ive looked online and cant find a textbook or nice article about it
everything is group cohomology
weibel has homology
i just need reading resources
and brown's book
group homology though

and idk anything rn besides an overview of algebrsic topology
its just presenting on the idea i think
im assuming motivation,definition,examples
its only 20min
i have all 12 hours to prepare for now
i thought that is enough, you dont think so?
what is enough
enough to prepare 20min presentation
sure
im assuming i only need around 2-3 hours to make beamer presentation with all information once im done reading
depends on how well you know the material 
if you already know the basic idea, then it shouldnt take you too long yea
idk what its for lol
i just think i know computation
and idk how to make projective resolutions, but I can make free ones
historically, people wanted to compute the (co)homology of spaces which are completely determined by their homotopy groups
for example, eilenberg maclane spaces, classifying spaces, etc.
and they discovered that there's a purely algebraic way to do it
algebraic way to classify spaces without talking about the spaces?
algebraic way to compute the cohomology
oh
just looking at the R coefficients or something?
any coeffecients
so i should definetly start with talking about group cohomology first
cohomology is a bit more intuitive, yes
as youre taking invariants
instead of coinvariants
i can guess that homology is just the dual version
but im assuming people do group homology to make some calculations easier?
they do group homology for the same reason they do homology
but when the group is finite, something special happens
ill have to read browns book, cohomology of groups?
there's a norm map for finite groups, which allows you to combine group cohomology and homology to get something called tate cohomology
woah
you get an extra long long exact sequence
lol wtf is that
combining cohomology and homology
6 terms long LES?
no infinite
wtf
even the usual LES is infinite
G-modules are just group modules?
yes
are they group actions on groups
modules over Z[G]
linear group actions on modules
yes
ok
so my goal is to introduce group homology and maybe at 15min mark i can mention tate cohomology
for tate cohomology you get an LES of the form ---> H^-1(A) ---> H^-1(B) ----> H^-1(C) ---> H^0(A) --->H^0(B)--->H^0(C) ---> H^1(A) ---> H^1(B) ---> H^1(C) --->...
so infinite in both directions
and this streamlines a lot of the "dimension shifting" arguments that you see in group cohomology
oh so by extra long you mean it goes into negatives
its only been mentioned but idk what negative homology groups supposed to be
you dont need to consider H^0 separately
negative cohomology groups are homology groups
except H^-1 is a bit different to make the LES work
there's a duality theorem for this, and you can use it to define a cup product
oh i forgot about those
cup products in brown's book are a bit hard to understand if you're seeing it for the first time tho
ive seen them before
the cartan-eilenberg approach is easier
they just use dimension shifting a bunch to define cup products
as i understand it, its giving group structure throigh addition of different cohomology groups
oh that makes sense for anticommutivity thingy
i understand how the wedge product is a sort of cup product
thats my concrete intution
idk if i have to go that far though
im only presenting on group homology and i plan to compute one example
there's a super easy abstract definition of cup products using the yoneda product
no clue what that is
ty
I'm trying to show the ideals $(xy),(3x-3y-1)$ in $\mathbb{Z}_{(3)}[x,y]$ are coprime
Kraft Macaroni
how can I go about this?
why can every element of the tensor product $V_1 \otimes V_2$ be written as $\sum_{i} \phi_i \otimes \psi_i$, where $\phi_i \in V_1, \phi_i \in V_2$?
ProphetX
I would try to write x and y as a sum of elements from those ideals.
What definition of tensor product are you using?
or you can think of the opposite
what do you suppose every tensor product can be written as
$\sum_{ij} c_{ij}\phi_i \otimes \psi_j$
ProphetX
thats the same thing
why?
cij are arbitrary scalars
if you have a vector av for a a scalar and b a vector you can just let av=w which is also a vector
so scalars are kind of arbitrary
hm
but c_{ij} not equal c_{i} d_{j}
the scalars may not be equal but you can use c_ij to make it so that the indexing works out if that makes sense
it's just V x W/~
how?
that's a definition
the field is implicit
oh you mean free
vector spaces are always free
F[VxW] why [VxW]?
i'm so confused
I did the construction with the free vector space
and it seemed to be fine
let X be a set. then F[X] is a vector space
choose X=VxW
oh
do we understand the same thing under F?
F[VxW]:=free vector space on VxW
@thorn delta we did the construction with F[VxW]
why can we ignore F?
i recognize it as V x W/~
Yea, but wdym by "ignore F." F is just a symbol
is this not redundant
well,people say it's not
sorry youre right
why is F[VxW]/~ same as VxW/~?
VxW is just a set. F[VxW] is the free vector space on VxW, which is what u want
because F(S) is the set of finite linear combinations of the i(s)
this is only if we make VxW a direct product
yes
here, we just have VxW the set, and we make VxW a vector space in a different way: by taking the free vector space on the set V x W
yes
oh ok
this is what I thought too
this is silly tho
F(VxW) is not VxW though
shit oops
I don't really see what you mean
why not just let V x W be a vector apace?
and then mod out by usual equivalence relations
wtf is point of making V and W sets and then looking at its free construction
how do you add (v1,w1) + (v2,w2)
you dont take the free vector space on VxW
you need extra elements to do that
F[VxW] is not VxW as a set prophet (hopefully i didn't confuse you). Its like the set of "all formal linear combinations" of elements of VxW
you can't keep everything inside VxW
yes
but
i thought u just dont do that lol
ok
i see why free part needed
so silly
how?
this states
there exists only one vector space up to iso. that is the free vector space
wtf
?
how can R be a free vector space?
ok im working on presentation hope this clarifies
free vector space of what?
of {1}
lol
also that definition is a little weird unless they include that B is linearly indpendent
zorn's lemma
also when they say "is a free vector space" they mean "is isomorphic to a free vector space"
yes
lol
do they actually mean every vector space has a basis
and the basis is given by B?
if you are being petty and looking at who exactly the elements are, they will be different because x is not i(x)
chad
zorn's lemma implies that every vector space has a basis yes
(um what is hamel basis)
a basis over Q ? idk
it's just basis in the usual sense
ah okay strange
also, is that a different book ? the one from before only has 13 chapters
yes
this is a mathphys book
the book from yesterday is ok
I went through all chap of tensor prod
but now trying to see different things
the sketch goes like this:
- every linearly independent set is contained in a maximal linearly independent set (requires zorns lemma)
- a maximal linearly independent set is a basis
- the empty set is linearly independent
so every vector space has a basis
yes but
why is the statement of every vector space having a basis equivalent to every vector spcae being free
this is my confusion
I can accept that every vector space has a basis by zorn
oh well a space is free on its basis
if B is a basis of V, then V is isomorphic to F(B)
why?
let B be a set. then F(B) si a vector space
true
Let V be a vector space and B its basis
why F(B) iso V?
write down an isomorphism
well B is a subset of V so that gives you a map from F(B) into V
it sends sum ai i(bi) to sum ai bi
if that's not surjective then you immediately deduce that B was not a generating subset ?
if that's not injective then you immediately deduce that B was not linearly independent
I feel this is just a lot of definitions pushing :/
also all those sums are FINITE sums
even if B is infinite
yep 
iirc you defined F(B) as the set of functions from B to the field with FINITE support
yes
(i can't stand this def)
me neither because they forgot about B needing to be linearly independent
but it's kinda expected that physicists do everything wrong
the "based space" definition that prophet has captures the notion of "free" much better
I am revoking their mathematician license 
but yeah then uuuh
I will put the blame on the fact that writing books is very hard
in general we think of a vector space "V being free on X" if a set map f : X -- > W induces a unique linear map T : V --> W which restricts to f.
Clearly this is the case when X is a basis for V (i think you proved that V is free on its basis by this definition before)
🥅 ⤴️
universal properties to the rescue !
up-to what exponent does rational root theorem hold for
yse this I proved
we did it together here
and the upshot is that this definition is the same for groups, modules, algebras, etc... in case you encounter those
anyone 😦
I have never seen a condition on the exponent. What is the context?
is = necessarily an equivalence relation here
reflexivity is easy: if you have x < x then you also have x > x but (i) says only one of these should be true (contradiction)
= is equality 
here isn't = defined wrt <
I got it
Thanks
< is given as a set B \subset ( S \times S )
that looks circular
and then x=y iff neither (x, y) nor (y, x) are in B
I meant
< is just a relation ?
yea
well = is the relation {(x,x) | x in S}
oh wait really
it doesn't directly say this tho in the definition
that's why i wanted to check
the definition of an order ?
yeah
I think it assumes you know what "=" means
i thought that's not the point
everyone knows what < means
but it's introducing it abstractly
yeah but they introduce the symbol < in the preceding sentence
telling you that it's going to be the subject of a definition
hm I guess
but say we continued down this path
could we similarly show = is symmetric and transitive given that = is just a binary relation and nothing else
i just got symmetry: suppose x = y but y > x, or x < y, which contradicts (i)
i can't get transitivity
fuck
Hi, Im studying some introductory notes on field theory.
Kind of blocked on this question: if L//K is algebraic are L//F and F//K algebraic.
Seems like they shouldnt be if L//K is of infinite degree but I cant find a counterexmple
@hot lake this is what i meant originally
ok i get more why they would assume this now
but it's still kind of peculiar that you can prove symmetry and reflexivity of = without the assumption (and probably transitivity too but I can't figure it out)
Does $R/Z$ have any zero divisors?
fajitas
That isn’t a ring
Is $\mathbb{R}$ a free $\mathbb{Z}$- module?
fajitas
No
Why is that?
Thank you
Is my reasoning about this correct, the torsion elements of the $\mathbb{Z}$-module $\mathbb{R} / \mathbb{Z}$ is $\mathbb{Q}$ the rationals
For instance if I have $q=m/n$
Then $n*(q+Z)=m+Z=Z$ since m is an integer. No other torsion elements exists outside of $\mathbb{Q}$
fajitas
Yes
Thank you!
Why does a group's cayley table have to form a latin square? I thought I had why it was worked out, but then I found that I only had sufficient evidence that the identity element would appear exactly once per row and per column .. but no clear guarantees for the other elements.
It’s because of cancellation
Or like, inverses plus associativity
So like fix g and h
The “equation” gx = h has at almost one solution
Because x has to be g^-1h
Then the existence portion is true because well… if you wanna solve gx = h, then x = g^-1h works
(g^-1)h or g^(-h)?
Okay, so I get why phi(F) is a field, but I am unsure how to extend that to show S is also a field.
Onto means surjective my guy
oh, guess who didn't read the question...
lol 🙂 Can't take powers of group elements gotcha 😉
Yeah
Does that make sense tho?
What I said
What i did was show that every column (or row idk) has exactly one of each element basically
Agreed, I'm looking it over and making sure I digest it properly though.
Yee
Like, at most 1 is the like “injective” part
The gx = h has at most 1 solution
The fact each element shows up is the like surjective part
I guess what I proved is technically a little bit off

If you can figure it out from what I said then that’s good, or I can make directly prove it
I'm trying to pick apart the associativity axiom because something feels funny about it (kind of like Euclid's fifth postulate funny), and also it's the only one difficult to visually confirm via a cayley table.
Oh don’t bother lmao
It’s an axiom just enforce it
Idk how you’re supposed to take a table and “see” that the operation is associative
injective: not too many. surjective: not too few. bijective: botha those 🙂
Well you can see if it's abelian for example, it just reflects across the primary diagonal (assuming normalized row/column order as I basically always do)
Each row / column having every element once is the same thing as saying the function f:G -> G given by f(g) = gx is bijective
Or f(g) = xg
Sorry, here we’ve fixed x now
This represents either the x-row or the x-column
But this function has an inverse, given by f^-1(g) = gx^-1
So it’s bijective
Well the issue with this comparison IMO is being abelian is a property which only requires pairs of elements which is easy to see on a table
OK that function isn't a group element itself though, so while I intuitively believe it would have an inverse I can't see a justification for that straight away. 🙂
For associativity you need triples
No like
As a function
Compose them and the function is
g -> gxx^-1
Or gx^-1x
But this is just identity
That's why one thought I've been toying with is a 3d cayley table for associative operations. :B

aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa
Bruh in our first semester, saketh and I came back from class after seeing the definition of a group, and we heard someone say that all groups of order ≤ 4 are abelian, and then we basically brute forced every single possible multiplication table for order ≤ 4 and figured out all 5 such groups
Associativity was by far the most annoying
We didn't have product groups or cyclic groups or anything lmao
Yes associativity is god awful
We literally just brute forced multiplication tables
Because it requires triples
Ye
So the number of stuff you have to verify just explodes
Also meme
Yes, and now we would just say that we know that Klein 4 is a group
But we verified associativity
All of this by hand

I feel like it would have been more economic to just learn GAP
@gritty sparrow do you remember this
And program something to spit them out
Lol it actually didn't take too long
Also wtf Saketh goes to the same uni as you?
SAD!
I did logic instead 🤡
I haven't tried brute forcing it yet, but the smallest loop I've found so far without associativity is of order 4
Oh lol
When I think about group elements in their role as transformative functions over another domain, I have a difficult time visualizing what associativity really means in that perspective. A composition chain is just doing each of the functions to an input in the given order. So I think parentheses can be seen as replacing a portion of such a chain with whatever single transformation is isomorphic to it. And then that leaves associativity as roughly replacing overlapping parts of a chain not changing it's answer. But assuming I'm even getting that much right, it's not clear to me what's compelling about that property?
Imagine if you walked 10 steps to the right
Then 10 steps up
And this was different than walking 10 steps up
Then 10 steps to the right
That’s how I justify it to myself
That's commutivity though
Also holonomy lol 🙂
I mean you could say
10 steps right
15 steps right
Versus 15 steps right then 10 steps right
As looking at 10 + 5 + 10
Also have you ever tried to write down non-associative stuff?
I just can’t do that to myself, I love myself too much to write all those parenthesis
The best/simplest examples I know are {0,1,2} over |a-b| (which doesn't form a latin square, so I guess isn't a loop) and the small order 4 loop I found which does.
Non-commutative stuff with left- and right-whatevers sounds just as messy to me though haha

Rotations of a sphere is a fine non-abelian citizen in my 3d graphics programming world heh 🙂
Marc ten Bosch says "stop using quaternions for that and use rotors" and I go ksdjkflashdgh
I am a bit stuck on this. How do I find limitations on a homomorphism here?
Write these as a quotient of Z[x]
Then use that Z[x] is a free algebra
And then that maps from a quotient are those from the thing quotienting by, with kernel containing the thing you quotiented by
1 has to map to 1, and you can conclude a lot from this
We have never discussed what a free algebra is at any point
How so?
The map is determined by where you send x
And you can send x to whatever you want
Additivity determined what all of Z has to go to
Then by multiplicativitu determines where x^n goes from where x does
So then by more multiplicativitu where mx^n goes
Then that determined by additivity where every polynomial goes, just from where x does
You have to do some work I guess to show that any choice of where x goes is valid
Ngl. I do not understand this approach at all
On another note, I think one thing this tells us is that Z maps to Z
Well, one thing we do know is that a either maps to itself or -a, since those are the only automorphisms of (Z,+)
And I do believe that the restriction of phi by Z is a bijection
So then how does b need to be restricted then?
apply the definition of a homomorphism to an arbitrary a + bsqrt(3)
Ummm, phi(a+b sqrt(3))= phi(a)+phi(b sqrt(3)). Not sure how this helps.
Well... phi(b sqrt(3))=phi(b) phi(1*sqrt(3)), so it looks like b is resfricted in the same way
Is g(1, 2, 3)(4, 5)g^{-1} = (g(1), g(2), g(3))(g(4), g(5)) ?
g is from S_5
I just need a quick yes or no
it is
I just wanted to save some time
but nvm
right, i.e. you only have to choose where sqrt(3) maps now
My only thoughts are
the only subgroups are ones of size p or q
or trivial and whole group also I guess but those don't matter
but idk how to leverage that
no
Cauchy's theorem states if we have a group of finite order and a prime p such that p | |G|, then there exists an element in G with order p
hm ok makes sense
Well it only has one option: sqrt(-3)
Can you proceed from there?
no, not necessarily
Oh?
it helps a lot tho
surely
To grab the elements
Well, it's got to at least be some multiple of sqrt(-3)
yeah
think about relations that phi(sqrt(3)) is going to have to satisfy
big hint: || (phi(sqrt(3))^2 = phi((sqrt(3))^2) = phi(3) = 3 ||
Wait, but the only two solutions for that are sqrt(3) and -sqrt(3)
But those are not elements in our second ring
ye
So does it need to map to an integer?
Hey if I'm asked to find blocks of a subgroup of S_n what should be my action?
Just conjugation or?
well is has to map to something in Z[sqrt(-3)] whose square is 3
hint: || the set of all your options here is empty ||
So wait, does that mean no such homomorphism can exist?
ye
And then I think the same issue happens for homomorphisms in the other direction
yea i believe so. A similar line of argument shows that sqrt(-3) has to map to something whose square is -3
Actually now that I think about it, not necessarily
phi(3) can be 3 or -3
Because the two automorphisms in Z are n ->n and n-> -n
So I dont think it breaks like we think.
On the other hand, it does tell us that the identity function on Z doesn't cut it, but... n-> -n will
phi(n) = -n is a group automorphism of Z
phi(n) = -n is not a ring automorphism of Z, if that's what you were trying to claim.
Ah good point. So we are only restricted to the identity map of Z onto Z, which cannot work
yea no I'm stuck still. I'm considering the cosets of G : <x> where the order of x is p
so there are q of those
since Lagrange's theorem is a thing
and then
¯_(ツ)_/¯
if |x|=p and |y|=q, whats |xy|?
@next obsidian I was struggling to understand your approach, but were you drawing the same conclusion?
In the quotient x is sqrt(3)
And by property of quotients you need the image of x, call this y
hm
how so I get that it's cyclic @proud bear
Group of order pq
Has element of order pq
That makes a lot of sense. Out of curiosity, how do we know x is sqrt(3)? I am not sure I understand that
The isomorphism
Z[x]/(x^2 - 3) to Z + sqrt(3)Z
Sends x to sqrt(3)
I mean this is what quotienting by x^2 - 3 does
It says x^2 = 3
So x is sqrt(3)
wait no that's what I'm trying to prove
Lmao
I know G is order pq
So how did you realize the group you were quotienting by was x^2-3?
and there are subgroups of order p and q
Cuz this is how you adjoin any sort of algebraic thing like this
if orders of g and h are coprime and they commute order of gh is the product of their orders
Prove this as a lemma
You’ve already introduced an element of order p and one of order q so their product generates the group by the lemma
My point here was sqrt(3) is algebraic so just like for field extensions you can make the extension by that via this quotient of polynomial ring construction
Using the minimal polynomial
Once you see this a few times you just know this is what to do ¯_(ツ)_/¯
So I've seen this used to show C is isomorphic to R[x]/(x^2+1), and I understand why that is true. But I will admit I am having a harder time recognizing how to apply this for a more general range of problems (like you are doing here)
You mean R
Not Z
Yes, sorry
This is just formalizing the idea that maps are given here by specifying where, in this case, sqrt(3) has to go
Subject to saying it must go to something squaring to 3
Really I guess you don’t need the full power of this for this problem
You showed directly it would have to go to something squaring to 3 which can’t exist
But writing like I did would show that a map Z[sqrt(3)] -> R for any ring R is exactly
A choice of an element in R of square = 3
Anything satisfying this defines a map from that ring by just sending sqrt(3) to it and then just extending linearly and multiplicatively
The point here is just that maps Z[x] -> R are given by sending x to anything you want, call this element a
x is a free variable, just like a basis vector for a vector space is, you can just send it to whatever
Then maps Z[x]/(f(x)) are just those maps Z[x] -> R whose kernel contain f(x), which is to say you need a to satisfy f(a) = 0
Okay, I think I am understanding more. Thank you.
For part a), it is clear that phi(I) is an ideal of phi(R), but I am not so sure if we can ensure it is an ideal of S.
Think of a really extreme example
Let S have very few ideals
Then you’ll see it can’t be true
I mean, the most obvious ideal is just {0}
No, think of what S have few ideals
There’s a very large class of rings with an extremely low number of ideals
Something is clearly jumping out at you. I can't think of such a ring
Any ring always has 2 ideals
(Unless it’s the 0 ring in which case they agree)
What if those are the only ideals
Oh, 0 and S
And if those are all you have?
Can you think of a ring with this property?
What if I wrote K instead of S
Or F
F makes me think of fields
and I do believe it is restricted to just those
R sticks out at me
Sure
I prefer C but R is good too
So now we want a ring, we’ll call it S now because we used the letter R
A map S -> R whose image isn’t an ideal
Cuz S is an ideal of S so just whatever
We’ll show the image of the entire ring isn’t an ideal
All you need is the image of S to not be 0, or not be all of R
Anything stick out?
Well, why not let S be Z let the map be the inclusion map
Sweet! Now what about for b)
Inverse image is better than images
I’ll just say that and let you figure out if it’s true or not
I've come to learn that from topology
It’s true in algebra too
Hmmm, so I see that if we take r and j (j in the preimage of the ideal J and r in the ring) then we have phi(r)phi(j)=phi(rj)...which is in J
So the answer is a clear yes, because rj is in the preimage of J
Okay, last thing. I've been thinking about this problem a lot. Personally, showing multiplication is closed in N(R) is easy, but I am really struggling with showing addition is closed, let alone a subgroup of (R,+).
Trust me, I definitely see that it is going to be used. I am just not sure how it is helpful
[ (a+b)^n=\sum \binom{n}{k} a^{n-k}b^k]
dackid
well my thought is the product of the powers for a and b (say r and s)
but why would be able to conclude that a^(rs-1)b=0 with that?
well that is concerning
The problem is that a^-1 isn't guaranteed to exist, so we can't just say a^(rs-1)=a^(rs)a^(-1)
am I dumb or a^n = 0 -> a^m = 0 for m >= n ?
Oh shoot! You are right!
and n = 2*max(r, s) is good enough i think
although the choice doesn't really matter
I do like that one more. Because then it is very obvious that either n-k or k is greater than max(r,s)
Ty for the help. I don't know why I was not piecing that together
r + s also fits nicely
I am not too sure about that. It seems like 2max(r,s) is the magic number
(x + y)^(r + s) = x^(r + s) + ... + x^r y^s + ... + y^(r + s)
in fact i think r + s - 1 is best
your "minimums" (middle terms of expansion) have exponents of (r, s - 1) and (s - 1, r)
God idek why but I find cyclotomic extensions insanely hard
anyone able to help me out with this one?
I kinda need to just talk it through with someone cause idk where to start ngl
It's dummit and foot 14.5.8
oh wait nvmind I think I got it
Hey so can someone check my logic real quick? Trying to find the galois group of x^3 - x + 1:
so first of all it's clearly reducible over Q (standard trick since f(r/s) = 0 implies r and s divides 1 implies the possible roots are simply 1 and -1 which aren't roots)
thus since f has degree 3, we have that the galois group is isomorphic to A3 or S3
and since the discriminant is -23 and isn't a square, we get that the Galois group is S3
Looks fine assuming discriminant was calculated correctly
Alright thanks!
are upper level linear algebra questions appropriate here?
yes
great - I just have a quick one right now
as long as it's not something like row reduce this matrix then it also should be fine here
is the independence of two subspaces the same thing as being disjoint?
range of T
well except for 0
i think that's how we've been using disjoint
cool thanks
just admit you can't solve the problem slimvesus
So question: part b isn't quite finished. How do I show that the preimage of J is a subgroup under addition. I am not so sure I see that
Suppose a, b have f(a)\in J, f(b) \in J
Oh nevermind
I see it
If we take j and j' in the preimage, then phi(j-j')=phi(j)-phi(j'). Since both elements are in the ideal J, phi(j)-phi(j') is in J
So I was able to show N(R) is an ideal, but I am having a bit of trouble figuring out N(Z_72)
One thing I do know is all of the elements relatively prime to 72 cannot be in it
So if we are looking for numbers a so that a^n is divisible by 72 it may help to look at the prime factorization of 72
And the prime factorization of a
@lethal cipher
Yep, I've been thinking about that. 72=2^3 *3^2
I believe because of this, our contenders are restricted to multiples of 6
Actually, that's exactly what it is
Okay, so let me know if this reasoning makes sense.
Let 6*n be an arbitrary multiple of 6. Then 3x72xn^3 is (6n)^3
And so (6n)^3=0 since it is a multiple of 72
Sure, that's fine
Okay cool. Thank you
If I need to find all nonisomorphic abelian groups of order 3^6, how would i do so
I figured that it would make more sense to look for all the isomorphic abelian groups, all the possible iterations of products of powers of 3
But I'm not sure how there would be any nonisomorphic abelian groups
Z_9 and Z_3 * Z_3 are both abelian of order 9, but they aren't isomorphic (one has an element of order 9)
AH yes, thank you!
I was not keeping elements of order x in mind, thank you so much!
Hold up actually
So are all abelian groups of order 3^6 non-isomorphic then?
The thing that's tripping me up is that, by the Fundamental Theorem of Finite Abelian Groups, any products of powers of 3 should be isomorphic to G (the finite abelian group of order 3^6)
ok im listening now lol
that's not how the fundamental theorem goes
so for 3^6
you could have (Z_3)^6
you could have (Z_9)^2 * (Z_3)^2
you could have (Z_729)
there is no unique abelian group of order n unless n is prime, or 1, i think
wait did you mean (Z_9)^4 * (Z_3)^2?
ohh yeah I see
Ah, the confusion was why (Z_3)^6 was different from
Z_3^6
Thank you once again for clarifying
hey there
can we have a free R-module of rank n, with a linearly independent subset of cardinality greater than n? I know it's true when R is an integral domain, but I'm not sure what happens when R is just a commutative ring with 1 . I found this https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1205340/what-would-be-an-example-of-free-module-such-that-cardinality-of-linearly-indepe but didnt really understand the explanation
what about the explanation doesn't make sense
I don't really see how such a linearly independent A would induce an R-monomorphism
if A is a linearly independent set with m elements then it generates a submodule isomorphic to R^m
hm, I guess that's true
but if the answer is that simple why do every textbook complicate the matter by requiring R to be an integral domain
anyways, thanks a lot, this was rly obvious ig
actually, wait
i dont think that is necessarily a contradiction, no? A free submodule N of a free R-module M need not have rank less than or equal to that of M
ah i'm being stupid, ofc thats not a contradiction, but that is how we induce the monomorphism
and the monomorphism would just be the inclusion map from N to M where N is the submodule right?
thanks again
epimorphism and monomorphism are words too big for me
haha apparently they were also too big for me because what I meant was a monomorphism not an epimorphism, i.e. an injective linear map
sorry its 5am here
yes it's just inclusion
Let $F$ be a field of characteristic $p$. Let $K = F(\alpha, \beta)$ where $\alpha$ is transcendental over F and $\beta$
is transcendental over $F(\beta)$. Let $L$ be a splitting field of $(x^p - \beta)(x^p - \alpha)$.
\begin{enumerate}
\item Prove that $[L : K] = p^2$.
\item Prove that $\gamma^p \in K$ for all $\gamma \in L$.
\item Prove that $L/K$ is not simple
\end{enumerate}
eM
We haven't had the chance to cover transcendental extensions extensively essentially (heh)
typo: beta should be transcendental F(alpha), not F(beta), as that doesn't make sense
I would have guessed L is F adjoined pth root of beta, pth root of alpha, and a pth primitive root of unity; but, since F is characteristic p, no such primitive exists (really, 0 = x^p-1 = (x-1)^p, so any pth root of unity in char p is just 1), so L is F adjoined pth root of beta and pth root of alpha.
Consider the degree [F(pth root of alpha, pth root of beta):F(alpha, beta)]. Hmm.
Let me go ahead and split this, by multiplicativity of towers, as
[F(pth root of alpha)(pth root of beta):F(pth root of alpha)(beta)]
times
[F(beta)(pth root of alpha,): F(beta)(alpha)]
Both of these should p but I'm trying to see why
my abstract algebra course was alright... it was kind of abstract... but i was really hoping we were going to learn how to multiply sounds and divide by colors
now THATS abstract
7 times 🟩 = -3 with remainder: 🧩
I think basically you’re using transcendentals to artificially make purely inseparable extensions.
That’s what the gamma^p thing is about
It then gives you that the extension is a degree of prime power
And you basically have to just show that like, you can’t get there with just a single p because something like beta doesn’t pop up just from modding out by alpha - x^p
I think that proves it’s not simple too basically, like my intuition is that you can write this like artificially doing a degree p purely inseparable extension via alpha, and then again via beta
If you find a source for some stuff on purely inseparable stuff I think you’ll be able to find things to prove this
There’s stuff in Isaacs’ book on grad algebra
And the other sources I know are like the stacks project and Bourbaki Vol II on algebra, maybe like chapter 5 or 6?
Might be in Lang but I've not read that part
Multiplication with remainder 
for subgroups H and K, where H is a subgroup of N(K) and K is a subgroup of N(H) and the intersection of H and K is trivial, does everything in H commute with everything in K
hkh^-1k^-1=(hkh^-1)k^-1=k'k^-1\in K
hkh^-1k^-1=h(kh^-1k^-1)=hh'\in H
so hkh^-1k^-1\in H\cap K so it equals 1
wow
has anyone here ever actually completely finished "abstract algebra" by dummit and foote?
how long did it take?
sounds like spain ||without the s||
I'd consider it but it's not necessary even at the grad level
Just as long as you can do all the problems
My guess though would be 1 section per day would make for like 6 months I think
I thought it'd take a year
Well realistically yes
I'm assuming you're completely focused on D&F
And doing every problem
But realistically something like that would take at least a year
wait completely focusing on D&F and doing it would take a year?
To do every problem?



