#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 639 of 407
No basis involved
You only need a construction to show that there’s anything which has the universal property
exactly
So?
You have a construction
Now you can throw it away
And just deal with the tensor product in terms of universal property
This has nothing to do with a basis anymore
I mean sure,if I can prove that this construction exists
this is what i'm struggling with
via a basis yes
But
That’s my point
Once you have it via a basis
You have a basis free construction
By universal property
There’s no point to construct another tensor product without a basis
Literally via the universal property
You say the tensor product is an object such that it has a map from V x W -> V (x) W
Which uniquely factors bilinear maps
Universal property nonsense says anything which satisfies this is unique up to unique isomorphism
but my professor said that what we know by choosing a basis should be a corollary of the proof of existence basis-free
I mean sure, but there’s no point to doing that
Like I don’t know what you gain by showing its existence basis-free or with a basis
ohh
Either way you end up with a basis-free tensor product
Yes
Now you can throw away the specific construction
And argue just in terms of the diagram
It’s like you’re defining the tensor product to be anything which has this one universal property, this is well-defined up to a unique isomorphism
You just need to know there’s at least 1 thing which actually has this property
Then you can throw away the way you made that and just go back to your definition in terms of universal property

This isn’t even an integral domain
x^3 + x is reducible
x(x^2 + 1)
So you have zero divisors
No worries haha
Texas A&M university
So I know it's really hard to see but does the bar over x and y in p(x) |--> p(y+1) mean anything?
It just means that
This isn’t a “free” variable
Because in the quotient it has relations
So this is to try and like, remind you that “hey x^2 = -1”
Because inside the quotient this is true
I found a book,which does it nicely
except one thing,which I do not understand 😢
what's the universal mapping problem?
Factoring bilinear maps uniquely
can someone help me understand the generating property?
f in V,that means f is a function with finite support.
why is every function with finite support of the same form?
I don't understand their proof
I’m not quite sure what you mean by generating property, but the idea is that f is non zero in only finitely many places. Let’s say f(x) = c != 0. Then f has the same value as the characteristic function (c)chi_x at x, and is 0 everywhere else. Repeat this process everywhere f is nonzero, add these characteristic functions together, and that’s it. Every function of finite support is a linear combination of characteristic functions
All functions of finite support “have the same form” only in the sense that they are all linear combinations of functions in a common basis, just like in any vector space, as far as I can see anyway
where they say g(x)=0 if x in X/(x_1,...)
how do they get that from?
using characteristic function property?
Yea, characteristic functions are zero outside of the set that they “select to be 1”. Just plug in a value in X \ {x1,..} and check
my last confusion:do you agree with this proof?
I am extremely confused why they introduce g
I think they just called it “g” because we don’t know beforehand that f = g and they wanted a quick way to say “if x in X \ {x1,…} then f(x)=g(x)=0”
but we do not need it,do we?
isn't this legit?
Ye
May I ask a quick question?
In general when you have a long complicated function, it’s common to just write g = [that mess] to save space and extra writing
Nothing deep behind it @sinful mirage
okay,makes sense,thanks!
Npnp
sure,my confusion got clarified,don't worry
so basically, T is injective if and only if (if S is linearly independent then T(S) is linearly independent)?
yes
more precisely: if S is linearly independent in V, then t(S) is linearly independent in W
thanks man!
Think about how a matrix is defined by (1,0,0,…,0) mapping to the first column, (0,1,0,….,0) mapping to the second column, etc
I intuitively have the idea,but I do not know how to write it down formally
it follows from every vector in V can be decomposed using v=v_i e_i
and if i know the map on e_i,so will i on any v
but idk how to formalize this into proper mat
h
like how to write down t explicitly
t(v)=sum_i v_i f(e_i)?
Ah okay. Let v be in V then v = sum ci vi, a finite linear combination of basis elements, define T(v)= sum ci f(vi)

Then you have to show this is linear and well defined
and now I use linearity of f to prove linearity of t
what do you mean by well-defined?
The value of T(v) depends on how you represent v as a linear combo of basis element a priori. So you have to check T(v) has one and only one unique output
Yea, I mean that’s all there is to it
You should see why this isn’t the case when S is some linearly dependent set
Cuz when S is Lin dependent, you can write 0 in different ways so T(0) is not well defined
for linearity, t(v1+v2)=sum_i(v1_i+v2_i) f(e_i)=sum_i v1_i f(e_i)+sum_i v2_i f(e_i)=t(v1)+t(v2)?
Yep

I proved that over any set,a vector space based on it exists
how do i prove uniqueness?
uniqueness of V or uniqueness of T?
uniqueness of the pair (V,i)
the vector space V
so a vector space based on a set,is a vector space together with a map i, so that ...
I want to prove that this structure is unique
because the proof of existence of tensor products,uses as first words: Let ... be a set and ... be the vector space based on the set.
alright so usually in this setting, when we say "unique," we mean "uniquely isomorphic." So If (V, i), (V', i') are vector spaces based on X, then you want to show their is a unique isomorphism between them
np, so lets make a map V --> V' and show its an isomorphism (i.e. has an inverse)
so,wait,we need 2 ingredients in all proof
right?
- isomorphism V->V', and 2) this isomorphism preserves i, in the sense map(v->v')(i)=i'
right?
and now we develop first ingredient
well, 2) is not necessary. We just want to show that V and V' are uniquely isomorphic
why?
by preserving the structure,we mean it preserves i too
the structure here is (V,i),not just V
why is it different here?
im familiar with uniqueness of the tensor product, but I'm not sure exactly what you mean by "we want the \otimes to be preserved by the same linear map as V."
st=id_v => t gamma=delta
and there is a typo in ii) it should be S delta=gamma,instead of t
i.e st=id_v => s delta=gamma
this is my point, s preserves both vector space structure and tensor product structure( otimes or delta denoted here)
alright, i know what you mean. Only S and T are needed to show that the vector spaces themselves are uniquely isomorphic, but you can also show that delta factors uniquely through gamma and gamma factors uniquely through delta
I kind of need to think about precisely in what sense ii) is important, but that won't stop us from proving this
yes
agree
so we need to show first that V,V' are iso
then we have t show that i factors uniquely through this iso to i'
right?
anyway, constructing V --> V' goes like this:
we have i' : X --> V', and by the property of V being based at X, we get a unique map T : V --> V' such that Ti = i'
yea
yes
then we can go the other way:
we have i : X --> V and by the property of V' being based at X, we get a unique map S : V' --> V such that Si' = i
take, Si' = i, and compose T on the left of both sides:
TSi' = Ti = i'
ohh
this proof is very similar to tensor product uniqueness proof
only difference is,here the maps are not bilinear,just maps
and the unique induced map is linear
correct?
right
that's because this "uniqueness of objects with universal properties" pretty much all have the same proof. its a category theory thing
I will try to do the proof similiarly to the tensor product proof,given your hints
aight sounds good!
do you agree so far @thorn delta ?
and now I can go to the proof of uniqueness of (V,i), using this proposition and your hints
basically this proposition helps me conclude ts=identity
looks good

just learned about quotient groups and am unsure how to find elements of G/H where G=(Z_12,+) and H=<[4]> (cyclic subgroup generated by 4)
<[4]> would be the identity for example
wym? the entire subgroup is the identity of G/H?
yeah
the elements of G/H are the cosets of H
so the identity of G/H is 1H
or just H
so would the other elements just be 1+H,2+H, and 3+H?
good except for this
why?
TT' = id_{V'}, not TT'i' = id_{V'}. In other words, you should have said: TT'i' = i', and by the proposition, this implies TT' = id_V'
completely true
i messed up
i'll correct, sec
nice
now I finally have all the tools the book uses to prove existence of tensor product. it tok me 7 pages of handwriting to get there
now I can start proving existence of tensor product 
hmm all this to prove existence of the tensor product?

okay wait I guess you'll need this "based space" thing. its like their version of free vector space on a set (I shouldn't say version, its the exact same thing, different name)
yes
the only book I found which does not use free vector space notion
and introduces every concept from 0
probably this is the free vector space introduced from beginning 😄
but I never heard that notion 😢
so learn it 
you don't technically even need this to show existence of the tensor product either
(omg im finally "active")
for vector spaces, you can define V \otimes W to be the space of bilnear maps V' x W' --> F iirc (the primes ' meaning dual space)
I think this was a consequence of the proof
but i might be misunderstanding
hold up important edit above im dumb ^
formally here=?if we evaluate them at a point,they become complex numbers?
their notation is so confusing
here they set V=functions with finite support
then here V otimes W (or Z) should be set of functions of finite support on V_1 x V_2
and then vector space by pointwise multiplication and addition
why do they not do that??
"formally adding them" just means that sums have no special interpretation like being able to add coordinate wise or something like that
For example, i could consider the vector space based on the set X = {cats, dogs, mice}. Elements of this space would be "formal" linear combinations of the symbols "cats", "dogs", and "mice"
but how is this equivalent to what they were saying?
they were saying we construct a vector space on a set by identifying elements of set with functions of finite support
if this is true,then there is a bijection between functions of finite support and formal linear combinations generated vector space
what would be the bijection?
they constructed the vector space on X using functions on X with finite suppor
i'm so confused
why did they even do the construction then
ah, bugger, it's an additive group
then the identity would be 0+H = H
and the other elements are 1+H, 2+H, 3+H, yes
more than bijection
isomorhpism,cause they're vector spaces
you can define f : X --> M_fin(X, F) by
f(x) = chi_x. This induces a map f : Z --> M_fin(X,F), and then you should be able to do this the other way to get an iinverse
how does this induce a map f:Z->..?
what is Z here?
same Z from the proof. Z is based at X
and how does this map f look like?
Z based at X is by definition M_fin(X,F)
what we need to prove is that M_fin(X,F) is isomorphic to the formal linear combination set of dogs mice and cats
as vector space
this
what do you mean? the dog, mice, cats thing was an example
yes,but my point is,the vector space of formal linear combinations over X must be isomorphic to M_fin(X,F), if what they are writing is true
first line Z=M_{fin}(X,F), ten they randomly write formal linear combinations
how did they get that?
I’m not really sure what the point of this step is tbh. I’d have to see the whole proof. In principal, you can work directly with Z to construct the tensor product.
Anyway though X is a basis for Z, so they are really just identifying one basis with another
Make sense?
X is a basis for Z,right,but what's the basis for formal linear combinations?
how can I construct the tensor product with Z itself as M_{fin}(X,F)?
do you have a reference?
actually,i'm not sure about this
a basis for Z is chi_x, not X
but I agree that X gives rise to a basis for Z
but X is not basis for Z a priori
"formal linear combinations of elements of X" are the actual elements of a space based at X
yes,this I would like to see why
the isomorphism between formal linear combinations and M_{fin}(X,F)
I can't see why they are iso 
X is a basis for Z and and Y = {chi_x : x in X} is basis for M_{fin}(X,F).
Do u see the correspondence between X and Y?
this induces an iso between Z and M_{fin}(X,F).
Confused on where to start. I'm struggling a lot in my graduate course. Anything can help
if we take a map:Z-> M_{fin}(X,F), which maps X to Y,then we are fine
but why can we do this in infinite dimensions?
there's no difference between doing this in infinite dimensions and finite dimensions.
The "space based at a set" construction does not depend on the cardinality of the set
what is the star here, group of units?
it should
here he says cardinality
(as a hint for part a, try multiplying a formal power series $\sum_{i=0}^\infty a_i X^i$ by another power series $\sum_{i=0}^\infty b_i X^i$ and try to figure out how to make $(\sum_{i=0}^\infty a_i X^i)(\sum_{i=0}^\infty b_i X^i)=1$
'quid
well yea, the cardinality of X and B should be the same (because card(X) = dim(Z) and card(B) = dim(span(B))), but infinite vs. finite thing doesn't really matter
(this gives you a sequence of equations)
All the units of F[[x]]
so even between infinite dimensional vector spaces there is always a map from basis to basis?
or only in this case,cause the cardinalities are the same
i.e. card(Z)=card(X) and card(B)=card(X) too?
do you understand my hint?
also I would suggest you try playing around with multiplying formal power series and see what happens, doing that is invaluable for solving this type of problem
so even between infinite dimensional vector spaces there is always a map from basis to basis?
there is an isomorphism between any two vector spaces whose dimensions have the same cardinality, so yea, there has to be a map between bases
i.e. card(Z)=card(X) and card(B)=card(X) too?
card(B) = card(X), where X = V1 x V2 x ... x Vn and B is a basis for M_fin(X,F), but card(Z) != card(X). Think about when X is finite and F is an infinite field
Okay
also the replies are about to be slow for a while, prophet
no worries
so we need to see that card(M_{fin}(X,F))=card(Z)
to have the isomorphism you proposed work
why is this so?
More specifically it suffices to see card(X) = card({chi_x : x in X}) because X is a basis for Z and the other set is a basis for M_fin(X,F)
ok im back
to make this step more formal, Let $Y = {\chi_x : x \in X}$. Then there is a bijection $X \to Y$ given by $x \mapsto \chi_x$. The properties of based spaces imply that this induces an isomorphism $Z \to \mathcal M_{fin}(X, \mathbb F)$
kxrider
this is the step youre stuck on, right @sinful mirage ?
np
To start you off the first equation that you have is $a_0b_0=1$, the second equation that you have is $(a_0b_1+b_0a_1)X =0X$
'quid
(the first equation should tell you why a_0 being nonzero is necessary, but it doesn't tell you why a_0 being nonzero is sufficient)
Say I want to find a basis for an alternating bilinear form so that it takes the form diag(S, S,…)
0 1
-1 0
being S.
I think I can have the first two elements of the new basis be the first two of the standard basis (multiplying them by a unit if necessary)
But then for this example I couldn’t find any element in their orthogonal complement that is orthogonal to both except 0
nvm figured it out
this this has to do something with semidirect, like some automorphism sending h to g but can't come up with a rigorous argument
Hmm... May be construct something that gives (e, u) (g, u) = (h, e), for some u.
can someone help me rewrite this relations,if I only have i=1,2?
i'm a bit confused
this is in the proof of exsitence of tensor product
yes
so why is this an equivalence relation?
i'm confused by their notation
when is (v_1,v_2) equivalent to (v_1',v_2')?
then what is the equivalence relation, which generates this subspace?
in which coset?
how is the relation explicitly defined?
(v_1,v_2) ~ (v_1', v_2') iff (v_1-v_1', v_2-v_2') is in R
Equivalently they are in the same coset of R
ie their difference is in R
how does this lead to the relations they wrote down?
An equivalence relation can't generate a subspace

oh this is defining the relation from already knowing those elements
when we say a = b is a relation
it is the same as taking a-b as a generator
but then we would have 1 generator,based on this
why we have 4?
That relation combines all 4
and all their consequences
The relations that we want are
(av,w) = a(v,w) = (v,aw)
(u+v,w) = (u,w) + (v,w)
(v, w+x) = (v,w) + (v,x)
Then apply this
we take their differences as generators
that is how you get the 4 equations
and these are consequence of what you wrote how?
so how do these 4 arise from this?
What I wrote earlier is a consequence of all of these
The relation that these equations alone describe is not an equivalence relation
you take the smallest equivalence relation containing this
as a simple example, (u,2v)~2(u,v) because they differ by an element of R. namely, (u,2v) = 2(u,v) + [(u,2v) - 2(u,v)]. but the both of them are not strictly equal, just equivalent
when you do that, you get the earlier thing
wait,so now I have 4 equivalence relations based on this
smallest equivalence relation that also respects the linear structure
no
I will try to prove that these 4 are equiv rels
so (v1,v2) related to (v3,v4) if and only if (v1,v2)=a(v3,v4)=(v3,av4) or ...?
no
yes, but then you do this
(v1,v2) is realted to (v3,v4) <=> (v3-v1,v4-v2) is in the subspace generated by blablabla
ok but how do i define subspace generated by blabla
to have a subspace generated by smt i need an equiv rel
you extend the relation to make it an equivalence relation respecting the linear structure
in particular this means the difference can be a sum of more than 1 of those 4 expressions
and you do that exactly by taking cosets of the subspace generated by those elements
so,accepting this
how do i prove this is an equivalence relation?
there are several ways to define the subspace generated by stuff
which would be useful here?
subspace contains 0, is closed under addition and subtraction
for any subspace U of Z, you can get an equivalence relation on Z by defining x ~ y <=> x-y is in U
it's just a matter of writing the axioms
of equivalence relations and of linear subspace
reflexivity : x ~ x <=> x-x is in U <=> 0 is in U, that's an axiom of a subspace
symmetric : if x ~ y then x-y is in U, we want y-x is in U so that we can conclude y ~ x, that's just U being stable by taking additive inverses
being stable means?
transitivity is also given by the axiom that U is stable by addition
it means if x is in U then -x is in U
so if x~y and y~z, then x-y is in U and y-z is in U. then x-y-y+z is in U, because subspace is closed under -
right?
hence x~z
yeah
ok yeah,now I see
so I arrived finally after 1 and a half day to defining the free vector space quotient this equiv rel
you can define the subspace generated by a set S by saying it's the set of all finite linear combinations of elements in S
now I need to see why this does the job for existence of tensor prod 
where you do all the operations in Z
so you take all scalar multiples of the generators
and then you can do all the finite sums of those
and that gives you the elements of U
you can also say that U is the intersection of all subspaces of Z containing S but it's a little less concrete
with the universal property for tensor products ?
yes
I proved uniqueness,and now I am proving existence
took me 9 pages so far to even understand what free vector space is and why it always exists 
now getting through defining the equiv rel and proving that it satisfies universal prop
3pages of proof to go through 
that's a lot of pages 
but at least I will have a eslf contained handwritten very explicit document of existence and uniqueness of tensor product 
idk if it's just me but this exposition looks very... offputting
it's the only exposition, which I found that builds it up from 0
i.e. 0 prereqs
they define everything and all theorems and proofs used in the construction
oh
other books used notion of F[X] immediately from first line
and I had no idea what F[X] is and why it even exists
at least it's a textbook in mathematics and not a textbook for physics
but this book proved it
it's a pretty self-contained book in my opinion
i like it
homological algebra books be like:take the free module, 0 def
yes
nice
remember the definition of a quotient set
elements of Z/U are cosets of U
or equivalence classes for the relation x~y <=> y-x is in U
in vector spaces a coset is v+U
a left coset of U,is gU
ohhhhh
so gU=g+U in vector space
where g is an element of V
gU is for when you are doing groups and you write the operation with a multiplication
yes,this is what i was used to
well then it's the same but the group operation is +
and + is commutative so left coset = right coset
could you help me to see why this map is linear in the first argument?
i'd try to do linearity in second argument
in book it's extremely confusing
i can show how I tried
10.1 or 10.2 ?
first you have to know the definition of the map and the definitions of scalar multiplication
and this should be equal to tensor(v_1,v_2) + tensor(v_1',v_2) somehow
but idk why
you want f(v1,w) + f(v2,w) = f(v1+v2,w)
by definition of f, that's ((v1,w) + U) + ((v2,w) + U) = (v1+v2,w) + U
by definition of + in Z/U, that's ((v1,w) + (v2,w)) + U = (v1+v2,w) + U
(the leftmost + is now + in Z)
why?
we have 2 U on LHS
how did it turn to U
I mean I rewrote f(v1,w) into (v1,w)+U
yes
and f(v2,w) with (v2,w)+U
(v_1,w)+U + (v_2,w)+U
and you get ((v1,w)+U) + ((v2,w)+U)
but why is this equal to (v_1+v_2,w)+U?
yes
where the innermost + is addition in Z/U
I don't see how you got this
from which def?
so far good
then you use theorem 1.11
[u]W is notation for u+W I think ?
yes
so you use theorem 1.11
ok,yes
and that tells you that ((v1,w)+U) + (in Z/U) ((v2,w)+U) = ((v1,w) + (in Z) (v2,w)) + U
next we say that (v1,w) + (v2,w) - (v1+v2,w) is in U
by definition of U as a subspace that contains this very element along many others
and so ((v1,w) + (v2,w)) + U = (v1+v2,w) + U
and this shows that f(v1,w) + f(v2,w) = f(v1+v2,w)
yes
could you please help on the scalar multiplication in the first entry too?
I'll do this for the second entry
so that really is bilinear
it's the same but instead of using the definition of + in Z/U and the fact that U contains (v1,w) + (v2,w) - (v1+v2,w)
you use the definition of scalar multiplication in Z/U
and the fact that U contains c * (v,w) - (c*v, w)
so you mean here theorem 1.11
yes
you didn't prove theorem 1.11 yet 
chapter 10 did tell you quotient spaces were crucial to understand
oh lol,lemma 1.1 is exactly the theorem you proved
here
yeah about how subspaces make great equivalence relations
wow,reading this makes everything have much more sense now
I just realized that I did not understand properly the definition of quotient space 
and just to be completely sure and precise
here W=vec subspace
not just set subspace
yeah subspace means vector subspace
"The multiplicative group of millennials modulus the color green is homeomorphic to which baseball team?"
Can someone help me on this? If I have a k-cycle, and a k>m-cycle whose elements are subset of elements of a k-cycle, is their product a single k >= t-cycle?
sounds unlikely
That's sad
the nicest thing in math is that I can always ask why and most probably find an answer
def. x, or thm y. or lemma z.
It's just I need to have patience to search the answer
in physics we just handwave a lot 
also, closure under additive inverse (that I mentioned earlier) is obtained by using c= -1 in the closure under scalar multiplication property
so here,just to make sure, [u]w+{coset}[v]_w=[u+v]w means (u+w)+{coset}(v+w)=(u+v)+w
right?
where +coset=+ on coset space
= (u+v)+W
well it's still true
it's true,but not needed
anyway it talks about equivalence classes
hmm so it's basically just the definition of coset vector space,lol
or well,the proof that it is a vector space
this is what I was missing

and lemma 1.2 says that the equivalence class of u is u+W
yes,that one I proved
where u+W = {u+w | w in W}
ah,i should be way more careful with w W
cause it might be misunderstandable if I write a coset as u+w
it is u+w, for all w in W, not just u+w
no it is {u+w | w in W}
what's the difference,between this nad what I said?
ah yes
theorem 2.16 is the one saying that cosets are equivalent to equivalence classes
do you guys agree with my statement,that (u+W)+(v+W)=(u+v)+W is a consequence of teorem 2.16?
basically I think it's this reformulated more explicitly
did you prove that + on V/W is well defined ?
it means proving that if you pick other representatives for [u] and [v], it doesn't change the result of +, aka [u+v]
basically when we define a function we want to define a relation that for each input has only one output
i only heard the term well defined for linear maps
the way we defined + on V/W was by saying that for any u,v in V, (u+W) + (v+W) should be (u+v)+W
that they give same result independent of basis
yes
so the actual relation is defined by
x+y = z if there exists vectors v,w in V such that x = v+W and y=w+W and z=u+v+W
when you want to prove that this is the relation of a function
you have to prove that u+v+W doesn't depend on the choice of v and w
v can be any element of x
w can be any element of y
how come v+w+W is independent of those choices ?
well you say that any two choices v and v' differ by some ... uuuuh ... k in W
and any two choices w and w' differ by some k' in W
my choices of letters are terrible
no worries
and then we want to show that (v+w) ~ (v'+w')
they differ by k and k' by def of them being in the same equiv class
right?
that is, v+w-(v'+w') has to be in W
this is why i am allowed to chooes k and k'
but that's (v-v')+(w-w')
= k+k'
and that's in W
because W is closed under addition
everytime you want to define a function on a quotient space V/W
you actually first define a function on V and then prove that the result doesn't change if you change the input by something in W
i'll finish the proof of + satisfying the axioms of vector space,then write down well definedness
and then try the same for scalar multiplicaton
i'll write how I think scalar multiplication well-definedness should be checked
hope I got it right
if you try to define the quotient group G/H for a subgroup H that is not normal in G, you won't be able to prove that the group law on cosets is well-defined
so you should never skip proving that some operation is well-defined
why do we speak of “modding out” and “modulo” our normal subgroup when discussing quotient groups
I know that in Z/nZ you do “modulo arithmetic” so there’s that
but still
because we already do that when talk about quotient groups of (Z,+)
oh is that literally it
Have you seen this set and these operations elsewhere?
Not sure if they mean anything. By the way I've checked that it's a commutative ring with identity (1,0), it is also an integral domain. Haven't checked that it's a field yet
those are basically ||complex addition and multiplication||

Big bren
@hot lake I just had a big revelation 
the 4 relations were exactly chosen so that otimes is bilinear
bilinearity is a direct consequence of the relations chosen
so mindblown
a priori I had no idea why we choose them as such, and now after the proof I see they are the reason otimes is bilinear 
youre talking about the tensor?
Yea basically tensor just turns bilinear things into linear things
can someone help me to see why from the univ property it follows what they claim?
I don't see why S restricted to X is f
S is a map from the vector space based on Z to W
f is a map from the set(which the vector space was based on) to W
they have different domains
they only map to the same thing
think of the map i : X --> V as an "inclusion." it sends elements of X to themselves, but inside of V
why is it inclusion?
thats so abstract
how can it be inclusion if V is a vector space X is not
ohhhhhhh wait
is it because,the elements of V are formal linear combinations
so the trivial combinations with coefficients 1=X?
so X is a subspace of V?
does this make sense?
yea, its an inclusion of sets, so for example, if X = {cats, dogs, mice}, we could have i : {cats, dogs, mice} --> span{cats, dogs, mice}
defined by i(cats) = cats, i(dogs) = dogs, i(mice) = mice
the based space universal property is really just a high-brow way of saying that V is a space which has X as a basis, and therefore, any map V --> W is defined by what it does to a basis, i.e. where it maps X
but then what I said makes sense,right?
so since X is the trivial linear combination of elements of X, X is contained in F[X]
X is not a subspace of V, but you safely think of X as a subset of V. In particular, a basis for V
but if it is not a subspace
then why can i apply universal prop?
the universal property says if you have a set map i.e. function f : X --> W then you get a linear map T : V --> W which restricts to f on X
ok,so pose it differently
s restricted to x is f := s\circ i=f?
if yes,then i see
yep!
so the idea now is
I have this thing
and I want to prove that the generators of the subspace,which I quotiented by (before), lie in the kernel of this map S
and I have to do this by direct computation?
so let's say my generators of the subspace are $<cv_1,w_1>-c<v_1,w_1>$, first pair. there are 3 more. then i need to prove that $S(<cv_1,w_1>-c<v_1,w_1>)=0$
yea, but its not too bad. If we are talking about the tensor product of just two vector spaces for example, V1 x V2, you just need to verify that elements of the form
(v,w1 + w2) - (v,w1) - (v,w2),
(v1 + v2, w) - (v1, w) - (v2, w), and
(cv,w) - (v,cw)
lie in the kernel of S
ProphetX
and similarly for other 3 generators
yes
can you help me proving one of them?
and I try the others
like one of 4,any
I try other 3
Sure, let $(v, w_1 + w_2) \in V \times W$. Then by bilinearity of $f$,
\begin{align*}S(v, w_1 + w_2) &= f(v, w_1 + w_2) = f(v, w_1) + f(v, w_2) \ &= S(v, w_1) + S(v, w_2) \end{align*}
and therefore
$$S(v, w_1 + w_2) - S(v, w_1) - S(v, w_2) = S((v, w_1+w_2) - (v,w_1) - (v, w_2)) = 0$$
kxrider
f = s on VxW
how does this follow from f=s circi ?
$$S((v, w_1 + w_2)) = S(i(v, w_1 + w_2)) = (S\circ i)(v, w_1 + w_2) = f(v, w_1 + w_2) $$
kxrider
is that a bit more clear?
the inclusion i : X --> V is by definition a map i(x) = x. So if x = (v, w1 + w2) then i(v, w1 + w2) = (v, w1 + w2)
oh correct
so we have this, first 2 lines I agree. then with last line too
everything good so far
but why does this tell me this is in the kernel?
oh the = 0 got cut off on the last line 
ah,because S(...)=S(0)?
basically i took the first equation, and subtracted the far right hand side from both sides to get the bottom equation
then applied linearity of S
yup
hence (...) in Ker S

this makes sense
now I will write down the other 3
thank you so much for the patience
2days of constructing the tensor product. slowly,but surely!
one quick question tho,still
i(x)=\chi_x=1 or 0
i(x) not equal x
yea, so i doesn't always have to be an inclusion, but it has to act like an inclusion. Let me think about how to make this make more sense
like the fact that $X$ is not a subset is not really important. Once we have a map like $i : X \to V$, we can essentially choose $i$ to be an inclusion like so: define $i' : i(X) \to V$ defined by $i(\chi_x) = \chi_x$. If $V$ is based at $X$, we can show that $V$ is based at $i(X)$, and $i(X)$ is a basis for $V$
kxrider
and this is really just because we're identifying elements of X with elements of V: x <--> chi_x
ohh wait
I tink
there's the confusion
the book denoted the elements of i(x) with same as x
i.e.
i(v,w)=(v,w)
strictly speaking,this is bad notation
since i(v,w):=<v,w>
different ( )
right?
so what you are saying is basically that i(v,w)=<v,w>
where (v,w) in X, <v,w> in F[X]
i.e. inclusion
honestly, this is probably a better way to think about it for now
In practice though, literally thinking of $X \subset F[X]$ doesn't hurt
kxrider
the reason why is because there is a bijection between (v,w) elements of X and <v,w> elements of F[X] (just given by a change in notation), but its not worth trying to overthink this
is the composition of a bilinear map with any map bilienar?
This doesn’t make sense
Write it down and you’ll see where it doesn’t make sense
Bilinear composed with linear is bilinear
I mean, I guess you can try to make sense of two bilinear things but it doesn’t work like you want
You like end up squaring the scalar
yes,found my mistake
@thorn delta do you think this is fine
?
using universal property
ye
In a module M over a unitary ring R, is this so $1_R * 0_M=0_M$?
fajitas
R a general unitary ring and M possible a non-unitary R-module. I wanna show that there exists unique $M_{triv}$ and $M_{unit}$ submodules such that the following hold
-
$M_{unit}$ is unitary
-
$M_{triv}$ has trivial multiplication: $r*m=0,\forall r\in R, m\in M$
-
$M\cong M_{triv}\bigoplus M_{unit}$
But I'm at the beginning so right now im just trying to show that $M_{unit}$ is unique
fajitas
if the generators of a subspace are in the kernel of S, why is the whole subspace in the kernel of S @thorn delta ?
I proved now that all generators are in kernel of S
and almost ready to apply the unique extension theorem,but idk why it's enough to see for generators
I thought I would try to do a trick like have the identity of R multiply a sum of elements from two different unitary submodules M1 and M2 and express one of the elements in M1 as a combination of elements from M2
a kernel is a subspace
I mean,i have a subspace generated by those 4 relations
I proved all of thoes 4 relations are in the kernel
and the subspace generated by X is the smallest subspace containing S
why is the subspace generated by them in the kernel?
I think that comes with the def of generating
the fact that the kernel is a subspace,does not tell me that the subspace generated by the 4 relations is the kernel
all I know is the 4 relations are in the kernel
why is then the subspace generated by them in the kernel?
because the generators are contained in space which is closed under the vector space axioms
so the space those generators generate are inside the kernel
so,basically because U is a subspace?
yea
I see
we would have to see what your definition of "subspace generated by _" is to do a proof
subspace generated by relations=linear combinations of generators
i have 4 relations,which assure me bilinearity
that's a set, collection of 4 vectors
okay so the kernel is a subspace so is closed under finite sums and scalar multiplication
so if it contains those 4 vectors
and then I take linear combinations of those
so it contains the subspace generated by the 4 vectors
yep
so basically I have to prove lemma
kernel is subspace
and then apply lemma
yeah that's probably in chapter 2
yep,i'll go back to that
if x1, x2, ..., xn are in span({v1, v2, ..., vn}) then span({x1,...,xn}) \subset span({v1,v2,...,vn})
this is the same concept
because x1, x2, .., xn generate span({x1,x2,..., xn}). that's the intuition via more elementary linear algebra
yes,i'll prove this both
I am sorry for not knowing these,but I never had a formal linear algebra course and I can't read all the book cursively,since it would take a lot of time
I try to catch up on things that I strictly need for proofs,even if tis might sound horrible to a mathematician
chapters 1 and 2 are really fundamental to the rest of the book
so you recommend no matter what happens for me to read chap 1-2
before checking anything in the book?
yeah if you have time for it
my only issue is
the prof did this proof
he said this is undergrad linear algebra
this is why i've been struggling with the proof for days,to decipher what he means here
he just draws commuting diagrams without justification 
I will probably understand this after finishing my proof
for instance,now at least i see 'exists iff' condition
I managed to do the proof!

thanks a lot for the help @hot lake @thorn delta @hidden haven !
❤️
algebra 
@chilly ocean you mad
1 proof
took me 14 pages
wtf
14 pagessss
only about existence and uniqueness of tensor prod from universal prop
crazy proof

so after doing all this proof as an outlook
tensors are elements of the tensor product space $V \otimes W$, i constructed,right?
ProphetX
more precisely (2,0) tensors are elements of this space
yes, and you would write $v \otimes w$ to denote the equivalence class of $(v,w)$ in $F[V \times W]/U$ for example.
kxrider
fine,but then how does this fit into the picture a tensor is a bilinear(multilinear map)?
i.e. a tensor is a map VxW->R
here a tensor is an element of $V \otimes W:=F\left[V \times W \right]/ \sim$
ProphetX
are you familiar with dual spaces?
yes
ProphetX
So, I think it goes kind of like this. Let $\mathcal L (V \times W, \mathbb F)$ be the vector space of bilinear maps $V\times W \to \mathbb F$. Let $(v,w) \in V\times W$. Then you can define $T_{v^, w^}$ by
$T_{v*,w^}(x,y) = v^(x)v^(y)$. You should get $T_{v^, w^} \in \mathcal L(V \times W, \mathbb F)$. So you can define a map $f : V^ \times W^* \to \mathcal L (V \times W, \mathbb F)$ by $f(v^, w^) = T_{v^, w^}$. This should be bilinear so it induces a unique map $S : V^* \otimes W^* \to \mathcal L (V\times W, \mathbb F)$.
kxrider
okay and now you need to find an inverse for S
i don't remember if finite dimensionality is needed here somewhere
If V and W are finite dimensional then from here, you just prove that ker(S) = 0 so S is injective. Then since dim(V*\otimes W*) = dim(L(V x W, F)), S is surjective (finite dimensionality used here), and therefore an isomorphism
why would this fail in inf dim?
but the takeaway is that, at least in finite dimensions, tensors in $V^* \otimes W^$ are bilinear maps such that $(v^ \otimes w^)(x,y) = v^(x)w^(y)$ for all $v^ \otimes w^* \in V^* \otimes W^*$ and $(x,y) \in V \times W$
kxrider
its probably reduces to the fact that infinite dimensional vector spaces are not isomorphic to their dual
You just show manually that bilinear maps are the same as maps into the Hom
This is just currying
This works in all dimensions
Then use the fact maps from a tensor prouduct are the same as bilinear maps
Then you get it
what is t_{v*,w*} here?
hm
where does it map from where to
T_{v*,w*}(x,y) = v*(x)w*(y). You can show that this is a bilinear map V x W --> F
it induces a unique linear map between those two
last line
right?
ah yes,this one i don't see yet,sec lemme think
yea, and it satisfies that S(v*\otimes w*) = T_{v*,w*}
also,here's a typo,right? t should be $:=v^(x) w^(y)$?
ProphetX
where? I thought i defined T_{v*,w*}
yes,but the def of t does not involve w
this is why i'm confused
I think it has to be a typo
thanks for help! it's getting pretty late here,so i can't check bilinearity of V explicitly and invertability
i'll check that tomorrow and get back if I didn't manage
thanks a lot for the help 
npnp
You're thinking of something like $(V\otimes W)^* \cong Hom(V \otimes W, \mathbb F) \cong Hom(V \times W, \mathbb F)$ right? I guess I was suspicious of $(V\otimes W)^* \cong V^* \otimes W^*$ in infinite dimensions but I think i can see how this works
kxrider
No
Hom_bilinear(V x W, F) = Hom( V (x) W, F)
Just like, by definition
Uhh… F here is a vector space
And Hom_bilinear(V x W,F) = Hom(V,Hom(W,F))
You just send a map
f(v,w)
To the map v -> (w -> f(v,w))
This is currying
Suppose $G$ and $H$ are groups. If $G \simeq H$ and $g$ generates $G$ we must have that $\phi(g)$ generates $H$ right?
Spamakin🎷
oh shit sorry for interrupting 💀
I wasn’t trying to commute the dual with tensor product
No, only if phi is the isomorphism
But if it is, then yes
okay, so you're talking about something different than the isomorphism $V^* \otimes W^* \cong Hom(V \times W, \mathbb F)$ i was walking through with prophet?
kxrider
Yeah
You just use that tensor is the same as like bilinear maps
This is more natural I think as well, since it’s only using the univ property of tensor
And in a sense using the univ property of bilinear maps
ah okay sure i agree
ah btw before I go to sleep
maybe it will be useful for some people who try to learn this by themselves and struggle with itlike I did 
tried to make it as self-contained as possible

How can I find the minimal subring of R which contains all elements of S={a+b\sqrt(2)+c\sqrt(3)| a,b,c \in Z}? Think it should be just linear and multiplicative combinations of these elements but dont know how to prove
I dont know the full answer, but I do recommend you multiplying two elements out and see what happens.
You are going to be getting some unwanted square roots, so perhaps that can help narrow things down.
Seems like sqrt(6) needs to be in as well
Well, if sqrt(6) is in there, then it is not in S
right, im trying to find minimal subring that contains S
So whatever coefficient is being multiplied by sqrt(6) needs to be 0
wouldnt sqrt(6) need to be in the subring? otherwise multiplication wouldnt be closed right?
Well, that can never be in S, so no
But if the term being multiplied by sqrt(6) is 0, then it is in S
do i need sqrt(6) to be in S? i just need a new subring that contains all of S, but I can add sqrt(6) to the new subring, no?
maybe im misunderstanding something but i was under impression that sqrt(6) could be in my new minimal subring that includes the set S
No no, you are right. I just didnt quite realize what minimal subring was. I also didnt pay attention to the containing bit
I thought it was the opposite, you needed to find a subring in S
so it would be ok to have sqrt(6) in the new subring containing S right
or neccessary
It is completely necessary. In order for two arbitrary elements of S to be in your subring, they must multiply to a number in the subring. So there must be an integer coefficient for sqrt(6)
that makes sense. to articulate the subring would it be enough to just have {a+b\sqrt{2}+c\sqrt{3}+d\sqrt{6} | a,b,c,d \in Z}? any multiplicative combination just yields one of the terms with a coefficent i think
You also can't exclude any integer multiples of sqrt(6) because sqrt{2} multiplied with c sqrt(3) for any integer gives c sqrt(6)
So this is indeed the smallest subring possible.
Yep, you do need to show it, but that is closed under multiplication
And do go through this logic to show that this is indeed the smallest subring containing S
is your explanation sufficient?something along the lines of "the new subring must contain a+b\sqrt{2}+c\sqrt{3} and must be closed under multiplication hence d\sqrt{6} needs to be as well. If we neglected any term, S is not contained or multiplication is not closed"?
That is not quite what I said.
For any integer d, d sqrt(3) * sqrt(2) needs to be in our subring.
whoops i typoed i meant d\sqrt(6)
Just take Z-linear polynomials in the things you’re putting in
Chmonkey knows what they are talking about. Listen to them
So like here you’ve adjoined in two things
Take any polynomial in Z[x,y] and plug in (sqrt(2),sqrt(3))
This will be the minimal subring
This is basically what you said
All sums, all products, then you just do that as much as possible
What you end up getting is polynomial in sqrt(2) and sqrt(3)
Me thinkies that this does just end up as Z-linear combinations of sqrt(2),sqrt(3),sqrt(6) tho
But that’s my chmonkey instinct speaking
So like
So your polynomials basically only have an x,y, or xy term
what do u mean by this
Take the polynomial ring Z[x,y]
Think of each element as a function
f(x,y)
Just plug in that vector
So it’s like f(sqrt(2),sqrt(3))
ok that makes sense, but how did u conclude this line from that?
So like
Think about what happens when you plug in sqrt(2) for x
If you had an x^2
This becomes just a 2
So like, when you look Z-linearly if you had like say
ax^2
You could instead replace this with 2a
So each time you have an x^2 you can replace it with 2 and then you’ll get the same element when you plug in (sqrt(2),sqrt(3))
Similarly for y^2 and 3
So my point is, you only need to look at polynomials with x, y, xy, and a constant
And like after plugging in (sqrt(2),sqrt(3)) these terms correspond to sqrt(2),sqrt(3),sqrt(6)
Maybe think about what generic terms in this ring looks like
It’ll be like shit like
3sqrt(2)^3 + 7 sqrt(3)sqrt(2)
But this is the same as 6sqrt(2) + 7sqrt(6)
that part makes sense, its just proving the minimality that is not good
Well not really
Sorry, it took me a minute, but yes.
For any integer d, d sqrt(6) is in our subring. Since the additive group is closed, [a+bsqrt(2)+csqrt(3)]+dsqrt(6) must also be in our subring, for any integers a,b, and c.
So this is indeed the smallest possible subring.
You can show that the ring in terms of the polynomial stuff can be described as Z-linear combinations of sqrt(2)?sqrt(3),sqrt(6)
But you’ll see that the description in terms of polynomials is minimal
Cuz any ring containing that stuff will have that a as a subring
They have to exist just from sums and products closure
ok ill try writing this all up thank u both for help
How do I start proving this? I've got no idea where to start
S,T ⊂ V(arbitrary vector space)
span(S ∪ T) = span(span(S) ∪ span(T))
are you aware of the fact that S \subset span(S)?
yes
alright, so taking this one step at a time: you can show span(S ∪ T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T)):
You know S ∪ T ⊂ span(S) ∪ span(T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T)), so...
How do I start proving this? I've got no idea where to start
let s1, ..., sn be the elements of S, t1, ..., tm the elements of T
then what form must the elements of span(S U T) have? what form must the elements of span(span(S) U span(T)) have?
this will help you show RHS < LHS, the other way round is easier
I think you can prove this using only the property that if S is a set, and V is a vector space, and S \subset V, then span(S) \subset V
my instinct says you can only prove one direction with that
i would say "watch me," but I'm not going to spoil it for blazer 
ah
after thinking about it, I am still clueless how to get span(S ∪ T) in between those deductions
are you talking about mine or kaisheng's?
yours
are u aware of this fact (the S \subset span(S) property was a mistake earlier, I meant this property that I am replying to)
but isn't S subset of span(S)?
yea, that's true, but more generally, if S \subset V for a vector space V, then span(S) \subset V
S\subset span(S) is a special case
Hey, can someone check if my reasoning is correct? It's a pretty basic question but its 5am so i cannot be sure. We have shown in class that if $N_1,\cdots,N_k$ are Noetherian R-modules then so is $\sum_i N_i$. Right after this, we use (without proof) that if $R$ is Noetherian then so is $R^n$. Is the following reasoning valid?
Suppose that $R$ is Noetherian. Then $R^k\cong\underbrace{R \oplus R \oplus \cdots \oplus R}_{k\text{ times}}$, and we can treat this external direct sum as an internal one (i.e. pass to an isomorphic module with submodules $S_1,\cdots,S_k$, each isomorphic to $R$ and whose internal sum is the whole module) and this internal direct sum is actually just the sum of the submodules, and by the result proven before, this must be Noetherian.
I don't think I am aware of span(S) subset of V
iruneachteam
alright, so we know V is closed under taking linear combinations of its elements, so if we take linear combinations of elements of S, which are contained in V, then we stay inside V. Thus span(S) \subset V
alright, this makes sense
so using that, it follows from this chain of inclusions: S ∪ T ⊂ span(S) ∪ span(T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T))
that span(S ∪ T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T))
make sense?
I am not sure why
span(S ∪ T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T))
is derived from the chain of inclusions
what i mean is that each inclusion in that chain is not too hard to see, and the result is that:
S ∪ T ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T))
which would imply
span(S ∪ T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T))
S ∪ T ⊂ span(S) ∪ span(T)
and span(S) ∪ span(T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T))
ie. A ⊂ B and B ⊂ C
so A ⊂ C
ie. S ∪ T ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) which is what we want
okay so first,
span(S ∪ T) ⊂ S ∪ T if understood correctly,
thus
span(S ∪ T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T))
nono span(S ∪ T) ⊂ S ∪ T is not true.
S ⊂ span(S)
T ⊂ span(T)
This implies
S ∪ T ⊂ span(S) ∪ span(T)
S ∪ T ⊂ span(S) ∪ span(T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T)) this part I understood
I just don't know why it implies span(S ∪ T) ⊂ span(span(S) ∪ span(T))
if A is a subset of B and B is a subset of C, A is a subset of C
