#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 598 of 407
not even surprised atp
AoC might as well imply existence of god. it’s just that broken.
Why do you think it‘s "broken"
needs nerf
Patch 1.2.1
-- AoC was too strong before, so it now only applies to countable sets, thus functionally merging it with the Axiom of Countable Choice.
-- In light of the above, AoCC has been removed from mathematics for now to be reworked
Patch 1.2.2
-- AoC has been removed, being replaced by Zorn's Lemma
-- Zermelo Theorem is now obviously false
am happy now. thank you math mods
Patch 1.2.3
--recognized previous mistakes, added AoGC
Hi, can someone give some hints/tips to proof that $\mathbb{Q} \not\cong \mathbb{Q}^2 $ as $\mathbb{Z}$-Modules
Polux12
do you know about tensor products?
I guess even without that, you could try to prove a more general statement
suppose V and W are two Q-vector spaces which are isomorphic as Z-modules. Then they are also isomorphic as Q-vector spaces
that's my hint :^)
i will work on it Thank u!

cute
Let $G$ abelian group of order $n$, and $n = \prod p_i^{n_i}$ prime factorization. Prove $G = \sum S(p_i)$
Charlie++
Does anyone know what S means in this context?
S(p) is probably the p torsion elements of G, but that is just a guess
what does p torsion element mean
The elements g st p^i(g)=0 for some i
I'm a bit rusty on my commutative algebra. I generated the alexander ideal for a knot, which is an ideal in the ring of laurant polynomials Z[t, t^{-1}]. How can I tell if the ideal is principally generated (in sage preferably, but an abstract idea could work as well)? I took a class a year ago and know that Groebner bases are a thing, but my understanding is that the algorithm only works for Z[x1, ..., xn] with non-negative exponents because of how it uses polynomial division.
Z[t,t^{-1}] is the same thing as Z[x,y] mod out by xy=1. Looks like this can be done in macaulay2
https://faculty.math.illinois.edu/Macaulay2/doc/Macaulay2-1.17/share/doc/Macaulay2/Macaulay2Doc/html/_simple_sp__Groebner_spbasis_spcomputations_spover_spvarious_springs.html
Actually I think there's another way to do it without using multivariate groebner basis. Let I be the ideal and J=I intersect Z[t]. Say J, as an ideal of Z[t], is generated by a_1,a_2, ..., a_n, then these polynomials also generate I. Then it remains to check if the number of generators can be reduced with t inverted.
Might be wrong tho since I didn't write down all details.
Hm
How would i actually demonstrate that the sheaf of regular functions on an affine variety is a sheaf?
Namely how do i show gluing?
what is your definition of a regular function
my definition is that being regular is a local property, so it trivially satisfies the gluing property
because it can be checked on an open cover
Uh an element of the intersection of the local rings
I think my worry was/is like picking a representation
if we have like f1, ..., fn in O(U1), ..., O(Un) then at each point p in U can we literally just pick a representative f_p/g_p for some f_i and then define f by being f_p/g_p in each O_X, p?
Yeah, I'm not sure what context you're working in but like, if this is in the sense of chapter 1 of Hartshorne, regular functions are functions, in the usual set-theoretic sense
Im seeing them as elements of the quotient of k[x1, ..., xn] by an ideal I
Where X = V(I)
Ok
Ok, I see what you're saying.
yeah then this is a commutative algebra exercise. first of all what does it mean for f_i/g_i and f_j/g_j to agree on U_i \cap U_j?
let's say for convenience that all of the open sets U_i we are talking about are of the form D(f) for various f. then later on we can reduce the general case to the case where the opens belong to the standard basis
Yeah I think thats where my confusion lies, im not 100% sure what it means for these functions to agree
It means that theres like an f/g with f_i/g_i = f/g = f_j/g_j on U so like. f_i(p) g_j(p) - f_j(p) g_i(p) lies in (f_i cap f_j)...?
Actually that does not sound right 
Note that if f, g are functions in k[x1....xn]/I, then D(f)\cap D(g) = D(fg)
does that sound right?
Yes
We define the ring of functions over D(f) to be the localization (k[x1...xn]/I)_f
does that make sense? If you're excising the closed set where f vanishes, then f becomes invertible on the complement
Uh im not 100% on what you mean by invertible on the complement here. does (k[x1, ..., xn]/I)_f mean like the functions g/f^n for some n?
yeah, I define this to mean ((k[x1....xn]/I) [z])/(zf-1)
in this ring f has an inverse, and this is the free-est possible way of adjoining an inverse to f
I see
i'm saying that g/f^n is undefined exactly where f is zero
if you remove the set V(f) where f is zero, the function becomes defined everywhere on D(f)
so the invertible functions are precisely f and powers of f
Okay yeah this makes sense
So there's an obvious map $R\to R_f$, this is called the localization map, it sends $x$ to $x/1$, and if $f\mid g$, say $f\cdot s= g$, then it's not hard to show that $(R_f)_s = R_g$
well, up to natural isomorphism, yadda yadda
so the relevance to this conversation is that
Uh is that supposed to be x mapsto x/1
haha makes sense
diligentClerk
this also makes sense i think
if $t_i \in \mathcal{O}(U_i) = D(f_i) = (k[x_1,\dots, x_n]/I){f_i}$, and if $t_j \in \mathcal{O}(U_j) = D(f_j) = (k[x_1,\dots, x_n]/I){f_j}$, then we say that $t_i,t_j$ agree on the overlap $U_i\cap U_j=D(f_if_j)$ if the images of two elements are the same via the homomorphisms
diligentClerk
diligentClerk
$(k[x_1,\dots, x_n]/I){f_j} \to (k[x_1,\dots, x_n]/I){f_if_j}$
(uh is this also supposed to be O(D(f_i)))
diligentClerk
yeah sorry
np
i meant $U_i = D(f_i)$
diligentClerk
so that's a definition you can work with.
it's now a commutative algebra exercise to show that
if $R$ is a commutative ring, and if $\left{U_i \right}$ is a family of opens which cover the space, say all principal so that $U_i = R_{f_i}$ for some $f_i\in R$, and $t_i \in R_{f_i}$ such that $t_i=t_j$ when they're both mapped into $R_{f_if_j}$, then there's a unique element $t$ of $R$ whose restriction/localization to each $f_i$ is indeed $t_i$
diligentClerk
is the space here supposed to be Spec(A)
yeah.
I see
broad hints are that Spec(A) is compact, so you should be able to take a finite cover wlog, this is also a commutative algebra exercise
I have seen that yeah
i did like all the exercises in the first 3(?) chapters of AM im not totally incompetent at comm alg i promise 
cool. i think this exercise is in Eisenbud's commutative algebra somewhere on. then, like I said, the D(f) only form a basis, so you have to show that proving this is a "sheaf on a basis" is enough to prove that it satisfies the sheaf condition with regards to arbitrary open subsets
Also this same argument works for modules over a ring to show that an $A$-module is a sheaf over $Spec(A)$, which is pretty cool
diligentClerk
Wait I have seen this actually
it is exercise 24 in ch 3 of AM
Ok i remember this now
nice!
I think I was confused because ive only worked in the case where the varieties were defined w/ solutions to the polynomial rather than directly with Spec but I see now
if you think of it as A_f then this is the gluing of the structure sheaf
as you might expect because this is literally a special case of the structure sheaf 🤔
yeah, if you're curious you might want to try showing how this relates to the local rings at the primes. If $p\subset$ A is prime, then $A_p$ is the stalk of the structure sheaf at the point $p$, i.e. the filtered colimit of the $\mathcal{O}(D(f))$ over all $D(f)$ containing $p$. that gets you more closely in touch with the previous definition you were trying to work with, with the local rings
diligentClerk
yea i proved that exercise 
nOICE
you take the limit of the A_f for f notin p basically I think
Yeah, because the principal opens form a basis it suffices to consider them when forming the filtered colimit
Ok quick question:
if A is a dedekind domain finitely generated over a field k and L is a field extension of k such that A otimes L is integral, is A otimes L also dedekind?
What is a transition function?
What does it mean for U_1 and U_2 to be related by an element T_12 of GL_2? Why must they be related by such an element?
Do you have any hypotheses on M other than it being a topological space? If f_i are the trivializing homeomorphisms from inverse image of U_i to U_i x F_i, then you can complete the triangle made by these 2 restricted to the intersection, by putting a map f_2 ∘ f_1^{-1} in between. I'm guessing that's what T_12 is, and this would satisfy the cocycle condition that's given, but without some associated algebraic structure you won't get linearity
This is a slightly dense way of wording it imo. If you want to see a good presentation of fiber bundles I recommend Steenrod's Topology of Fiber Bundles
I think it's fine here for M to be an arbitrary topological space, it's just that the fibers need to be vector spaces. The linearity can be expressed that way
The book's wording, or mine? 
the book's
why would you say "an element of GL_n with entries consisting of continuous functions"
just say a continuous map into GL_n
Hi, can someone help me to prove that (N:P) =Ann((N+P)/N)? $N,P\leq M$ where $M$ is an R-module
Polux12
Well if x is in the LHS, then xP is a subset of N, or concretely for any p in P, xp is in N. So now consider an element n+p+N in N+P/N. multiplying by x we get nx+px+N. But both nx and px are in N so this is the same as the coset 0+N or the zero element of N+P/P, so x is in the annihilator. Can you try the other direction now?
Let $x\in\operatorname{Ann}((N+P)/N)$ and $p\in P$. Then $p+N\in(N+P)/N$, so $xp+N=x(p+N)=0+N$ by our choice of $x$, which means that $xp\in N$. Since this is true for every $p\in P$, we get $xP\subseteq N$, so $x\in (N:P)$
Polux12
Yep
Hello, pls what defines a subring
it's a subset of a ring that's also a ring itself with the operations restricted to that subset (and, of course, also contains the 0 and 1 of the ring)
How can I prove for one
by checking that definition
there's also probably some kind of funny "subring test" you could use
Would the solutions to cubic function fall under this channel? its a ring/field theory course
so i understood that our d embeddings will extend to n/d things so we get a total of n embeddings as expected
but
not why they are multiplying by n/d, $T(\alpha) = \frac{n}{d}t(\alpha)$
Yes ツ
oh hey number fields nice
lol
so the idea is that theres d conjugates of alpha, but n total embeddings
nuts/deez
so you will repeat each conjugate n/d times
right for the whole field theres n different ones, but if we restricted to the subfield Q[alpha] theres d
yep ok, that makes sense
think of an example, like take the embeddings of Q[(2)^(1/4)] and sqrt(2) in it
also we are doing a number fields reading group in voice chat semi-regularly, if you are interested
oh im not that behind
yeah you could join in, ill ping u next time we meet
sure, ty
Is $\mathbb{Z}_n\times\mathbb{Z}_m\cong\mathbb{Z}_m\times\mathbb{Z}_n$ ?
modus ponens
In general, are all direct products isomorphic to a reordering of their factors?
Yea, I did the proof for a product of two. The obvious isomorphism that sends (a,b) to (b,a).
you can get the general direct product by proving the associative property
oh i assumed they meant finite
sorry should have been more specific with 'general'
Let $R=\mathbb{Z}[x]$ and $M=(2,x)$ the ideal generated by 2 and $x$ seing as R-module
Why wouldn't it {2,x} be a base of $M$?
I really believed that it was
so what is a base/basis? what needs to be true for a subset to be a basis?
generate the set
so if it isn’t a generating set, then it must be not generating some element
so you need to find an element that is not generated by {2, x}
do you know how to describe the set (2, x) in set builder notation?
like for example in the maybe more familiar situation of a vector space R^n, the span of some vectors is all linear combos
this is what really confuses me
But M is generated by {2,x} over R, that is pretty much the definition
Ofcourse we don’t call a generating set for a module a basis, but the issue won’t be wether it generates M right?
yeah you can’t even generate M though
oh oops
my b i thought M was R. yeah M=(2,x), so by definition it is generated by {2,x}. you are right, i do be goofing.
but yeah, to show {2,x} is not a basis for M, you could also show it is not linearly independent
so if you wanna show {2, x} is not linearly independent, you need to find a Z[x] combination of 2, x that sums to 0
for example x^3*2 + 7*x would be a Z[x] combination of 2, x, but this one isn’t 0
if i am understanding then 4+2x would work?
we're trying to do a combination with non-zero scalars that ends up getting zero
so when you say 4+2x, do you mean 2*2 + 2*x? that would be a Z[x] linear combination of {2,x}, but you don't get zero
this is really similar to linear algebra
for example, in R^1, is it possible to have 2 linearly independent vectors?
nope
so tell me, are 2 and 4 as real numbers R-linearly independent?
no, right?
so if they aren't linearly independent, then that means that there is a way to combine them to 0
for example you can write 4*2 + (-2)*4=0, which is one way to prove that 2 and 4 as real number are not linearly independent over R
you can do a really similar thing in M=(2,x) as a Z[x]-module
you want to show that {2,x} are not linearly independent, so you want to write a Z[x]-linear combination to get them to add to 0
I understand, thank you very much!
sick!
if you want a cute problem that does the same trick, you could try this bad boy out
assume R is an integral domain, and that every ideal J of R is a free R-module (i.e. J has a basis over R). Prove that R is a PID
this is from Dummit & Foote, why is dot not a binary operation here?
isn't $g \cdot a $ a binary operation?
binary operation would be like G x G -> G or A x A -> A, but a group action is G x A -> A
i think
hmm, how is g dot a defined even?
yeah I think so too, I believe they call it an 'external binary operation' if they're from different sets but I never see this terminology used so not sure
it depends on the context, since it's just notation to represent a group action (defined in your picture)
g dot a is whatever (g, a) gets sent to by the group action map
how can we be sure that g dot a is in A? g and a are two distinct elements from two different sets?
by definition
maybe skip ahead to the part where they give examples
like, common example is take a set A = {a,b,c} and then g might act on the elements by switching them
so g is a permutation
yeah in this example
and I guess by cayley's theorem you could see all of them that way
but might be like a rotation of a shape or something
is sigma_g a group action here?
idk didn't read
sigma_g is specifically the action of the individual element g of the group
the actual group action is the map G x A -> A
in the next page they write this
but isn't that basically the same as what they've wrote above?
sigma_g(a)=g dot a=phi(g)(a)
these are all different ways of looking at the same thing, if that's what you're asking
These are equivalent ways to define a group action
here they say the roots are distinct, but i was stuck on the exercise for a while thinking that might not be necessarily true: how would one prove the roots to be distinct?
suppose $x_i =x_j$, then raise both sides to the ij power and you get $a^j=a^i$. Multiply by the inverse on one side to get $e=a^{j-i}$ but since $i \ne j$ and $a \ne e$, contradiction
Merosity
actually that doesn't work does it, I think you need to put some kind of relatively prime condition on i,j
This seems really obvious but I have forgotten everything from group theory apparently
there's no reason a^{j-i}=e can't hold true if j-i is a multiple of the order of a
I guess it's not the case that they are always distinct, but that you can choose them to be distinct.
I think a nicer proof is just: ||a has no nth root or that would imply a is the identity||
because the way i did it was i just took an infinitely countable amount of "distinct" roots but i couldnt figure out if they had to be distinct, exactly for the reason mero exhibited
How do you prove uniqueness in the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups?
We only proved existence in my course
The group uniquely breaks into a torsion part and a free part. For the torsion part, use Chinese remainder theorem to uniquely split it into a direct sum of p-groups and prove uniqueness of the part associated to each p separately
pee group

must a homomorphism between groups map the identity of one group to the identity of the other?
Yes
how do i prove that
so if you prove one then you're done?
Yeah you got phi(1) = 1
Do you prove the uniqueness using Sylow?
(either one of the two works bc you just multiply by the inverse on one side)
Uniqueness of each pee group decomposition?
yea
Shouldn't need sylow, you look at all elements with order p, separate it out, then order p², and so on
to prove that f(x^{-n})=f(x)^{-n}, given that we know that f(x^n)=f(x)^n for a homomorphism f
no
you only showed one divides the other
Yep
Order is the smallest exponent which makes the element into e
So now you have to show that no smaller exponent d makes x^d = e
Yep
homie fix your writing
first direction I think you shouldd write the last thing before phi(xy) but yea
second direction seems okay 
lol yea
thanks
but if phi is only a homomorphism, what constraints must be satisfied in order for "G abelian => H abelian" to be true?
"surjective" is one sufficient condition
the image of an abelian group under a homomorphism is always an abelian group
oh so it's a subgroup?
yes
and if that subgroup is the entire group then we're done
How do I find the order of element in infinite group?
do you have an example in mind
I don't think there is a systematic approach
just keep adding it to itself
function is addition
It's 35
Assume 2k/5=14m
Which gives k=35m
Which gives k=35 is the least value for which k(2/5)+14Z=0
14+14m=14k=0
What's k?
An element of Z_21
consider the order of the elements
one of the guys said to find via gcd(14,21)
In cosets what does it mean to have a representative?
phi is determined from where it sends 1 in Z_14. And 1 can be mapped to any element whose order divides 14.
that leave only 2 3 and 7
if we have a group G and elements e, g \in G where eg=g, can we necessarily conclude that ge=g and therefore e is the identity?
Is your question
if an element in a group is a left identity, is it also a right identity?
or is it
if you change the group axioms to say "left identity exists" instead of "2-sided identity" exists, do you still get the same notion of a group?
Answer to both is yes, but it will look very different in both cases
The first one is just
Suppose e is a left identity. Let 1 be the 2 sided identity of the group (which exists by the group axioms). Then 1 = e1 = e.
The second one is
Suppose 1 is a left identity. Then we need to prove g1 = g for all g. Start with g'g = 1, where g' is the inverse of g, and multiply both sides by g on the left. You get
(gg')g = g1
1g = g1
I am taking "inverse of g" to mean an element g' such that gg' = g'g = 1, the left sided identity here.
so to clarify
This means that if the intersection of all of the points in U is a finitely generated k algebra then the intersection of all of the points in phi^-1(U) is too
and furthermore that the intersection of all of the points in phi^-1(U) is a finitely generated module over the intersection of all the points in U
I dont really understand this argument...
why does R have to contain O(U)?
Unless im misreading and its saying L contains O(U)
How do we show field ext E = Q(2^1/2, 2^1/3, 2^1/4...) is algebraic extension of Q?
take a generic element a in E and show it can be expressed as root of monic polynomials in Q[x]?
Do you know the lemma that if a and b are algebraic over a field F, then F[a,b] is algebraic over F?
Hmm noo
ik [F(a):F] = degree(p(x)) where p(x) is irreducible polyn with root a
p(x) monic and unique
i also know F<B<E, [E:B], [B:F] then E/F finite and
[E:F] = [E:B] * [B:F]
soo im guessing i can do infintie product?
Ah, don’t do that, reduce to the finite case
So if say a is the element, it is a finite combination of the 2^(1/n)’s
linear comb?
So we only have to show that Q[..2(1/n)..] is finite for the n’s appearing in the expression for a
Polynomial combination
a = sum of pi(2^1/i)?
Oh my bad i shoulda mentioned i need to prove its infinite extension, aswell as algebraic over Q altho i think ik how to prove infinite
Yes (you have multiple 2^(1/i) in your product right?, just making sure)
sum not product right
It is a sum of products
sum of polynomials
of 2^i
where i = 2, 3 ...
correct?
To show algebraic i just need to show all generic elements of it are algebraic over Q (i think?)
Yes, by products i meant expressions that look like rationalx2x2^(1/2)x..2(^(1/n)
Yes if by generic you mean all elements
In any case, did you understand the reduction to the finite case?
umm just to make sure itd be a = p1 + p2(sqrt2) + p3(sqrt3) + ...
where p3 is a polynomial with coefficients in Q(sqrt2), p4 is a polynomial with coefficients in Q(sqrt2, sqrt3) ... etc.
Yes that is true but it is a very weird way of putting it, to be quicker you would say, a=pn(2^(1/n) where pn has coefficients in 2^1,…,2^(1/n). Another way of saying it is a=p(2^1,…2^(1/n)) where p is a multivariable polynomial over Q
Does this make sense
Also, small typo you wrote sqrt(3) when i think you meant cube root of 2
where pn has coefficients in Q(2^1, 2^1/2, 2^1/3, ... 2^1/n)?
oh and yea sorry meant 2^1/3 not sqrt3
and is this logic correct:
Sorry upto 2^(1/n-1)) not n, that would male it trivial
oo yea
also using Eisenstein criterion x^n - 2 is irred so
Q/(x^n-2) is degree n
so [Q(2^1/n):Q] = n
and if we define finite version of E
say En = Q(2^1/2, 2^1/3, ... 2^1/n)
[En : Q] = product of [Ei+1 : Ei] from i = 0 to n-1
and [Ei+1 : Ei] = [Ei(2^(1/i+1) : Ei] = i+1?
or maybe not necessarily i+1
since im not sure x^(i+1) - 2 is irred over Q(2^1/2, 2^1/3, ... 2^1/i)
just being a finite extension should be good enough
We can directly show that En has dimension greater than n because x^n-2 has a root in E and this is an irreducible of degree n over Q.
[Q(2^(1/n)) : Q] = n so [E: Q] >= [Q(2^(1/n)) : Q] = n for all n?
Yes
So this proves the other part of your question I suppose
What exactly does "represented by quotients of homogenous polynomials of the same degree" mean

should be = p({x_i})/q({x_i}) where p and q are homogenous with same degree

I was awookend

when it said quotients i thought it meant like. equivalence classes of a quotient ring
I now understand
What 
Why is this true
That sentence doesn't make sense
K doesn't have transcendence degree 1 over K
Yeah i think they mean over some base field k
with k|K and k|L both finitely generated and of trans. deg 1
Yeah then it seems legit, probably a similar argument as finitely generated algebraic extension → finite extension
I dont even see how you can regard L as an extension of K here without finiteness
of the morphism
in the affine case thats what you do right... finite morphism implies injective map on the coordinate rings which gets an inclusion of function fields
idk much AG I was just trying to reason from field theory lol
which doesn't seem to work 
a surjective morphism here means like. ok so Y^L = {R | k subset R subset L, Frac(R) = L, R a discrete valuation ring} and X^K is same thing but with K in place of L
and the morphism is a continuous map from Y^L -> Y^K with a map of sheaves i.e from O^K(U) = intersection of R in U onto O^L(preimage of U)
So... where does this imply a map K -> L

the curves have the cofinite topology... is there some reason getting non constant maps on all the intersection of all but finitely many discrete valuation rings should induce a map on the fields
Certified szamuely moment
@prisma ibex sorry for pinging you can just ignore if you want but uhhh
can you help me understand this (that surjective morphisms Y^L -> X^K of proper normal curves induce a map K -> L)
Okay so these sets you are defining are in terms of valuation rings yea?
Yes
we have a morphism of sheaves mapping $\mathcal{O}^K(U) = \bigcap_{R \in U} R \to \mathcal{O}^L(\varphi^{-1}(U)) = \bigcap_{\varphi(R) \in U} R$
Moth In Shambles
for all cofinite U
Okay so you’re defining the Zariski Riemann space
Packing rn so I can’t explain but if you search for Zariski Riemann space you’ll find the statement you need
I don’t like Zariski Riemann spaces so the way I would personally do this is go from Zariski Riemann spaces to algebraic curves and then from algebraic curves to function fields is more standard
@prisma ibex whenever u can if u can link me a reference on this thatd be helpful because when i google its all like k theory and birational geometry and stuff 
Can anyone give me a hint how to plot a co-amoeba? I was able to plot a amoeba using maple to apply the log(abs()) map grid-wise on the variety. But when I replace the log(abs()) map by arg() map, I dont get a meaningful plot.
would we need G to be commutative?
for example, a,b have order n but ab wouldnt unless its in the center?
nope, its true for any group
i don't think we need the group to be commutative, no
i was unsure before and that's why i deleted but now im sure
coldilocks


Is coldilocks bad ending moldi
perhaps 
If so then 
if a and b had order n then (ab) will have order n ?
||conjugation fixes the set of elements of order n, so it ought to fix N i hope||
Isn't the problem closure though?
You can also explicitly compute the order of any conjugate
I think I have a counterexample
oh yep, N is generated by order n elements

I thought it said the set of order n elements
same lol
ok you can't explicitly compute order of conjugate, but you can explicitly write it down as product of order n things
I've done an exercise to disprove this so I was primed to read it like that

Who cares about the order of the conjugate
Won't you need to do that for some elements though

||if a has order n, then so does g'ag. Then any product of order n things, for example abc, maps to g'abcg = g'agg'bgg'cg||
Yea that's what I said
Ok yeah that's a better way of phrasing it
Yeah so you have to show that order is preserved under conjugation
for the first step

|| Just say conjugation is an automorphism and so preserves order ||
right
Or show it directly it's not hard
that's what I was doing 
But then you need to use induction which is gross
left-facing pfp moment
bruh
why would u ever explicitly perform induction
That's extremely formal 
my condolences
Dw next year i'm starting to take advanced(er) classes so all formalities will obviously be dropped
sadly this is not always true
Ok yea anal is gonna be very formal cuz introductory measure theory
analysis class where a visual proof of "topologist sine circle is path connected but not locally path connected" got 1/10
ok this isnt the place to seethe sry
At least i'll only have to do analysis bullshit and epsilonautics in 1/2 classes
epsilonautics 
Am I just supposed to show that the group action definition holds here?
seems trivial
yedog
ye
Btw you don't have to check that the identity is there in the subgroup, ther you get that with inverses and products automatically
ah
how in general does one find generators and the presentation for a group?
Technically, you have to show it's nonempty
ah true
And the easiest way is with the identity
but every statement about elements of the empty set is automatically true?
You don't
Which is why you have to show it's nonempty, lmao
I don't know if there's an easy way to find the best presentation, but the "canonical" presentation of any group has all the group elements as the generators and all the equations that are true in the group as its set of relations
Canonical in the sense of having a universal property 
Like, it's true that $\forall a, b \in \varnothing$, $ab \in \varnothing$ and $a^{-1} \in \varnothing$, but that doesn't imply $1 \in \varnothing$, catch my drift @bronze jay?
Tormeson
oh i see
From dummit and foote they write that you should be able to derive all of the relations in the group from the group presentation, but if you were given the task of finding the presentation of a group, it seems that you have to just guess a presentation and then check if the relations can be derived from there
Its hard in general yeah
Yeah pretty much. Most of the time you'd include whatever feels like a defining set of relations, and then prove that it is
but sometimes you don't know if the relations are redundant and that's fine?
Yeah redundant relations are ok
Otherwise the canonical presentation wouldn't work
Almost everything is redundant there lol
i see
Finding a 'good' presentation of a group is a really hard problem
the proof for (b) is basically the same as (a)?
In fact you can prove a from b
It can be shown that the kernel of the action is the intersection of all satbilisers
I see
how do I go about solving this problem?
what are pairs of opposite vertices?
and what action we talking about?
If you look at pairs of vertices, you can look at symmetries of an n-gon as permuting the order of the pairs
That's the action
It's easier imo when you think of the other definition of the action
Which is a homomorphism into the symmetry group of the set being acted om
but what are opposite vertices?
In this case it'd be a homomorphism $\rho:D_{2n} \rightarrow S_{\frac{n}{2}}$
ShiN
Where you identify a pair of opposite vertices with some number
don't you just mean S_n ?
oh
This is why $n$ must be even
ShiN
but the group action is not uniquely determined from the group right?
you have to define the group action after you've picked your group and the set it acts upon
Right, but it's implies here what the action is
There's usually a 'natural' action for groups like Dn or GLn(F)
Or most simply Sn
Like if I told you GLn(F) is acting on F^n and didn't specify further then you'd assume it's acting by martiz multiplication
Same here, Dn acts on the vertices of the polygon by permuting them
So in particular it can act on pairs by permuting then
I am not such how i find the kernel of this action
it seems that the kernel is only the identity?
I'm actually not sure if they meant ordered or unordered pairs
It would make sense this action is faithful, but I don't wanna say for sure since I haven't checmed
If it is unordered pairs though it wouldn't be faithful
Since reflections about any axis would keep it invariant
what about the kernel?
That would be the kernel in this case
All the reflections about some axis
If the pairs are unordered
I think maybe also 180 degree rotations but i'm not sure
Again, don't wanna state anything as fact since I haven't checked
There may be more elements
I don't quite get it, the kernel is the set of elements , g, where ga=a for all a in the set, isn't that just the identity in this case?
but why would r^2 be a part of the kernel?
If the pairs are unordered, then reflections about any axis would not do anything since they just switch the order of opposite vertices
I think r^{n/2} generally not r^2
Ah lol
r^{n/2}, isn't that just s?
how would i go about doing the last part for S an infinite set? When finite you can just do an induction on the first case done, but im not sure about dealing with an infinite set. I suppose a more elegant way to prove it than i did for the first case
The map G → G/N, x → x bar, is a homomorphism, so a finite product of elements in G maps to the same thing but with bars on top
I want to learn representations of finite groups (actually in particular symmetric and alternating groups) over finite fields. For now, I am particularly interested in the semisimple case. Can anybody recommend me a suitable text or any other kind of source (notes etc.) to start with?
Serre has a book called "Linear Representations of Finite Groups."
I like it.
There is a book "Representation Theory: A First Course" by Fulton and Harris. I'm less familiar
This is pretty much only over C
If you’re looking at representations of finite groups over characteristic p fields then you will need a book on modular representation theory.
Asking for the semisimple case alone is kinda an awkward ask, since most sources on modular representation theory are written with an eye towards the non semisimple case, while most sources on more basic representation theory of finite groups don’t treat even the semisimple modular setting at all
A good middle ground might be to read through something like Fulton Harris that works over characteristic 0 and as an exercise reprove everything you can in the book over \bar{F_p} or whatever
possibly a silly question but why exactly is the tensor product of a separable extension with k(P) etale over k(P)?
L/k is separable, so it is iso to k[t]/f for some separable polynomial f. Then the tensor product is k(p)[t]/f.
Whoops, I didn't see that they asked for finite fields
Coldilocks
oh epic lol
the actual map sends a to 1_B otimes g(a) = f(a) otimes 1_C
I see, thanks
Np
@dusty river heres a thread
ty 
Hi everyone, i am not so sure what is the meaning of the highlighted part. I think 0 is always the unique trivial zero divisor in any nontrivial ring, not just commutative ring. it seems like this sentence is redundant?
well, they havent defined zero divisors for noncommutative rings yet
(for noncommutative rings, theres also the ba = 0 case)
but you are right that, once they are defined, 0 is the unique trivial zero divisor in any ring.
(caveat: except the trivial ring)
ok, thank you!
@upper pivot and I were working on this, from Guillot's Local Class Field Theory, and we think that this is wrong, just given a dimension argument considering it as real vector spaces. But $\mathbb{H}$ is 4-dimensional over $\mathbb{R}$, so shouldn't $\mathbb{H}\otimes_{\mathbb{R}}\mathbb{H}$ be 16-dimensional instead of 4-dimensional over $\mathbb{R}$, which contradicts the given proof?
ℤ(𝜁23) is a UFD
hi... please help me grasp the tensor product of modules in the most intuitive way
"Since r and s generate D_8, every element of D_8 commutes with r^2" - this doesn't seem like a trivial assertion, is there a proof for this?
yes but just because s and r generate D_8, how can you be sure that r^2 commutes with the rest of the elements?
Recall the definition of "generate"
hi.. can anybody tell me when the representation of a group, which is induced from an irreducible representation of its subgroup, is still an irreducible one for the whole group itself
In the explicit construction of the free group as the equivalence classes of words, how does one prove the uniqueness of the reduced representative? My prof chose to give an example instead of a full proof in class and i'm not sure how one would go about doing it rigorously
Look at the universal property of a tensor product. That is the way to think about tensor products
How is it "induced" exactly?
it is defined so that one can make a representation of a subgroup into a representation of the whole group
@cosmic oriole please lemme know if you need the detailed construction.
Yes. That would be helpful. I haven't done representation theory in a while.
Suppose that 𝐻 is a subgroup of the finite group 𝐺 and 𝜎:𝐻→GL(𝑊) is a representation of 𝐻. Then the induced representation from 𝐻 up to 𝐺 denoted 𝜋 is a group homomorphism 𝜋:𝐺→GL(𝑉), where
𝑉={𝑓:𝐺→𝑊∣𝑓(ℎ𝑔)=𝜎(ℎ)𝑓(𝑔), for all ℎ∈𝐻, 𝑔∈𝐺}.
The representation 𝜋(𝑔) is then defined on 𝑓∈𝑉 by
𝜋(𝑔)𝑓=𝑓(𝑥𝑔), for all 𝑥,𝑔∈𝐺
How did you type this 
ɡ∈G
close
but a combination of good unicode and discord formatting
it's easy with latex though
if t is trans, lets say over Q, how can I show Q(t^2) is strict subset of Q(t)? Or I guess how can I show t isnt in Q(t^2)
if p(t^2)/q(t^2) = t, multiply both sides by q(t^2) and you get a contradiction by degrees
wait I dont get it
can every element in Q(t^2) be written as p(t^2)/q(t^2)?
for some rel prime p,q
t is transcental → t^2 is too
and if t is transcental then Q(t) is isomorphic to Q(x) where x is a formal symbol
hmm okay ye I think
Yes because it is the smallest field containing Q and t^2
All those elements must be contained in every such field, and the collection of those elements is closed under the operations
wait but rather than degree contradiction, by mutipliying and subtracting wouldnt it imply t is algebraic over Q?
Right that too
By degree I meant you get an equation of formal polynomials in Q(x)
but one has odd degree and the other has even degree

How does lagrange's theorem simplify things here? Is it because we can check if our centralizer has an order that divides the order of the group?
what about C_D_8(r)? I don't see to be able to figure out what it is, I've written that C_D_8(r) = {1,r,r^3} but that doesn't have an order which divides |D_8|
i mean its a subgroup right so also product of those should be in there no?
@bronze jay
oh ofc
In Vakil's The Rising Sea, the author stats that an $A$-module $M$ ($A$ is a domain) is torsion iff $M\otimes_A K(A)=0$. I understand one of the implications, but why does $M\otimes_A K(A)=0$ imply $M$ is torsion?
Phorphyrion
Try proving this: If $S \subset A$ is a multiplicatively closed subset, and if $M$ is an $A$-module, then $S^{-1}M \simeq S^{-1}A \otimes_A M$.
Brofibration
once you have that, then $M\otimes_A K(A) \simeq S^{-1}M$ where $S = A-0$
Brofibration
Thank you 🙂
Does a polynomial being reducible in a field imply it has a root in that field?
i swear i may have asked this long time ago
or is it just that the polynomial can be expressed as two lesser degree polyn multiplying one another
The latter
ohh ok tyty if d(f(x)) = p prime, then f(x) = g(x)h(x) what can i say abt deg g,h
they are both greater/equal to 1 less than p?
Think about like, (x^2-2)(x^2-3) in the rationals, reducible but no roots
Oh yea
They are both less than p is all you can conclude there
can they be 0 degree?
And that their degrees add up to p
err i guess they can but then im not expressing as two polynomials x eachtoher
but a constant
Well if you say something is reducible you usually don’t allow the factors to be constant
Yeah
so id say both greater than equal to 1 so its a useful statement (trying to arrive at contradiction)
okk tysm
can i get a hint for this one 
Lol kes askign for a hint from df xdd
it should be "disjoint p-cycles" not commutative, btw
if K = Zp(t) how do I show f(x) = x^p - t is irreducible in K[x]
the hint is if E/K is splitting field of f(x) then for some a in E f(x) = (x-a)^p
splitting field assumes it splits over E/K? but not any proper subfield of E?
Well, don’t the size of the cycles all have to divide p? Intuitively that makes sense to me because when you take the power of a permutation we can just look at what happens in each cycle separately
I assumed for contradiction f(x) = g(x)h(x) both w degree less than p, greater/equal to 1
not sure how to utilize hint
i know K = {f(t)/g(t), g nonzero, f,g e Zp[x]}
Hint: If it is reducible in K[x] then K is an extension of Zp and we can construct an extension of K,E where the polynomial splits. Now find the degree of E over Zp and see what possible degrees K can have
wait but if its reducible in K[x]
err
in any extensoin* it will be rdubile
reducible*
Splitting is different from irreducibility. I’m constructing E where it completely splits into linear factors
So E is the splitting field of the polynomial over K
Sorry I should rephrase, this is wrong. Basically any factor of your polynomial in K will be (x-a)^s for some s<p. And this is impossible as a^s is in K and there will be a number k such that sk=1 mod p, so a^(sk)=a so a in in K
Really sorry for the error
@ivory dust does this make sense?
Yes by fermat’s
So now all you have to do is show that the polynomial has no root in K
hmm but doesnt that just show a is in K
so its a root
err
i was gnna argue f(x) = x^p - t = (x-a)^p for some a in K
(not sure why this holds but just using hint)
are you first assuming a is not in K?
i said if d(g(x)) = n then g(x) = anx^n + ... + a0, 1<=n<p also gcd(n,p) = 1
Yes i was assuming that
Quick question - this is from Altman and Kleiman commutative algebra - what does the exponent e and c mean in Exercise 1.13
@gritty sparrow i saw this sln on stack exchange
they assumed a smaller degree minimial polyn exists
u(x) w degree r <= p
do u understand how the expanded (x-u)^r
im so confused abt that
They expanded using the binomial theorem, and then they collected all of the terms of x with degree more than 2 into x^2P(x)
It doesn’t matter. It depends on wether r is even or odd i suppose
commutative p-cycles are necessarily disjoint as you pointed out. For a single p-cycle the order is clearly p. A product of disjoint p-cycles will also clearly have order p. For the converse you consider the disjoint cycle decomposition of your permutation assume it's not a product of p-cycles. You'll see it's order is the lcm of the length of each cycle, which definitely can't be p since it's prime (this also hints at what type of counter example to take for the second part of the exercise)
Alright I need help understanding a particular solution to a problem. (From Dummit and Foote, Ch 14 : Galois Theory)
This is the problem and bit a) is the one in question
And here's the solution I am talking about
My question is where do we get the $[\bar L: K]\mid [L_1:K]\ldots[L_n:K]$ part from? Can someone explain that properly? Sorry if this is a dumb question
AidenM27
<@&286206848099549185>
Anyone?
i think it's notation they introduce in that section to save space - something like "extension" and "contraction". i.e. when a is an ideal in R, then a^e is the ideal of R' generated by phi(a), and if b is an ideal of R', then b^c is the preimage of b in R via the map phi
^
@fossil shuttle that makes sense, thanks. I wonder why they don’t define it specifically first
Hah wow I can’t believe I missed that, thanks for clearing it up!
@azure plinth I believe it's the fact that the Galois group of Lbar over K is a subgroup of the product of the Galois groups of L_i over K
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/507671/the-galois-group-of-a-composite-of-galois-extensions
Oh I should have paid more attention to this SE answer then, that's pretty neat! Thanks @mild laurel. It is kind of vaguely intuitive but the exact reason why eluded me
hi, im working through the lie algebras book by humphreys and im not really understanding how exactly is lagrange interpolation used here - lagrange interpolation is based on the a_i, but here, he interpolates based on a_i - a_j, could someone walk me through what's going on here?
this is a page talking about lagrange interpolation from hoffman-kunze's linear algebra book, for ease of reference if needed
Define b_{ij}=a_i-a_j and do interpolation on those b_{ij}s
oh, which brings me to another question - how do you guarantee the a_i's (or well, b_{ij}'s) are distinct? since the eigenvalues may not be distinct and certainly their differences may not be distinct
my first thought is simply pick scalar multiples of the eigenvectors such that the eigenvalues are all distinct, or is that too naive?
For the function to be well defined you don't need distinctness
You need if b_{i_1}{j_1}=b_{i_2}{j_2} then both get mapped to the same thing
but for lagrange interpolation, we require them to be distinct, right?
I’m in dire need of a quick yes or no as I’m getting frustrated: if h has finite index in g, does it have finite index in a subgroup of g that contains h?
If say yes but at this point I don’t want to prove it I just need to know
Nvm I found what I needed
you can show that H < K < G then G/H is bijective to G/K x K/H (where these are just sets of left cosets)

I'm working on this assignment:
I have managed to show it is a well-defined right-action and in (c), I am studying a homomorphism
phi: N_G (H) -> S_{G/H}
I have managed to show it has H as kernel, but when I tried to verify it is a homomorphism, I found to my surprise that it is an antihomomorphism, namely f(ab) = f(b)f(a). Right-actions typically induce antihomomorphism, so maybe it should not be all too surprising. But I can't for the life of me think how else we can find a homomorphism with kernel H.
My homomorphism is such that phi takes g in N_G(H) to a permutation pi_g.
pi_g is such that it takes every left coset xH to the left coset xgH, which mirrors a right-action.
Using this definition of pi_g, I managed to show ker phi = H. But phi is not a homomorphism, which puzzles me.
Any hints on what approach to take?
By defining the function to $S_{\sfrac G H}^{op}$ instead, the antihomomorphism becomes a homomorphism, from there you just compose it with the natural isomorphism from a group to its opposite
ShiN
You could also define your function to just take g to pi_g^-1 and this would also fix the problem similarly
How canonical is it to differentiate ${ (x_1,x_2) \mapsto (x_1,x_2), (x_1,x_2) \mapsto (x_2,x_1) }$ and ${ (1,2), (2,1) }$? When it happens, how one emphasizes either case?
JohnDark
As I think about it, the first case must be a set of functions of one element but it isn't a big deal
Hello! How can I know if $x_1=\sqrt{1-4i}$ and $x_2=\sqrt{1+4i}$ can be obtained from each other algebraically in a field?
segrendel
at the end of the day, what I want to know is if $\mathbb{Q}(x1)=\mathbb{Q}(x1,x2)$
segrendel
A question, how to proof this, I am stuck...
i think we are happy to say x^pk is identity, so the order definitely divides pk
the work is in showing it cant be less
so let's suppose the order isnt pk
try and get a contradiction on the minimality of the order of a (can the order be a multiple of p without being pk itself?)
@stone leaf
I see... Thank you @low surge !
did u get it?
i dont think i tried that approach
that seems more difficult
also x^kp=e could potetnially mean x^k could be identity right so im not sure if thats right
maybe im missing something easier
Did you assume that N≠kp means N is some other multiple of p?
that was a further assumption that i showed wasnt possible but then later on dealt ith the other possibility
thats why i said the bit with N<k i think
ah I see
this is given as an exercise in jacobson, and i was wondering what is meant by "An abstract characterization", and what uses such characterizations might have
@chilly radish : Brilliant, that was the clincher, big thanks!
how is an infinite cyclic group "cyclic"?
i guess an abstract characterization is one in the language of pure group theory. S_5 is a "concrete" group in the sense of being an automorphism group or subgroup, (the group of automorphisms of {1,2,3,4,5} in the category of sets). Other "concrete" groups might be the general linear group, the special linear group, other matrix groups. Cayley's theorem shows that every group can be regarded as concrete in this sense, but this turned out to be slightly less important than was anticipated at the time it was proved.
There are some theorems of group theory which work better if you take cyclic to mean 'generated by a single element', which Z is.
For example, the fundamental structure theorem for finitely generated Abelian groups states that every finitely generated Abelian groups is the finite direct sum of cyclic groups
hmm, so it's a some form of convention?
the convention is that cyclic means generated by one element, yes.
is x^inf=1 then, if |x|=inf
lol. that's a good question. I don't know how to answer that. I haven't seen that convention in the literature. it's certainly not true in any literal sense. but we use the phrase "characteristic zero" to talk about a field where 1 has infinite order in the additive group
the same proof works for various theorems about cyclic groups, maybe? in spite of the fact that all but one of them are finite and the other is infinite
for example proving that cyclic groups are abelian doesn't require you to split into the finite and infinite cases
why are we interested in abstract characterizations then
these characterizations dont seem too useful in my opinion
idk i don't really have good examples of applications. i think if you have a philosophy where you don't want to necessarily think of groups as being automorphism groups, this contributes a little bit to another way of developing group theory
sure, not everything has to be done for some grand reason
its just that it seems like a quite a bit of work
Oof. yeah. lmao
In part (d), the wording is slightly confusing. "The centralizer of (the image of) G in S_{G/H}".
If ϕ: N_G(H) -> S _ {G/H} is the homomorphism in (c) with kernel H, the first isomorphism theorem tells us
N_G(H)/H ≅ im ϕ
I suspect im ϕ is what I should uncover to be "the centralizer of (the image of) G in S_{G/H}".
But I'm struggling to parse what this centralizer is.
ϕ sends N_G(H) to S_{G/H}, not the entire G.
So im ϕ is definitely not the image of G, rather the image of N_G(H).
And how I understand "the centralizer of (the image of) G in S_{G/H}" is that
it is the set of permutations in S_{G/H} that commute with elements in im ϕ.
But I haven't been able to progress from here.
Any thoughts or hints on what I am missing here?
Because the right level of abstraction makes things easier because it lifts the weight of unnecessary technical detail.
Imagine having to define the free group a as a permutation group just because your definition of group required that
Or actually caring about how you would construct such a group (e.g. irreducible words vs equivalence classes of words in L_grp vs the cayley representation over itself)
why by the minimality of d?
what does that mean exactly
H is a cyclic group <x>
but why is r=0 just because d is the least element?
Because r satisfies the other condition of being in P (which is x^r ∈ K), but is less than d
So it shouldn't be in Z+, because then d couldn't be minimal
Okay, im completely lost on part (iii). The numbers s_1 and s_2 are defined here
ah
The three classes of involutions can just be seen by computing the conjugacy classes of D_8 directly, and the fact that x = u_2 is conjugate to xu_2 is also clear due to x \in C_2
I just have no clue on how to relate these to s_2
is H = <x>?
yes
oh i see
and since |x|=|G| for any x \in G and G is a subgroup of H then G must have order a
im stuck on the implication iii) => iv). Im not exactly sure what they suggest you induct on in the hint? What i was trying to do was to take the minimal nontrivial subgroup, quotient by it, then take the minimal nontrivial subgroup of that and show that the subgroup of G that it's in bijective correspondence with (by 4th isomorphism theorem) is abelian so that we expand the chain and the same argument could be repeated to go from the ith group in the chain to the (i+1)th group in the chain
cant get it to work though
aight looked it up found what to induct on, the proof is simpler than i thought
AM moment
what does what mean
Natural isomorphism?
What does that mean
Does it mean there is only 1 isomorphism from the group on the left to the group on the right?
if A is isomorphic to B, an isomorphism $\sigma :A \cong B$ is said to be canonical if when you tell two different mathematicians to write down an isomorphism $A\cong B$, they both write down $\sigma$.
diligentClerk
You can apply this isomorphism on any n, in a nice "canonical" way that doesn't depend on n. Suppose you gave a map from Z/nZ to Z/mZ. Then this induces a map from Z/nZ* to Z/mZ*, call it f, and a map on the other side as well, call it g. Naturality means that you can either apply f first then this isomorphism for m, or isomorphism for n then g. Both should give you the same result
So it's like the isomorphism doesn't really depend on n, it's essentially the same for all integers
I feel like that's not really what canonical isomorphism means
People use the word canonical isomorphism when there are no parameters in the groups involved
I'm not sure if canonical is the same thing though I've seen these used interchangeably
What do you mean by parameters?
What you called n or m, and what's N in the screenshot
Natural does depend on those
In the above thing you don't have just 1 isomorphism
It's a family of isomorphisms, one for each N
That behave nicely
That's not really the point
You dont have to specify a family of isomrophisms parameterized by n or some other index in order to call a specific isomorphism canonical
The map from a group G to its quotient G/H is called the canonical projection
In this case it's not an isomorphism but it's still canonical
my guess would be that canonical means that the isomorphism doesn't depend on the choice of primitive nth root of unity
Yeah there is a parametrization there
No
It's a natural transformation instead
The parametrization is the groups G and H themselves lol

Atiyah macdonald uses canonical isomorphism for natural
So like AxB ≈ BxA as sets
And this is canonical, meaning the isomorphism is the same for any choice of A and B
Oh right theres the canonical isomorphism from A(x)B = B(x)A for tensor products
So parametrization here is by the pair A and B
Yep
And this naturality is useful when you work with maps
So for example (A x B) x C
For tensor products let's say
And suppose you have a short exact sequence of modules of this kind
And maps also being of the kind (f x g) x h
Then naturality lets you apply associativity on the whole sequence
And it remains exact
If it were just an isomorphism it wouldn't, so the whole point is that natural maps work nicely with homomorphisms etc

can I ask here where I can learn abstract algebra for free?
Books. Check pinned messages in #book-recommendations. You can probably also find lecture series on yt but it's best if you work through some book side by side
do you have any recommendations for yt series?
Nope, haven't tried any
okay, thank you for your help!

ok so on this proof, im a bit confused how they're justifying the claim that x \pm y an xy are integral over A with iii) of 5.1
What i would say is that A[x,y][xy] = A[x,y][x\pm y] = A[x,y] are finitely generated so xy and x \pm y are integral over A, but that doesn't seem to have much to do with iii, does it?
5.2 is just the statement that A[x1, x2, ..., xn] is finitely generated for x1,...., xn integral
Here you proved that xy is contained in a subring that is a finitely generated A-module, not that A[xy] itself is finitely generated as an A-module
So ii doesnt directly apply while iii does
Like you proved that xy ∈ A[x,y], and A[x,y] is finitely generated. But this doesn't directly tell you that A[xy] is too

im trying to prove an extension of sylow 3 in jacobson, but i dont understand how S_0 is defined or why there exists an H_A with |H_A| = p^k
how does a subset of A affect the size of its stabilizer
i think its a mistake but i cant find errata anywhere
jacobson does say that the proof can be found in an edition of archiv der mathematik from 1967 which i cant find on sc*hub
so if anyone has a springer subscription or any clarification to the question that would be very cool
I think i figured it out; S_0 is defined to be the subset of S such that for A \in S_0 we have |H_A| = p^k
ive got just about everything done for this one except for one detail which is just preventing me from completion. To use the inductive hypothesis i construct two composition series of $H$ namely $1=N_{0}\cap M_{s-1}\leq N_{1}\cap M_{s-1}\leq ...\leq N_{r-1}\cap M_{s-1}=H$ and similarly but iterating over the M chain for the second one. Ive worked out everything except for the guarantee that subsequent elements of these series are not equal to eachother. Ive been stuck for hours and just cant figure this out, any hint would be appreciated
Little Narwhal
i ended up doing it differently my original approach was flawed i suppose
Let's say I have a quotient polynomial ring $R=\mathbb{Q}[x,y]/I$ for some ideal $I$, and I want to find a Groebner basis for a different ideal $J$ in $R$. Is there a `right' way to do this? As in, does it make a difference if I try to compute the Groebner basis directly in $R$ vs. considering $J$ as an ideal in $\mathbb{Q}[x,y]$, finding the Groebner basis there, and then taking the quotient of the resulting basis by $I$? I'm relatively familiar with Groebner bases in general, just not when it comes to quotient rings
cgodfrey
nonachimedian Local field gives a local ring consisting of those elements of norm leq 1
General Hensel's lemma:
yes, but this is not what I would call the general hensel's lemma, I'd just call this hensel's lemma
there's more than one way to generalize hensel's lemma but the way I was referring to it was the way when this condition fails and f'(alpha) = 0 in the residue field
you can still lift, it just requires you to work more first
the convenient way I gave of $|f(\alpha)|<|f'(\alpha)|^2$ can be unpacked if you say $|f'(\alpha)|=p^{-n}$ then it means $f'(\alpha)=0 \mod p^n$ and $f'(\alpha) \ne 0 \mod p^{n+1}$. Then we can take the inequality $|f(\alpha)|<p^{-2n}$ and turn it into $|f(\alpha)|\le p^{-2n-1}$ since this nicely turns into $f(\alpha)=0\mod p^{2n+1}$
Merosity
So I haven't proven anything, just unpacked it into a nicer form for you to use,
$$f(\alpha)=0\mod p^{2n+1}$$
$$f'(\alpha) \ne 0 \mod p^{n+1}$$
Merosity
when n=0, that's the regular version, this is the generalized version
I think the converting back and forth is kind of confusing but really $|x-y|\le p^{-n}$ is the same as $x-y=0 \mod p^n$
Merosity
Feeling a little unsure about a step in one of my proofs: if I have a map form <S> to <T> that ive shown to be a homomorphism, and ive shown that this map restricted to S is a bijection to T, is this map an isomorphism?
ive just sort of assumed this is true and i think ive proved it before but ive got about 210 pages of exercises form the past 3 weeks and i cant really parse them all
Because im trying to show $S_p = <\sigma,\tau>$ for any transposition $\sigma$ and p-cycle $\tau$ and to do this I showed that if i wrote $\tau = (a_1 a_2 ... a_p)$ then we had $(a_i a_{i+1})\in <\sigma,\tau>$. Then via a the map from $<\sigma,\tau> \to <(1 2)(1 2 ... p)$ defined by simply taking each $a_i$ in a cycle to $i$ (and i show it to be an isomorphism by what i just asked) we have $\left{(i i+1), 1\leq i\leq p-1\right}\subset <(1 2), (1 2 ... p)>$ which we showed to generate $S_p$ in another exercise. So i can take the isomorphism the other way around for the result.
Little Narwhal
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this is true, consider f^-1(f(ab)) if u want to show that a bijective homo is an iso
all words formed from elements in S
oof latex doesnt like cycles
well im not retyping that
no i know a bijective homo is an iso
but im only showing the bijection between the generators
what's the other definition for an isomorphism 
Homo that has an inverse
oh
i mean funciton is bijection iff it has two sided inverse so i guess it's not too different
ya
u just need to show that the inverse isn't too gross and maintains structure to prove their equivalence
so just a monoid and not group?
it is a group?
oh right i mean you do take inverses as well
didnt remember the definition by heart
closure of S
oh okie, i thought you're abstractly taking words to form a group
like the free group on one letter is isomorphic to Z
i havent gotten i free groups yet could you elaborate?
oh nvm i see
because the letter doesnt have a particular order is that what you mean
they way you have written it is kinda wrong. we also want the relations to be respected by that bijection from S to T
in our case S = {sigma, tau} and T = {(12), (12..p)}
how would you show that since the presentation doesnt come with any relations (explicitly)
what's the original question ?
though this isnt very readable ig
it feels like you're way overthinking stuff
sounds about right
what you would typically say to make things a bit cleaner
is something like "without loss of generality tau = (123...p)"
yeah i sort of did it weirdly in two steps
that is, there is an inner automorphism of Sp (by conjugation) that sends tau to (123....p) and sigma to some random transposition
because i showed wlog sigma = (a1 a2) and tau = (a1 a2 ... ap)
so the exercise becomes showing that for any transposition sigma, (12) is in <sigma, (123...p)>
and once you have done that it's over
ah okay that's a bit different
and it looks like you have shown somehow that you can get (12) in <sigma, (123...p)>
when you said
consider this example G, S = {g} and T = {e} Then we have a homomophism from <S> --> <T> which sends everything to e, but its not injective if g is not e. Even though in this case the restriction to S --> T is a bijection.
fair enough
just change the names of everyone so that ai = 1 ; ai+1=2 ; ...
then tau = (123...p), sigma is some random transposition and (ai ai+1) = (12)
yeah but this started from the assumption that sigma is the transposition of two subsequent elements of the cycle tau



