#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 589 of 407
But you took the fraction field
yup
If we had that A/p is finite dimensional over k, then I can see how this would follow
that p is closed
well we have that for sure
A/p is a subalgebra of A_f/m
And the latter is finite dimensional over k
But your hint is talking about the residue field
which is the field of fractions of A/p, not A/p
There are two pieces of terminology
The residue field of a local ring (R, m) is R/m
The residue field of a ring A at a prime ideal p is the field of fractions of A/p, or equivalently A_p/pA_p. Sort of generalizing this, the residue field of a scheme X at a point x is the residue field of the local ring O_{X, x}
Ah that's what was confusing me
The hint is phrased weirdly tho, since a finite dimensional integral domain over a field is a field
Like it's just as true if you replace "residue field" with "A/p"
anyways the point is you can embed A/p into A_f/m
Which gives you finite dimensionality and then closedness of p
sure
closed points of Spec B = max'l ideals M of B. Let B=k[x_1,...,x_n]/I. Using the correspondence, B/M = (k[x_1,...,x_n]/I)(m/I)=k[x_1,...,x_n]/m for some maximal ideal m of k[x_1,...,x_n] containing I. k[x_1,...,x_n]/m is clearly a finitely generated field
yup
Why even include the residue field?'
I don't know
I mean you also need the other direction
If the residue field is fg then the point is closed
I mean
But the proof I have in mind immediately says "since frac(A/p) is finite dimensional so is A/p"
I can just prove that if A/m is a field then m is maximal therefore closed
wait what?
Instead of proving p is closed iff Frac(A/p) is a finitely generated field, I jusst prove that p is closed iff A/p is a field that is finitely generated
I mean sure but then in the main argument there's more work to be done
Yeah I can see that
What you've said here is basically Zariski's lemma
Well, if you remove the part about A/p being a field (which is a bit much to include) it is. Also in your proof, just to clarify there is no need to go yo the fraction field of A/p right?
So I think here's what happened: I misinterpreted the hint which made proving the hint really trivial. However, this misinterpreted result is not sufficient to prove the main problem
I agree with that interpretation
Even though the misinterpreted hint is still correct
Nvm i think you mentioned this
the proof as it stands is noticing something sort of weird/interesting
The local ring O_X,x doesn't change as you go closer to open subsets containing x
And the hint is saying if X is actually a variety, you can detect whether x is a closed point from that local ring
so it doesn't matter whether you think of x as a point of the whole space Spec A or the neighborhood D(f)
Shamrock I think there's an easy way to do this
Assume that my original definition of residue ring
Then we get that A/p is a subalgebra of A_f/m
In particular, A/p is a submodule of A_f/m
The latter is a finite dimensional vector space
Thus, A/p is a finite dimensional vector space
However, it is also an integral domain as p is prime
This forces A/p to be a field
a x _: A/p -> A/p will be injective for all non-zero a
Thus, an isomorphism
That means it will be invertible
Does this sound okay?
yup
That's one way to justify this claim about integralness
any particular element of an integral extension is contained in a finite extension, and then your proof works
Thanks
Associates in R (reals) are given by two equivalence classes: R* (non-zero reals) and {0}, am I right? I'm hesitant about {0} being a class of associates because my textbook omits that. According to the definition of associates : a and b are associates in R if a = ub for some unit u in R, it makes sense. 0 = u0 for any unit u in R so it is an associate to itself only.
Yes
All nonzero reals are units, and all units are associates of each other.
And in any ring, 0 is its own sole associate
Thanks !
In C[x], the set of all polynomials with complex coefficients, the class of associates are {0}, C* (non zero complex constants) as all units are associates, and C[x]. The last class comes from the fact that every polynomial has an associate which is the polynomial itself multiplied by a non-zero complex constant. Is this correct?
Hmm you're right, its an equivalence relation
yes
So ig its just the whole of C[x]
Nope.
shika

So what Ive found is that for every p(x) in C[x], a*p(x) is an associate to p(x) where a is a non-zero complex constant
That is correct
{ap(x): p(x) in C[x], a in C*} is a class
yes
no
I mean
I get what you mean
and what you mean is correct
but written like that, most people would read it as "the set of all multiple of all polynomials in C[x]"
Chshika
and this is just the entirety of C[x]
yh right thats what confuses me
stop that 
Nah wait
ledog is already annoying enough with that
ye, you dont write p(x) inside the set builder form
^
its not the set of all multiples
p(x) is a fixed polynomial
im multiplying polynomials by constants
For each p(x) € C[x], {ap(x) | a € C*} is a class
and these are all the classes 

thanks 
Chnp 
(imo the question sucks, the answer is pretty much the def once you know that units in C[x] are elements of C*
)
you can notice that each equivalence class other than {0} contains a unique monic polynomial and inflate word count by writing that 

ie the set of equivalence classes is {[p(x)] : p monic} 
nonzero equivalence classes**


the set of equivalence classes is {[p(x)] : p(x) € C[x]}


how to answer ill-posed questions 
ill posed or just easy 
Actually, it works with any question
Question: "Let G be a finite group and p the smallest prime factor of |G|. If H is a subgroup of index p, show H is normal."
Answer: "the set of equivalence classes is {[p(x)] : p(x) € C[x]}"

The truth value of RH is [for all z in C, zeta(z) = 0 implies Re(z) = 1/2 or z is a negative even integer].
Omg RH solved?!?!?!
Epic...... win.....
Wew Lads Tbh
N is always ambigious smh, does it or does it not contain 0 
Fair
Also what John said
it contains 0 and anyone saying it doesn't is someone I'll insult, any remarks ?

I thought winning the prize money without latex would be more impressive
It doesn’t have 0 so I have a nice example of a magma when I need one
if you do any anal NT for instance, N does not contain 0 lol. it really depends on the context
which is why its ambigious
currently insulting you 
$$0 \not \in \bN, 0 \in \bN_0 = \omega$$
Lunasong the Supergay
JohnDS
no ambiguity
I use this notation
This is so bad, I want to cry
This means that with either interpretation of N, you are definitely being redundant in a ridiculous way
They’re right tho it’s not ambiguous!!
yep thats the point :)

And doing a very impressive job.
ik ik 
owo Nitro
i got a question
HOW DO PEOPLE STUDY MATH FOR 8HOURS A DAY 5 DAYS A WEEK GAAAH
;-;
We don’t :trollface:
It's 7 days a week 
(To be clear, JK)
My brain hurts so bad and i have only been at it for 4 hours
I usually only study 3 hours at a time
Past that point it’s just diminishing returns
Im using pomodoro, so study 25min and break 5 min. Otherwise i stroke
i guess ADD isnt helping lel
I got ADHD bro I know your pain
I find listening to music really helps me focus so maybe try that?
do you also have that stress just nullifies your meds?
I’m not on meds
Oh, i am heh. Yeah music works sometimes but more often than not it takes my attention.
That can be a problem
Maybe just take a longer break? Like people don’t work in jobs for more than 4 hours without having a lunch break or something
Wait I'm getting confused about something dumb
.
Let F be a field, B = (b1, .., bn) a basis of F^n, and M € Mn(F) with Cj being the j-th column of M.
Assume we already defined det_B(v1, ..., vn) with each vi € F^n (like determinant of n vectors is already defined).
Is det_B(M) defined as:
- det_B(C1, .., Cn) with each Cj interpreted as vectors of F^n ?
- det_B(v1, .., vn) with vj = C1j b1 + .. + Cnj bn ?
If I'm not bullshiting, those aren't the same, because in the second case we always have det_B(In) = 1 while in the first it's not the case

Here's what works for me:
- Take breaks, but don't watch anime/play vidya/something you really like because you end up taking much longer breaks than you need. I usually take snack breaks where all I do is eat and focus on that for 20-30 minutes.
- You need to make it a habit. It will be very tempting to skip days at the beginning, but you need to resist this temptation and make a habit out of it.
- Keep your phone away away when doing math (I keep it in another room).
- Don't do math if you're sleepy. On a similar note, avoid doing math in a position/environment that you associate with sleep.
May or may not work for others
You define det_B(M) as det_B(Mb_1,Mb_2...Mb_n)/det_B(b_1,b_2...b_n)
You might use a different basis
wut
basis is by definition not linearly dependent
How is det_B(I_n) not 1 according to first definition?
its the first one ?
Suppose det_B((1,0),(0,1))=1
Then det_B(I_2)=det_B((1,0),(0,1))=1
det_B((1,0), (0,1)) = 1 where does that come from

B isn't the canonical basis, it's any basis
I'm not saying it's not true
but I don't see how it is true 
2 seems more accurate
Y'all don't seem to agree lol, I'm even more confused now
I think the common assumption with computing det_B(C) is that Cb_i=c_1ib1+c_2ib_2...
As in C is taken to represent a linear transform from that basis to itself
ok so someone answered me on another server
the right definition is the second one
and its value doesn't depend on B, since for any B, det_B(Id) = 1
and the first one isn't equivalent
So,this
i.e det_B(In) != 1 with the first def
taking for example F = R, n = 1, B = (2) then det_B(In) = det(1) = 1/2 with the first definition 
yeah okey it could be the second option
if B would be an orthonomal basis then i think 1 would work too
it doesn't, c.f my example just a msg before your msg 
but B=(2) is not a basis?
oh nvm
well orthonormal, means length one and pairwise perpendicular, your example isnt normal
oh i've read orthogonal, sorry lol 
but I still think that's false
but I'm too lazy to search for a counter example lol
How do I fill this table?
I've found that b * b = c, but this is taking a very long time
How am I supposed to go about this?
a*a=a implies a=e
Can someone help me with ques 9. I want help with the part to show generator for each subgroup.
Why? We don't know that a * b = b, a * d = d
How do you know a has an inverse?
It's not given that it is a group
nvm
We need to determine if it is or isn't
Isn't it just impossible to finish the table
No, it's not
But I don't know how to do it without checking at least 64 possibilities
And moving the parentheses around
Which takes a very, very long time
It just seems like there will be too many possibilities
Checks out, determinant of a matrix should be basis-independent
is c*b = d = > b*a = b valid? cause you know that b*a cannot be d as d is already b*c => a*d=d thus a is the identity and is in the "centre" of whatever object this is so you then know the entire first row and column?
I don't understand your reasoning for why b * a cannot be d
They could both be d
Unless we find them not to be d
a generator of order k is a^{\frac{n}{k}} @small karma
I'm pretty sure that would violate associativity
well, fairly sure
or you could use light's associativity test
yes i know lemme show you my solution . im confused about the generator for the subgroup
also u should review fundamental theorem of cyclic groups
So i did this question till this point. Now i want help in how to find all generator for the subgroups. I'm getting confused in that.
Question is asking for 1 generator for the subgroups. But i want to know how to find all the generators for each subgroup.
so do u know when an element of a subgroup has the same order as the order of the subgroup it is in?
@small karma
It will be a generator for that subgroup. Thats the definition for cyclic group
say G is a finite group and <a> is a subgroup of order m. then <a> {e, a, a^2,...a^{m-1}}
what else can generate this subgroup?
Yes. Gcd =1
cant use solve it like soduko? i think only element each row and column
yes
I use the order of the subgroup right
@minor badger no? What?
yes because it is in the subgroup
Like for <2> it will be <k2> = <2^gcd(k,10)>
Bcz it is additive
We use ka instead of a^k
if a^k is an element of <a> a^k will generate <a> when k is relatively prime to m
well becase you have that ac = a, cc=a and d*c=b
so then b*a = d
basically c is its own inverse
and a identity
How did you get b * a = d?
becase if else then b= c or b = a or b = d
now do u know how to compute other generators ? @small karma
Can u confirm me that generators are <2> =<6> = 14 = 18. For order 10.
<14> = <18>
I used a different method
Z_24 is our original group right?
To find generator of the subgroup
Z20
Is
This is what i did
J are elements of Z20
Okay i get it now. Thanks
I was getting confused with this process
if you want to find all of the generators you need to look at the elements in each subgroup that aren't in any other subgroup, i.e. <5> = <15> because they are the only two elements that are in <5>, <10> doesn't work because <10> is it's own subgroup.
Another example is how <6> != <8> because <8> is in <4> but <6> is only in <2>
I think this is what you're after
that's how I think about it anyway, another observation is that <8> is a subgroup of <6> because the gcd of 8 and 20 is a multiple of the gcd of 6 and 20
these things all probably have proofs I'm too lazy to figure out
Yes but i found that method a bit long. Bcz we can use the theorem and collary to find them easily without checking every element in each subgroup
We can use this collary
is that Gallien's book?
Yeah
yeah that's kinda what I was thinking
I'm now wondering if my technique works for more general groups than just cyclics
right i was doing the problem u did a couple of days ago
and finding subgroups generator had confused me
Bruh she cancelled my mid sem bcz my answer were apparently unstandard
In college
btw the ways i used are available in book. Gotta give a mid sem again

What was your answer?
it was an answer for permutation group
multiplication , inverse, decomposition, and order related
smh this is the one i was using then ran out of nitro
@chilly ocean did you solve it?
Okay one q
Define this to be the case
And i want to consider the set ${t^{-1} x_a t = x_{\gamma(a)} \mid a \in A}$ where $\gamma$ is an isomorphism between two subgroups of $G$
chmirppalocks
is the following reasoning correct?
${t^{-1} x_a t = x_{\gamma(a)} \mid a \in A} = {t^{-1} x_{a^{-1}} t = x_{\gamma(a)^{-1}} \mid a^{-1} \in A} = {t x_{a} t^{-1} = x_{\gamma(a)} \mid a \in A}$
chmirppalocks
i feel a bit iffy about this, but i dont see an error anywhere 
so what this is saying is imposing the relations $x_at = tx_{\gamma(a)}$ is equivalent to imposing $tx_a = x_{\gamma(a)}t$ (for all $a \in A$) and this just doesn't sit right with me
chmirppalocks
This feels like its sweeping something under the rug
We can't have a strictly decreasing infinite chain of closed subsets, but we can have a strictly decreasing chain of arbitrary finite size
Maybe the keyword you missed is irreducible ?
Does that make a difference?
My problem is with the "choose Y_i, then choose Y_{i+1}, then..." argument
The logic seems shaky
Ah I see your point I think
If Yi is in the set, it isn't irreducible, as a particular case
So it can be written as union of 2 closed Yi+1 and Y'i+1
now one of those as to be in our set, else you just write both as union of irreducible
Let's say it's Yi+1, then the Yi sequence is descend so it stops,
Sorry for the mistakes and sloppiness I'm getting tired
Noetherian induction can be done for general posets
does it help you a bit ?
Unironically, I think seeing the technique in generality shows why it’s legit
Did you have suspicions about this proof when you saw it too?
No, because I was shown Noetherian induction before
What are the suspicions exactly?
I think this does a good job of explaining it, you need a poset which has minimal elements
Then you can argue that if a set F is such that for any a in F, there’s a b < a so that b is in F, then F is empty
This is rigorous because if it was non-empty you’d get an infinite descending chain
So you can set F = the set of counterexamples and then go from there
I’m not 100% sure if that proof frames it that way, I think by taking contrapositives you can frame it a different way but this is the one that makes sense to me
Okay wait every subset needs a minimal element. This is a well-ordering
We know that there is no infinite chain Y_1 > Y_2 > Y_3 > ... of closed sets. The proof says is that if we assume that there are closed irreducible sets that are not the finite union of closed irreducibles, then there is such a set Y_1. If Y_1 does not strictly contain any such set, we're done. If it does, call it Y_2 and repeat the process. At any n^th repetition, we will have a strict chain of size n (which is allowed). I don't see how the proof concludes from this.
I have to say I don't really agree because I use it geometrically and see it this way also. But on the other hand having a clean formal proof as a first approach can clean up the essential argument
It’s equivalent to the descending chain condition
Axiom of dependent choice
To add more to that, the "choosing" part of the proof is not obvious to me
If you can always extend a sequence by 1, you can get an infinite sequence
It's a corollary of the usual axiom of choice
Well the choice is just from assuming that it has no strict subset also satisfying it
The question is that induction only gives you longer and longer finite chains, but never an infinite chain
Right
You need to use choice to get the infinite chain
Ah yeah
Do we have the same definition of irreductible ?
No I know how to choose it
Oh okay
Chmoldilocks sums up my problem with the proof
So the argument is basically this
We order chains with the relation C_1 > C_2 iff C_1 has more elements in the chain than C_2 (and the position of the common elements is the same)
You could recursively make an infinitely descending chain
I mean if at each step you believe you can products Y_n+1
Then Y_1 > Y_2 >... is an infinitely descending chain right?
Yes but that choice at each step isn't unique
And you are sequentially making infinitely many choices
Axiom of choice makes infinitely many choices only simultaneously
Proving this seems to be a bit tricky
Let me give it a shot
But that also gives you corollary of infinitely many sequential choices
You can change you relation slightly
C_1 < C_2 iff C_1 is an initial segment of C_2
Instead of just C_1 embedding into C_2
Yeah that's what I wanted to say
Like (A < B < C) < (A<B<C<D) but not (B<C) < (A<B<C<D)
Yes
And we require the chains to be finite right?
No, include infinite
The maximal element might be an infinite chain then
I mean it will still work in this case
Yeah, and that will contradict noetherian
Yes
Got it
I think the little argument I gave can give a quite simple proof and explains the argument. I would be okay writing it up a bit better if that can help in any way 👐
Yeah I definitely don't think this is something that shouldn't be at least mentioned in the proof
It's not very difficult, but it is important to the argument
And since it depends on the axiom of choice, it is not very intuitive
Well most proofs skip mentions of choice completely because it feels so intuitive
And dependent choice is especially deceptive because it often feels very easily provable from induction
My brain must hate AOC then
Tfw I literally didn’t understand the issue. Dependent choice zzzzzzzz
Lol I remember struggling for a few days with why dependent choice isn't a corollary of induction
I mean I understood the part that’s the sticking point
I just didn’t get why it’s a sticking point 
Your intuition is too good for this problem Chmonkey
It’s just too obvious to me that DCC is equivalent to being well-founded
And then you can frame Noetherian induction as even just being like minimal counterexample
But the DCC => well-founded requires dependent choice 
I have no idea what well founded means
Every subset has a least element
It just means every nonempty subset has a minimal element
Haha you forgot nonempty OWNED

Well orderings are well founded total orderings
Oh yeah I also shouldn't have said least
Only minimal

Cringe!

Now I can finally sleep
No longer Chmoldilocks 

You had an issue with something choicey not being obvious
That says something about you
O_O
Uh oH
O_O
It's not direct from choice either tho xD
What might that be exactly?
Hello fellow choice denier 
worrying about set-theoretic issues is cringe /s
Thanks, that /s encourages me to worry more
But choice issues don’t matter
For example the following version of a global Zorn’s is NOT okay
I use things stronger than choice
I think that mentioning something like (this is dependent on AOC) would have been nice
Given a class S, if every set-sized chain in S has an upper bound then S has a maximal element
This is not okay
It’s okay if you go to class-sized chains
But not for set-sized ones sad
Maximal set 
Exactly

new religion

Brb gonna rewrite algebra without assuming choice
Tfw no cardinality


You know it took me a bit to see why global Zorn’s doesn’t result in maximal module
Then I remember
Module is a set
🦀 🦀 MAXIMAL IDEALS ARE GONE!!! 🦀 🦀

You can get prime ideals
With something weaker
I think like the umm compactness theorem
Or some shit
Weaker version of choice right?
Maybe it’s equivalent
hm
Maybe dependent choice or some shit
Dependent choice is weaker right?
I don’t know set theory
ACDC
Is the sequence exact tho?
What’s acc
Countable choice
Mathoverflow says existence of prime ideals is equivalent to the boolean ideal problem
but what about ABC
That one's extremely weak, I think a kindergartener might be able to understand it 
Mochizuki in shambles
whomst
Moldilocks is now an academic outcast
I thought you were making a joke on the alphabet lmao

ABC conjecture? 
I'm working through Abstract Algebra - An Introduction, 3E [Hungerford] this summer. Anyone's welcome to join me 🙂
has anyone here ever studied the Mathieu groups or any sporadic simple groups for that matter?
Anyone know how to prove $a\cdot{b}=1$ in a field with 5 elements? I'm struggling because $a\cdot{b}=c$ or $a\cdot{b}=1$ since all other cases cause contradictions but how come $a\cdot{b}=1$ and not the former?
Reaper
i mean, u can just check manually
It's not true that multiplying any two elements in F5 will give 1. Am I misunderstanding the problem?
Like 1•3 = 3
There has to exist a multiplicative inverse in the field
a and b are fixed elements?
Okay so a and b are multiplicative inverses then?
I mean I could make a and c inverses instead
That would be the same field
I guess I'm trying to say that it feels like you're missing info haha
What info am I missing?
Yes
But what else do you have in the definition
with the usual field axioms
I can take that set, and turn it into a field, such that ab ≠ 1.
It just follows the regular field axioms
So does it matter whether ab=c or ab=1?
Field axioms do not define unique operations on this set
it will still be a field regardless?
A lot of other things need to also multiply correctly for it to be a field
But yes both are possible
Sorry
I should give you the full picture
I am trying to construct an addition and multiplication table of a field with 5 elements
Well
in the course they made a field with four elements
which was F={0, 1, x, y}
so I decided to make mine F={0, 1, a, b, c}
when n is prime then it is a field?
or something along those lines
I haven't taken abstract algebra yet
Ah damn
It's for a different course, no clue why we're doing fields
This is correct yes
oh, it should be iff
Not iff since there's a field of 4 elements
But without that knowledge this seems like you just have to smartly brute force it? Idk
That isn't Z/4Z
Oh misread mb kek
Yeah I do
I will slink away again
I arrived at the possibility of ab=1 or ab=c
but, does it matter which one i choose?
Ye both work lol
Ok ok
Choose one and go with it

Wait
if i decide
to go with ab=1
will that affect future computations?
nvm ill figure that out
Yes it will
You'll get different tables for the 2 choices
(but they'll become the same after appropriately renaming a,b,c)
I think you should start with addition
And figure out what 1+...+1 is for a certain number of 1s
And then multiplication uses distributivity
Alright
Something something isomorphism
We don't really talk much about field isomorphism do we?

Even in the addition table a+1=b or a+1=c do we also just choose one?
first just handle sums of the form 1+...+1
like what should 1+1 be
in this field?
yes
it could be a, b or c
then decide that + 1
and not like a+1 or a+a
^
what will be 1*1
1?
why?
I dont know
what do the field axioms say about 1?
exactly
so 1*1 = 1
yes
so now if you can figure out what adding 1 does
you will know how to multiply things
because you know how to multiply 2 1s
and then you can apply distributivity
OHHHHH
(1+1)(1+1) => 11 + 11 + 11 + 11
yes
so once you know what 1+1+1+1 is, you will know what a^2 is
yes
thats why you start with figuring out how adding 1 works in the field
so figure out what 1+1, 1+1+1, ... are
that will only work if 1+1 = a
but whos to say a+a can't be b?
then wouldn't a^2=b?
Is that another one of those things you just choose?
so what all have you filled in the addition table so far
did you draw a table?
right
that gives you 1 row and 1 column
and then you have put 1+1 = a
notice that b and c so far have the exact same properties
they are not distinguishable, other than in name
right?
they are distinct
right
just unique
so now you need to define 1+1+1
for 1+a?
thats what it will become, but the reason is not that
like in the beginning I said that you should start by figuring out what 1+1, 1+1+1, 1+1+1+1,... are
yes
exactly
so you see that if you can figure out these elements, then you already have multiplication of these elements
and heres the great thing about these elements
since you are asked to construct a field with a prime number of elements
each element of the field will be one of those
so as soon as you know what those elements are
you know what their multiplication table is
so you know what the multiplication table of the whole field is
nice 
but this would just turn into 6a or something
and how does that help me
you dont have a 6 in your field
it will just be 1+1+1+1+1+1+1+1+1+1+1+1
dont write it in terms of a
leave it in 1s
ok
but this is why I asked you to figure out what sums of 1s look like
once you know that
you can figure out what that big sum of 1s is
(it will turn out to be a)
but all i know is that 1+1=a and a+1=a+a
so far you already know how to add 0 (on either side) and 1+1=a
right, but forget about multiplication for now
ok ok
so you know 1+1
next step is to figure out 1+1+1
notice im not bracketing this
can you tell me why?
its one element
no, i mean how does 1+1+1 make sense, when addition is only defined between 2 elements
im writing 3 elements here
Oh
so im asking you to figure out what this could mean'
(think of numbers. if you can add 2 numbers, how do you then move on to adding 3 numbers?)
exactly
(1+1)+1
then ((1+1)+1)+1?
yes
but now I want you to justify my omission of brackets
1+1+1 could also have meant 1+(1+1)
Its the same either way no?
yes, why?
because of commutativity?
this is associativity
commutativity is x+y = y+x
because elements are unique?
wdym?
nvm
so when I say define 1+1+1
I am actually asking you to define 2 things
(1+1)+1 and 1+(1+1)
just that since you want associativity, you will have to define them to be the same
right?
and notice that the 2 things are actually a+1 and 1+a
yes they are
now what values can you give a+1
For example / as division isn't associative. If you write 3/2/1 mathematicians will cry
and what values can you not give to a+1
hmmm
ok
im gonna come back to this later
its too late for me now to keep going
its 5am where i am
weirdly enough, in that case it doesnt matter 
oof alright
ill be back tomorrow 😈

"weirdly" "/1" not that weird tbh, doing nothing is associative 
Chshut up 

im trying to think of a commutative ring with an ideal that is not principle
but i just cannot think of one
anyone got any examples
Z[x] has (x,2) which is not principle
whats (x,2) mean i havent seeen that notation before
ideal generated by (ie smallest ideal containing) x and 2. It will turn out to be the set of all polynomials which have even constant term
ooh is this the same as saying 2 Z[x] + x Z[x]?
yes
gucci
(S) is notation for ideal generated by S
kinda annoying sometimes
given that () are also used in other ways
I lost so many marks to one such ambiguity once
yeah maybe thats why we a taught like this instead so its easier to understand, i reckon the 3rd year courses they wil use that notation
but im not planning
on venturing into that
lol
yeah depends on the course text
How would you prove that it’s an ideal and not a principal ?
0 € 2Z[x] + xZ[x]
a > -a in 2Z[x] + xZ[x] as -a in Z[x]?
||suppose f(x) generates it. Then f(x) must have degree 0, otherwise the ideal it generates wont contain 2. But then f(x) is some even integer and x cant be in the ideal generated by f(x) because x is not a multiple of any even integer||
for proving that its an ideal || could you set up a ring homomorphism from z[x] --> z/2z and then show its also a ring isomporhism with kernel of 2z[x] +x[x] ||
yes
||every polynomial maps to its constant term mod 2||
is ideal defined as kernel of a homeomorphism for you?
nono, its not, we have it has the kernel of a homomorphism in an ideal
the ideal has its own definiton but i wouldnt know how to apply that directly to this question so im using this isntead
it has 2 equivalent definitions. A subset is an ideal iff it is the kernel of some ring homomorphism iff it is an additive subgroup of the ring which absorbs multiplicationfrom any element
both can be done here
what function should your homomorphism map be defined by and how can you show that 2Z[x] + xZ[x] is the kernel ?
this, to Z/2Z
okay thanks
does anyone know how to express a number x as a product of irreducible elements of the ring Z[i], Z[i] is the Gaussian integers
pretty much the same way you'd represent a number x as a product of irreducible elements in Z
I suppose you're really asking, what are the irreducible elements in Z[i]
(which is a surprisingly tricky question)
obviously that link spoils the answer
might want to try it yourself firsst
but its not obvious at a glance
yh what are the irreducible elements
and fro example how i would i represent 21 as a product of irreducible elements in Z[i]
ill give it a read
funnily enough just as 3*7
but you just picked an unlucky example lol
do you know about the norm map yet?
Yes, that
yeah, we can use this to determine what the primes are
it turns out the primes that split are the ones that are 1 mod 4, ones that are 3 mod 4 don't
and 2 is special too
so first find the primes
the units of Z[i] are just 1 and -1 right ?
no
oh what
and how do we prove that these really are all of them?
if the N(z) = 1?
Yup z is a unit iff N(z) = 1
so 1, -1, -i
and i I'd say
isnt that equal to -1
Yeah
Are you seeking a full characterisation of irreducibles in Z[i]?
It's quite tricky ngl
no just for a single number to be expressed as a product of irreducibles in Z[i]
What's the number ?
47
Z[i] is a UFD so no doubt any element of Z[i] is a product of irreducibles
47 is prime
Is it a sum of two squares?
No
because 47 = 3 mod 4
it says express the number 47 as a product of irreducible elements of the ring Z[i], show that each factor of your product is irreducible
Actually (maybe surprisingly too), 47 is an irreducible in Z[i]
I know it because I just looked at a theorem
But to check that, you have to use the norm function
It’s irreducible only if it can be expressed as a product of units ?
No (almost) it's irreducible if whenever you write 47 as a product of two elements then one of the elements is a unit
a product of units is a unit and an irreducible isn't one precisely
Ahhh okay
So it can't be that both of the factors are units
It’s confusing can’t I simply write 47 = 47*1
It seems complicated to show that 47 is irreducible using the norm because N(47) = 2209 which isn't prime and is a quite complicated number to work with
Is that any easier
Maybe use the fact that Z[i] is a UFD and every irreducible there is a prime
Showing that 47 is prime amounts to showing that 47 is irreducible
Actually, there's a thing one can notice here
Suppose p is a prime. If p is a sum of square p = a^2+b^2 then p = (a-ib)(a+ib) so it is not irreducible since neither of the factors is a unit
That's how i knew that 37 and 47 are irreducibles themselves
As they’re primes
Primes AND they're not sum of two squares
if they were sum of squares then ^
To represent it as a product of irreducibles
Its a product of one irreducible (itself only)
Because it’s prime and not sum of two squares
Yup
Okay thanks for the help !
Np
How do I find the units of the the ring R/I
That's all the polynomials in Z_2[x] with max degree 2
because f is an irreducible poly of degree 3
the f given matters: its irreducible in Z/2Z, and it is of degree 3
so you get a new field of 8 elements
7 of which are units (all the non-zero elements)
because 2^3, in mod 2 and deg 3
yes
how do i find the elements though
its all the 2 degree (and lower) polys with coefficients in Z/2Z
0, 1, x, x+1, x², x²+1, x²+x, x²+x+1
ahhhh okay
does that have anything to do with the coset of each R relative to I
there'll be 8 cosets
technically the 8 elements i wrote can be written
0 + <f(x)>
1 + <(f(x)>
x + <(f(x)>
x + 1 + <f(x)>
... and so on
okayy right
these are cosets in R
where <f(x)> means the set of all polynomials of the form
h(x)*f(x) , where h(x) is any polynomial
so any multiple of f(x)
all the elements in the set added w f
oh ok
the representatives for these cosets will just be the elements though
ie 0,1,x,x+1 etc
we're sort of splitting up the infinitely large set of polynomials with coefficients in Z/2Z into 8 disjoint sets
i see
yes
you can just as easily just write 1, x, x+1
or you can write [1], [x+1]
just remember that it actually means 1 + <f(x)>
if they're disjoint does that mean the group of all units are cyclic
gotcha thanks
this is because of the polynomial division formula which says ANY poly g(x) in our ring R can be divided by f(x):
g(x) = f(x)q(x) + r(x), where r(x) is sort of the remainder
and this remainder will always have degree 2 or less
these 8 elements are represented by this remainder
umm im not sure being disjoint has anything to do with that.. theyre cyclic maybe because units in any finite field is always cyclic
NOTE i am taking a course on this right now soo im no expert
oh yh the follow up is find all elements h of ring R st polynomial x*h + [1] belongs to the ideal
you seem a lot better than me lool
i should understand it cause i have an exam coming up soon.
good luck, im sure you'll do well !
i think this means that you have to find h(x) such that x*h(x) + [1] = [0], since [0] = 0 + <f(x)> = <f(x)> which are exactly the elements of the ideal
okay thank you ill give it a go
since theres just 8 elements you can kind of calculate each one i think 😅 thats the only way i know
for one, if h(x) = x² + 1 then
x*h + 1 = x³ + x + 1
is in <f(x)>
why [0]?
can someone help me fix this proof? I feel I messed up
up here i mean
ProphetX
surely u would just plug each of them in and see if it is within the ideal
[0] is the set of polynomials of the form 0 + f(x)*g(x) , for any g(x), ie. it is a multiple of f(x), ie. it is in the ideal
right?
I still don't get why 0 tho?
wouldn't you just see if it's in the ideal
I find anywhere that says that
well you have a quotient field R/I , which splits R up into 8 disjoint sets (cosets), where [0] represents all elements in I, [1] represents all elements of the form 1 + I, and so on
...
I still don't get how u got that
i dont know how to.. prove it.. i thought it was just like a definition
it’s probably equivalent to the definition
x+1 is not a multiple of f(x) = x³ + x + 1, so that wouldn't work. I is all the multiples of f(x)
ok but why 0 then
0 is a multiple of f(x)
0 isnt a multiple
it is! take 0*f(x) , then you get 0



