#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Ā· Page 588 of 407
and in there
the left piece is acting on the right piece
so you have to mirror everything
oh,right
okay,so we have [(v_1,z_1),(v_2,z_2)]=[[z_1,z_2]+\rho(v_1)(z_2) - \rho(v_2)(z_1), 0]
how to get from here to here
no
[(v_1,z_1),(v_2,z_2)]=([v_1,v_2]+rho(z_1)(v_2) - rho(z_2)(v_1), [z1,z2])
[v1,v2] = 0
[z1,z2] = 0 because C is also an abelian lie algebra
and rho(z1) = rho(z1 * 1) = z1 rho(1) = z1 D
right
and since sigma is an automorphism,it will give some other artibtrary element v_0 in V and lambda in C
right?
sigma maps g to g so the image of (0,1) will be some element of g
which we call (v0, lambda)
v0 is some element of V
some element v_0 in V and some elemend lambad in C
and lambda is some element of C
right,then the next steps are clear,just manipulating properties of involutive automorphism
this though,why?
be restricting to V,what does that mean?
if we want to restrict to v,lambda by def =0?
it means looking at what the map does on V
if you have a function f : X -> Y
and a subset Z of X
the restriction of f to Z is uuuh
f|Z : Z -> Y
right,but why does this imply the formula given?
above we have the adjoint rep,here we have D
how did D come out of nowhere
because first you need to check that the adjunctions always map V to V
what is an adjunction?
adj(x) is the map that eats a y in g and spits out [x,y] in g
i found this but i don't understand a word 
yes,that's the adjoint representation
of the lie algebra on itself
well adj(0,1) restricted to V is literally D
why?
because when we say that V is a subspace of g
we mean that for each v in V we have the corresponding (v,0) in g
then (adj(0,1)|V) (v)
right,but in this case lambda=0
this is my confusion
no
that's not what it means
it means z=0
we have a map from g to g, the restriction of the map to V is going to be what it does on stuff on the form (v,0)
(adj(0,1)|V)((v,0))?
we identify V with (V x {0}) in g
so then (adj(0,1)|V) (v)
= adj(0,1) (v,0)
= [(0,1 ), (v,0)]
this
because remember when we worked out what was the lie bracket in g
so [(v1,z1),(v2,z2)] = (z1 D(v2) - z2 D(v1), 0)
we just apply this
[(0,1 ), (v,0)] = (1 D(v) - 0 D(0), 0)
= (D(v),0)
= D(v) after the identification of V with Vx{0}
ok,sec i'll try
adj(v0,lambda)|V (v) = [(v0,lambda),(v,0)] = ??
yeah
okay,and I see we got a contradiction after the computation
well D is already only defined on V so no need to say you restrict it
in the step where you said that sigma existed
why?
because Proposition 1.33 (iii) says that if there is a real form then there is an involutive antilinear automorphism and vice versa ?
ahhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
let g be a real lie algebra
ok,now it makes sense
thank you so much for your patience @hot lake 
finally now it's clarified
nice
I should always get my definitions straight 
Hello, I am looking a bit at graded modules and tensor products over them, but I am a bit confused. I know that for example k[X] is a graded ring over some field k, and k[X] is also a graded module over k[X]. The tensor product is defined like https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1616156/if-m-and-n-are-graded-modules-over-the-graded-ring-r-what-is-the at the bottom of the first answer, but I am a bit unsure how I should interpret this. An element of k[X] can be seen as k_1 + k_2X, is an element of the tensor product then (k_1 x k_1') + (k_2X x k_1') + (k_1 x k_2'X) + (k_2X x k_2X) where the x means some sort of abstract tensor product (not the ring multiplication) or is it something else?
I guess the example is k[X] / X^2 instead of k[X], for k[X] it would be an infinite sum I presume
I find it a bit confusing though, since from the definition, seemingly (k_2X x k_1') and (k_1 x k_2X) are supposed to be in the same component sort of
or am I getting it wrong, and should x just be the ring multiplication?
to be precise,why would we not be able to use iii)? I am thinking now again and we suppose that g) has a real form,we did not specify that sigma(x+iy) acts on g
is sigma always an automorphism on the complexification of g?
right,yes,sorry for bothering
my bad
Im not sure how this works, but should I ping the helpers in this channel as well?
probably won't help
not a specific math question but
i'm planning to review some basic undergrad-level ring theory before i start studying commutative algebra
does anyone have any book recommendations for that other than Dummit and Foote or Artin
How exactly do you calculate this sum? What does that weird expression below it mean?
It means all tuples (j1,...,jn)
Such that that expression is true
An example could be like
j1 + j2 = 0
Oh, that makes sense
Okay, no need to go further on this example :)
Thanks!

is there an easy way to show ix²+x-i is irreducible over Q(i)?
Quadratic formula?
yes
show there is no sqrt3 in Q(i)
yea that sounds slightly easier than what i did thank
@chilly ocean Can I dm you?
yes
also is this gucci? Proof finite field has p^n elements for some n
Let un be the finite sequence of elements of F. F is field extension of some Zp cuz finite. So induction at each step adjoin 1 root they obviously algebraic so finite dimension bla bla each step get previous number to some power done
i think it's much easier than that
if E is a field extension of Fp then E is a vector space over Fp, i.e. E = (Fp)^n for some n, i.e. |E| = p^n
yea ofc wtf was i thinking
if two field extensions have same finite dimension and one is contained in other they're the same right
yes
that is a linear algebra fact -- if V is n-dimensional and W is an n-dimensional subspace of V, then W = V
yes ofc, but i keep being paranoid that i made some minor mistake and everything is wrong
how to be sure of the things you're doing? but actually justifiedly so, not just being sure and being mostly wrong
git gud
if you're paranoid try to focus on what steps you take and what claims you make. Some things you say will be weaker or stronger than others. Try to focus on the weaker things and ask yourself what about them you doubt.
main thing is don't stay with aimless paranoia, hone it into a precise doubt you have about something
otherwise don't waste time being paranoid, it's just unhealthy
hence it is an endomorphism since F is finite??! what
isn't an endomorphism just any map from F to itself
ah yea endomorphisms of finite fields are automorphisms ofc
maybe squaring is an automorphism when you apply it to some things, but not others?
so they just call it all an endomorphism?
like the field F_2(X), it's not an automorphism
Shouldn't we need sigma(L) = L for surjectivity because otherwise the restriction to L is just an automorphism into L and not necessarily surjective?
i think the point is that all you need is that assumption and you end up getting equality for free
in a special case, imagine that L/k is finite-dimensional, say of dimension n. sigma in injective, and injective is equivalent to surjective for automorphisms of vector spaces of finite dimension
yeah i can see it for the case of finite degree
but i dont see why itd hold if you have infinite extensions
oh wait it's actually even easier I think. sigma is an automorphism of k_s, so it has an inverse sigma^(-1). both sigma and sigma^(-1) satisfy the given property, that is, sigma(L) \subseteq L and sigma^(-1)(L) \subseteq L
I think these two together give you that sigma(L) = L
otherwise, if there were some element x of L not contained in sigma(L), then sigma^(-1)(x) would not be in L, contradicting that sigma^(-1)(L) \subseteq L
yeah i dont think this is a galois thing after all
just like, "if a divides b and b divides a then a = b"
what does x |--> y = x^2 mean?
a map f where f(x)=x^2 (=y)
So the map x |--> y = x^2 simply sends x to x^2?
Why even include the y then?
probably so they could refer to it as y later on
because they want to pass to coordinate rings
on coordinate rings you send the result variable y to the thing it's being set to, ie x^2
how would you compare category theory and abstract algebra
is the latter a subset of the former?
they're not subsets of each other
I've heard category theory get compared to set theory, but I'm not an expert
category theory is kind of its own thing (but with a lot of connections to other fields and typically studied to better understand those fields rather than for its own sake)
algebra is only a subset of category theory insofar as its a subset of logic
(ie not at all in practice)
arenāt morphisms that are native to abstract algebra generalized by category theory
it seems like category theory had to come first
sure, and the integers that are native to number theory are generalized by ā
but i woulnt call elementary number theory a subset of analysis
ah true
and no, category theory did not come first.
it's usually the other way around anyway - things that generalize come later
general theory of natural equivalences was published in 1945
this paper is credited as the birth of category theory
noether had formalized ring theory and commutative algebra decades ago
and galois used groups a century before then
you know that there's a unique field (up to isomorphism) of order p^2 right
this is saying that you view that field as Fp[t]/(t^2-1)
whatās t
an indeterminate
t is in F_p?
no like you start with the polynomial ring Fp[t], and mod out by an element
oh
Iām gonna read https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/galoistheory/finitefields.pdf
and then come back here
Shouldnt your polynomial be t^2 + 1 ? As t^2 - 1 isnt irreducible therefore F_p[t]/(t^2-1) isnt a field
right, that was a typo
ok 
The field k is is Q right?
Because if I is an ideal of Z[x_1,...,x_n] whose inverse image is zero, then the elements of I are non-constant polynomials (union 0)
And we can write any ideal of Q[x_1,...,x_n] as (f_1(x),..., f_n(x)) where each f_i has integer coefficients
Everytime I see your name I read Have a Banana at first.
bim
G/G^0 is the continuous image of G, so it's compact. But it's also discrete, since the preimage of any point is a connected component of G, which is open (and since G/G^0 has the quotient topology this means the point is an open set downstairs). A discrete, compact space is finite
G/G^0 is abelian because it's a quotient of an abelian group
so basically the components of G becomes the elements of G/G^0 ?
yup, that's pretty much it
The cosets of G^0 are exactly the connected components of G
great thanks!
yup, one way to see this is to think about localization. The prime ideal pulling back to 0 means it's disjoint from S = Z \ {0}, and primes of this form are the same as primes of the localization S^-1 Z[x1,...,xn] = Q[x1,...,xn]
Thanks
shamrock if i may ask, are you a student, phd or what?
I would guess a postdoc
at least a postdoc
because he was refereeing a paper the other day
wait what
I was doing peer review for a course, maybe that's what you're thinking of?
I'm an undergrad about to finish my 3rd year
WHAT
Well I was wrong lol
(banana, I'm chmonkey's classmate)
im the worst D:
The comm alg class we're taking has a peer review component
do you study in germany?
Do you study in germany bim?
No, sweden
Well im located in uppsala, better math here tbh
ah nice haha
You are really good at math
thank you
I asked yesterday about graded modules and tensor products on them, but there hasn't been anyone who was able to help yet, if someone can, then I'd be very grateful š
If im not mistaken, you could think of k[x] as coefficients, so k[x][y]
where the direct sum is the grading over y
hmmm so essentially P(x) tensor Q(x) becomes P(x)Q(y)?
err
yes I think that thats what it would turn out to be
yeah
I see
wait you're an undergrad 
yal built different
Iām built with a plastic lawn chair body

and what are you shika? š®
The open sets are basically just the empty sets, A^1_k, and A^1_k - finitely many maximal ideals right?
shika
highschool 
also just curious, what are you reading hahn banach ?
a book
sea?

Ravi Vakil's book on AG
the rising sea
yes

This discord has too many goomers smh
Sadly I will be one by the end of the summer too
Yeah the topology is fhat
But why?
I think itās worth thinking about a bit
When K is algebraically closed itās a pretty simple application of the Nullstellensatz
But for general K I think itās a little harder to see
Isn't it like gluing the galois conjugates of k
I mean can you justify this omegalol
And then thinking of the topology as the cofinite topology on it
with an extra punkt
Can you justify it tho?
Uhhhh
Ultimately I think it boils down to
How do you mean?
Like prove it?
Oh yeah
V(S) for S not equal to 0 is a finite number of maximal ideals
so it's complement is what I described
Yeah, but justifying that is I think not immediately simple
When k isnāt algebraically closed
I mean
It's a factorization argument right?
Every element of S must factor as finitely many irreducibles
Right, but you need to use that I is principal to make that work
But yeah, thatās the idea
Wait what's I?
Replace S with the ideal generated by S
Oh yeah I meant an ideal S
Forget V(S) for arbitrary subsets
Bad notation
Actually
But yeah, you have to use that itās principal and then it boils down to irreducible decompositions
Iām not sure that works
For any given element f in S
You know that f is in finitely many maximal ideals with UFD
But there can be infinitely many f in S so how do you handle that?
You take the intersection over all f
I guess thatās true
Thanks for verifying
For k[x,y] I guess it isnāt the lack of being a PID that mucks stuff up
Itās that the irreducible factorization tells you which height 1 primes contain it
Then the roots (along with potentially some other stuff when k isnāt algebraically closed) tells you the maximal ideals
Wait Chmonkey, how old are you?
No in HS
That does not seem like a wise decision lol
Plus it's also really expensive lol
Night
I also applied to Princeton and didn't get in
solidarity
(planning on making up for it by going there for grad school though)
I'm a bit confused about how the normality property of subgroups work. Say if H is normal in G and K is normal in H then it doesn't follow that K is normal in G (just saw a counterexample with S4). But say if K is normal in G and K is in H then K is normal in H too right?
ie. going from the bigger set to the smaller preserves normality, am I right?
But say if K is normal in G and K is in H then K is normal in H too right?
i think you phrased this wrong

if K is normal in H, then yes, K is normal in H
I was doing some exercise and came across the fact that N is normal in G and N lies in HN (the set product where H is a subgroup), then the solution said N is normal in HN
If K is a normal subgroup of G, and H is a subgroup of G containing K, then K is a normal subgroup of H.
is this what you meant?
thats not what confused me about your statement
But say if K is normal in G and K is in H then K is normal in H too right?
ah wait
Aha
That's fine
going from the bigger set to the smaller preserves normality, am I right?
yep, this is the way to think of it
I'd have been easier to use the "triangle" notation hehe
nah its fine
N is normal in G and N lies in HN (the set product where H is a subgroup), then the solution said N is normal in HN
and indeed, this is true for the stated reason
Heck yeah. If I apply for grad school and get accepted, I'll be like you didn't admit my man Shamrock when he applied for UG and decline their offer.
Is it possible to do this using the universal property of the topological coproduct or am I being dumb?
the coproduct exists bc Rg^op = Aff, but the exercice asks you to describe such morphism
Is the arbitrary union of closed sets closed in the spectrum of a ring?
idk anything about spectrums of rings except that they're a topology so probably not cuz usually topologies don't have closed for arbitrary unions of closed
Same
I don't think so Raghuram, consider the case of Z.
Spec(Z) = {pZ, p prime or p = 0}.
(U_[p prime, p != 2] {pZ}) isn't closed anymore, but it is a countable union of closed sets
But if they do there might be a very slick proof of this
You take unions of sets of ideals right? Not ideals themselves?
yes, sorry
All ideals of Z are of the form nZ, each nZ is contained in finitely many prime ideals (the ideal generated by the prime divisors of n)
So you can't have a closed set that contains infinitely many prime ideals
and "just" a countable union is enough to get one, as I showed I think
But this isn't stuff I know very well, so I may be saying something totally wrong 
(also idk why I included p = 1, fixed it)
Isn't 1Z in Spec(Z)?
Whole ring isn't a prime ideal 
oic
All basic closed sets are finite, so all basic open sets are cofinite
So it's coarser than the cofinite topology? So all closed sets are finite or the full space
And there are infinitely many closed points
OK
Wait really?
ab in Z => a in Z or b in Z
Prime ideals have to be proper by definition
Oh
I've always seen it defined with the condition of the ideal being a proper ideal, yes
And units aren't considered prime
on Spec(Z) I think it's like literally the cofinite topology
That would require all points to be closed š¤
oh yeah {0} isn't closed, is it ?
Yeah it's not
yeah ok so it's just coarser than the cofinite topology, you're right 
Module Theory
and yeah, the remaining part of the reasoning is what I was saying
but you said it better lol
I have a few questions about the order of operation in group theory. I know that something like r ā f would be read right to left: first do an f flip, and then do an r rotation.
- Is the order always right to left, or does it depend on the author/school?
- when condensed to a single element of the group, would r ā f be written rf or fr ?
r o f and rf are both common notations
as for the 1 question, it's always right to left AFAIK
@red fox
awesome, thanks 
Can anyone give a hint?
I'm trying to derive the equivalent notation of the Eisenstein integers
$a+b\sqrt{-3}$
LaĆÆka
Shouldn't it be Z[w]?
I see
There's an alternative notation apparently
The one you suggest
With
where a,b are in Z
I'm trying to understand how these 2 notations relate
There are some differences,tho -1/2+ā-3/2 is not in Z[ā-3]
If you take Z[ā-3] as a ring
Yeah you're right, I double checked, it's actually not quite Z[sqrt(-3)]
$a+b\sqrt{-3}, a,b \in \mathbb{Z}$ or $a-\frac{1}{2}, b-\frac{1}{2} \in \mathbb{Z} $
LaĆÆka
Now that's the correct definition my textbook gives of the Eisenstein integersš
Yea,That works I think
Now I'm trying to understand how this is linked to the notation that Wikipedia gives
^
Suppose a,b in Z, a+bā-3 can be written as (a+2b)+(2bw)
Similarly you get an expression for when a-1/2 in Z and b-1/2 in Z
Thanks 
You still have to show all numbers of a+bw form are either a+bā-3 or that
But that direction is easy
I think you meant a+b +2bw
Same thing
is End(R) iso to R? Would f \mapsto f(1) be an isomorphism?
What is R here?
Yeah, itās even better then
Well, what sorts of endomorphisms are you considering actually?
idk, just a question I asked myself since I was doing some problem asking to show end(Z)=Z and end(Q)=Q so was wondering why didn't they ask for R
ye
I feel as though it wonāt be true for R then
I donāt know the answer off the top of my head tho
If you looked at R-linear maps
f \mapsto f(1) works for Z and Q, not sure why wouldnt for R
So looking at it as a module
Then that map will be an isomorphism
But there could be group endomorphisms which arenāt R-linear I think
So I feel as though there might be more group endomorphisms
iirc this is false when R is non-commutative
R is the reals
then its false when reals are non-commutative 
oh oopsie
So if End is R-linear maps itāll be true
wdym by R-linear
But this is asking as a group
ye what's the difference?
aight so liek treating R as a field>?
Well, no itās like enhancing the abelian group structure
To also make it a vector space over itself
If we treated it as a field we would want
f(ab) = f(a)f(b)
So really this means that f(1) determines the entire map
Because f(x) = xf(1)
Thatās why the map f -> f(1) is an isomorphism
This is why the map you have is an iso of groups for Z and Q
Because for Z, you know f(n) = nf(1)
And for Q you also fix the inverses
ye
So like f(m/n) = m/nf(1)
So the question is if thereās a group endomorphism of R which isnāt R-linear
and yea there are plenty of those
wait what why
isn't definition of endomorphism over R to be R linear?
yes like this
okay yeah
Yes if you go to this type of maps then itās true yup
thatswhy I wasnt following
wait actually I dont know what is an endomorphism one second its a screenshot from a chapter I havent read
oh so ig i was confusing it with invariant base number
Ok Im interested whether or not the ring of endomorphisms of the abelian group R is isomorphic to the ring R
Thereās no way thatās true I think
The map f -> f(1) isnāt even a ring homomorphism
what breaks?
No
On one side
fā¢g is the composition of f and g
So it will map to like fā¢g(1)
But it would need to map to
f(1)g(1) to be a ring homomorphism
wait so why doesnt it fail for Z?
but does this show that there isn't an isomorphism... we just showed that the isomorphism isn't of the form f |--> f(1)
Right, it could randomly be isomorphic but I find that so hard to believe
For Z the map End(Z) -> Z is as groups
Not as rings
nono as rings
i think i can prove that End_Z(R) is not an integral domain
Ummm
Okay well
In that case I guess it works...
So
If you look at module maps
So like R-linear maps then it does end up being a map of rings
by picking basis of R over Q. pick two basis elements x and y... let f(x) = x and f(other basis) = 0. and similarly g(y) = y and g(other basis) = 0.
then fg is 0 everywhere
But if you looked at just group endomorphisms then it wonāt work
The reason it works for Z and Q
Is because abelian group endomorphisms
Are exactly the linear maps as well
I have a question regarding blow ups of varieties and the points on exceptional divisors (the line where you're blowing up)
so if I have a curve in C[x,y], with a singularity at 0
and, let's say the tangents at that singularity are y=0, y=ix, y=-ix
The consider a blow up at 0. We're looking at points on zariski closure(pi^-1(variety\{(0,0)})) intersection Exceptional divisor
Then, as far as I understand, this will have 3 points, namely [1,0], [1,i], [1,-i]; correct? Well, assuming you identify the divisor with P¹, otherwise all of them have an affine (0,0) in front.
Now assuming that's fine, my question is why. Intuitively it makes sense, but I can't quite get there
So what I've tried is attempted to calculate that blowup, first without closure.
You say that it's equal to {((x,y), [x,y] | f(x,y) = 0 and x != 0} U same with y!= 0 (meaning you split the projective cases in half: One open set where x non-zero, the other when y non-zero. Then you can divide)
then, upon simplifying I get that it's isomorphic to V(x-y-y^3) for x!= 0 and V(yx^4-x^2-1) for y != 0
is there any way to see those tangent singularities from here? The points on the exceptional divisor.
$(a \oplus b)(c \oplus d) = ac \oplus bd$, probably
ĻĻεĻĻα
why is this property true?
intuitively it makes sense that i can't compose different vector spaces
i.e. ad wouldn't make sense
but idk how to prove it formally from the def of direct sum
the 'multiplication' between (a oplus b) (c oplus d) is the composition of homomorphisms,right?
ĻĻεĻĻα
cursed
ĻĻεĻĻα
yeh,now it makes sense
just a question to be sure,the 'multiplication' between (rho_V(g)+rho_W(g))(rho_V(h)...) is the composition of maps
right?
yeah

unless there's some fancy representation theory thing it could mean 
all i know about rep theory is the definition


how could I continue from here?
in our class the tensor product was defined only in a basis 
gorup 
ah
yikes
i'll correct sec
I should show that the 2 are equal somehow 
also there's an extra bracket in last line
isn't that completely trivial :/
I think the hard part is checking that their definition makes sense
does this seem ok?
and then doing brackets properly I get that they really are equal
what do you mean by this?
well they give the definition of the linear map on the pure tensors
it may not be completely obvious that it can be linearly extended to a linear map
depending on what you have done before about tensor products

it's a morphism into GL(V)
yes
GL stands for general linear group
V is a vector space
well it's at least a lemma that you may want to prove in the chapter about tensor product, that you can just define linear maps on pure tensors and nothing will go wrong
but I'm probably splitting hairs xD
okay,will do that in the appendix
I didn't do the appendix yet 
no,I think it is important indeed,because I try to make a self-contained script
the pure tensors generate the tensor product space, but they aren't exactly a basis of it
any suggestion is very welcome
but yeah this is ok
I can already tell you are going to have so much fun with the symmetric powers and exterior powers and other schur functors
symmetric and exterior products were fun,I had some homework related to them
schur functors I never heard
I solved this 
the proof of frobenius formula though was homework and we didn't do it in the tutorial cause we were told it's too difficult 
now don't do the decomposition of V^3 into irreducible representations of GL(V)
I actually still wonder how one can find irreps of a given group
our teacher told us we will not touch that subject and we will always be given the irreps and we just need to use the complete reducibility theorem to decompose reps into irreps
but we will never search the irreps of a given group
well if the group is finite you can just look at the regular representation and stare at it until it breaks into all the irreducible pieces
we did show that all irreps are subreps of the regular rep
but how does this help?
finding them explicitly
actually you're right if you don't have the character table you can't really do the projection thing and get all the irreducible pieces
is $V^{\star}$ a common notation for dual?
V^* is most common, some ppl use V'
V^\star would be recognized as the dual but too much effort to write it 
write the whole Hom (V, k)
some folks also use $V^\vee$
shamrock
F[x]-module
isnt \vee easier to write than * 
it looks uglier
is the point
also V** is also easier to write
in latex and just in regular old text
I meant in hand writing lol
which is where I do most of my math writing
asterisks š¤®
asterisks are easier to write than a superscript \vee imo
like yes, technically more difficult strokes
but easier to distinguish
I doubt most people have good enough handwriting to distinguish V from \vee
in handwriting
fair
so I would say V* is better for handwriting as well
You don't want to handwrite $v\in V^\vee$
shamrock
$u, v, \nu \in V^\vee$
F[x]-module
cursed
$u, v, \nu \in V^\vee\oplus\mathcal{V}$
shamrock

$u, v, \nu, \mathfrak{v} \in V^\vee \oplus \mathcal{V}$
F[x]-module
ikr T_T
some math student should bring like a fountain pen to their test
and write mathfrak letters
lmao
Thatās me

I just want to make some small checks, so that i know im not just being paranoid and i actually understand this
- yes
- It's iso to G
- it's iso to G * A
2 is wrong I think
Through one path, A will map to identity, through the other, to the image of the homomorphism A -> G
So the square won't commute
Yeah and it has to commute so it forces the image to become an identity 
hmm i see
It won't always be the zero homomorphism
so we can't even form the free prod
(these are called special pushouts because the pushouts turn out to be really nice)
So is 3. just G or something 
huh G *_A 1 is interesting
Is it ||G mod the normal closure of the image of A in G||?
many such cases
Many such cases
lol
Mirza have you tried an example?
What are the 2 pushout maps?
Take 2Z mapping into Z
there's the 0 map and a morphism A -> G
We're trying to form G *_A 1
Yeah those are the maps whose pushout you're taking
But the pushout itself is a tuple of 3 things
The pushout group with the 2 maps that complete the square
oh oh
So when you say the pushout is G that isn't a complete description
yeah okay okay makes sense
So this forces both pushout maps to be the trivial morphisms
Like 0 map
Assuming the group is G, yes
But it's not, because then the square doesn't commute
Unless A->G is trivial
you mean the second square? Which maps the group homomorphically into another group in two ways?
Doesn't that one work too? One sec
Yeah, like the definition of pushout is "a tuple such that that square commutes and for any other tuple there's a unique map from the universal one to that thing such that whole diagram commutes"
So take a second tuple with a commutative square
le mouse drawing has arrived
Yez
So the second square does commute 
You don't know what f_1 and f_2 are
Oh wait we need \phi_1 to be trivial too
But it won't be, in general
yea
Right, so the problem here is that in the pushout, you're sending too many things to identity
You need to send im(A) to identity
But as is usual in universal constructions you should do anything extra
So from this try to guess the pushout first, then prove it
hm i see
However if we did have A -> G was trivial then we'd get that G *_A 1 \cong G, right? or is that crankery too
Yeah
Then it kinda reduces to problem 3
Because you might as well replace A with the trivial group (any diagrams that commuted with A there, will remain commutative with this change and vice versa)

Okay another confusing thing, i can describe a pushout group with respect to $\alpha_1, \alpha_2$ over $A$ as $G *_A H = \langle S_G \cup S_H \mid {\alpha_1(a) = \alpha_2(a) \mid a \in A} \cup R_G \cup R_H \rangle$. Being a little lax about $\alpha_1(a)$ and $\alpha_2(a)$ not being in the same group, and with the understanding we're talking about their inclusions into the product. Then we have $G *_A 1 = \langle S_G \mid {\alpha_1(a) = a \mid a \in A} \cup R_G \cup R_H\rangle$
c(o)hmirza
This is correct, right?
Yez
Good idea
But you can also get a more usable construction in this case
Yeah yeah i know the free prod and quotient by the smallest normal sugrop generated by \alpha_1(a)\alpha_2(a)^-1
smH
is an hmirza a mirza up to homotopy?
More usable in the sense you won't have to worry about free product etc
Yes up to isomorphism 
Try to do it for the case where im(A) is normal in G
So then doesn't this force this free prod to be defined no matter what \alpha_1 is?
Yes
in the quotient we just turn it into the identity 
yup
Pushout
Yeah pushout
They always exist for groups
So then G *_A 1 really is G then i think 
What are the 2 maps?
It's canonical inclusion
You saw that 0 maps don't work
there's a cringe notational thing
g \mapsto x_g and you formulate everything above in terms of x_g as elements of the pushout 
Been trying to avoid it since i hate the way it looks 
what's the presentation you just found for G *_A 1 mirza?
Say G is presented by <S|R> and we have this map α : A -> G
<S_G | R_G \cup {\alpha_1(a) = 1 | a \in A}> 
This isn't right
Alpha_1(a) = 1 
oh
Wait I am now more confused
should it be like α_G(a) instead of a?
A isn't a subgroup of G
Ye i said before i'm being a little lax with this right here
But it's with the understanding that you'll just include everything into the pushout 
But it's not an inclusion
Include everything into free product you mean
I guess I don't get why you write α_1(a) but then just a

seems asymmetric
Okay so let's try being more precise 
sure
We'll use this presentation instead
I don't care about writing g for the word g in the free product/pushout
for G_1 *_A G_2
What I'm saying to be careful about is writing a for the image of a under the map A -> G
It's equivalent i think but this is a little more precise
yeah
So we have
$G *A 1 = \langle {x_g \mid g \in G } \mid {x{\alpha_1(a)} = x_1 \mid a \in A } \cup R_G\rangle$
c(o)hmirza
Yes, I agree with this
Where x_1 is the identity element of the free product
Or whatever
Oh I guess that's enforced by R_G
anyways, do you see why this isn't just G?
nop
You have the same generators, but extra relations
well you're taking G and adding in more relations
pepega
yes?

So can you find a way to nicely represent this group without generators and relations?
G * 1/N where N is smallest normal subgroup containing that whole thing 
Wdym "that whole thing"?
and that's just G/N
The topological intuition here is that G describes some holes, and A is sewing in some discs that trivializes the holes I guess
(just for another perspective)
the whole set for the x_\alpha_1(a) crap
Sure
ie I'm(A) ā G
So inside of G this is just the image of A
okay so this makes it painfully obvious that this isn't G 
wtf am i doing these days 
have you thought about this in the context of Top?
What's the pushout of X and the one-point space along a map A -> X
Does Mirza know top? 
no worries
Not wedge sum, that would be there if these were pointed top spaces
just an interesting visualization
ĀÆ\_(ć)_/ĀÆ
alright shamrock time 8)
Say you have a ring $A$ and you know that
$R_1$: if $\mathrm{ht} \mathfrak{p} \leq 1$ then $A_\mathfrak{p}$ is a regular local ring
$S_2$: if $\mathrm{ht} \mathfrak{p} \geq 2$ then $\mathrm{depth}A_\mathfrak{p}\geq 2$
shamrock
! Undefined control sequence.
<recently read> \marhrm
l.63 ...hrm{ht} \mathfrak{p} \geq 2$ then $\marhrm
{depth}A_\mathfrak{p}\geq 2$
The control sequence at the end of the top line
of your error message was never \def'ed. If you have
misspelled it (e.g., \hobx'), type I' and the correct
spelling (e.g., `I\hbox'). Otherwise just continue,
and I'll forget about whatever was undefined.
c(o)hmirza
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
I've handled the case where depth R < 2
So depth R >= 2
ah fuck I'm mixing up R and A
Whatever
chmonkey told me to try and show R is integrally closed in its ring of total fractions
Progress on that is not so good
I was thinking that if t = α/β is integral then consider B = A[t], we know that A_p = B_p for any prime p of height <= 1
idk maybe I need to learn local cohomology stuff
so depth B <= depth A
Vibes tell me depth B = depth A
yes
You donāt need local coho
Try showing the claim based on the dimension of A
You can use the last hw
S_2 also says itās Cohen-Macaulay for all lower height primes!
I used the last homework already
:O
I don't remember exactly where
Chogpamp
I think that's how I know depth A >= 2
Which claim?
I think you could use the hw for that yeah
That integrally closed in the field of fractions
Ah I see
Well I know dim A >= 2
and now whenever you reduce dimension
You can assume itās integrally closed
Hell you could even aaaume itās an integral domain
š”
Hi Mirza
hi chomky

What is G * A? Doesn't it have to be over some group mapping into G, A?
about extending past codim 2 singularities
hmm
@next obsidian did we cover this in lecture?
probably doesn't matter, I can cite whatever on the hw
I mean, yeh we did but how do you want to use that tho haha

Category theory FTW
hmm
I was thinking you could look at an integral element and argue that it's not singular in very many places
This
Above my brain
But integral element is good yes
So maybe secretly what you said is right
I mean I already had the "take an integral element" thought lol
you can find some finite superring B = A[t] and say B_p = A_p for any prime p ā m
I mean it says its support is {m}
OH
So it has m as it's only associated prime
I hadn't made that connection yet

poor cokernel
neat!
lol
I know you wonāt want me to tell you
But I have in the far distant past
Given you the key
flys away
š¼
Right, the induction is pretty shmooving
Try titanfall 2
What laptop
I'll dm
I proved the hint but I don't know how to go from there
I said that if D(f) does not interesect the set of closed points (i.e. maximal ideals), then f is in every maximal ideal of A
The nullstellensatz should tell you that the intersection of all maximal ideals of A is the nilradical
The ring is jacobson
Ye
How?
good question, I'm trying to think about a simple argument for why this is true for non-algebraically closed k right now
Maybe you could look at the hint?
I'm pretty sure Vakil has some other solution in mind
sure
Ah sure
So take your D(f)
This contains some point p
Let me back up. If the ring A_f is nonzero then it has some maximal ideal m. Let p be the preimage of this under A -> A_f
Then A/p is a sub k-algebra of A_f/m
By the thing, A_f/m is finite dimensional over k
then the field of fraction of A/p will be contained in A_f/m, so it'll still be finite over k, so p is closed
Alternatively, since A_f/m is finite over A it is integral, so A/p is an integral domain which is integral over its subring k, and this implies A/p is a field. Thus p is a maximal ideal
Does that argument look good to you @vestal snow ?
Yeah
The argument I had in mind for algebraically closed k is that I(V(J)) = r(J) for any ideal J of k[x1,...,xn], which (if you unravel definitions) says that the radical of any ideal J is the intersection of all maximal ideals containing J
passing to the quotient by J we see that the nilradical and Jacobson radical of a fg k algebra coincide
I'm not immediately sure how to extend this to non algebraically closed k, probably you can just tensor with the algebraic closure?
Why does this imply p is closed?

