#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 590 of 407
remind me again, why do we need that? for what?
i thought you asked in general why [0] was exactly equal to I
.
yes why did u chose this to be [0]
u keep saying g(x)*p(x) +[0] = [0]
im so confuse
because he said we need to find an h(x) such that x*h(x) + 1 belongs to the ideal. and i said that "belonging to the ideal" means the same as "being equal to [0]"
thats all i talked about after that. being in the ideal is equivalent to being equal to [0]
then did u mean for it to become h(x)*p(x) +[0] =[0]
if so why did the [1] become [0]
ProphetX
How does this follow from the above?
howcome $1+1\neq{0}$ in fields larger than 2 elements?
Reaper
Like a field with 3, 4, 5 elements
It can be 0 in a field larger than 2 elements
In the field of 4 elements, it is 0
Just not in prime cardinality fields
Moldi based opinion on two?

How can an even number be prime bro 
@chilly ocean try to prove this is the case for 3 elements, then try to make a similar argument work for 5
Yay 
but idk if i did something weird
Send table 
Right, so you're trying to see to what extent those choices are forced?
well
Idk if I saw that
but
I did find that
the elements in each row and column
have to be like unique
so it became a sudoku kinda puzzle
Yess
How did you prove that each element appears in each row and column exactly once?
Yes 
But for multiplication you have to be careful because cancellation only works when a≠0
The only exception is multiplication table where it has a row and column of zeros
yessss
Yes 
Everything worked really well
Yess 
I used addition table for multiplication
Yes this is exactly what was needed 
I chose to find
all the squares first
like a^2, b^2, c^2
then find ab, ac, b*c because they helped with distributivity
I guess the only thing that remains is to see why 1+1 can't be 0 or 1, and a+1 can't be 0,1,a and so on
Yeah
For that try to see what adding 1 does to the remaining elements
oh damn
i forgot about that
it can't be 0, 1, a because of uniqueness
in all cases i think
Uniqueness says it can't be 1 or a
So that solves those 2 cases 
Hmmm
And similarly the for b+1 not being 1,a,b
But for all these cases you have to show that they can't give 0
1+1, a+1, b+1
Then c+1 will have to be 0 because thats the only thing that will remain in the row
thats just wrong
! as in factorial?
! as in not
ah
ohhhhh crap
Yeah so a+1 = 1+1+1 part is correct (once you have proven that 1+1 ≠ 0)
But then you need to show that 1+1+1 ≠ 0
Ohhh
That proves that 1+1 and 1+1+1 both cannot be 0 simultaneously
(you are assuming both 1+1=0 and a+1=0 to get the contradiction)
Yeah
Yes but we need to show that none of the 3 happen on their own
right.
Which is slightly harder to prove
So if 1+1 = 0, look at the row of the table corresponding to adding 1
You have 0+1 = 1 and 1+1 = 0
Try to complete the row
Yes
1+a would have to be b or c
The +1 row
similarly 1+b a or c and 1+c a or b
Right. So can you pick 1+a to be whichever one of b and c or is a choice forced?
There is no choice forced yet.
Yes, because so far b and c behave exactly the same with regards to addition
Yeah
So you can just pick a+1 = b
but we might get a contradiction down the line
Yes
That's what we want
Can you now try and fill the remaining 2 things in the row?
c+1 = a or b, but b is already a+1, so c+1 ≠ b
Similarly the other equation after this
Yess 
So this is like 0 and 1 form a cycle of 2 elements under +1
while a,b,c form a cycle of 3 elements under +1
And that's not possible
Because +1 twice should already give you 0
(I'm not saying this very precisely, I hope it makes sense)
I don't understand the terminology too well but I get what you mean
Is all of this learned in abstract algebra?
Yeah it's not proper terminology
Like properly?
Yes
Table questions like this?
No there are more efficient ways to do this :P
But we can build up to that using what you learn from the table
There are lots of books on abstract algebra. A famous one is dummit and Foote but I haven't read it, you can try asking in #book-recommendations
I learned this in a course in my college using a different book
gah damn
Now can you try to prove this more general thing: if 0, 1, and a few other elements form a cycle of m elements under +1, then any other cycles under +1 should also have m elements
So here you got a cycle of 2 and a cycle of 3 and that gave a contradition
But you want to prove this general thing that all cycles should have the same size
hey, im trying to prove this boxed equality for derivations of $\mathbb{F}-$algebras, and i typed out my attempt here. i got stuck at where i left off and stopped typing, and dont know how to continue to obtain the desired result. would appreciate any help and pointers!
xy
xy, could you wait a bit? I'll tag you when the channel is free, and you can repost
yes, sure! sorry for interrupting

Cool
If it's done in order it usually isn't
But jumping to constructing finite fields directly is a bit hard
oof
So if you want to prove this theorem using the textbook then it will be done in a more general setting using some group theory
It's called Lagrange's theorem (this is a specific easier case)
But here you can use the same trick you used for cycle of 2 and cycle of 3
Hmmm
The cycle of 2 tells you that 1+1 = 0, but then for any x in the cycle of 3, x+1+1 = x which means it's really only a cycle of 2
Ohhh
Same thing works for cycles of any m and n
ok cool
thank you moldilocks
thanks moldi 😄
hey, im trying to prove this boxed equality for derivations of $\mathbb{F}-$algebras, and i typed out my attempt here. i got stuck at where i left off and stopped typing, and dont know how to continue to obtain the desired result. would appreciate any help and pointers!
xy
for context, $\delta$ is a derivation of an algebra and $\delta_s$, $\delta_n$ are its semisimple and nilpotent parts respectively
xy
<@&286206848099549185>
Here is a hint: you are taking $\delta - (a+b)$ on a sum of products, so distribute it on each term and use what we know in the n-1 case. Once you do that collect the like terms together
saketh
I think this should do the trick, but I haven’t verified too carefully
i split it up into $(\delta - a) - b$ and distributed it, then one of the terms will have powers summing up to $n$ instead of $n-1$
xy
which is as close as possible to getting something of the form ${{n}\choose{i}}$
the inductive case is $$(\delta - (a+b))^{n-1}(vw) = \sum\limits_{i=0}^{n-1} {{n-1}\choose{i}} ((\delta - a)^{n-1-i}v) ((\delta - b)^{i} w)$$
xy
It is probably possible, by your way, but the term collection looks quite tedious
Should i just send a pic of what i’ve done?
sure thing
im hoping somewhere along the way i can use pascal's identity: ${{n}\choose{i}} = {{n-1}\choose{i}} + {{n-1}\choose{i-1}}$
xy
Yeah i used that
oh but you're doing $(\delta - ab)$
xy
not $\delta - (a + b)$ 🤔
xy
hmm, im not understanding the second equality
Did you see what i defined as vi’ and wi’?
yeah
Then i just applied the operator on them
shouldnt it just be $\sum\limits_{i=0}^{n-1} v_i 'w_i'$?
xy
oh okay i see it now sorry
Cool
right, lemme continue reading
Let B be a basis of a topological space X and P a presheaf on the basis. Let F_Psh and F_Sh represent the functor which turn P into a presheaf and sheaf on the topological space X respectively. Let G_B and G_X represent the sheafification functors on the presheafs of B and X respectively. Is it true that G_X(F_Psh(P)) = F_Sh(G_B(P))?
i cant derive the third equality you have @gritty sparrow
Use the n=1 case on vi and wi
Thx
they were talking to me
If i have a connected matrix group G with Lie algebra g, and i have shown that two representations of g are isomorphic, is there an easy way to show that the corresponding representations of G are isomorphic? i know that there exists an morphism by a theorem but is the bijectivity preserved?
How do I prove that this presheaf on a distinguished base is a sheaf?
More specifically, how do I prove the gluability axiom
I think you can do it in a slick way using that Prod A_{fi} is a faithful flat extension
But in general idk, I don’t wanna think about it
The Rising Sea by Ravi Vakil
lmao
you would still need to prove that faithfully flat descent works
squirtlespoof
Is the polynomial degree n already?
If so, if it wasn’t irreducible then the extension just can’t be degree n!
which polynomial are you talking about
Something along those lines. I can’t think about it yet at the moment since I need to drive, but it’s something like that I think
galois extension => separable extension
separable polynomial => the polynomial has distinct roots
?
How did you show isomorphic to S_n implies that there are some n roots that it is acting on?
isn't that the whole point of the problem
yeah but I think they said that was done?
so I was confused what the problem was
ah i see
no because K is already given
but you can say "let f in F[t] be some polynomial such that K is the splitting field of f"
every finite normal extension is the splitting field of a polynomial in F[t]
how is that different?
it starts with "let f be" instead of "let K be"
bruh I dont think what you start with matters
but ig better phrasing
yes
what was your argument?
you can't because f might have degree n!
yes exactly
unless you take more care about how you choose it
but if you define f by just saying "let f be some polynomial such that K is the splitting field of f"
then f might have degree n!
for example the extension is simple since its finite separable
which would mean that its also the splitting field of a degree n! polynomial

I'll have to think
maybe you can look into how you proved "there is a polynomial f such that K is the splitting field of f" and see if you can change the process
my approach would be to look at the orbit of a primitive element and see if I can pick out an n element set on which the galois group acts exactly like S_n
The action on that orbit is transitive and faithful, but idk yet what else I could say
kinda important for galois theory lol
but might be a different way to do this
this actually makes no sense, nvm
every element in that orbit will be primitive so it wont give anything
also maybe it helps if you know the fundamental theorem of galois theory
yeah thats what im trying to use 
I have an idea
Let r be a primitive element
Then orbit of r under S_n has n! many elements (all the conjugates of r)
Let H be a subgroup of S_n
Let O be the orbit of r under H
This is a subset of the original orbit
take the product or sum of everything in O
(I think product or sum wont matter, both should work)
lets say sum
Then think of the size of the orbit of that sum
under all of S_n
H acts trivially on that sum
ah shit give me a sec
yeah im just not sure, aren't stabilizers normal?
But i think Im getting that H is the stabilizer?
of that sum
so im just seeing what else can be there
so you define H by saying it is the stabilizer of the sum of the orbit of r under H ?
No, I wanted to prove that the orbit of the sum under S_n would have size the same as index of H
and then I could just take H to be any of the (n-1)! order subgroups of S_n
but I think I dont get equality
Because H is only contained in the stabilizer of the sum
yeah it can happen that you are super unlucky and the stabilizer is bigger, whether you take the sum or the product or any other method

that's why the fundamental theorem of galois theory is nice
does that give something here? 
well... yeah ?
I dont see it
you want an element x such that stab(x) = H
just anything in the fixed field of H that is not in the fixed fields of bigger subgroups
Ah right
I think primitive element of K^H works too
hmm let me see how this helps now 
and then it leaves the choice of the subgroup H of Sn to make the rest work
I wouldn't be so sure
Stabilizer = H → orbit has index H many elements. The minimal polynomial of those index H elements is an irreducible deg index H polynomial over F and now my intuition suggests that it's splitting field is K 
you need to show that K = F({gi(x) for gi in G/H}), and irreduciblity of the minimal polynomial of x should be uuh easy
Yeah
also, how do you know Sn has a subgroup of size (n-1)!
okay
to show the splitting field is K you need to show that the intersection of all the conjugates of H is {id}
yeah
And if each k is fixed that's just id
idk how you would do it without an explicit choice of H
so that's why I said to get an explicit H earlier
Ah I see
What have you tried?
im not sure how to begin
Just finished going through the proof again in my head
squirtle did you follow any of the discussion?
Ok I'll continue after this ig
Recall what a conjugacy class is
More importantly recall what the number of elements in one conjugacy class is
|{x in G : g = hxh^-1 for some h in G}|
Your attack plan is to group elements of G into conjugacy classes and note sum of |C(g)| as g varies over elements of one conjugacy is |G|
is C(g) the conjugacy class of g?
I don't think so
That doesn't seem right? Since C(1) has 1 element
So the sum is just 1 for that conjugacy class
do u mean C_G(g)
Yes
then for C_G(e) i see why the sum is |G|. let me convince myself for others
i mean i see why |C_G(e)| = |G|
There is one element in the conjugacy class containing e
And everything commutes with e
C_G(e) is the centraliser of e, so it contains all of G
yeah. theyre similar so confusing
Usually centralised of S is Z(S) lol
isnt that the centre of the entire group?
Z(G) is the centre
so suppose we have 2 elements in a conjugacy class {a,b}. then ur saying that C_G(a)+C_G(b) = |G|
Z(S) is centraliser of S for a subset S
oh ok thats a better notation
Yes
why is that true
generally, the orbits partition the set and can use orbit stabiliser
||so you can write the sum as |g| times sum of 1/|orb(x)|. but sum of 1/|orb(x)| counts each distinct orbit once, as each 1/|orb(x)| is counted precisely |orb(x)| times for all of its representatives and they are disjoint so no overlapping||
can some1 check thats right
oh so if G acts on itself then number of orbits is same as the number of conjugacy classes
right?
i dont think thats true
im using orbit stabiliser then it falls out by just a counting argument really
so how does this relate to the number of conjugacy classes
ik this formula
oh
Let's say there is an element a in a conjugacy class
Ques 14
you dont need burnside's lemma however you can use the thinking behind it
Then there are |G|/|C_G(a)| elements in the said conjugacy class
so if G acts on itself by conjugation then isnt it true that |fix(g)| = |C_G(g)|
btw number of conjugacy classes = number of distinct orbits i just prefer using the words orbit and stabiliser because its easier for my brain lol
And if b=gag^-1 |C_G(b)|=|C_G(a)|
So, sum over a conjugacy class just becomes |C_G(a)|+|C_G(a)|
... |G|/|C_G(a)| times
actually i think this is true
then it would be immediate
but doesnt that defeat the purpose of the q?
I think the point of this question is to prove burnside
theres so many terms and results to remember that it gets very confusing
ye thats why i use orbit and stabiliser
idk what the purpose of the qu is
fun fact
but they already have lots of stuff attributed to them
i think calling it burnside makes it less confusing
idk
lol
why is this true
isnt that just orbit stabiliser?
oh so again we're thinking of G acting on itself by conjugation right?
ok i think i understand it now. but idk how to get used to all this terminology. it's that the lecture notes that i use are too succinct and dont discuss different ways of writing the same things
and when i read other texts then it gets confusing
i think just using it helps lol
what text did u use?
ur lecturer must be good, and u must be very attentive
my lecturer is online and she just reads a set of hand written notes
but i havent seen any of her lectures cause it seems like she reads the exact notes
maybe she writes them on the go
ill check them out lol
thank you very much for ur help!
and @carmine fossil too
yes so if G is abelian then the classes are singletons, so m = |G| and it fits with the probablilty of 1
<@&286206848099549185>
an even length cycle is odd and an odd length cycle is even
so alpha is odd and beta is even
can you solve the rest yourself?
note btw that the sign of the permutation is the same as that of alpha^9 times beta
even though the elements dont commute
(ig technically coz sgn is a homomorphism into C2 which is an abelian group)
I have an exercise here.
To show that $Z_{(p)}$ is a subring, I'm first trying to check if it is closed under addition. To do that I want to check that if $a,b \in Z_{(p)}$ with $a = \frac{a_1}{a_2}$ then $a + b \in Z_{(p)}$ right? But how can I check that $gcd(a_1b_2 + b_1a_2, a_2b_2) = 1$ ?
reking
And.. do I even need to check this?
we don't really care about gcd here, your ring is about p not dividing the denominator, so you can just check whether or not p | a2b2
yes, that just followed by euclid's lemma, but the gcd thing confused me a little.
Thanks
doesnt the group of symmetries of the tetrahedron include reflections?
i dont think you can conjugate a rotation to get a reflection
because det(XRX^-1)=det(X)^2det(R)=1 where X is some matrix in O3
@pine patio
@rustic crown i like ur name
lol

oh yeah i think i read the qu wrong. i thought they meant the group of symmetries of cube and S4, and it wasnt making much sense
o i think the group of symmetries of a cube isnt S4
i think its S4 x C2 iirc
u certainly have more elements anyway
rotational i meant*
yeye
wait ur saying the group of rotational symmetries of a cube isnt S4?
where you at bobles?
mine is soon too
luckily its paired with vector calculus so i can rely on the other if the qs are bad
oh it just sounded like the same thing as me, female lecturer writing as she talks, exam next week
o lol
mine too lol
norway
no uk too
yeah
epic
u?
xDDD
this is like supposed to be 2nd year for me i believe, but i took courses all in a messed up order
its mandatory for us i think
same
i'm not sure it's S4 x C2 precisely? i just feel like they shouldn't commute
and with a direct product you will surely get them commuting
same... but ig they do commute somehow
are you sure?
yea
why
fit the cube in R3 centered at 0
then you can take the odd element to be x --> -x
(if you wish call it -id)
and definitely that commutes
S4 isnt abelian
if thats what u mean?
no, i know, but i feel like the rotations shouldn't commute with the reflections
yea they probably don't
which they would if it were a direct product?
but that C2 doesn't correspond to reflection about a plane
its reflection about 0 which is reflection about a plane composed with a rotation
well ofc
does the cross product imply they commute?
but sometimes that rotation will be 0
hmmm
didn't get you
so like if you have two group G and H then the elements (g, 1_H) and (1_G, h) commute... that's what we mean by commute here i think
reflection about the point 0 isn't same as reflection about a plane... you need to multiply it with a non-trivial rotation to get reflection by a plane... and since center of S4 is trivial this won't commute
wtf is reflection about the point 0, enlargement by scale factor -1 or something?
yeah i think the C2 is due to a point reflection
it has to be
like an inversion
x to -x as det said
yeah i don't actually know what that means
ye
i said to fit the cube in R3 centered at 0... so symmetries of cube will be just linear maps on R3
i don't suppose you could just give me the transformation matrix for a point reflection, i'm just lost
like (-1, 0, 0; 0, -1, 0; 0, 0, -1)?
yea -id
i think for the cube it swaps vertices that lie on opposite ends of a long diagonal
yes
so this has @rustic crown -1, which means not an element of the rotational group
heh
oh, yes
epic maths moment
how come no one talks about preserving orientation for 2d shapes
but suddenly when you want to rotate a cube in 4d everyone's like 'nooo'
well we sadly live in 3d space 😦
whack
i can only visualise 2d tho
i wanna see a 24-cell
3d is too hard
i can visualise a tetrahedron
flex
it took me many years of practice
lol
well technically i can't even visualise a square... i can just draw it on a paper and say i'm visualizing it
How would I go about finding the smallest field containing $\mathbb{F}_5$ and roots of both $x^2 - 2$ and $x^2 - 3$? The exercise here sort of gives away the primitive polynomial $f(x) = x^2 + x + 2$, but by which method would I find this myself?
reking
is there some algorithm or something to find a primitive polynomial like that?
My first instinct was that this field would have to be of size 5^4, not 5^2.. but appearently the priomitive polynomial only has to be deg 2
$$\frac{\mathbb F_5[x]}{x^2-2}\cong\frac{\mathbb F_5[x]}{x^2-3}\cong\frac{\mathbb F_5[x]}{x^2+x+2}$$
ari 十年生死两茫茫,不思量,自难忘。
yes, since they are all of the same order, they have to be isometric, right?
helps to recognize 2=-3 mod 5 and that sqrt(-1) is contained in F_5
sqrt(3) is in F_5[sqrt(2)]
every quadratic polynomial has both roots in F_5[sqrt(2)]
just to clarify what I meant, square root both sides of that eqn you get sqrt(2) = sqrt(-1)*sqrt(3) so if you have one, the other is just sqrt(-1) times the other, and ofc by sqrt(-1) I mean either 2 or 3 since these all square to -1 mod 5
right, right, because 3 * sqrt(2) = sqrt(3) in F_5... i think i see it now
but you have this anyways since the polynomials are irreducible
is it generally hard to find a primitive polynomial?
The most brute force way is to factor x^{p^n}-x
apparently as long as char isnt 2 we will have some primitive polynomial of the form x^n-ax-b
so one way is to just guess a,b and then see if you can factor
I guess that does factor kind of nicely, $$x^{p^n}-x = x*(x^{p^n-1}-1) = x (x^k-1)\frac{x^{p^n-1}-1}{x^k-1}$$ then expand out the geometric series, assuming k divides $p^n-1$ ofc
Merosity
can’t we just say that x^4=-1 so x^5\=x but x^8=1 hence x^25=x for both of the roots
it doesnt factor nicely
it literally gives you
every possible poly
I was trying to be optimistic lmao
lol
idk maybe you could reason on the degree with how you split it apart with the divisor k or something to make some kind of argument but... yeahhhh... lol
lemme
look at how sage does ti
Mirror of the Sage source tree -- please do not submit PRs here -- everything must be submitted via https://trac.sagemath.org/ - sagemath/sage
does anyone
feel like r
eading
OL
so
sage
does it
randomly
hmmm lol
if exists_conway_polynomial(p, n):
Mirror of the Sage source tree -- please do not submit PRs here -- everything must be submitted via https://trac.sagemath.org/ - sagemath/sage
Mirror of the Sage source tree -- please do not submit PRs here -- everything must be submitted via https://trac.sagemath.org/ - sagemath/sage
this is the key alg that computes primitive poly
R(sage.databases.conway.ConwayPolynomials()[p][n])
thanks sage
If you wish to live dangerously, you can tell the constructor not to test irreducibility using check_irreducible=False, but this can easily lead to crashes and hangs – so do not do it unless you know that the modulus really is irreducible!
lmaooo
oh I vaguely remember hearing about conway polynomials a long time ago
Since Conway polynomials are expensive to compute, they must be stored to be used in practice. Databases of Conway polynomials are available in the computer algebra systems GAP,[1] Macaulay2,[2] Magma,[3] SageMath,[4] and at the web site of Frank Lübeck.[5]
ahh
So I am somewhat confused, according to Hungerford, any homomorphic image of a divisible abelian group is divisible
if he means epimorphism then I would understand
doesn't image mean the image of the morphism
Does every quadratic extension is built using the quotient K[X]/(X^2 - d) ? (is it even always a polynomial of that form?)
Yea forgot that special case, im just working with Q
maybe start with x^2+ax+b and solve for k such that (x+k)^2+a(x+k)+b = x^2 - d
K[x]/(x^2+ax+b) = K[x]/((x+a/2)^2+b-a^2/4) = K[y]/(y^2+b-a^2/4)
I guess geometrically translation is just making it into an even function, so you can think it's just translating by where the vertex is
How could it fail even in char 2?
F2[x]/(x^2+x+1)
x^2-d = (x-e)^2 in char 2 since d=e^2
🇫
Thanks for your answers, as for the first question, is it always true over Q ?
Ah well i think it is, as Q[X]/(X^2-d) is isomorphic to Q[sqrt(d)] and as d is algebraic we have Q[sqrt(d)] = Q(sqrt(d)), so theorically we could construct every quadratic extension of Q using that, am i wrong ? 
thank you for thanking us for our answers, but it'd be even better if you read them
Well 
Am i missing something ? Cause i just saw that you answered to the first question
Uh the second mb
Yea i just misread the first message, mb again 
Question
i am not sure how the following definition of the wedge product
Is equivalent to the defn on wikipedia
i.e. the induced operation after you quotient the tensor algebra on a vector space V by the ideal generated by all elements of the form x \otimes x
They result in the same (or at least very similar) operation but i still want to see a formal proof
i haven't been able to do it on my own tho oof
i prefer the latter defn but this book does use this a lot so hm
that definition on wikipedia is for the exterior algebra
which is larger than the wedge product of V with itself
Yes
also i think that the definition in that book is only equivalent to the usual definition if the field doesn't have characteristic 2
I mean like i was worried about equivalence if you take the subspace
the 2-exterior power of V

i'm not sure what you mean
Like if you take the subspace of the exterior algebra $\wedge^2 V$ and consider the alternating product there, is this the same as the definition given above
is it even true that the set of v1 * v2 - v2 * v1 is a subspace of V² ?
in characteristic not equal to 2, yes
no zef that's not true, the book means "subspace generated by"
how so tho 
i think the notation hints at how it should be true
one construction is as a quotient of $V \otimes V$. the image of an element $v \otimes w$ is written $v \wedge w$
Buncho Bananas
the definition on wikipedia comes with a projection from V² to V ^ V ?
the other construction is the subspace generated by things of the form $v \otimes w - w \otimes v \in V \otimes V$
Buncho Bananas
the identification between these two spaces is $v \wedge w \leftrightarrow v \otimes w - w \otimes v$
Buncho Bananas
(i have it in my mind that maybe there should be a factor of 1/2 here as well)
(but that's more for bookkeeping)

can someone explain to me in clear text what it means that a group action induces an injective group homomorphism? i just can't parse this
maybe after the current conversation is done
are you talking to a physicist
so i was reading up about this and i think this has something to do with the alternating tensor algebra. I think what u just said is similar to the canonical iso b/w $\wedge(V) \cong A(V)$
I don't know what $\bigwedge(V)$ and $A(V)$ are supposed to be
Buncho Bananas
in particular, which one is which?
so the reason for the 1/2
A(V) is alternating tensor alg
oh, so AV is the subspace of TV and wedgeV is the quotient of TV?
And also it requires that the base field have char 0 but i thought that this couldn't be right bcs the author later talks about the field perhaps being finite 
it is correct
if you want an isomorphism of the entire alternating algebra
but if all you care about is the degree-2 piece
you only need teh characteristic to be not equal to 2
This couldn't be right as in this isn't what i am looking for
hm could you elaborate here
yes, and the problem is that when you quotient by the x \otimes x
and that goes to 0
that's going to be zero
yeah
Hrm
in higher degrees, you need to be careful about more primes
in degree 3 you need p \neq 3 for example
well actually you need p \neq 2 or 3
ah i see
because there is a factor of 1/n!
so in the end
when we aggregate all these cases together
we eventually have to require the char be 0
that's right
okay makes sense a little
but again if all you care about is the degree-2 piece then you only need to assume the characteristic isn't 2
in the quotient map, $v \otimes w \mapsto v \wedge w$
Buncho Bananas
which means that $v \otimes w - w \otimes v \mapsto v \wedge w - w \wedge v = v \wedge w + v \wedge w = 2(v \wedge w)$
Buncho Bananas
because of the alternating property
ohh yeah
this means that $v \wedge w$ should be associated with $\frac{1}{2}(v \otimes w - w \otimes v)$
Buncho Bananas
yes that makes sense 
So all i have to do is show
The morphism given by $V \wedge V \to A(V)_2$ and $v \wedge w \mapsto \frac{1}{2}(v \otimes w - w \otimes v)$ has trivial kernel?
A(V)_2 being the 2 dim part of A(V)
that would do it
alternatively you could go the other way. instead of viewing $V \wedge V$ as a subspace of $\wedge V$ which is a quotient of $T(V)$, you can view $V \wedge V$ as just the quotient of $V \otimes V$ by the subspace generated by $v \otimes v$ for $v \in V$
Buncho Bananas
so you have a surjective map $V \otimes V \to V \wedge V$ and you can restrict it to the subspace $A(V)_2$
Buncho Bananas
and then ask if that's still surjective/injective
Yeah that's more economical since it restricts to stuff we actually care about atm 
okay i think this is starting to make a bit of sense
One more thing, in the wiki defn, what's a homogenous and a decomposable tensor 
in T(V) you have tensors of all differnet degrees
and you can add them together
for example $v \otimes v + v \otimes w \otimes x$ is a sum of a degree-2 tensor and a degree-3 tensor
Buncho Bananas
a homogeneous element is a sum of terms all of the same degree
and decomposable means that ti's literally of the form $v \otimes w \otimes x$
Buncho Bananas
and not a sum of things of that form
ohh i see
for example $a \otimes b + c \otimes d$ is not decomposable in general. it's a sum of two decomposable things though
Buncho Bananas
so decomposable ones are in a sense those ones that can't be decomposed further 
i suppose :P
oh can you elaborate on one more thing? I'm sorry im being a bit slow today, but out of curiousity i'd like to see how this extends to stuff like $\bigwedge^k V \to A(V)_k$, and why we successively how to worry about more primes
the general formula for A(V)_k is: for every k-tuple (v1, ..., vk) of elements of v, define Alt(v1, ..., vk) as the sum of all permutations of v1 otimes v2 ... otimes vk, but each one is weighted by the sign of the permutation
for k = 3, there are 6 permutations of three elements
so it would look like
i see i see
$Alt(x, y, z) = x \otimes y \otimes z + z \otimes x \otimes y + y \otimes z \otimes x - x \otimes z \otimes y - y \otimes x \otimes z - z \otimes y \otimes x$
Buncho Bananas
hm yes
in the quotient when you send $V \otimes V \otimes V$ to $\wedge^3 V$
Buncho Bananas
the element $Alt(x,y,z)$ will get sent to $6(x \wedge y \wedge z)$
Buncho Bananas
this beconds 6(x \otimes y \otimes z)
yes
yeah
btw you should think of the quotient definition as the "right" definition
I think it's beginning to click
and the subspace definition is equivalent (in some cases) and occasionally useful
Yeah, i prefer the first one 
So the antisymmeterization defined here
having the r! there is kind of wrong?
that definition only works in characteristic 0
right bcs 1/r! is in Q but who knows what field we're in? I guess it works nevermind, since if a field has char 0 it contains Q
or more generally "characteristic not equal to any prime less than r"
you can define this Alt in two different ways, with the r! or without it
hm, but if we do it this way what does the 1/r! even mean? i dont think it'd be an element of ur field
what do you mean?
r! is an element of any field
if r! is nonzero, it has a multiplicative inverse
Oh
5! = 5*4*3*2*1 makes sense in any field
Yeah then we will define r! = (1)(1+1)...(1+...+1) right
where we don't have more terms in each sum than r
that's the only sensible defn i can think of lol
I'm not sure what you're worried about
the number 3 exists in every field
you don't have to write 1 + 1 + 1
every field K admits a unique ring homomorphism from Z
this lets us talk about the integers in any field
oh yeah 
if the field is characteristic 0, this extends to a (unique) field homomorhpism from Q to K
Yeah
so I can talk about the number 17/31 in any field of characteristic 0
Okay yes makes sense 
(more generally in any field of characteristic not equal to 31)
👍
i'm gonna head off for a bit
so if you have more questions maybe someone else can help or you can save them for when i'm on later
sure 
im probably just going to take today off, today is not a math day
i was just really worried about this from yesterday bcs it's from a book i was looking forward to reading that i skimmed and if this was wrong it'd kinda mess everything up lol
because you can make lambda force one element to be 1 always, like (X,Y,1)
is one way to think of it
oh right yeah
although not always, if that element is 0, you can still have the point (X,Y,0)
if you haven't seen it, you probably will see that you can decompose projective space into a union of affine spaces of lower and lower dimension
basically just by splitting off just like this between 0 and 1
like the last coordinate can be 0 or nonzero, so we have points like (X,Y,1) and (X,Y,0)
yep
but we could just take (X,Y,0) and force Y=1 if it's nonzero and so we again have (X,1,0) and (X,0,0)
so now (X,1,0) is one dimensional and (X,0,0) is a point, actually just (1,0,0) since we don't include (0,0,0)
yeah :D
so there's how to break down P^2 into A^2 U A^1 U a pt lol
yeah yw
In context of manifolds P^n(R) is a n-manifold because locally it looks like R^n
so we do this
ignore points at infinity
and you get your R^n back
do it for every component and you cover the manifold
How do you intuit squaring an ideal
You take the smallest ideal that contains products of things in the given one
It's an abstract thing idk if there's a way to intuit it except in specific cases
Such as in Z, (nZ)² = n²Z
abstract thing
you intuit
by thinking of special cases
intuit com ring theory through arithmetic examples
or just draw arrows and read nlab. You won't get anything, but you'll look cooler


it's easy to intuit abstract concepts
just keep using them without understanding them
until your brain unwillingly adapts to thinking those concepts are right



honestly for me like my intuition of com alg kinda comes from ag memes
and ag memes intuit either comes from number theory or complex surfaces
which are actually pretty reasonable intuit
So I was really studying when I was looking at memes before exam 
tbh that does work sometimes, like you don't have any intuition for some stuff, you just keep using it, and then some day you realize you actually understand why everything works intuitively 
my intuit for oo-memes surprisingly is from classical topology constructions so far 

i still cant rmb
[free/forgetul] functors are [left/right] adjoint that preserves [colimits/limts]
idk why but im seriously directionally impaired
maybe im a forgetful functor
You develop intuition from seeing more results because often you can intuit at least some of those
And solving problems is the best way to see results on whatever you're having trouble with 
yeah
sometimes there's just completely arbitrary definitions which have no intuition whatsoever when you first see them
and the definition was only really made so that the results following it are nice
in some way
and so you have to wait for the results
definitely makes sense to me 
(definition of a category in dependent-type theory
)

(to be fair in this case the only problem is the syntax, what it's saying is easy, but w/e 🐒)
anyone here study any sporadic simple groups before?
"studied" what about them
afaik theres not much interesting stuff to say about them, besides their behaviour as subgroups of the monster group
(and the 6-7 that arent)
Let * be an associative binary operation on the set G such that the following properties hold: i) There exists e in G such that g * e = g for all g in G. ii) For each g in G, there exists g' in G such that g * g' = e. Prove that (G, *) is a group.
We have to prove that e * g = g and g' * g = e, but this is harder than it looks. It does not seem like there is enough information to do so.
Okay
Ok,That requires you to show e g=g
It does

I have no idea on how to proceed
I have g = (g * g) * g' = g * e
How do I get e * g from there?
It seems impossible
eg = e(ge), and e = g'g" so eg = e(gg'g") = eeg" = eg" but idk how to proceed 
This feels wrong
pretty sure this is a known result
i remember working through this
eg" = gg'g" = ge = g
so eg = eg" = g
g'g = g'g(g'g") = g'gg'g'' = g'eg" = g'g" = e
I think this isnt enough when you have a right identity and a left inverse
and vice versa
That's the problem from the book
damn, you have to construct a counterexample?
oh
wait so any 1-sided identity and any 1-sided inverse is enough?
I proved it for when you have right identity and right inverse
it might just be a typo

or do they explicitly say left identity and right inverse (or vice versa)
I wrote it exactly as written in the book
might just be a typo from the book 
yeah that one is saying that right id and right inverse exist
try taking the right inverse of g'g"=e, g'*e is the inverse of g", meaning g' is the inverse of g", so g(inverse g") =e, use right multiplication of g" to get g = g"
and then it works out
the solution is starting from here
Solution obtained by doing random things until you succeed:
||for any g, g_1, g_2 such that g g_1 = g_1 g_2 = e;
g g_1 g_2 = g e = g = e g_2
For any g, g_1, g_2, g_3, g_4 such that g g_1 = g_i g_(i+1) = e;
g_2 = e g_4 and g = e g_2 = e e g_4 = e g_4 = g_2. So g = g_2 and e g = g.
Since some g_1, ..., g_4 must exist for any g, e is a left identity. Since g = g_2, g_1 g = e.||
Or perhaps a clearer rephrasing:
||1. to show that e is left identity: observe that for any g that can be written as e g', we have e g = e e g' = e g' = g. So we just need to show any element is e times something else.
For any g, there are g_1, g_2 such that g g_1 = g_1 g_2 = e; then g = g e = g g_1 g_2 = e g_2.
Thus e is a left identity.
2. Above, we have that g = e g_2, but e is a left identity. So g = g_2, so g_1 g = e.||
Yes, IIRC there's a counterexample with the operation being min or something
I remember because I once tried to come up with an almost-identity that would circumvent the usual proof of uniqueness of identities by saying
f g = g f = g, except if g = e (the real identity)
then did some Googling and found this, in which every element is like an "almost identity" with "exceptions" for all the elements less than it (for max as operation)
Did you mean g g_1 = g_1 g_2 = e in the definition of g_1 and g_2?
Yes, thanks
seems like a lame exercise
is there a better tactic for approaching it than trying stuff at random until it works
@tough raven I don't think your proof is right?
observe that for any g that can be written as e g', we have e g = e e g' = e g' = g. So we just need to show any element is e times something else.
How do you know that g = e g'?
hes using g' for that
not for right inverse
like g' is defined as g = eg'
and then he proves that any element is of this form

squirtlespoof
you mean the discriminant ?
so if the roots are a,b,c in Fp³ then (a-b)(a-c)(b-a)(b-c)(c-a)(c-b) = -4p³-27q² ?
so I have a 50% chance of making a sign mistake

it's a square in Fp³ I guess
but now you only have to show
if something in Fp is a square of something in Fp³ then it was a square in Fp
because (a-b)(b-c)(a-c) is in Fp³
a,b,c are in Fp³ and not in Fp
because the polynomial is irreducible in Fp
no
F(p³)
the finite field with p³ elements
the degree 3 extension of Fp
in which a,b,c live their happy root lives
you have a degree 3 irreducible polynomial f(x)
so you can make an extension field Fp[x]/(f)
The coefficients of f are in the finite fields F, but it's not given that F = F_p
oh dear are we using the letter p for two different things
