#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 577 of 407
now just go through and check that the inverse trick you'd use in complex numbers works here as well
might be clearer to show that (a+bx)*(a+b conj(x)) is in F
then you can just divide that element of F over and put it with the part on the right
would that prove it's a field?
that would directly construct the inverse...
ah
but wouldn't either way work?
actually I'm just ending up with (a^2+2abx+b^2 x^2)/(xc-x^2)
you should have x+conj(x) = c and x*conj(x) = -d when you expand out your denominator
meaning it will have only elements of F
so I went back and did it your way, by expanding that expression. And got a^2 + abc - abx + abx + b^2cx - b^2x^2
but I have no way of dealing with that x^2
oh nvmind
I don't know what you're doing
I see my mistake
lol ok cool
(a+bx)*(a+b conj(x)) = a^2 + ab(x+conj(x)) + b^2 x conj(x) = a^2 + abc- b^2d
yeah I was dumb and didnt use that x conj(x) was -d
divide (a+bconj(x)) by that and the RHS is just 1
so that means you have your inverse
yeah you're welcome
I'm sorry, but where may I post a question regarding elementary differential forms?
I think that's something for #point-set-topology
Oh hm
Formula sheet that I made recently
It's just copies of the theorems from the book but I think it looks nice :P
what's a domain ? 🤔
yea
i didnt include any definitions that i didnt need or i had enough practice w/ cause limited on space
whoopsies
yeah
wrote this in a pinch cause i had 2 finals on thursday and needed it for yesterday
cause my final was yesterday :P
I feel like if you have to consult a formula chart for that you're in trouble
yeah i didnt use that
it was mostly just the other formulas tbh
i didnt actually use the formula sheet at all, wasn't needed
i had enough practice with everything thankfully
yeah thats true
it helped to make because there was a theorem i misinterpreted
rewriting that kinda made me realize :P
this class was tough as hell though... lots of practice near the end saved me though
group actions 
yeah theyre super cool
just have a lot of weird things that took a long time for me to understand
they're just acting cool 
hahaha
im sure the concept wouldve come easier to me if not for COVID :p
we kinda race through proofs and the choppy connection she has didnt help
OOF
What I've read: "race through proofs"
What I imagine: "Ok so we have exactly 17 seconds for the proofs of the Sylow theorems, y'all ready ?"
wait thats really cool
Basically just numbers dictate that p-groups be nice lol
Yeah aditya do the class formula
Actually fuck it I’ll prove it rn
Any non trivial conjugacy class has size a multiple of p
This is cuz the stabilixsr has to divide p
I feel a bit weird given that my introduction to some really cool algebraic topics was during a time that made it pretty difficult to learn or atleast grow some significant passion with
lots of these topics are like "holy shit thats cool i wanna know more"
And then the size of the conjugacy class is |G| / |stabilizer|
Then class formula tells you that |G| = |Z(G)| + sum |conjugacy classes|
Now reduce mod p
The left is 0
And all the sizes of conjugacy classes become 0
So |Z(G)| must be 0 mod p
But it’s at least 1
Since the identity is there
So it has to be at least size p
Gg

It’s just numbers
and they don’t lie
AND THEY SPELL DEFEAT FOR YOU AT SACRIFICE
proving the class formula is the janky part of that i think
I don’t think it really is, you just note that conjugacy classes partition G
Since they’re all orbits
i had some problem with it
Fair
it does make sense though
I mean on a first pass I didn’t really get it either
But if u sit on it for a while it’s kinda like
“Oh huh, right”
IMO
like you're just counting the elements
thats most of this class for me
and taking the center out
Yeah
really obvious, then the proof like, had some useless step iirc
Eh
Maybe it’s like
Conjugacy class trivial iff in center
Because you kind of write it in terms of like
Singleton conjugacy classes + everything else
Then you collect all the singletons to make Z(G)
chad
Rip
or maybe i'm misremembering
Honesty
It might just be that u weren’t as good
At the time you saw it in class
Like no shade
This has been my experience
If A is a DVR and K its residue field, then suppose that B is a valuation ring of K-bar which dominates A. I want to show that B is a non-discrete dimension 1 valuation ring. I can show it's non-discrete, but I can't show that it's dimension 1. I know that it's equivalent that B's valuation is Archimedean which is what I'm trying to show, but I can't figure it out
It's equivalent to show that for any a,b in m_B, there's an n such that a^n/b is in m_B
but idk how to do that :(
What is this notation supposed to mean?
I am not familiar with the notation $\mathrm{Ann}_M$
PseudoRndNbr
only $\mathrm{Ann}_R$ where $R$ is a ring.
PseudoRndNbr
guessing from the context, it should be just all the elements in M that die when you multiply by p.
I assumed as much, I just never saw anyone use the subscript to denote the module instead of the underlying ring.
Ann_R gives you an ideal, which is a submodule of R, while Ann_M gives you a submodule of M
i'm seeing this notation for the first time as well 😛
thanks, appreciate the help
yw, i didn't do a thing though 😶
Can someone help me formalize a category theory argument?
Everytime I see your name I read Have a Banana at first.
Wdym?
I want to show that Ker(F(g))/Im(F(f)) is isomorphic to F(Ker(g)/Im(f)) if F is an exact tensor and gf=0
So here's the idea
Since F is exact, it commutes with kernels and cokernels
gf = 0 implies you have a short exact sequence
So I have the sequence 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0
Not necessarily
(i'm not sure if the above works... the definition of exact i know is, preserving kernel and cokernel, does that imply it also preservers all limits and colimits?)
My bad
Well what categories are you working in?
I think it's pretty much by definition
Yeah but I am having trouble formalizing it
0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0 is exact, since gf = 0
Exactness of F implies that
0 -> F(A) -> F(B) -> F(C) -> 0
is exact
C is chosen such that the sequence is exact.
you can't choose C right
Ok sure so let me not call it C lol 😄
0 -> A -> B -> B/im(f) -> 0
Something like this?
Yeah
Which then implies that
0 -> F(A) -> F(B) -> F(B/im(f)) -> 0
is exact
Yeah right, f needs to be a monomorphism.
I would probably break down my argument into 3 parts. Image is preserved, kernel is preserved and quotient is preserved.
First one follows from F being a functor
Second one requires some sort of argument via a short exact sequence and then using exactness of the functor
And the third one will involve a short exact sequence that involves the homology
$
\begin{tikzcd}
& B/f(A) & & & \
A \arrow[r, "f"] & B \arrow[u, "\pi", two heads] \arrow[r, "g"] & C & & \
0 \arrow[r] & Im(f) \arrow[r, "i", hook] \arrow[u, "k_\pi", hook] & Ker(g) \arrow[r, "\pi'", two heads] \arrow[lu, "k_g"', hook] & \frac{Ker(g)}{Im(f)} \arrow[r] & 0
\end{tikzcd}$
Bottom row is exact
All the verical/diagonal maps commute with F due to preservation of kernels and cokernels
So I have proved that F(Im(f))=Im(F(f))
Have a Banana, Bitch
and F(ker(g))=ker(F(g)
All that remains is to show that the quotient of these two also commutes with F
That is, F(ker(g)/im(f))=Ker(F(g))/Im(F(f))
0 -> Im(f) -> Ker(g) -> Ker(g)/Im(f) -> 0 is a short exact sequence and so is
0 -> F(Im(f)) -> F(Ker(g)) -> F(Ker(g)/Im(f)) -> 0
by exactness of F
And then you are done.
Unless I'm missing something
Exactness tells you that F(Im(f))/F(Ker(g)) = F(Ker(g)/Im(f))
And then you use F(Im(f)) = Im(F(f)) and F(Ker(g)) = Ker(F(g)) and you are done.
And this works because F(Im(f)) -> F(Ker(g)) is the inclusion map, right?
Or rather Im(f) -> Ker(g) is the inclusion map (let's say i)
And then F(i) is the map F(Im(f)) -> F(Ker(g))
Okay one question
And preserving monomorphism is a limit property
as long as your functor preserves pullbacks it also preserves monomorphisms.
We know that F(ker(g)) is isomorphic to Ker(F(g)) and F(Im(f)) is isomorphic to Im(F(f)), but how do we know that these isomorphisms convert into isomorphisms of the short exact sequence?
Do we actually need that?
We use exactness of the functor to go from the short exact sequence 0 -> Im(f) -> Ker(g) -> ... -> 0
to the short exact sequence
0 -> F(Im(f)) -> F(Ker(g)) -> ... -> 0
Then we use exactness of this sequence to show that
F(Ker(g))/F(Im(f)) = F(Ker(g)/Im(f))
And then we use the isomorphisms F(Ker(g)) = Ker(F(g)) and F(Im(f)) = Im(F(f))
Yes, but we want to show that Ker(F(g))/Im(F(f)) = F(Ker(g)/Im(f))
Yeah but why would you want to show that the two short exact sequences are fully isomorphic?
I'm just saying that the problem isn't done yet
Let's number what we have shown:
- F(Ker(g))/F(Im(f)) = F(Ker(g)/Im(f))
- F(Ker(g)) = Ker(F(g))
- F(Im(f)) = Im(F(f))
Yes
By 1: F(Ker(g)/Im(f)) = F(Ker(g))/F(Im(f))
By 2: F(Ker(g)/Im(f)) = Ker(F(g))/F(Im(f))
And then by 3 we finish
I don't understand what you think is missing
I'm not saying that you're wrong, I genuinely don't see it atm.
Okay so
I think you are saying that A = B, C = D implies A/C = B/D
which is not true unless the isomorphisms behave nicely with each other
Yeah I understand, but exactness of the functor gives us another short exact sequence
Hmm
I think you need additivity of the functor
I see what you mean, but I am pretty sure this is guaranteed to behave nicely because of the context we are in
But you are right, there's something missing to fully justify the conclusion
which is exactly why I was having trouble formalizing it 🙂
My gut says additivity of the functor might help
Since then you can represent the functor as tensoring by a module
I have to get back to reading this paper that I'm trying to wrap my head around 😄
I hope you made some progress.
But yeah, I would look into additivity or something like this.
And your intiution about colimits/limits isn't far off
Since that's sort of along the lines of whether the functor will preserve monomorphisms.
If F was tensoring with a flat module what would you do then?
If B is an A algebra, can we say anything about $(M\otimes_A B) \otimes_B (L \otimes_A B)$?
Have a Banana, Bitch
I feel like it should be an A Algebra?
Since there is a copy of A inside right
Assuming A is not commutative
Oh
So the tensor products are abelian groups
Not sure then
Does that tensor product even make sense? Im assuming M and L are right A-modules?
Yes
uh do you mean B is not commutative
pretty sure A has to be commutative
for anything to be an A algebra
no?
So then when you tensor on the right with B you get two right B-modules
My bad
But i dont think you can tensor two right B-modules together
One of them is right and the other one is left
So yeah step 1 is to figure out exactly which actions M and L have on which sides by B and A and then write the order correctly
is there any way for me to check my answer
i found that it was 24
but im garbo @ lin alg so idk
Maybe try substitution to get some clearer relations between the generators?
Or any standard operations on the matrix
the order is 1: a = b = c = 1 
Ah lol
i'm just twiddling it rn and it looks like like order of b is at most 6, order of c is at most 12
but there might be simplifications, i'm going to try some things
order of a is at most 6
i don't see how to get any better, might be missing something
That doesn't account for the words which are products of a single generator
Aren't"
just write the presentation matrix and then do the smith normal form
in more details, you have the map
$\mathbb{Z}^3 \to G$
det
given by sending e1 -> a, e2 -> b, e3 -> c
this will be surjective
now what are the relations among these genrators?
the column vectors (2, 4, 4), (-6, 6, 12), (10, -4, -16) all go to zero and generate the relations
so we have the sequence
$\mathbb{Z}^3 \to \mathbb{Z}^3 \to G \to 0$
det
Where the first map is given by
$\begin{bmatrix}2 & -6 & 10\ 4 & 6 & -4\4 & 12 & -16\end{bmatrix}$
det
Right yeah so basically calculate the syzygy modules
the group is the cokernel of this map
so choose different basis so that this map looks nicer
Ok but that's basically the same as performing row operations
yea
Idk what this person's background is
but this is like one of the nicest ways to think about it, if not directly bashing.
this module chapter has been tough for me since idk much lin ag
But det is the most correct
Yeah for sure
sage: A = matrix(ZZ, [[2 , -6 , 10], [4 , 6 , -4], [4 , 12 , -16]])
sage: A
[ 2 -6 10]
[ 4 6 -4]
[ 4 12 -16]
sage: A.smith_form()
(
[ 2 0 0] [ 1 0 0] [ 1 -1 -1]
[ 0 6 0] [ 0 1 -1] [ 0 3 -2]
[ 0 0 12], [ 2 0 -1], [ 0 2 -1]
)
sage: ```
so sage says this map looks like diag(2, 6, 12) in some weird basis
which means the image is 2Z oplus 6Z oplus 12Z
and if you quotient this out, you get the group (Z/2Z) + (Z/6Z) + (Z/12Z)
Row and column operations
Because you can change the basis of both copies of Z^3
Yep , my bad
yea so the order of the group is actually 2*6*12 and not 24
is there anyway i can read on this? section 14.5 on artin was supposed to be about this but its been completely useless
I like Aluffi but some people hate it
But his chapters on Linear Algebra are really good
Either that or just read Lang
(i thought his linear algebra was one of the thing on the bad side 😶 )
Fair enough , to each to their own
but i really loved that proof of structure theorem
i have seen people prove it by purely using smith normal forms over PIDs, but that proof is kinda ugly
if you can't compute gcds in pids there is very little point of an algorithmic proof
but that makes a lot of sense over Euclidean domains
so @rustic crown did you just do row operations on that 3*3 matrix till you reach a pseudo row echelon form ?
Yeah that is nice, I haven't studied PID stuff in a while
nah, you are allowed to do both row and column operations, but be careful, you are only allowed to multiply and divide by units
the diagonal matrix you get in the end is called the smith normal form
do row and column operations until (1,1) is the only non-zero entry in the first row and first column and make sure that (1,1) entry divides all others. now continue inductively
first time asking here, it would be helpful if you could guide me to the answer 😅
f'(0) = 0 means that there is no linear term, i.e., A contains polynomials of the form b_0 + b_2 x^2 + b_3 x^3 + ... Since gcd of 2 and 3 is 1, any integer can be written as an integer linear combination of 2 and 3. Also, every integer >= 2 can be generated by positive lin combinations of 2 and 3 (prove this if you need to). Therefore, every power in b_0 + b_2 x^2 + b_3 x^3 + ... can be generated by products and sums of x^2, x^3 and constants from k.
so the map is surjective
i need to hit my head on a wall
i can feel my brain cells leaving me, should sleep, thanks for the heads up, ill try that again
@rustic crown by "only allowed to multiply and divide by units", you mean i cant do something like $R_1 \rightarrow R_1 + \frac{7}{2}R_2$ even if multiplying the elements in $R_2$ by $\frac{7}{2}$ keeps everything integer?
Fiwam
Geometry is hard
nope! you can only do R1 --> R1+3 R2
but when i said not multiply by unit i mean you can't do something like R1 --> 1/2 R1
we just want all the operations to be invertible, so each operation is mutiplication by some integer matrix that is invertible
just ask
that's certainly a way to define semidirect products
cringe category pilled definition though
expressive group
i'm not sure what you're trying to show here
What are you assuming?
You haven’t made clear where you’re starting from, it sounds as if you’re trying to show any surjection splits which isn’t true
Where semidirect product means the SES splits?
Factors uniquely as KH, what a trash way to phrase it monkaS
What book is this
tfw
Just find a book that doesn’t treat it in a stupid way like this
You should learn what an internal semidirect product is
And then it becomes obvious
Then..........
It’s hard, idk wtf they expect you to do
I’m not even a priori sure how you show that G/H is K lol
what map do you use?
Wut
You need a map G -> K
To use the first iso
You want to use first iso to show that G/H is K right?
Uh
Sure whoops
You still need a map G -> H then
What SES
All you know is that G = KH “uniquely”
Whatever that means
Right?
Wutttttttt
You don’t get maps from G into subgroups
For free
Cuz...
Like you can just find a counterexample
Like
based and correct
Like okay
Your map is identity on H
And 0 everywhere else?
You’re stipulating that for any subgroup H
That the complement of H union {0} is a normal subgroup
Consider S3 and C3 inside it
Then you have a size 4 normal subgroup of S3
The point I think
Is that an element of G can be uniquely written as
kh for k in K, h in H
And maybe you do some stupid ducking kh-> h
But it’s not clear at all
That this is a group Hom
It isn’t abelian
Why is that a group Hom tho
Like, I don’t think that this is actually correct
Because this is a semidirect product you’re twisted a bit
Or something like that
Or maybe that is it, but like it’s not clear that
kh(k’h’) will have hh’ in the like... H slot
expressive group
I'm just rejoining but I'm confused at the confusion here
the definition is "K normal and G = KH uniquely"
expressive group
we can form G/K and then show that's iso to the subgroup H just by using the unqiueness
By?
restrict the surjection G --> G/K to H --> G/K
which is injective (H cap K = {e}, proved from uniqueness) and surjective (since everything in G is of the form kh)
Okay, but now you need to figure out what the map G -> H is
And find a section of it
Then you need the inverse of H -> G/K
no you don't lmao
Or you just say you replace H with G/K
we've found an isomorphism H --> G/K which is canonical coming from the original data
we also have a (canonical) G --> G/K which means we have a (canonical) G --> H
At the end of the day I don’t like these definitions, and I think this is more confusing than its worth
I think the more "direct" definition of semidirect products is better, and then showing that a splitting exact sequence is a semidirect product is nice
rather than defining it using exact sequence memery
that just seems like you define it that way because you can
okay, so we have two different definitions and either way the first step is to prove that they're equivalent
in terms of how people actually use thsi stuff in nature, it's very rare that you actually are given something which looks like KH
instead, you have some SES which you can prove splits, and therefore you know that it's of the form KH
yes -- if G = KH uniquely and K is normal in G, we can form the quotient G/K. Restrict the quotient map G --> G/K to the subgroup H, this gives us a map H --> G/K. this map is both injective (b/c of unique decomposition) and surjective (because everything in g is a product of something in K and something in H) and therefore an isomorphism
this gives us a surjection G --> H with kernel K and which clearly has a splitting, namely, just send H back to itself as a subgroup of G
what do you mean "the same thing as"?
the map H --> G/K came from the map G --> G/K
yes, they are both surjective
think of an abelian example G = Z x Z and K = Z x {0}. Let H = {0} x Z. Then the quotient map G --> G/K can be restricted to the subgroup H, and that restriction H --> G/K is also surjective (and even an isomorphism; both sides are just Z)
sure, although it might be more obvious if you use right cosets of K instead of left cosets of K
everything is impossible until it's obvious!
the idea is that K(kh) = Kh
every right coset of K is determined by some element of H
and in a unique way -- if Kh = Kh' then h = h'
that's why G/K is iso to H
yes but now you understand it better :P
I think Aluffi does this in a really nice way for groups
G --> Aut(K) --> Aut(K)/Inn(K)
K is in the kernel of this composition
and so G/K also maps to Aut(K)/Inn(K)
this is basically the idea of the first isomorphism theorem
yes
whenever you have G --> G' and K is in the kernel, you get G/K --> G'
if K is equal to the kernel, that new map is injective
but as long as K is in the kernel you get that map and the image is the same
cardinality of A copies of H maybe
A's a set, so I'm unsure what the implication is there
all sets of same cardinality are isomorphic so
maybe "direct sum indexed by A" then
and A = {1 .. n}
sure, the groups H^N, H^Z, and H^Q are all isomorphic to each other, but they still look different in how you write them dwon
if someone said "countable direct sum" I would imagine the first group, not the third one
does that difference ever matter?
can someone give me a hint how i can prove that x^6 + x^3 + 1 is irreducible over Q ?
it's about how you communicate the information
there is a surjective map H^Q --> H^N
given by "restrict the function from Q to N"
that function isn't an isomorphism -- it's very very far from it
there is a surjective non injective from H^N to H^Q too
yes lmao i know that, they're both abstractly isomorphic to each other
I'm saying that you might be in some setting where you are considering functions from Q to H and functions from N to H in the same problem
Note that over C,x^6+x^3+1 factorises as (x^3-w)(x^3-w^2) where w is a third root of unity
and so being able to write down "the natural map H^Q --> H^N" is much better than trying to describe that map as some map H^N --> H^N
If suppose that were reducible over Q,you end up with another factorisation in C
But C[x] is a UFD => contradiction
you mean natural map H^N to H^Q?
right im stupid forget what i said lol
if I have a tower of extensions K/L/F
and K/F is Galois
is it true that K/L is Galois?
my point is that groups are more than just abstract things, they often come with some kind of interpretation or meaning in relation to each other, and it's nice when our notation remembers that
for example, if you went around using N to refer to the rational numbers with your justification being "well technically they have the same cardinality so I might as well" then people would look at you funny
is there an easy way to see that such a factorization exists ?
or, in this case, suppose that H were actually a ring, then H^N and H^Q could also be made into rings, and they wouldn't be isomorphic as rings
so while they might be abstractly isomorphic as abelian groups, there are plenty of reasons to not conflate the two
if you take x^3=a that expression becomes a^2+a+1
Which is (a^3-1)/(a-1)
wait why are they not isomorpic as rings?
because N and Q aren't isomorphic as groups
well sorry N isn't a group, but semigroup or whatever
Isnt H^S just functions from S to H with coordinatewise operations
that's not the ring structure I had in mind
I was thinking of it as a graded ring
where the grading was given by S
oh idk about those
but yes if you did it all coordinatewise then they would be the same
is it similar to monoid rings?
a monoid ring being something like R[G]?
i see, couldn't i immediatley deduce now that it must be irreducible since x^2 + x + 1 is irreducible over F_2 ? the substitution a = x^3 shouldnt bother here right ?
reduction mod 2
so its like formal sums of formal multples rg?
that's what R[G] is
yea
a G-graded ring is any ring R which has a decomposition as a direct sum of R_g for g in G
yea you are right, thank you
such that R_g*R_h lands inside R_(gh)
Miller & Sturmfels have a whole chapter on this
really fun stuff
with cool links to matroid theory
i just want to quickly add that im pretty sure now that this argument is wrong, it would have been something like this: Suppose that f(x) = x^6 + x^3 + 1 is reducible, then f(x) = g(x)h(x) => f(x^(1/3)) = f' = x^2 + x + 1 = g(x^(1/3))h(x^(1/3)) => contradiction since f' is not reducible over Q. However i think what's wrong with this is that g(x^(1/3)) mustn't be in Q[x] so this is probably not correct. However, one can prove irreducibility of f via a substitution x -> x+1 ( this is fine, since it doesn't change the degree of the polynomial) and then use eisenstein criterion
Well, It's actually f(x)=(x^3-w)(x^3-w^2) can be factorised further into product of irreducibles not in Q[x]
And if we find a factorisation into irreducibles in Q[x],we will have two different factorisations
yea this would probably also work, i just now realized that the argument from me above which i thought was right is just wrong in general
Hold on,I don't think this approach is correct
f(x) could factorise as g(x)h(x) in Q[x] which ultimately factorises into the product as above in C[x]
what does a product like this mean if the group doesn't have to be commutative? is it a mistake in the question?
No
I agree in general this is a suspect notation
But in this case it’s fine
Implicit in this notation is the fact that the order doesn’t end up mattering
(in this case, doesn't it mean that any ordering results in f?)
oki makes sense
When trying to show something is a minimal polynomial for some given x, is it enough to show it has x as a root and is irreducible?
the definition I saw was that it is the polynomial of lowest degree with it as a root
I figured the two statements were equivalent, but just had to double check
thanks!
it follows from K[x] being a PID i think
Yea that's corrected in the errata
@chilly ocean
Just write it as a product equaling identity with last two elements that do not commute, this equation wound then tell you that their commutator is identity
i tried finding a counterexample but im bad with noncommutative groups lol
Actually hold on
So first of all, I think the errata does fix it
But maybe it’s true regardless
Oh fugg
Let f the only order 2 thing
For any y in G, let
z = yfy^-1
Then z^2 = yfy^-1yfy^-1 = yffy^-1 = yy^-1 = e
So z^2 is either identity (impossible) or order 2
So z is order 2, so z = f
But this says that f commutes with y
No nvm, I am still on “not defined”
Hurb
I was thinking you can then always write the prodict of all elements as
f*product of rest
But it’s product of rest that’s not well-defined
I think you can cook up an example by taking
C2 x non abelian group of order 27
I'm saying the equation can be written as Cab=Cba=e then C=b'a' which gives b'a'ba=e which can't be true
Cuz then the only order 2 thing is (1,e)
Wait so wut
Are you saying that if it was well-defined G has to be commutative?
It looks like you’re saying b and a commute
Yea
This will be true for any a, b
lol
Yea
Yagga
I just wasted a long time trying to prove a certain polynomial is irreducible and just realized eisenstein applies lmao
No
Assuming that L and K are both galois over F, then Gal(L/F) is a quotient of Gal(K/F)
Gal(K/L) is a subgroup of Gal(K/F)
ok
I'm making a presentation in latex
is anyone familiar with how to change the colors of these boxes
like, the latex?
x^3 - 2 is seperable right?
well Q
if its over Q its always separable right? or am i being dumb
my main confusion is
we obviously dont have roots to x^3 - 2 in Q, but thats not a requirement to be separable right?
no
a polynomial is called separable if it doesnt have any repeated roots in a splitting field
OHHH
right
let a be the cube root of 2
then the roots of ur polynomial is a times the three powers of the third root of unity
those are all distinct
in general though if you know that the polynomial is over Q, its separable
i havnt seen that yet
XD
yeah once you said char Q = 0 i realised XD
i thought this would have been 3 ...
am i wrong?
yes
aw
try factoring it
3 factors
what are they
$(x-\frac{-1+\sqrt{-3}}{2})(x - \frac{-1-\sqrt{-3}}{2})(x-1)$
Yes
yeah this stuff is tricky
and im kinda rushing through everything
but
wouldnt [Q{c}:Q] = 3 ? c is 3rd root of unity
No
x^3 - 1 isn't irreducible
right?
I think it factors as like (x - 1)(x^2 + ax + b)
Probably?
am I stupid
maybe
oh
chmonkey probability theorist confirmed
yes
what is that ummm
Oh right
lmfao difference of cubes
I know this formula
Chmonkey

Anyway, does that make sense? If x^3 - 1 was irreducible then yeah it would be deg 3
but it isn't D:
:D
I guess the other way to see it is that of the third roots of unity, one of them already lives in Q
I don't think you want -1
Or well
yeah that will work
you can just add 1/2 to kill that bit off
yeah
:D

i'm having trouble wrapping my mind around internal direct products
basically, if you have two normal subgroups of H, N < G
with HN = G
and hn = nh for each h in H, n in N
and the intersection of H, N is {e}
then we write that G is the internal direct product of H and N right?
how does this definition extend to infinite direct products?
is it even possible to?
How are you defining infinite direct product?
Elements of form h_1 h_2 h_3... Where h_i in H_i such that only finitely many h_i are not identity is one possible defn,I think. Is that how you are doing it?
i think thats the direct sum, right?
by direct product i mean h1 h2 h3... where hi can be any element in H_i
You know how you extend it to more than 2 subgroups?
like not rly lol
Like if G=HKN ,(all 3 subgroups are normal) where H inter K, H inter N and N inter K are all {e} then G=HxKxN
ummm
i guess all you need then is the commutativity property
idk how you'd express it for three subgps tho
As you "go to infinity" here, the more obvious thing you'll end up generalizing is the "direct sum"
i think so but for the problem i'm doing i have to consider the infinite direct product
the next problem deals with the infinite direct sum
Same criteria will apply,I think
anyways yeah @carmine fossil i'm not sure how to generalize the commutativity thing for H,K,N
All subgroups should be normal and intersection of any 2 subgroups should be Identity
Prove HK is normal in G and HK inter N={e}
And then write HKN as HK x N
=H x K x N
Yes
still kinda struggling on how it generalizes to infinity tho
wait, im reading the wikipedia page
so is there no way to generate an infinite direct product from normal subgroups of G?
how is an infinite direct product even defined then?
other than just saying like
(h1,h2,h3,..)
That’s it
If all the G_i are the same then you can also define it as the set of functions from I into G
Is it true that $(HK \cap N)=(H \cap N)(K \cap N)$ where H,K and N are all normal subgroups of a group G
What's NDY?
an old question paper i found, would appreciate any help
The first part is a direct application of the previous question which was to show that A/m is a finite extension of k. I'm stumped at the second part
where A is a finitely generated k algebra
Have a Banana, Bitch
Nope, take D_n = < r,s | r² =1, s^n =1, rsr = s^{-1} >
H = < rs >
K = < s >
N = < r >
The right side is trivial, the left isn't
I think n might need to be even
Yeah right side is trivial only if n is even
I am trying to prove HK cap N if trivial is H cap N,H cap K and K cap N are trivial. All three are normal subgroups of a group G
Oh all 3 normal 
Forgot about that
Wait all 3 are normal in my example
But will think about the specific case
Doesn't that example work for that too 
Unless I messed up checking normality
So,Is this not true?
Yeah I think so
What extra condition do you need for G to be a direct product?
Direct product of H, K and N?
Yes
If H inter K is 1 and H and K are both normal you can deduce hk=kh for all h,k
Yeah
I can't think of any nicer condition than H intersection K should be trivial + HK intersection N should be trivial + HKN should be the whole group
Actually Z² also works as a counterexample to the earlier claim
Take the 3 normal subgroups to be the 3 order 2 subgroups it has
Product of any 2 is the whole group
For the real case, with $f$ defined as in the problem, but to R, notice that $I = (x-f(x), y-f(y))\subset m$. Then $m=m+I$, so $\bR \cong A/m = A/(m+I) \cong (A/I)/(m/I)$. Since $A/I \cong \bR$, $m/I$ must be trivial
Complex case will be very similar, you just quotient by (x-f(x)) first, then quotient by that quadratic in y, and you get C already, so there can't be anything left to quotient by
Moldilocks
@vestal snow this is true for any exact functor (which in this case is tensoring with a flat module). Show that the kernels and images are preserved.
alternatively, spectral sequence of a double complex
Lmfao
whether it is "all 0" or "not all 0" i am sure you get it. (personally i am fairly sure it is written correctly but)
just some annoying negating mathematical statements
all 0 tells me that a_i = 0 for all i
"no nontrivial solution"
maybe it is an issue of parsing english 🙂 there are too many negations, and maybe this sentence is not clear to begin with
"not all 0" says that some a is not 0 and the sum will be 0, so we have a non trivial solution to this. "all 0" says that it can only be equal to zero when all a's are zero?
i think he is saying that a nontrivial solution would be "not all 0", and that we are saying there should be no nontrivial solutions
i think this is just written weirdly
yeah it is a little weird to parse but a professor of mine wrote like this and he meant that at least one was nonzero
the equation is written as an example of a nontrivial solution
pain
i guess it is easier to see this as saying the only solution is the trivial solution where all the ai are 0
looks like linear algebra lmao but it looks different what is this?? im new to math
linear characters
group homomorphisms from a group G to L^\times for some field L
at least i think so
(they were introduced by dirichlet from a group to C^\times to study number theoretic stuff)
(there is a slightly different definition of character now in the context of representation theory)
oh cool
Hello 🙂 I have one question that I just cant find in books I have. What this A^B notation means? I think its probably group of some homeomorphisms but need to know what exactly :/
Ohh, thats why I couldn't find it in algebra books 🤣
I was like searching in books and online and couldnt find it. Asked one profesor I am working it, she told me she remembers seeing it but doesnt remember what it is haha
Thank you 😄
Does anyone have an idea on how to do part b of this question? (also just to make sure as I don't think "root depth" is common term, I'll post all defintions momentarily)
This is the definition of root depth:
And this is 25.8:
sqrt(K_(i-1)) is simply the set of all square roots of the respective field. so K_i is constructed by adjoining all these square roots.
I've done (a) by constructing the minimal polynomials of each x_i, however I have no clue how to do (b). Really the only thing we've discussed about elements being in what K_i is this theorem below:
However it's only discussing K_1, not any others. I was thinking about maybe showing x in K_i/K_i-1 iff Gal(K(x)/K) os abelian of exponents 2i? However I have no idea if this is true or not, let alone how to go about proving it, actually I don't really know how to prove just the theorem above.
i think a simple induction will do the job
Yeah I thought about this, I can show that x_i is in either Q_i or Q_i-1 (assuming x(i-1) is in Q_i-1) but not sure how to prove otherwise
Do you have a hint as towards how to prove that? I've been thinking about it for a while but not sure how
the structure of Q_i isn't entirely clear to me so its hard to do like a direct proof similar to something like sqrt(5) not in Q(sqrt(3))
(oh i was still thinking, i don't have a proof yet, maybe i'll say when i'm completely done)
ah alright I see thanks
okay i have an idea, but i still need a little work to show it, maybe you can help there
perhaps, I'm not that good at abstract algebra though :P
so if i can show that that degree 4 polynomial is irreducible, then i'll be done because then the galois group of the polynomial would have exponent 4.
det
hm wait how this it being irreducible imply that the galois group is exponent 4? and how does this say x_(i+1) is not in Q_i (sorry)
The galois group will be Z/4Z
and for the other, i'm using this theorem with K = Q_{i-1}
oh wait yeah of course you can just replace K with those
you have already shown this because you know the galois group over Q(x_{i-1}) itself is Z/4Z
and if the polynomial is irreducible, then galois group will have size atleast 4
I meant this follows from part (a)
sorry just digesting all of this
I can't quite get my head around it being Z/4Z
what rules out the klein-4 group?
$\text{Gal}(\mathbb{Q}(x_i)/\mathbb{Q}) = \mathbb{Z}/2^i\mathbb{Z}$
det
This is what you have shown.
$\text{Gal}(\mathbb{Q}(x_{i+1})/\mathbb{Q}(x_{i-1}))$ is a subgroup of $\mathbb{Z}/2^{i+1}\mathbb{Z}$ with order 4.
det
yeah I see this argument now, thanks. just gotta go back to (a) and show its cyclic
det
but yea, once we show that the polynomial is irreducible, we should be done.
hm I see, alright I need to read through it all to fully grasp it
but thanks for the help thus far, was really helpful!
Uau
are there any interesting examples of abelian groups where all endomorphisms commute?
cyclic groups are like that
including finite ones and Z
and I'm not sure about it, but I think these constitute the only finite examples
I'm also fine with imposing extra structure and only considering endomorphisms which respect it
like, R as a topological group has multiplication by constants as it's endomorphisms
I found this https://mathoverflow.net/questions/35355/criterion-for-an-abelian-group-to-have-a-commutative-endomorphism-ring
thanks, by the title it's exactly what I was looking for
yep
For principal ideals, notice that (a)*(b) = (ab)
(2)^n = (2^n) in Z
yep
i didn't get that
what are you canceling?
i think det was saying yes to the "am i wrong" part 
yes lol

literally 2Z
is that 69th root?
420
you can show by eisenstein that x^69-69 is irreducible by taking p = 3
Carla_
oopsp
yeah okay I'm confident the degree is 69

how can I show that the intersection of the two is zero?
Let $a \in \bigwedge^2 V \implies a=\sum c_{ij} \frac{1}{2} (e_{i} \otimes e_{j}-e_{j} \otimes e_{i} )$. Now let's act with F on this element:$ F(a)=\frac{1}{2}\sum c_{ij}( F(e_{i} \otimes e_{j} - e_{j} \otimes e_{i}) )=\frac{1}{2} \sum c_{ij}( F(e_{i} \otimes e_{j}) - F(e_{j} \otimes e_{i}) )=\frac{1}{2} \sum c_{ij} ( e_{j} \otimes e_{i}- e_{i} \otimes e_{j})=-\frac{1}{2} \sum{c_ij} (e_{i} \otimes e_{j})=-a$
then similar proof works for $a \in Sym^2 V$ and $a=-a$ is true iff $a=0 \implies Sym^2V \cap \bigwedge^2 V={a|a=0}={0}$
ProphetX
this is my trial but i'm not sure whether this is ok 
ProphetX
like smallest b_i that is not 0?
no
each solution consists of an (n+1)-tuple
and any entry is either 0 or nonzero
so each solution has some amount of nonzero entries, which is a natural number (including zero)
so you choose one such that no other solution contains less nonzero entries than it
in particular, in this case apparently the minimal number of nonzero entries is r
the missing context makes it annoying to read
alright
to confirm, the solution such that any other solution will have more 0 entries
alright
ty
Been stuck on this for a while and asked for help in linear already
how do i jordan decompose this thing
shouldnt this be in #linear-algebra
tried asking it there, but they could not answer it
i did the ker(A-eigen I)^3 but the nullspace given is not compatible on what i got with wolfram
I get 3 vectors for the p in pjp^-1
2 seem correct but one is 2x too small
Do you know anything about this map?
Is it linear, is it a ring hom, etc
This is an automorphism of C
As a ring
Its inverse is itself
and it fixes R
And tht, yeah
Just look at what it does restricted to R
It does nothing
If you want it as a homomorphism C -> C, yes
But if you want to show it’s a homomorphism restricted to R, no
Since on R it’s just identity, so it just... is a homomorphism
did you show it
Just compute it
It isn’t gonna be hard
Well it depends on what you were claiming is an automorphism
If you’re claiming it restricted to R, then sure
But maybe what you wrote was claiming that complex conjugation is an automorphism
squirtlespoof
Yeah but you can just say it’s identity, and I don’t see how that isn’t enough to say it’s an automorphism
Hi there! So I am working on homework problem for my abstract algebra 1 class, and I seem to have gotten stuck.
Here is the problem:
I am working on part b. Here is what I have so far:
You can find an inverse to phi
Pretty easily
It basically comes down to “undoing” x goes to 5 - 2x
Then you just need to show both of them are ring homomorphisms
I got part a done already. I am stuck on part b, since I'm not sure how to prove that it isn't both onto and one-to-one
I think it’s not onto, but maybe it’s one-to-one
The fact you have a squared is very suspicious
It might not even be one-to-one honestly
Nvm it totally is
That's what I was thinking too. We have an example from class that states the square makes it not onto, but the example was for a problem in the rationals. I wasn't sure if it changed since we are working in the reals.
Show that for example
The polynomial f(x) = x
Is not in the image
Because you’re replacing x with 5 - x^2
You can never have an odd power in the image
For one-to-one show that it f(x) is mapped to 0, it was 0 to begin with
My suggestion is to look at the highest power, nothing should be able to kill it
i.e. if you had
f(x) = a_nx^n + lower degree stuff
When you replace x with 5 - x^2 you should get
a_nx^2n + lower degree stuff
And so the leading term will remain non-zero
That makes a lot more sense. I think that's what my professor was trying to explain in the notes, but it didn't quite make sense. Thank you for that!
hey everyone,
Is it trivial that: Span(f1,f2,f3) + Span(e1,e2) = Span((f1,f2,f3,e1,e2) ?
what do you mean by +?
normal addition?
okay sure, vector space addition
then the statement is true
U + V for subspaces U, V of the same vector space is defined as {u + v | u in U, v in V}
elements of span(f_1, f_2, f_3) are of the form a_1f_1 + a_2f_2 + a_3f_3
even tho Span(f1,f2,f3) and Span(e1,e2) are not necessarily supplementary?
elements of span(e_1, e_2) are of the form b_1e_1 + b_2e_2
so Span(f1,f2,f3) + Span(e1,e2) = {(a_1f_1 + a_2f_2 + a_3f_3) + (b_1e_1 + b_2e_2)}
and of course this is just the span of the 5 vectors
supplementary in the sense of having a well-defined direct sum? thats fine if theyre not
got it
you just change your coefficient
if f_1 = e_1 for example, then a_1f_1 + b_1e_1 = (a_1+b_1)f_1
or if you prefer, (a_1 + b_1)e_1
doesnt really affect anything
caveat: this is, of course, assuming your spans come from the same vector space over the same field
otherwise addition doesnt really make sense
yeah sure
@warped bane This also very elegantly follows from the characterization of span S being the smallest subspace containing S.
Namely, if S={f1,f2,f3} and T={e1,e2}, we have the following for every subspace W containing both S and T:
- it must contain S, hence span S. - Also it must contain T, hence span T.
- since it contains the last two, it also must contain span S + span T, as this is the smallest vector space containing both.
- but span S + span T already is a vector space containing S and T
- since we have shown that such a W containing S and T must already contain span S+span T, the latter must be the minimal subspace containing S and T, and this is the characterizing property of span S\cup T.
All what we need here is that span is what's called a closure operator, so the proof automatically works for „subgroup generated by“, the convex hull, „ideal generated by“, …
(closure operators are fucking neat)
Note also that $V+ W$ is just a fancy way of writing $\operatorname{span} (V\cup W)$
lux
Guys if we have 2 abelian groups A and B how to interprate "componentwise group operations" on set of all function from B to A?
I don't think you need B to be an abelian group here, just a set would work. You look at the set A^B that is set-functions from B to A and then define an operation on these function pointwise. That is, for f and g in A^B define f+g in A^B by (f+g)(b) = f(b) + g(b)
So A^B acquires an abelian group structure!
I should stress the + in f(b) + g(b) is the operation of A
Thanks 😄 I just needed to know how to think about this component wise part 😄
think of it the same as products
You usually don't call this component wise though.... i have heard the word "point-wise" a lot more.
But yea, you can look at a function from f:B --> A by a tuple (f(b))_{b in B}
Yea, I mean script that prof. gave me have all details left out so I am on my own hahaha So I have to ask here to clerify terms since my native isnt english 😄
I don't think you'll need anything significantly more than the definition. f splits over K and K = F(roots of f)
i is primitive 12th root of 1?
I don't think that's correct
it should be 12 yeah but your explanation is a bit wrong
but in general finding the splitting fields is pretty non obvious
squirtlespoof
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yeah but I don't see how you go from "a*b is in the splitting field" to "a and b are both in the splitting field"
do you see that $\sqrt[6]{3}e^{i\pi/6}$ and $e^{i\pi/3}$ are both there and these 2 elements are enough to generate all roots of that polynomial?
det
it makes me feel yucky when i can't generate a field like Q(purely real, purely imaginary) 😞
yea lol
it's 6
squirtlespoof
its the quotient of first 2 roots
notice that $\alpha = \sqrt[6]{3}e^{i\pi/6}$ then $\alpha^3 = \sqrt{3} e^{i\pi/2} = i\sqrt{3}$
det
i just meant look the roots are alpha*beta^k for k = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 where beta was the second element
the splitting field contains alpha and alpha*beta so must contain beta as well. But as soon as it has alpha and beta, we can generate all roots so the splitting field is Q(alpha, beta)


