#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages ยท Page 576 of 407
why does it read wrong
interesting discussion... shouldn't have slept ๐ถ
matrices die
Matrices are great
matrices are reduntant when you can do everything with tuples
i act on matrices... if matrices are gone, then there is no point of my existence ๐
You can act on linear transformations 

3d matrices would be so hard to draw
by tuples do you just mean writing down where the basis vectors go?
because that shit is annoying
yea just write down all the n x m entries anyway you want
yo
yo
seriously I didn't realise how much my lack of drawing ability was going to hold me back in higher level mathematics
I should take a class
i was scared when my book started drawing commutative diagrams in 3d
3d commutative diagrams are too much
holy why
@chilly ocean yo u good?
this notation is much better ๐
yes. so simple
oh so its like a spiral or sth?
yep
looks similar to the young diagrams for partitions
how do you define this?
it's showing you which exponent vectors are in your monomial ideal
oh makes sense
so how will you write (xy, yz, zx)?
this one is $J= <x^4, y^4, z^4, x^3y^2z, xy^3z^2, x^2yz^3>$ ( I think)
or just write the ideal for the above image
bdobba
ah, this is the cool part - if you connect the white dots and form a graph, you can get a free minimal resolution of the ideal
sorry, grey dots even
the white dots are where the edges of the graph must pass through
Combinatorial Commutative Algebra is dope ๐
k later
$\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{a} + \sqrt{b}) = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{a},\sqrt{b})$
Yes
my struggles are at
showing \sqrt{a},\sqrt{b} is in \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{a} + \sqrt{b} )
a,b are natural
hm
maybe:
$\bQ(\sqrt{a}+\sqrt{b})$ must be a degree 1, 2, or 4 extension over $\bQ$. you can probably show it is not a degree 1 extension in non-trivial cases, and degree 4 extension would prove that $\bQ(\sqrt{a}+\sqrt{b})=\bQ(\sqrt{a},\sqrt{b})$, so we just have to disprove that degree 2 extension case.
assume that $\bQ(\sqrt{a}+\sqrt{b})$ is degree 2. then $\bQ(\sqrt{a}+\sqrt{b})=\bQ(\sqrt{c})$ for some $c$. then $\sqrt{c} \in \bQ(\sqrt{a}+\sqrt{b})$, and this boils down to the linear (in)dependence of $1, \sqrt{a}, \sqrt{b}, \sqrt{ab}$. so it is a matter of proving that $\sqrt{b}\notin \bQ(\sqrt{a})$, i think
Ultramuck (8da)
i see
another way
(sqrt(a) + sqrt(b))(sqrt(a) - sqrt(b)) = a-b in Q
sqrt(a) - sqrt(b) in Q(sqrt(a) + sqrt(b))
what's the book ?
how does the statement about mutliplicities follow from Schur's?
How is Schur's lemma formulated in your book?
let v_1,rho_1 v_2,rho_2 be irreducible reps. phi \in hom_{g}(V_1,V_2) is either invertible or zero
I guess it becomes easier once you have the refinement that in the case when $V_1 = V_2$, you can even say that all $\phi \in \text{Hom}_G(V,V)$ are a multiple of the identity; so not just any invertible map, but a very specific one
Lartomato
Once we know this: If, for example, V is irreducible and W is not necessarily, then we need to know one more thing: That we can write W as the direct sum of irreducible representations
right,we also proved that
and also that this decomposition is unique
I don't see though,why W would be $\oplus_{i} V^{n}$
ProphetX
why can't there be more irreps appearing in that
There can be a bunch of irreps appearing, but they don't contribute because of Schur's Lemma: If $U$ is an irrep which is not isomorphic to the irrep $V$, then $\text{Hom}_G(V,U) = 0$
Lartomato
Otherwise, if there was some nonzero element in this space, by Schur's lemma it must be invertible, and hence it is a G-equivariant isomorphism of V and U -- but we assumed that they're not isomorphic
from Hom_{g}(V,U) how you conclude that the HOM(V,W)^g is the multiplicity of V in W?
ohhhh danggg
right
Sounds like you got it! naisu
do you have 2 more mins?
Ye sure
my prof did it a bit other way and I want to check whether something is a typo or I'm missing something
I agree with all the statements here,but I'm confused why she looks at dim hom_{g}(V_i,W) instead of dim hom_{g}(V,V_i)
since she decomposed W in sum_i V_i
or well sorry,I think I got it
it's the same argument you said
Yah I think it's the same thing ๐
i read abit of it and seemed nice
I liked Aluffi
apart from the later parts on homological algebra which are just a mess imo
Yea i still have to read from homotopy
I learned a lot from that book though, it's what finally made me 10% understand category theory
I really liked the Field Theory in that book (but yea I haven't read that in other books, so shouldn't say this?)
aluffi's order of topics is super cringe
which ones?
all of them?
Yeah I think he does Galois Theory really well
there's no good reason to split group, ring theory and lin alg into non-consecutive chapters
I mean that's literally exactly what Lang does
and I don't like Lang either?
d&f is decent, but has some glaring flaws
mainly that it's exposition is terribly boring for most, and some of the sections are kinda not that useful
yeah it's not bad, the main problem is that if you want to take algebra further I don't think (it's been a while) it uses any category theory
it does use a bunch of category theory
especially in the modules section (specifically when dealing with the tensor stuff, and projective/injective/flat module stuff)
and a bit in the last part of groups
It has been a while since I've looked at it
it definitely doesn't try to frame things in a category theoretic perspective
if it can be done easily without it (for basic algebra)
yeah I know just saying that Aluffi is better preparation for what comes after in Algebra since it tries to shoehorn category theory into everything
but it depends on what you want I guess
some of the stuff in Aluffi does seem kind of forced
ya, d&f takes the opposite approach I suppose
where it avoids category theory unless it's important to the understanding of the topic
like when discussing universal property stuff, I suppose
Guys, i have a question

Toeplitz matrixs
Teacher told us we need fourier coeficients of a function
and this is how the matrix is built
But now, the problem is the other way
having the Toplitz matrix, how can i guess the symbol?
what do you mean "guess the symbol"
mmm, isnt the symbol the function that generates the matrix?
I'm not sure, I haven't heard of that notation
but the original function can just be reconstructed from he coefficients c_i
with the fourier inverse formula
sure
how?
(also I think this might not be the channel for this)
this is to build the matrix, but once i have the matrix, how can i get the function?
which channel should we move to?
uh you don't even need the matrix, I don't know what that's for
you just do the infinite sum
that's about it
t is e^i*theta
ya
oh okie
yeah, but teacher writes e^it as t
also for next time, this seems like a calculus or analysis question
okey
so go to a channel for that probably
You probably need to use the fact that int_{0}^{1}2ฯt dt=0
Hey I am trying to do this question about the lie algebra of the real symplectic group
a,b,c,d are nxn matrices. But I'm a bit clueless about how to compute the dimension and show that it is equal to 2n^2 + n
did you do (ii) ?
any hints how can I find the smallest normal field extension L /Q such that Q(i + 2^(1/3)) is in L?
The degree of that element is 6 and it would be pretty hard to find all the roots of the minimal polynomial, so surely there's a better approach?
I was trying to do something of the sort saying that feild is Q(i, 2^(1/3))
but idk
if you already showed that degree is 6, then this means that Q(i + cbrt(2)) = Q(i, cbrt(2))
since L/Q is supposed to be normal, x^3-2 and x^2+1 irreducible polynomials over Q definitely have to split over L
so what if we look at the splitting field of (x^3-2)(x^2+1)?
I was thinking about it, but I was not sure why would that work, since that polynomial is deg 5, not 6
so I thought maybe I would miss something, but idk
how does the degree matter?
the splitting field of a degree n polynomial can be a large as a degree n! extension
ye true, hmm I dont know why Im confused a bit right now
The splitting field will be Q(cbrt(2), i, omega) = Q(cbrt(2), i, sqrt(3))
Q(cbrt(2), omega) is the splitting field of x^3-2 right
yep, so adding these 3 elements will add all the roots of (x^3-2)(x^2+1) and the theorem that splitting fields are normal guarantees that this will be a normal extension
L will split (x^3-2) AND (x^2+1)
which is same as saying it splits the product
Oh okay yeah, since minimal polynomial for like uhh cbrt 2 overQ(i) is the same as just over Q
i don't see how this helps in the proof, except maybe showing that Q(i+cbrt(2)) = Q(i, cbrt(2))
I kinda did show it
I guess Im not sure why L doesnt have to split a bigger polynomial
Ill think about it tho
I'm just saying if (x^3-2) and (x^2+1) split over L, then so does (x^3-2)(x^2+1). Conversely, if you look at the splitting field of the product, it will give you a normal extension where both (x^3-2) and (x^2+1) split.
And we need these x^3-2 and x^2+1 to split because they are the minimal polynomial of cbrt(2) and i, and since they have a root in Q(cbrt(2), i) they must split completely in any normal extension that contains Q(cbrt(2), i)

If your doubt is why i'm not looking at the splitting field of the minimal polynomial of cbrt(2) + i over Q, then the reason is, its more complicated to look at, and finding its splitting field will just be harder.
in the end you'll still end up with Q(cbrt(2), sqrt(3), i)
are
ruined chain
.
I don't think I do
Ah, I was wondering what is the smart way to do it ๐
Yes
then the dimension should be easy
it's the dimension of the space of 2n * 2n matrices with the constraints that you found
so b and c have to be symmetric, and d is determined by a
Yeah I think I got it. 4n^2 - n(n-1) -n^2
the dimension of the cartan subalgebra isn't as obvious i guess
Yeah I thought it would be the set of diagonal matrices with those entries
yeah it's the subspace of matrices that are diagonal
@hot lake so that would be n right because we can say b = c = 0.
Then a completely determines d
Since a is an nxn diagonal matrix, we can find a maximum of n of those
However, I don't get the next part of the question which says the following:
I found the new constraints to be $a=-a^\dagger;d=-d^\dagger;\ c^\dagger = -b$
snypehype
I know that dim(Sp(2N,C)) = 8n^2 but I'm a bit unsure on how many constraints there are
I'd like to know how to prove (I sure hope it's true since it's a hint in Harthsorne) the following result:
Let A < B be integral domains, such that the transcendence degree of Frac(B) over Frac(A) is finite, equal to n.
Then there are elements t_1,...,t_n in B such that their image in Frac(B) is a transcendence basis over Frac(A)
So, clearly we get a transcendence basis of the form {t_1/s_1,...,t_n/s_n}, so ideally I'd like to clear denominators or something? If I let f = the product of all s_i, then I can get this by just localizing at f, but then I have to look at A < B_f, and I'm not sure this is good enough for my purposes?
I think maybe {ft_1/s_1,..., ft_n/s_n} might still form a transcendence basis?? But honestly I really don't know, I am kind of doubtful about it
Oh, I think it might suffice to do it one variable at a time.
Actually, this is easy. You have B = A[x_1,...,x_n] by finite generatoin, then Frac(B) = Frac(A)(x_1,...,x_n), and it's just field theory you can get a transcendence basis from a subset of the generators
I don't buy that argument. Finiteness of the transcendence degree of the fraction fields does not imply finite generation of B over A. Imagine A is Z and B is the ring of all algebraic integers adjoin some variables.
Oops, I forgot to say that B was fg over A lol
Really both were f.g. over a field k to begin with, but that implies B is f.g. over A ๐ณ


Sometimes I write down what I think is the general statement cuz I don't want to write down the entire situation, then forget a hypothesis because I either think it's superfluous or just forget. Then I realize how to solve it in my own situation
That's understandable. You just have to watch out for people that look into statements that seem too good to be true ๐
Yeah... xD
For what it's worth, having thought about it more, in total generality, we know that {f,ft_1/s_1,..., ft_n/s_n} is a transcendence set (in the obvious sense) with n+1 elements in B, so some subset of n elements is a transcendence basis.
How can I show a group (like the complete graph K_3) acts freely?
acts freely on what?
Well I'm trying to use Sabidussi's theorem to determine whether or not K_3 is a Cayley graph. The theorem says that Aut(K_3) has to contain a subgroup that acts simply transitive on K_3.
O_O
well... uh... idk in that case haha. I assume the action here is just the obvious one where like, given alpha in Aut(K_3) it acts on K_3 by just applying alpha
But to find some subgroup which acts simply transitive is kinda yikes I guess :/, I don't have any suggestions cuz this is pretty far outta the realm of stuff I know much about
does anyone know about Hopf Algebras?
Stuck on something kind of elementary, trying to prove that this is a coalgebra:
ah wait I think I've got it
this stuff makes me feel really dumb
"Every irreducible polynomial over a characteristic 0 field is seperable"
im struggling to imagine why its not true if it wasnt 0
because the derivate could be 0 and that would mean the gcd doesnt exist?
a polynomial P is separable iif gcd(P,P') = 1
yeah
yeah if P' = 0 the gcd is 0
oh
P ?
thanks though
Hi, I'm currently reading this article which refers to the term "k-eigenvector", what does it mean?
(if needed, I'll add more context)
They used the splitting field to show this, But the next theorem is that any irreducible polynomails over a field of char 0 is seperable
i dont get this, if a polynomial could be written like this, then it cant be irreducible?
I think it means (T-cI)^kv=0 but (T-cI)^{k-1}v!=0
Ok,Ignore that
It's probably not that
Google says nothing :\
Context would be useful
In principle, it is possible for the minimal polynomial to have repeated roots. In characteristic zero, this does not actually happen, but in characteristic p it does. In particular, the field $F_p(x)$ does not have a p-th root of x, so the polynomial $y^p-x$ has no solutions. But in characteristic p, something has at most one p-th root, so $y^p-x = (y-x^{\frac{1}{p}})^p$ over the splitting field
Turgul
A(Q) is the adjacency matrix of Q. At first I thought A(Q) has k eigenvalues, but I'm not sure it's the case.
The paper is discussing McKay quivers - graphs in which each vertex represents an irreducible representation of a group G (representation theory).
Hope it helps..
The link u shared implies that a k-eigenvector is the eigenvector related to the k-th largest/smallest eigenvalue, did I get it right?
Yes
thx ๐
A prof. in the department thinks it's just an eigenvector with k as its eigenvalue
That could work too
I don't know if I will be able to shed clarity, but knowing what paper you're trying to read might be helpful. I would be somewhat surprised by the k-th largest weight interpretation in this context
page 3
I concur with the professor you talked to. It's the eigenvalue
I get that by reading the proof of Corollary 2.4, where they say that the column of the character table given by the identity of G is (dim-\rho) weighted, where in Proposition 2.3, they say that the eigenvalue for a column of the character table is an eigenvector with eigenvalue "the value of \chi_\rho in that column" which I take to mean the value of \chi_rho on that conjugacy class. Going back to the proof of 2.4, a character evaluated at the identity is the trace of the identity matrix of size dimension of the representation, i.e. \chi_\rho(e)=dimension of \rho
So at least when they prove the k-weighted-ness of something, they prove it's the eigenvalue of an eigenvector with all positive entries
yeah ,exactly where I'm at.. It just hit me ๐
Thanks for the patience!
No worries. It definitely wouldn't have killed them to be a little more explicit in their definition. But when I get confused about how someone defines something, I try to see how they use it to see if that sheds some light. Good general paper reading strategy ๐
Agreed, it's just a bit frustrating for me to keep on reading while something is not clear to me
Thanks again โค๏ธ
I asked this question a while back, but didn't get any responses. Still curious about it and haven't figured it out. Let $L,M$ be intermediate fields of a field extension $F/K$ such that $L/K$ is finite Galois. It is possible to show that $LM/M$ is finite Galois as well. I want to show that $Gal(LM/M) \simeq Gal(L/L\cap M)$. There is a homomorphism $$r : Gal(LM/M) \to Gal(L/L\cap M)$$ given by restricting automorphisms in $Gal(LM/M)$ to $L$. This map is injective, but I have been struggling to show that it is surjective, i.e. automorphisms in $Gal(L/L\cap M)$ can be extended to automorphisms in $Gal(LM/M)$. I emailed my professor about this, and he said this: \ \
"Let $G$ be the image of this map in $Gal(L/L\cap M)$ and consider an element x
of its fixed field. This lies in the fixed field of $Gal(LM/M),$ and is
thus in $L\cap M$."
kxrider
anyone have an idea of how what my professor said helps?
So I think the idea is that you want to show anything in the fixed field of G is in L\cap M. This tells you that fixed field of G is contained in the fixed field of Gal(L/L\cap M), and the other is automatic so that the fixed fields are the same. Then G = Gal(L/L\cap M). So if you take x in the fixed field of G, it is an element of L which is fixed by the restriction of every alpha in Gal(LM/M) (because that's what it means to be in the fixed field of G, G is just the restriction of every alpha in Gal(LM/M)). This implies x is in the fixed field of Gal(LM/M), thus in M. So x is in L\cap M
@thorn delta
does that make sense?
i see, so G and Gal(L/L \cap M) having the same fixed field is enough to show that G = Gal(L/L \cap M) by the Galois correspondence?
Yup
this is the point of Galois theory so to speak haha
also to tell intermediary fields are the same by looking at the automorphisms fixing them :3
ah ye true. Maybe more precisely its the point of finite Galois extensions (this way the correspondence is bijective)
yeah
Is Stewart a good book to learn Galois theory from, if all I know of algebra so far is from Pinter (i.e. I haven't read Dummit and Foote yet)?
take f(x) and multiply it by x and you get nearly all the same terms
do the multiplication
xf(x) = x^p + f(x) -1
finite jeometric series 
Oh yeah, of course, that too
that too, that's how I'd think of it
I worked out the other way, too
but also (x^p - 1)/(x-1) = x^{p-1} + .... + x + 1 is basically just a fact in my brain
at this point
I've encountered it a ton of times
noted! Thanks for the clarification
you can take it a step further to get another handy relation, let x=y/z and you can work out what y^p-z^p = (y-z)(y^{p-1} + y^{p-2}z + ... + z^{p-1})
what's an example of a field that the set of all integers generalizes*
the rationals?
Wdym
so like a ring generalizes* fields right
and the set of all integers is a ring
sorry not generate
generalize lol
not exactly, but there's a way you can make that happen sort of like you're thinking maybe
if you have an integral domain, which is a kind of ring with extra stuff, then you can form its field of fractions
the field of fractions of the integers is the rationals
ah ok
If u want a ring that contains field then look at k[x] for any field k
so what would be a field $\mathbb{Z}$ alone generalizes
therealjoshua
Idk what exactly r u asking
what you're asking for is vague, what I said is probably closest to what you're probably thinking of in your head of what you want
every integral domain has a unique field of fractions you can make from it
ok, yeah I think that's probably what I'm thinking
I have a linear alg qn. Consider $n+1$ linear functionals $f_0,f_1,\cdots fn$ on an arbitrary vector space V. I want to prove that if $\cap_{i=1}^{n} ker(f_i) \subset ker(f_0)$ , $f_0$ can be written as linear combination of rest of the linear functionals.
bert
is this true ? ๐ค
take f0 = Id_Rยฒ and f1(0,1) = (1,0), f(1,0) = (0,1), Ker(f0) = Ker(f1), but how do you write f0 as a linear combination of f1 ? @steady axle ๐ค
Functionals r linear maps from V to F
is F the field on which V is defined ? 
yes ๐
I am sure there are slicker ways, but one way is to define $U=\textrm{span}(f_j)$, $W=\textrm{span}(f_0)$, which are subspaces of $V^* $. Then from the canonical isomorphism $V\cong V^{**}$, we have $$U^\perp=\bigcap \ker(f_j)\subseteq \ker(f) \subseteq W^\perp$$
Then as taking perps reverses inclusion, and again identifying spaces with their double dual, we have $U=U^{\perp\perp}\supseteq W^{\perp\perp}=W$ as desired.
(In the above, for $A\subseteq V$, we define $A^\perp:={\phi\in V^*: \phi|_A=0}$.)
gomez
what if V is infinite-dimensional 
As far as I can tell, Pinter's book already has some Galois theory. Stewart's book looks like it was intended for someone with less background than all of Pinter, so you should be just fine.
yeah stewart is quite gentle
Pinter has Galois theory in like the last 3 chapters; given how big a name Galois is, I very much expect there to be more Galois theory than just the minimum required to prove that there's no general equation for a quintic.
I'm sure there is more in Stewart than Pinter. I'm just saying if you've read what's in Pinter, you should be more than ready for what is in Stewart
Oh, thanks, I misunderstood what you had typed slightly.
@steady axle A second way that does not rely on finite dimensionality:
Assume wlog that ${f_1,\ldots,f_m}$ are linearly independent. Any functional that vanishes on $W=\bigcap \ker(f_j)$ factors through the natural projection $V\rightarrow V/W$. But since $W$ is the intersection of $m$ codimension $1$ subspaces, we have that $\dim((V/W)^*)=\dim(V/W)\leq m$, and so the subspace of $V^ *$ consisting of possible $f_0$ is at most $m$-dimensional. As each $f_j$ is in this subspace, we get that this subspace is spanned by the $f_j$.
gomez
yeah, same



mirza
Aww this is so sweet 
mirza
yep you're right
so the thing you noticed is that 2 and 3 commute in Z, but 2 and 3 could be sent to some elements such that the images don't commute...
so the generators shouldn't have any relations among them, and in particular not commutativity
yep
if you generating set has size atleast 2, then the free free group on S is not abelian
i think you're right
the center has to be trivial if |S|>1
i think if you pick something in the center which starts with a generator g in the reduced form then this won't commute with any other generator than g
yea that works
have you seen a construction of free group?
yep
sth?
something?
yea you define the reduction of a word, only way to reduce it is if it contains the subword aa' or a'a
it requires some work, but you can show that if you reduce a word completely then the final reduction is unique
this is because if i an pick a word in the zenter, which is not identity and reduce it, and the conjugate it by a letter which is not the starting letter then you get something different
it was to make this a bit more precise.
this is because if no reductions happen after conjugating, then two reduced words of different length can't be same. more than one reduction can't happen, by the same reason. And one can't happen because they would differ at the starting letter.
its kinda boring when you need to examine everything rigorously ๐ถ
yep
yea
you can just say any relation between the generators can be represented by a reduced word equaling identity
if you have a non-trivial relation, then the group isn't be freely generated by that set
i'm saying say two generators x and y commute, then this can be represented by the word xyx'y', this is a reduced word cause it doesn't contain any subword of the form zz' or z'z
the intuition with "basis" is pretty nice
in linear algebra you don't want any non-trivial linear combination to be 0
here we don't want any non-trivial reduced word to be identity
yep, both are instances of this "free" construction
we'll you need a notion of free and forgetful ness, then you can define it
but yea, the universal property can be used, but you still need to give a construction by hand. universal property doesn't guarantee the existence of a free object
but it guarantees the uniqueness (by a unique morphism) if they exist

yep
and you can also look at free R-modules
they look very similar to free abelian groups as Ab is just Z-Mod
I had my Galois Theory final today, and someone here asked me a very similar question 
without it i wouldn't have been able to finish it in time 
it was: if [F bar : F] is finite and char F = 0 then show the degree is either 1 or 2
HSCT intensifies
Yep
I'm wondering if there's an embedding of the free group with countably many generators in F2
my bet is there is
I heard that there's an embedding of F3 into F2, and this gives you an embedding Fn -> F2 in a pretty straightforward way by induction
the intuition really is that you should be able to find "sufficiently independent" words
which is easy to formalize, of course
hmm
so, imagine the countable free group as freely generated by N, then any set map N -> F2 gives us a homomorphism Finf -> F2
like, for example, n -> x^nyx^-n corresponding to your suggestion
so imagine we have a nontrivial word going to 1
can we somehow simplify the form that word is gonna be in?
okay i'm pretty convinced that this works now
given some some word in N, write down the word in x,y this creates, then look at the first coefficient of x, that tells you the first entry in your original word, look at the second coefficient and add the first entry, that tells you the second entry in your original word, etc
ik how to prove that R is an integral domain
but how to prove its a PID not sure
Try proving the contrapositive
Check the vector space axioms one by one
I tried them but nothing appears to disprove... probably I've missed something
If all of them are satisfied then it is a vector space
I'm kind of doubting that it is
Ok, which field are you working on
well answer depends on the field
So maybe problem intended R vector space
I'll go over once more

d&f is p good tho
they're haters who've dug themselves too deep in the d&f hatred hole
and can't dig themselves out
sadge
dragon-fox, durian flesh, distilling furniture
dblocked f*ck you!
Lol
If in doubt just remember that everything is a vector space
If you squint hard enough
lol
Maybe this is a dumb question, but is there a set of properties shared by every $2^n$-dimensional Cayley-Dickson algebra ?
anรธk
Yh, thanks for checking ๐
I mean, are there any binary operations that are preserved by each and every cayley dickson algebra ?
addition
I suppose
power associativity perhaps
apparently each of them satisfies the flexible identity
seems about it
power associativity and that are about the few things preserved in every cayley dickson algebra
Oh ok, I expressed myself poorly again ๐ , I was thinking about a property of a binary operation, not of a binary operation in itself. Thank you very much ๐
And power associativity seems to be what I was looking for
How do I show that an operation holds when I'm showing that this is a ring homomorphism?
C -> M2(R)
a+bi -> [a b ]
[-b a]
Yes I get that
in particular, how do I show f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y), and f(xy) = f(x)*f(y)
Yes, but for some reason the matrix is throwing me off
so I'm not sure how to write it out
We can just do addition and I can do multiplication on my own
uh huh
think of it this way, you can add the complex numbers first then turn it into a matrix, or you can change them into a matrix and then add them, then you check that the answers are the same
u good?
expensive group
That last picture put it all together for me
I think
ok I actually get it now lol
thank you!
tbh I think it was the factoring in the f() that threw me off
once I got what you meant it was a lot easier
so thank you, again
so for multiplication
am I just FOILing both functions?
gotcha
How do I find all possible ring homomorphisms from Z10 to Z12?
I guess look what can 1 map to?
?
?
May you elaborate?
no
Alright.
1
ye for example f(1)=1, check if it's a homomorphism.
If it is, you can determine image of any element of Z10
I guess you need f(1) =x where x is such that 10x = 0 (mod 12)
No?
Why?
f(x)=4x a ring homomorphism from Z/6Z to itself, since 4^2=4 mod 6
evaluate f(1)=f(1)*f(1)
Oh yeah lol
If you allow f(1) not to be 1 then weird things happen
um
nope
4*1 == 4 !== 1?
So the only ring homo is the zero one I think, right?
i feel like you should be able to map to Z2
in Z12
it is because f(xy)=f(x)f(y) and f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)
I mean there aren't many group homomorphisms, so maybe just look at those.
a ring homo requires f(1)=1 but a rng homo doesn't
If you are unbased and do not require rings to have unity, then there is no condition f(1) = 1 and even if you have unital rings, you might have a ring homomorphism that doesn't satisfy f(1) = 1. If you are based and require rings to have unity, usually you add a third condition to the definition of a ring homomorphism which is f(1) = 1. So stop fighting. Mero is just unbased.
that's not necessarily in the definition
oh well that's just brilliant
Yeah but who likes rings without identity
feruchemists
I've never seen them come up
wait for era 3
how about f(x)=0 do you consider this a ring homomorphism
yes
rings don't exist
depends on the codomain
this is why we use modules because rings are horrible
Not a good category in general
ok I think I see how we're looking at it, my example from earlier can be fine if I call f(x)=4x as a ring homomorphism from Z/6Z to Z/3Z
I'm being careless with what the codomain is
S is multiplicatively closed
So pick elements from P + xA and P + yA which are in S, then their product is as well
ah yea, duh. thanks
expressive group
I think the whole computation is wrong
But I may be mistaken
But I may be misunderstanding something 
wait
but that would give the wrong result

I'm confused
wait
does $\sigma\tau$ means $\sigma(\tau(x))$ or does it mean $\tau(\sigma(x))$ ?
asking just in case the book follows weird conventions 
Shika-Blyat
just read rotman 
Oh
Wait
pi(sigma)pi(tau)f(x_1, .., x_n) means
pi(sigma) ( pi(tau)f(x_1, .., x_n) )
So you get pi(sigma) ( f(x_tau(1), .., x_tau(n) )
And then you apply pi(sigma), so you get f(x_sigma(tau(1)), .., x_sigma(tau(n)), which is is equal to pi(sigma tau)f(x_1, .., x_n) right ?
I guess that's what the book meant ? 
Ok 
But I'll 'cause I don't have nothing else to do 
that's coherent with what I wrote isn't it ? 
let me latex it
just to be sure

'cause latexing something means it's right
$\pi(\sigma) \pi(\tau) f(x_1, \cdots, x_n)$ means $\pi(\sigma) (\pi(\tau)f(x_1, \cdots, x_n))$\
By applying $\tau$, you get $\pi(\sigma) (f(x_{\tau(1)}, \cdots, x_{\tau(n)}) = \pi(\sigma)g$.\
Now we get, by applying $\sigma$, $(f(x_{\sigma(\tau(1))}, \cdots, x_{\sigma(\tau(n))}) = \pi(\sigma\tau)f(x_1, \cdots, x_n)$, and we're done, right ?
Shika-Blyat
yeah, I think so
But idk, its kinda confusing, we may be missing something ๐ค
I mean
if it is a typo
there's only one typo
like just one expression with 2 typos
expressive group
here, if you replace pi(tau) with pi(sigma) and replace the x_sigma(i) with x_tau(i), the computation becomes the same as what we did, right ? 
lol

I mean the other lines don't change
so that wouldn't be such a big typo 
may be in some errata
do you have the last version ?

Also, read Rotman 
just swap sigma & tau in rhs
that's exactly what we were saying 
oh, ya this

basically Lang's not clear, but if we're being nice he's not completely wrong, and it also says that you should read rotman 
let's say that i have a group of order 8
and in that group i exhibit elements s,r that satisfy s^2 = 1, r^4 = 1, rs = sr^-1
is that sufficient proof that my group is isomorphic to D8?
If r,s satisfy no other relations yes
Alternatively,if there are 8 elements in <r,s>,That works too
For example if we take the usual D_8 and denote a=r^2,then
a^4=1,s^2=1 and as=sa^-1 is true
But a^2=1 is also true
hm
well in the case of my problem
i know that |s| = 2, |r| = 4
s,r denoting the elements i exhibited in my group
not the usual s,r in D8
Yea,in that case a group G=<r,s|s^2=1,r^4=1,rs=sr^-1> would be D_8
well i havent shown that G is generated by r,s
i just know that the relations are satisfied and the order is 8
If H is a subgroup of G having same size as G,then H=G
right
So,Since order is 8 you are done
ahhh okay
So G=<r,s>
thank you thank you
oh fuck
okay basically what i've shown so far is that
the galois group of the splitting field of x^4 - 7 over Q is isomorphic to D8
now i have to use the fundamental theorem of galois theory to find every intermediate subfield by corresponding them to subgroups of D8
this is actual death
is there a shortcut to doing this??
that's just a forum post descrbing how to show that the galois group is isomorphic to D8
my goal rn is to use that fact to provide every intermediate subfield
D8 only has 6 subgroups?
rip
i see 10 in that image
This is algebra channel not arithmetic channel
arithmetic is just ring theory over Z
This might be an odd question, but do any of you know any exercises that wants you to show that for example -(-x) = x? I am pretty certain that some person posted a exercise consisting of "subexercises" that wants you to prove "basic" things (including that -(-x) = x), but I can't find it now.
tao's analysis I?
anything that builds up the integers from peano axioms
well I actually don't have that book
Yeah that is what I am searching for, but I can't find any exercises
it's freely available online (legally)
I mean you can just write down the things you take for granted
just about any book about an algebraic structure should have it either as an exercise or theorem?
are you looking for exercises that ask you to prove this for rings
or for naturals
and try to prove them using the ring theory axioms
for rings
okay yeah, any intro algebra text should have this then
unless its omitted for being "obvious"
I think they're kinda just treated as obvious facts
but you can just think of the obvious facts you usually take for granted
and prove them yourself?
idk
Yeah that's true
-1 * x = -x is an important one
(-1)^2 = 1 is a good one too I think
and requires more than 2 seconds of thought
how do you prove an axiom


that's just not how it works at all kekw
that's not usually an axiom
you can in fact assume things
without them being axioms
I know I just blew your mind
but it's true
"assume" was used informally here
i have no clue why youre nitpicking the wording so much
it seems fairly clear from context what was meant
"Things you intuitively assume are true and obvious, but havent sat down and checked"
-1*x = -x seems soooo easy, but I just can't prove it!!!
Okay okay don't spoil it yet
distributivity basically always comes up for these little identities since
its the only thing relating addition and multiplication
in a ring
the ONLY thing
without distributivity theyd be totally unrelated operators
but -1 * x = -x is "translating" a multiplication statement (-1 times x) into an addition one (the additive inverse of x)
so it makes sense youd need distributivity for that
(And similar identities)
yeah that's a good point
it's actually insane how important some things you take for granted for like the first 12 years of schooling are
like associativity and distributivity
they give so much
learning algebra has really renewed my appreciation for math
ngl
Okay so maybe like this: Assume that it is false, then -1*x + x does not equal 0. Multiply both sides by -1 to get x-x does not equal to 0 which is a contradiction?
But then I have used that -1*-1 is 1
can't just multiply both sides by -1
yes, because you haven't proved -1* -1 = 1
which you can do before hand, but just use distributivity
you will HAVE to use it at some point
in the prove of -1 * -1 = 1
and also used that -1*x = -x which is what is trying to prove
But why can't I use this?
use distributivity
you can multiply both sides by -1. but then you don't know what -1*(-1*x) or -1*x is so its not very useful
and it's easy to construct a ring-like structure that doesn't have distributivity where -1*x is not -x
if you could prove without distributivity, it would be true for those..
I think you're supposed to prove that in some texts(Friedberg's LA made me prove that for sure)
Or yeah
Man, I really feel like a moron
This could be axiomatic
The axioms say for every x, you can find a y such that x+y=0, then you define this y to be -x
But how am I supposed to use distributivity?
lmao
Hint: a+(-a)=0 and inverse is unique
there's quite literally only a single thing to distribute
okay so -1x +x = 0 so then -1x must -x?
like saying "use distributivity" is basically solving the entire thing
onesan likes groups?
other fun facts to prove:
1 is unique
0 is unique
inverses are unique
Writing those things down now
you can prove 1 and 0 are unique at same time if you show identity of a semigroup (set with associative binary operation) is unique (if exists)
HOW DO I USE DISTRIBUTIVITY????
Wait, are you referring to me?
here's an hint: ab = (a+0)b = ab+0b
there's literally only a single thing to distribute
like I cannot help you any more than that, or I'd be giving you the answer
Okay so like -1x = (x+0)-1 = -x?
how does that accomplish anything
Ok,one more hint 1+(-1)=0
Well that's why I don't know why distrubutivity will help
okay so 1+(-1) = 0 so then x +(-1x) = 0 so -1x = -x
It this is not it then I am quitting
But is my solution correct?
how did you conclude that x + (-1x) = 0?
because 1+(-1) = 0 so when I multiply with x on both sides I get x+(-1x) = 0
hmm yea if you multiply both sides on the right by x you get x+(-1)*x = 0
yeah and -x is the additive inverse and it is unique so it must be the case that -x = -1*x
right?
hmm let me make sure im a bit suspicious
okay yea cuz
1+(-1) = 0 => (1+(-1))x = 0x => x+(-1)x = 0
so you use distributivity in 3rd step
yes that is what I was doing
sounds good then i think
finally. Took me awhile lmao
yeah that is true. My approach is a bit longer I think
Have you proven -1x=-x though
Well to my defence I am still in highschool. This is not a good excuse but...
i wish i learned this during highschool
Same
do this, but x1000 and spend your life on it
foundations moment?
yes @rigid cave
Well I think that I like groups... I don't know a lot of group theory tho
Can some help me out on how to prove part b if statement.
Hint: N(s + t*sqrt(d)) = (s + t*sqrt(d))(s - t*sqrt(d))
uh
use part (a), definition of unit, & N(1) = 1
hmmm
Oh sorry I was assuming d is negative
I dont know what you mean 213
Which is why i didnt write abs value
paul, to begin with, can you prove a is a unit โ N(a) = 1
In any case, you can use that formlus for N to go the other way, that if N(a) = 1 then a is a unit
yes i can prove that part
Which part?
only if
For the โifโ direction, use the mutiplicavity of N
What happens if you take the norm of both sides of ab = 1
Yes that was my hint for the only if direction
N(a)N(b) =1
Great, now how many positive integers are there which divide into 1?
Thatโs the if oart
i need to prove only if then
โOnly ifโ is N(a) = 1 implies a is a unit
yes
Then use my first hint
But put absolute values around it cuz i forgot those
thank you brother
If N(a) = 1 then that product is equal to +/- 1, so can you use that to find an inverse for a?
Yes I can but can you ;)
So youve proven itโs a unit then
Thatโs what you were trying to do
Because it has an inverse
danker
how do you show that f(x) = x^4 - 7 is irreducible in F5
so far i know that just by explicit calculation
f has no roots in F5
so it has no factors of degree 1 or 3
this leaves factors of degree 2
and i'm not sure where to go from here
(any help woudl be appreciated - ping me)
@past temple You can try supposing it has a factorization as a product of two monic quadratics, multiply it out, compare coefficients and get a contradiction
I guess you could say for the sake of contradiction, x^4-2=0 and since F_5 contains all the 4th roots of unity you know x=2^{1/4} times those is all the possible roots
but 2 doesn't even have a square root in F_5, so it has no roots
2?
7=2 in F_5
oh right right
okay wait hm
i still dont get it
how does assuming by contradiction that f is reducible lead to f = 0?
for some x
Say r is a root of f in some splitting field, then f(x) = (x-r)(x-2r)(x-3r)(x-4r) in that splitting field because kr is also a root of f for k = 1,...,4
right
Product of any 2 of these factors is in F_5 only if rยฒ is in F_5
But there's no element in F_5 whose square is 2
This "proof" that sqrt(2) is irrational is bs right?:
Every field automorphism of a field extension of Q fixes Q;
Q(sqrt(2)) js a fjeld extension of Q;
f: a+bsqrt(2) -> a-bsqrt(2) is an automorphism of Q(sqrt(2)) that doesnt fix sqrt(2);
to show that f an automorphism you need to show 1 and sqrt(2) lin independent over Q which is the same as sqrt(2) being irrational
yea this assumes sqrt(2) is not in Q
What did you try?
First choice = ** No **
Why no?
So your first idea was to flip the coin?
Yeah, that looks good.
squirtlespoof
I'm not sure about an inductive argument working but
I think one way you can do it is, so first linear independence is equivalent to no solutions to sqrt(pn)=c for c in the base field Q(p1,...,.. pn-1), then write down a basis for the base field and work with that
Idk, I guess just intuition. sqrt(pn) not being in the previous field doesn't really feel like it is about induction
pn is not very related to p1,..., pn-1. What can you say about it? I guess pn is not divisible by any of those, in particular it is the smallest one not divisible by those. But this still feels kind of a weak relationship, or a relationship that is not too relevant to the problem
squirtlespoof
Hm, that doesn't look right....
What did you get for the basis of Q(stuff only up to n-1)?
Basis should be size 2^n or so
Yeah
Actually hm, maybe this doesn't make the problem easier.... (?) Let me think...
Idk, it is getting too complicated for me to do it without a notebook
But eg n=2 case is pretty simple, p2=(a+b*sqrt(p1))^2 obviously leads to contradiction
Erm, you are not saying that (x+y)^2=x^2+y^2 right?
Yeah
Hopefully n>2 case is similarly easy ๐
expressive group
Hm, n=3 case is hard
F[x]-module
so you can identify N as a subgroup of G
in fact that's basically assumed
when you name your function iota
technically it's defining the action of Q on the isomorphic copy of N in G
Took the final for my first class in AA yesterday :D
nice
Super interesting stuff, considering going deeper into AA2, but we'll see
Currently applied math & cs, so not sure what I'd do with it
is a polynomial ring of the integers allowed to have $1x^{0}$ in it? this is how my prof defined polynomial ring.
Panda_Bear59
so just the element 1 is in R[x], meaning we are allowed to have terms without x in it.
nvm i think clearly we are, since $a_0$ can be 1
Panda_Bear59
yeah thats fine
$r\in R \implies r\in R[X]$
aditya
squirtlespoof
squirtlespoof
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Can someone help me with a problem? So we are given a field K and a subfield F, and have to figure out when the set {a+bx | a,b in F} is a field for a fixed x in K. And prove that it is necessary and sufficient
clearly x^2 has to equal cx for some c in F, but that's not sufficient
hint: if r is a root of f that appears more than once, then it's also a root of f'
yep
not sure what your approach is
but I was assuming you were looking at defining it by looking in the algebraic closure of F_p
not necessarily could be x^2 = cx+d for c,d in F
oh yeah true
But I'm having an issue with the sufficient part. I can't find inverses for even one of the form x^2 = cx
you can take the irreducible poly over F and divide through by x
like in our case it's x^2=cx+d, divide through you get x=c+dx^-1 so you have x^-1 = (x-c)/d
write this as -c/d + 1/d * x to get it of that form if you want
or what are you wanting to invert, just a general element you mean a+bx?
is this sufficient though?
yeah
that's where my trouble is coming.
you should try with x^2=cx+d since you won't succeed with x^2=cx as it's a reducible polynomial
ah ok. I will try
x=0 or x=c there
so it doesn't correspond to a field extension, try to see if you can use what you know about like simpler quadratic extensions you've played with in the past
yeah this part is stumping me
I cant seem to find a general inverse for a+bx
@delicate bloom Do you have any other tips?
sure, what's the inverse of a+bi?
a/(a^2+b^2) - b/(a^2+b^2)i, right?
yeah good
the thing I want you to recognize is you're using the conjugate
what's the relation(s) between the conjugate roots of X^2-cX-d?
I put capital X to distinguish between x the root lol
I don't think I understand the question. I know they will be conjugates of each other, but Im not sure what else
well ok specifically can you represent the conj(x) in the form a+bx?
since then our inverse of a+bx becomes the same trick as computing the inverse with complex numbers, you multiply and divide by the conjugate
ah ok. But is that possible since our x is arbitrary?
it is, since we know there's some irreducible polynomial it's a root of
expand out (X-x)*(X-conj(x)) = X^2-cX-d
Sorry this is where I don't quite get what you're saying
Wouldn't conj(x) literally just be -x?
do this and show me what you get
compare coefficients, you will get two relationships between x and conj(x)


t in T?



