#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 575 of 407
i don't understand this class
never have
i just sort of struggle by and manage decently high B's
every time i understand something in this class, it's like a goddamn nuclear lightbulb goes off in my head
That’s why I like abstract algebra lol
I don’t even want to look at non commutative rings
Stuff is hard enough as it is
Okay well, my suggestion is to just show that every element of R is invertible.
You can do this inside of R[x], because is a•f(x) = 1, f(x) must be a constant, because if it contained a power of x, so too does a•f(x)
My suggestion for this, for any a in R, look at the ideal
(a,x)
This proof is best as a contradiction IMO btw
Non commutative algebra is easier just because there's less you can say lmao
Assume R is not a field, then what can we say about (x)?
alright, a couple things
(hint)
I like bdobba’s idea better
- I don't understand
- i will never understand anything until 2 months after it's passed
That’s a good plan
pretend i am a baby
Ok
goo goo ga ga I don't understand why a high school teacher has to take abstract algebra
Well if R is not a field, then what can we say about the maximality of (x)?
what is maximality
I.e. whether or not it’s maximal
a maximal ideal is one that is as large as possible without being the full ring
i.e. if I is a maximal ideal of R then there isn't a J such that $I \subsetneq J \subsetneq R$
Wew Lads Tbh
and no you can have maximal principle ideals
You really need to learn what a maximal ideal is before doing this question
for example (2) and (3) in Z are maximal
i see
It’s a fundamental concept in CA
good thing I'm not taking ca
I'm taking "intermediate analysis" whatever that means
this is... an analysis class?
algebra
limited amount
(I thought CA means complex analysis and was so confused)
no that's in the future
no I meant commutative algebra lol
yeah but CA reserved for complex analysis
Haha
Do you have any problems with that assertion? 
Shows how little of an analyst I am lmao
cana reserved for complex analysis
yes
okay so
this
i don't think we've ever said "maximal" in this entire class for the record
Oh right
so probably don't assume that's allowed to be used
(i) + (ii) is basically saying maximal ideal
ah
basically
alright
so let's say i got part 1 of this proof down, the "if R is a field then..." part
an ideal is def to be maximal if R/I is a field
problem? 
No that’s a good definition IMO
so now i need to start with suppose every ideal of R[x] is a principal ideal
to show the reverse direction ya
yes v good def
thanks
i think you should assume R isnt a field, maybe let x be some non-zero non-unit in R and see where that takes you
1 line
Lol yeah to be fair
no reserve r for smol rings
this is the second to last assignment of the class
okay so
assume R is not a field
ok
mhm
there exists some r in R s.t. r≠0 and r has no inverse
that's the definition of a field so far
And think about whether the ideal (x) is maximal or not
go on
me?
I'm like 3/4 understanding this conversation
how does assuming R is not a field help me
I think if I say anymore then I’ve just said the answer
what do you need to show?
if R was a field then every ideal would just be the full field
yes
so i need to conclude that if R is not a field, then it is NOT the case that every ideal of R[x] is principal
mhm
can you use r to make a non-principal ideal of R[x]? 

i must be missing something huge
remember r is also an element of R[x]
true
i feel like
that character in any B movie
the one who says something stupid and foreshadowy and then says
it's right behind me, isn't it?
lol
Lol
it's right behind me, isn't it
ok basically we want to use r and some other element of R[x] to make an ideal that cannot be principal
uh
are you becoming a teacher?
no i want to teach calculus to 17 year olds on the street corner of 12th and main
lol
HAVE YOU HEARD THE WORD OF GOTTFRIED MY YOUNG FRIEND?!
ok let me modify that: what principal ideals of R[x] contain (x)?
yes? I think?
oops sorry
R is an integral domain
right
so can x = k(r + x) = kr + kx for some k in R?
i don't know
how? there would always be an r
right
exactly
and no zero divs
ya
(for completions sake we can rule out k having any terms of degree 1 or greater because then we'd have an x^2)
(but then we've seen that k cant be an element of R either)
you said k was in R not R[X] 😡
yes i am justifying that 
grrrr
I'm in the middle of the trees and i cannot see the forest
I'm not gonna lie this isn't how I proved it when I saw this problem posted
i like proof by contraposition
i don't get to do it often
but I don't understand at all lmao
so we have
there exists some r in R s.t. r≠0 and r has no inverse
I just wrote out a general non-principle ideal and then showed it to be always equal to some principle ideal but we can continue with Moth's idea
Should I write mine out?
if i could get away with contraposition for part 2 i would be happy
I'm not seeing the jump though
from line 1 to 2
ok basically what we are trying to do is assume that R is not a field and construct a proper ideal that contains (x) from it
and rn we are showing that no principal ideals contain (x)
which in turn implies that our proper ideal is non-principal
the second step is the meat of the process
but you have ruled out linear maps like (r + ax) already
right
do you see how the way we dealt with (r + ax) basically works for any polynomial with a_0 non-zero?
yes
and if a polynomial has a_0 = 0, it is divisible by x, right?
yes
so that would mean that if p is that polynomial, (p) is contained in (x)
np 
we are mostly done
to summarize we just showed that for p a polynomial:
-if p has a non-zero a term (p) doesnt contain (x)
-if p has a zero a term (p) is contained in (x)
meaning no principal ideal of R[x] contains (x)
which is really the majority of what we had to do
$[\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{3},\sqrt{21}) : \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{7})]$
Yes

the basis is just {1, sqrt 3 ,sqrt 21,sqrt 7} right?
I'm pretty sure sqrt(21) isn't linearly independent of the others
I don't know what the colon means there so that could affect it
wait nvm I'm being stupid it's linearly independent over Q
oh

lol
yea that's the basis for ℚ(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{21}) over ℚ
over Q ?
yes, but if you're doing it over ℚ(\sqrt{7}), then you should go ℚ(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{21}) = ℚ(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{7}) = ℚ(\sqrt{7})(\sqrt{3})
a +bsqr3 + csqrt21 + dsqrt21sqrt3
so its an extension of ℚ(\sqrt{7}) by \sqrt{3}
then let a b c d be from q(7)
um
ok
but you should probably simplify things a bit before
but wouldnt it be a basis for that over Q(7) too?
it would be a generating set, because they are not linearly independent
(-sqrt(7))*1 + 1*sqrt(7) = 0
i see
lol
i thought we can just think of Q(root3,root21) as avectpr space over q(root 7)
you can
$= {a + b\sqrt{3} + c\sqrt{7} + d\sqrt{21} : a,b,c,d \in \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{7})}$
Yes
thats what i did
if you want to do it that way then yea, you take {1, sqrt 3 ,sqrt 21,sqrt 7}, but then you need to take out all the linearly dependent elements
right
to get a basis
Is there some sort of generalization of the central product that doesn’t require the subgroups to be central?
thank you
:)
are you talking about direct product of normal subgroups?
I’m talking about merging subgroups.
Oh, my bad. I dont know the answer then
anyone can help me show $\sqrt[3]{2} - i \in \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{2}+i)$
Yes
yep
thanks
:D
ok
so find the degree?
dont apologise lol :)
x^3-3x + i(1 -3x^2) = 2
hence i = (2+3x-x^3)/(1-3x^2)
hence cbrt(2) = x - i = x - (2+3x-x^3)/(1-3x^2)
so both cbrt(2) and i are in Q(x)
(i saw that 😶)
ooops
lol
its not very clear why that should contain both cbrt(2) and i
yes i see
how do we carry on from here then?
😅
we wnated to show cbrt(2) - i in Q(x)
we showed cbrt(2) in Q(x) and i in Q(x)
fields are closed under subtraction! 😮
but
i thought
we wanted to show its in Q(cbrt2 + i)
sorry im probbaly being dumb rn
We actually just proved that Q(x) = Q(cbrt(2), i)
do you guys know the song u by kendrick lamar
i don't
i feel like the first 5 seconds of that song
so we did that right
Q(x) contains (2+3x-x^3)/(1-3x^2) and x - (2+3x-x^3)/(1-3x^2)
which are i and cbrt(2)
AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA
you see?
first 3 seconds
Another aproach would be: calculate the minimal polynomial of x=cbrt(2)+i, it has degree 6. Since Q(cbrt(2),i) has degree 6 and trivially contains Q(x), one has Q(x)=Q(cbrt(2),i)
calculating min poly isn't an easy task
or do you have some nice idea to do it without finding one poly which it satisfies and then stuff
yes
look
thats always a nice method
Nah but you can take powers of x and combine to get 0.
yea but that won't guarantee it being minimal right
solving matrices by hand is hard
I know, you gotta check irreducibility
Im not saying it is a better aproach, its just an alternative :D
Probably your way is faster
the problem with my approach is it won't generalize nicely
but probably no one will ask you to do harder calculations by hand
is the only way to compute minimal polynomial by solving matrices?
(sorry for my bad english)
Ive never calculated a minimal polynomial using matrices actually
yea mostly i just hope to find a polynomial and hope that eisenstein works somehow
since there are infinite primes you are guaranteed to find one that works with eisenstein and if you can't find one then you just need to look at more primes
trust me
x^2+1 irred using eisentein?
bro there has to be one out there that works cause there's infinite choices honest

Nani
wait is it actually true that any irred can by translated to show irred by eisenstein over Z?
Theres infinite primes but finite ones which divide a finite given set of numbers
x^2 +1 =/= (x+1)^2 though?
but if x^2+1 = f(x)*g(x)
then (x+1)^2 +1= f(x+1)*g(x+1)
I see
what's this matter?
there's no product happening just pure translation
f(x) is irreducible iff f(x+1) is
otherwise you could just factor and then translate back
that's a good question I'm sure I've seen something about this before but I can't remember idk maybe we can figure it out
i been writting it heisenstein for some reason lol
are there other tricks on top of this to do too
like you can also do x^n f(1/x) to reverse coefficients
by going into Q and then Gauss to switch back and forth
yea was thinking the same lol
do these allow you to get everything? probably not but
there is an algorithm to factor polynomials over a Z
oh right
but not fun
thanks @rustic crown
it uses too much interpolation

another is just going mod p and trying to factor it there and then coming back up.
other techniques are rational root theorem which only work for deg 2 and 3 over Z
idk any others
rest are very weird like showing irreducibility of cyclotomic polynomials over Z
that is just a very weird idea imo
ya, that's basically it for the standard techniques
- rational root thm
- looking at the polynomial images in quotient rings
- eisenstein
I just go to the algebraic closure and forget about most of this 😎
but they aren't exhaustive
lol
is there a way to see this?
I asked in discussion math at one point, a algorithm to reduce polynomial over Z
I'm not sure I got an answer
eisenstein with translation by 1 does it
oh true, I forgot with translation
say the polynomial is degree n and you look at f(0), f(1), ...., f(n)
so if f = g * h
then g(i) is a factor of f(i)
I don't know if they aren't exhaustive if you include translation
so you interpolate g by bashing over all divisors of f(i)
and then checking if its an integer polynomial
p-power roots of unity I just immediately go to translation so that it's p eisenstein
my intuition tells me that even eisenstein + translation together with the other 2
still isn't exhaustive
but I don't have an immediate counterexample
for it
Ah nice, that makes sense
this can be very good sometimes actually
consider f(x) = (x-1)(x-2)...(x-n) - 1
but that's just cause we made it so
only divisors of -1 and 1 and -1
so then g(i) = -h(i)
Probably just an edge case: What if you get f(i)=0?
that sounds extremely cringe to do lmaoo
pick another i
(ig you don't pick i that case 😶 )
divide out the factor
But I'm happy know there is an algorithm
of (x-i)
Ah ok right
and start over
also if f(i) is 0, then it's obviously reducible isn't it
😛
so you're just done?
Although, if we are over a finite field, I think this algorithm fails for =0 issues. But in that case the problem is finite anyway
I like the fact that an F[x]-module is a vector space over F together with a linear operator on it.
Generalizing this to choices of multiple operators is a possible way to motivate noncommutative polynomial rings.
PIDs are always nice 
and very nice if they happen to be Euclidean
(rational and jordan canonical forms)
Im starting to study modules on thursday yaay
Euclidean domains basically just feel like constructive PIDs
good night
the only PIDs I have seen so far that aren't Eucliden domains are like Z[sqrt(d)] for some weird d
night det
I'm pretty sure that there's a generalization of the idea of a euclidean norm that the existence of is equivalent to an integral domain being a PID
ya that one is one example
ya, d&f mentioned that
but it should be useful if one wants to understand what's up with PIDs that aren't euclidean
I dont wanna work with cringe PIDs that aren't euclidean
lmao
lol
only reason to use PIDs in proofs is because you don't actually need to be constructive in 99% of proofs involving PIDs
so might as well prove things for PIDs to be slightly more general
but for any actual things, having the euclidean algorithm is just too nice to not have
by the way, this sort of reminds me, so if n,m are coprime, by chinese remainder theorem a residue class mod nm is just a choice of reside classes mod n and mod m, and I think the proof of that typically given isn't constructive, but there's a cool way to find the class mod nm that you want
Z is nice
you just write an + bm = 1, and then x_1an + x_1bm is equivalent to x_2 mod n, and x_1 mod m
good thing every field is a ring, now we know all fields are Z
true
R doesnt exist, the largest ring is Z20
yes, every ring is an integral domain because zero divisors are cringe, and it's finite since it's no bigger than Z20, and therefore it is a field
- wilderberger has entered the chat *
Hi guys. I was wondering how to describe ring homomorphisms from Z6 to Z10.
From the previous messages you can conclude Z6 and Z10 are basically Z
Thats a huge step
the image of 1 determines the entire homomorphism, so you just need to check which ones work
for it to be an additive group homomorphism, you want the additive order of the image of 1 to divide 6
since it needs to also divide 10, it has to divide their gcd which is 2, and thus be either 1 or 2
so that gives you either 0 or 5
and they both define additive group homomorphisms
if you want a ring homomorphism to be unital, then 0 doesn't define one, but 5 defines one either way i think
{0, 5} in Z/10Z is a subring isomorphic to Z/2Z, and clearly you can collapse Z/6Z into Z/2Z
(5^2 = 25 = 5)
Okay then. Thank you!
Here's something I just thought of. Let R be an integral domain. Inductively define $N_{n}$ by $N_{0} = {0}$, and $N_{n+1}$ = {$x \in R$ | for every $y$ in $R$, $y = qx + r$ with $r \in N_i$ for some $i \leq n$}. Then define $N = \cup_{i=0}^{\infty} N_{i}
$. \newline
I'm pretty sure that this is well defined, and $R$ is a euclidean domain iff $N = R$, in which case the norm taking $x$ to the minimal (but no longer unique) integer $n$ such that $x$ is in $N_n$ is a euclidean norm.
Intel
hold on lemme just
it's a nightmare to get everything to format properly
$N_{n+1} = {x \in R-N_n : such : that \forall y \in R, ; y = qx+r such that r \in N_i : for : some i \leq N}$
Wew Lads Tbh
ah ok so you're seeing what N_n approaches?
I just realized I defined it incorrectly.
I don't just want to exclude N_n, I want to exclude N_i for all i at most n
by R-Nn do you mean R\Nn i.e {x in R not in Nn}
yes
got you
okay, I made a change to the definition that should also work
tfw ignoring classification of f.g. modules over a PID
safe bet that q is just some element of R cause you're messing around with euclidan domains right?
Here's something I just thought of. Let R be an integral domain. Inductively define $N_{n}$ by $N_{0} = {0}$, and $N_{n+1}$ = {$x \in R$ | for every $y$ in $R$, $y = qx + r$ with $r \in N_n$}. Then define $N = \cup_{i=0}^{\infty} N_{i}
$. \newline
I'm pretty sure that this is well defined, and $R$ is a euclidean domain iff $N = R$, in which case the norm taking $x$ to the minimal (but no longer unique) integer $n$ such that $x$ is in $N_n$ is a euclidean norm.
yes
I mean PIDs are very nice and cool
Intel
I agree that it is miraculous
but like if you're already a PID, just the little nudge so that it's euclidean
is very nice
do you think sometimes you might want to extend that construction to some infinite ordinals until it stabilizes ?
and not that rare in the situations I've encountered
Euclidean domains are overrated, they exist to show something is actually a PID
the definition I know does
I'm pretty sure N1 is just {1} although a second opinion would be much appreciated
N1 would be the set of units
wait but you'd need y = qx for all y in R?
This is weird, you're like doing valuation ring type stuff but with a different sorta norm
which only works if x = 1 surely
and that's exactly true for units
yeah
got it now
anyway, @hot lake, I think that your idea about infinite ordinals might just work
but i'm not sure how helpful it will be
This is a chmonkey statement, but anything that's true for 1 is true for any unit
usually
well I'm not sure if you ever need it
A unit is just 1 with an extra step
very big "usually"
yeah, me neither, but I think you could prove everything that you can do with an actual euclidean domain about a "euclidean domain" with a norm into an ordinal as you could with a norm into the integers
makes me wonder if there's a ring where that matters
I usually just think of units as like a generalization of 1
that's how I kinda thought about units when I first saw them
I usually just think of math as like a generalization of linear algebra
I think of units as the irrelevant factor that gives you the same generated ideal and the same notion of divisibility anyway so you might as well ignore it
that's a good perspective
another one is that they're the "field-like" elements of your ring
I just think of them as elements with inverses lmao
I haven't internalised rings to that point yet
an non-zero element a of R is not a zero divisor precisely when x -> ax is injective, and it's then a unit when it fully succeeds to define a bijection
literally lmao it takes an extra "step" by u^-1 to get to 1
I mean that's literally the definition
but it's nice to think about units in terms of their consequences
and what it means to be a unit
rather than just their explicit definition
it means that body and soul are very well aligned
and something something crown shakra
I'm just not well versed enough with them yet
I just think of units as * insert long and incomprehensible categorical jargon *, it really simplifies it
I think it's literally just so many things are true if (some statement about 1) if and only if (same statement about units)
Like an ideal is equal to R iff it contains 1 iff it contains a unit
In a valuation ring, the units are all things with valuation 0
I think honor is a good one
that's a new one
I don't know if I necessarily agree
yeah I can see that
I mean... in some senses
i mean, one way to fail to be a field is to have zero-divisors, and that's a different matter, but suppose we're looking at just integral domains
the thing that sets apart non-field domains from fields
I guess I agree in a way
is that in non-fields, you can multiply by something and then you can never go back
Like a DVR is pretty much as close to a field you can get
and they have only two primes, and all ideals are a power of the maximal one
besides 0
and an ideal, is precisely a set that you "can't multiply out of"
isn't it as close as you can get by definition?
and then it's really awesome when you motivate ideals that way, and then independently show that it happens to be the right object to quotient a ring by
eh
cause it behaves "like 0"
I mean you can look at like, reduced local rings blah blah
I had some example I was looking at some time which seemed even closer than a DVR imo
Maybe it's just a special kind of DVR lol

I mean you could literally just define a ring where each element has an inverse except for a single one I suppose
No you can't
watch me
If x isn't a unit then ux is not a unit for all units u
oh yeah
non-zero element
DVRs seem to be the closest to being a field, also like there's only "one" field substructure in a DVR, while any ring with multiple maximal ideals would have like multiple field substructures in it as quotients
I suppose
yeah, btw, there are pretty cool actions of the group of units on a ring
¯_(ツ)_/¯
like in a supposed lattice of ideals or something, they would be different sublattices?
that's literally a field 
but one element doesn't have an inverse so it can't be a field
check mate
0
yup
that element is 0
(I don't even know if a lattice of ideals is a real thing like it is for lattice of subgroups, I'm just kinda using it to have some basis for my imagination)
no inverse so it's not a field
It is
you get the same isomorphism of lattices for ideals above I and ideals of R/I
It's just given by \cap and +
for meets and joins
and in this supposed lattice of ideals, a field is just a single line segment, while a DVR would be a few line segments connected end to end I suppose
which is the closest to the lattice for a field
as it gets
this is just how I try to think about it, because having some visual basis helps me I feel
I'm not certain that just having a lattice structure like that means a DVR
does the element of the field with one element have an inverse? 
ok I hear you 👂
I wasn't trying to say that, I didn't mean to say it's an iff relation between the DVR and the lattice
i'm not talking about the zero ring
That "field" has two elements tho
I just meant that I use the lattice to kinda ground the concept more
sadge
the "field with one element" is a theoretical entity
I know
then that "field" doesn't have "elements" so to speak
pretty sure the field axioms require 1 to be distinct from 0 unfortunately
because they hate fun

they do, and that's a really good thing
and "assume the map is non-trivial"
and that's not what we're talking about
Did you know Bourbaki doesn't require fields to be commutative lmao
wot
LMAO
They call those commutative fields

is that why there was a question posted here in this channel a while back where a textbook asks them to prove a ring is a field
but the ring was obviously noncommutative
oh my god i fucking love that
what would be the benefit of a non-commutative field lmao
i mean i hate it, but i love it as a source of comedy
nah, but a tb that was inspired by bourbaki
normal human beings call them division rings
like, im pretty sure the hamiltonian quaternions are an example
yeah I know but I meant like what would be the benifit of CALLING them fields
I think it was actually exactly that
I know division rings are swag
It's easy to show finite rings without zero divisors are division rings
but they're also commutative
F_1 is a meme
there's a really cool generalization
doesnt that just require a simple action from one element
if F is contained in R where F is a field and R is an integral domain, and that "field extension" is of finite degree, then R is a field and it's actually a field extension
lmao
showing this implies commutativity is hard... I think?
you don't need finite degree, just that it's integral

it also goes the other way
i'm pretty sure that's not true
no it is
like consider the minimal ring in R containing Q and pi
if R < S are integral domains
and it's an integral extension S is a field iff R is
I can give you a source
In french it's actually common to still call division rings "fields" 
(or any other transcendental number)
(well, french's translation of fields, which is "corps")
cuz France is based on Bourbaki
Is my take
consider this extension of Q
what I read @next obsidian
thats because rings are commutative

a commutative division ring is a field, so maybe there's some way to show that there's no proper ideal other than the 0 ideal by looking at kernels of homomorphisms or something?
Oh and also, it's starting to change 
@urban acorn Matsumura Commutative Ring Theory, section 9 Lemma 1
Like newer generations are more likely to call division rings "corps gauche" (~= left (hard to translate properly) fields ?)instead of just "corps" (= fields)
"Let B be an integral domain, and A < B a subring such that B is integral over A. Then
A is a field <==> B is a field"
anyway, the proof of this is analogous to the proof that a finite integral domain is a field, x -> ax is a linear map over F, and injective, and over a finite dimensional vector space, and therefore surjective
linear algebra "makes it finite"
doesn't that mean "left field" literally
(it's been a while since I took french)
oh wait I can't read
you did say that
that's some weird naming
"such that B is integral over A" is the crucial hypothesis
Yeah I said that you don't need finiteness, just for it to be integral?
ohhhh
i thought you meant it just needs to be an integral domain
exactly
I don't know why I didn't name that counterexample that way
I said "minimal subring of R containing Q and pi"
which is isomorphic to Q[x]
lmao
Like pi being transcedental means it's definitely not integral over Q
yeah
i don't like that I used pi specifically, I should've said "some transcedental number"
circles have nothing to do with this
why is K chosen to be the letter chosen for arbitrary fields typically rather than F
is there like some historical reason behind it
From German
ah
early indoctrination into k theory

American
you run out of letters eventually
and I noticed that online it was always k
Conversely, German people wonder why sometimes people use F
so I was wondering why
F in some sources implies finite field
that's pretty cringe
You should just write K with finite amount of ink
which I also found odd
can someone ELI5 k-theory?
German
i have no idea what a vector bundle is
read quillen
and i remember looking it up in wikipedia
oh dont read quillen
read grothendieck
So Grothendieck wanted to prove Grothendieck Riemann-ROch
then he invented K0
then Quillen went
asjfoadsjpoifjadsopivjasdiop fjlwfjodpaskfj dasokfj dsa
and now you have K-theory
chmonkey i think you might be slightly biased by me being a quillen stan
i mean okay quillen probably contributed the most of anyone
but leaving out atiyah is
pretty yuck
he basically invented k theory
I wrote Atiyah in invisible text
rather than just leaving it as a weird thing groth did once
but what is a vector bundles, and how do these generate rings?
Vector bundle is a locally free sheaf
a vector bundle is where you attach a bunch of vector spaces onto another space
its like vector fields but instead of vectors you parametrize spaces
kinda
thats a bad definition but thats the motivation
Take a space B, and then for a vector space V you can consider the projectino B x V -> B
now as it turns out we want to figure out the structure of these since like
lots of shit like "space of continuous functions passing through a point"
the "height" comes from V
A vector bundle is a map say... X -> B which locally over B looks like B x V -> B
in practice thats not the kinda thing k theory looks at
(in fact its slightly wrong)
but that might help you visualize why we care
I need to learn some topology sadge
now it turns out that you can relate SESes of vector bundles through black magic

so, like, should I think of it as a generalization of maps X -> V where X is some topological space and and V is some topological vector space?
and eventually you get a group structure
no, it's the other way around sort of
this is K_0
K_n for larger n is a mess
and requires you to read multiple long ass papers, one of which was coauthored by a spirit medium, to figure out fully
(K_1 and K_2 arent that bad but the general case blows)
What are K_n
higher alg k groups
are they related to SESs of vecotr bundles in some way
just in a fuck way
or does it kind of go off into space
im sure thats what quillen tells himself at night
i mean
you still deal with SESes
i still don't even have a vague intuition of what vector bundles are, and I don't know what SES stands for or how the fuck you end up with a group structure
and why does it create rings?
short exact sequence = SES
oh okay
[in fact the quillen Q construction is a category of SESes kinda]
K-theory is, roughly speaking, the study of a ring generated by vector bundles
wikipedia
but you usually already have a ring and study it by looking at vbundle invariants
no
you dont get anything nice
that would be cool if u did
its worth noting that the quillen approach is
very grothendiecky
in that it never really looks at concrete objects
just morphisms
what I take away from this conversation is that this is all black magic
so its hard to explain
and that all researchers in this field cry themselves to sleep every night
and theres like 4 big papers that you have to read before you can consider yourself familiar with it
2 of them by atiyah, quillen 1, and thomason trobaugh
they give the historical development which is nice
but on the downside
quillen 1 STILL isnt texed
so its in that terrible early-70s typewriter math format
typewriter comm diagrams are not fun to try and read
this is true
yeah basically
k groups naively are motivated in a similar way to pi_n almost
theyre weird but theyre invariant under things we care about
how did you even get into K-theory?
undergrad advisor needed a slave to do k theoretic computations for his math phys paper
lmao
i had a bit of experience in combinatorial AG at the time
so he figured id be able to pick it up vaguely enough to work
like flag varieties?
thats how im technically a published physicist 😎
lmao
nah it was like, a summer transfer project thing at the fields institute
i'm gonna do that someday
just make a weird non-physics contribution to a physics paper
and write on my resume i'm a published physicist in an elite university
Shamrock is a published PL person
by the way some 4chan anon once solved an open problem
damn, how is like 1 of the 4 major papers of the field not texed yet
i think there's a framing of the math problem that has to do with orders of watching that anime
anyway
so they wrote a paper and cited "anonymous 4chan user" as a coauthor
bruh
A lot of like important AG stuff is stuck in SGA and crap
which are like... hard to find, and all in French
and therefore anyone who uses 4chan is an anonymous 4chan user, and thus a published mathematician
I mean being hard to find or being in french isn't particularly as egregious
I don't know if they're texed either lol
french is the language of demons
since translating stuff and tagging stuff is a pretty damn hard job
any language which isn't english is the language of demons
but texing is literally 0 iq
I think I could tex a ton of things I don't even understand
it's literally just copying things
translating and tagging take a ton more effort
could you check that this diagram commutes without much issue?
literally thousands of pages
I don't even know the first thing about the diagram
this diagram checks that chuck norris commutes
but I feel texing papers isn't even hard
then tex quillen
i mean its technically illegal because copyright
but no one will care
lol
Tex SGA for me
I shall make myself known in the math community not for contributing any math knowledge
but by texing papers from the 70s
Fuck quals bro
every PhD student has to tex 50 pages of an important work which isn't tex'd
math hasn't been at all meaningful for a long time
I would unironically not mind doing it
if my boredom levels go high enough
if it's like a thousand page monstrosity
lmao
then I might be a little not up for it
because that would mean I have to use my brain
math is sane, why do you ask?
I mean this is all done by a computer I'm sure
no, i'm not doodling, mom
lol
your brain has some serious worms if you see that and immediately go "hmm, that's a trott curve"
what curve is it 👀


also I feel like these diagrams could be improved a bit (a lot)
I wish there was like a summer intern position where your sole job is to full time tex papers
I would love it
Ramanujan: hears hardy telling him about 1729
The worms in Ramanujan's brain: "hmm, that's the smallest number that can be expressed as a sum of two different cubes in two different ways"
I would not mind texing papers for 8 hours a day for the greater good of eyes all around the world
You are
the most interesting human being on earth
You somehow seem to not value your time on earth
I knew Muf did that react without checking
that would be time valuably spent
yes of course
cursed
i think that's like the cayley graph of S6 or something
it looks like something like that
perhaps one day I will actually learn what a cayley graph is 

ah, yes, this is what mathematicians do in their free time, of course
motivic cohomology 
was this typeset in word? 
probably not
What are homology/arrow people gonna do when their diagrams start being 4 dimensional?
draw multiple diagrams
like draw each "level" separately
yea id think so 
the book only showed that formation of fractions commutes with finite sums of ideals but i dont see why it would not commute more generally
it should
Pretty
prove it via universal property is my guess (I mean this is maybe one way to see it. Probably not the best way tbh)
Using Brofibrations observation that everything in an infintie sum is still made up of finite sums, you should be able to do it
btw til some people denote group multiplication "from the right"
i.e. ab means a then b
so then instead of left actions being the natural ones, right actions are
I guess the advantage is you can read it left to right and that's the order in which it happens, which is more natural
but it basically means you'll want to write f of x like (x)f
now that I think about it, why don't we do that?
(x)f looks wrong, also it's usually "f of x" 
i'll sooner start writing f : B <-- A
f : C^B, g : B^A, (g∘f) : C^A?
it only looks wrong because uve been g r o o m e d

I've been groomed?
but i'm usually the one grooming children 
Commutative Algebra time
(x)f still reads wrong anyways
Have you been groomed @next obsidian ?






