#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 574 of 407
well I = nZ
at the end i get r_n which must be equal to n right because it's the smallest positive integer
If we are talking about ideals in Z
I would do this like this: Assume that it's false, ie I is not a subset of nZ. Then there exists an a in I that is not in nZ. But since a is not in nZ then a=zn+r where n>r>0 (division alg.). This means that r = a -zn. Since -zn in nZ then r need to be in I. This is a contradicion since now r is in I and r is also less than n
I am not entirely sure tbh. How do you know that r_n = n?
because u,v are not multiples of each other
and so the gcd must be the smallest integer that exist in the subset I
if i run euclids algorithm i will eventually reach the gcd(u,v)
idk if it would work
Yeah that sounds good to be, but don't take my word for it. I am still a noob
Dude I am still in highschool....
Well I am about to go into university so I guess that I should be old enough to do this. Anyways, let's hope that someone else answers!
To answer the question in that photo?
wa
Itâs basically just applying Bezoutâs theorem
my photo?
If there was something which isnât a multiple of n, call this m
Yes
Then the gcd(n,m) < n
idk whats bezouts theorem
Err
Bezoutâs lemma
You should look it up
Itâs a basic number theory result thatâs important to know
But the point is simply that gcd(n,m) < n
oh
And you can show that gcd(n,m) is in I
ax+by = gcd(a,b)
Yup
yeah didn't know the name
So youâll always have ax+by in an idea because like
Well... itâs just the sum of a lot of things in I
this is what i did
So anyway, you can just immediately contradict the minimality of n
Yeah you could use the Euclidean algorithm
could you verify if my statements are true
thats just the euclids algorithm process
of finding the gcd
cuz u can get the gcd from euclids algorithm
Oh youâre just finding the gcd of u,v?
I mean if thatâs the case then sure
I mean honestly I do t know how to find the gcd using the Euclidean algorithm lmao
waaat
Which probably isnât good
Idk I donât know any number theory
same
but it is number theory
I mean it is đ
it's tedious
I just picked up any NT I needed along the way
but what you gonna do if you don't have a caclulator and you have to figure out pi to 100 digits
you probably don't don't use euclids algorithm for that lmao
I would kill myself
same
I guess Iâm a bit confused how you know r_n is in I
because n is the smallest positive integer
Thatâs in I
I mean the smallest positive integer is 1 lol
But n could be anything (well actually it has to be prime)
Wait no it doesnât
It can be literally anything
yeah, if it's prime than it's a field, right?
Oh...
Itâs still just an ideal if itâs prime
n.z is an ideal
Yeah
but it can't be empty
so it must have a positive or negative or just 0
my arguement is that
No I understand lol
there must exist a smallest integer
But my point is youâd need to argue r_n is in I
Obviously I has a smallest positive integer, this is just well-ordering
Like... I actually donât buy this anymore
wouldn't it be in I because it's the gcd(u,v)
The gcd is gonna be a multiple of n
But not necessarily n
I mean sure, but given your steps itâs unclear how thatâs true
Anyway, it canât possibly be right, like consider 2Z
And the elements 4,8
Their gcd is 4
So you couldnât possibly prove the gcd of two arbitrary elements in I is just n
boss you still here i fixed it maybe this may be right đ
is there a nice relationship between the complement of a union of prime ideals and divisors?
specifically im trying to show that if S is multiplicatively closed then if x is in the complement of the union of prime ideals not meeting S, x is a divisor of some element in S
my idea was that we have a maximal ideal m containing x, and since x isnt in any prime ideal not meeting S, we have y in m cap S
and then somehow i think we should be able to show that xy is in S
but im not sure how to do that
You can reduce to the case where S = {1} by going to the localization S^{-1}A. Over S^{-1}A, your statement is that x is invertible (that x "divides" 1) if x is not in the union of all prime ideals
Of course all the prime ideals in S^{-1}A looks like S^{-1}p for prime ideal p not intersecting S and its inverse image under the natural map A -> S^{-1}A is just p again (not gaining anymore unlike some non-prime ideals)
@maiden ocean You understanding all these? Do you know localization?
Kind of? I've seen it but passing to and back from localization is not something I'm familiar with
I think I'll get it if I think on it for a bit though
thanks!
i have seen the prime ideals in S^{-1}A stuff
so i think thatll help
Yea good
oh i think i see, x being a divisor of an element of S is equivalent to x/s = 1 in S^{-1}A for some s
or at least x/s = 1 is sufficient
actually nah we just need to show that x/1 is invertible which is easier because x is contained in no prime ideal of A that doesnt meet S then f(x) = x/1 is not contained in any prime ideal of S^{-1}A: if it was then x/1 = y/1 for some y in p prime not meeting S, then xu = yu in p and x notin p so u in p
then p meets S, a contradiction
so now x/1 must be a unit in S^{-1}A and we have x/1 cdot s/t = xs/t = 1/1, and therefore xsu = tu in S
and this also proves that the saturation of a set is the smallest saturated set containing S

so as groups, SU(2)/{\pm 1} and SO(3) are isomorphic as we can construct a homomorphism with kernel {pm 1} and image SO(3)
and lie group homomorphisms induce lie algebra homomorphisms as far as i understand, by evaluating the differential at the identity
my question is how does this induce an isomorphism between su(2) and so(3)?
basically how/why do we no longer have to mod out by the kernel
or alternatively i see why it induces a homomorphism su(2) to so(3) but not an isomorphism
you would quotient by the kernel if the identity wasn't isolated in the kernel
since the lie algebra only sees a neighbourhood of the identity
it doesn't see -1
so no need to do anything
i see
could this statement be qualified by saying su(2)/(pm 1) = su(2) or no
wait never mind my previous message doesnt make any sense lol
could it be qualified by saying Lie(SU(2)/(pm 1)) = su(2)
lie algebra of SU(2) / tangent space of {pm 1} at 1 (which is just {1}) = lie algebra of SO(3)
Dumb question, but if I have a finitely generated group $G=\langle a_{1},\dots,a_{n}\rangle$, is $\langle a_{1},\dots,a_{n-1}\rangle\cong G/\langle a_{n},\rangle$? I feel like this should follow almost trivially from the fundamental homomorphism theorem, but everything I can think of requires $G$ to be abelian.
Bannanachair Monarch
Hm, intuitively it sounds right, yeah
I was about to cite that fact as part of a larger proof (involving induction on the number of generators), but something in the back of my brain said to verify it, and for the life of me I can't figure out a way to verify it for non-abelian groups.
I don't think that works
G = <a, a> = <a>
Then you're asking whether <a> is isomorphic to G/<a> = {1}
you need some sort of independence condition
Ah yeah, I assumed they are not generatable by the previous elements
one straightforward condition i can think of is, if f(a1,...,an) = 1 is a relation among a1,...,an. That is f(a1,...,an) is a finite product of elements from the set {a1,...,an,a1^-1,...,an^-1}.
if for every relation f(a1,...,an) = 1 . then f(a1,...,a_{n-1},1) = 1 is also a relation then the claim is true.
for example in this case i have the relation a1^-1 * a2 = 1 but i can't replace a2 by 1
I think for sure you can say G/<an> = <presentation of G with the added relation an=1>, and my guess is that you can remove the relation an=1 and the generator an as long as this doesn't "fuck" with the other relations
wait this still doesn't work
The first claim or the second claim?
maybe it does... i need to verify it
if G = <X | R> then G = F(X)/<<R>>, and then <X | R, a> = F(X)/<<R, a>>
just using <<R>> meaning the smallest normal group of F(X) containing R
so by the theorems we do get a map from <X | R, a> --> G/<a>
oh ig this follows from the correspondence theorem then
wait, hang on. Q8 is generated by <i, j>, <i> = Z4, Q8/<j> is not Z4?
or am i missing something
yea so the problem is i and j **** with each other
so i think you need something stronger
this is a simpler counter example
no, but even in the case where neither of them generate each other
i don't see if this reduces to some nice condition
How would I go about finding a representative for an equivalence class in a quotient ring
The specific problem is finding a representative of $[x^5]$ in $\frac{\mathbb{Q}[x]}{\langle x^3-5x^2+7x-9\rangle}$
SelahW
lol
xâ” is a representative for [xâ”]
maybe you want one whose degree is <= 2
you could divide xâ” by the generator of the ideal
youll get xâ” = gq + r where deg r <=2
where g is the generator im too lazy to type
gq = 0 in the new ring so...
does inner product of the character of a representation with itself being 1 imply that the representation is irreducible, for finite-dimensional representations of compact groups?
(i know it is true for finite groups)
According to page 58 of http://math.tkk.fi/opetus/harmanal/pruju/group08.pdf
It is true, at least for unitary representations
find minimal generating set
Then you get a map from R^(A) --> M
find minimal generating set for the kernel
So you then get the map R^(B) --> R^(A) --> M
keep on doing this
presentation matrix is the matrix corresponding to the linear map R^(B) --> R^(A)
Ok cool
but you can go further if your ring wasn't like a PID
Is there a good way to check if it's minimal or do I basically need to eyeball it
Like what if I find generators that I can't remove any of them but they aren't minimal
I think that can happen?
in the end it probably depends on what you want to do with the minimal generating set
most nice things would be true for any resolution you take
I need betti numbers
Well, graded ones
I think this problem is too hard ha
My supervisor suggested I look at it
i haven't read much about this, so i can't really say
Ok thanks anyway
Do you know if there is another math discord for PhD students
I feel like this one isn't very active
sorry i don't know đŠ
maybe you can try asking in #math-discussion or similar cause they are far more active?
thank you!
This one isn't active?????
this is like the most active math server
I'm pretty sure computing minimal free resolutions is like.... a hard problem
Pretty sure commutative algebraists are interested in them because they're useful but hard to find explicitly
this is like 100x more active than any other server i'm on 
I think they want a high math server
Would you want it if you could have it? 
But no, I don't have an invite
Joining the forbidden server 
jaco dm inv
It's like joining voldemorts army. It is a powerful one, but it is full of evil
Yeah but this one's the voldemorts one.

do you know that finite fields of same size are isomorphic?
try to look at the polynomial x^(p^2)-x
do you also know that any two splitting field of a polynomial are isomorphic, or are you still reading that?
if you don't, then we can avoid that path of splitting fields.
once you have a single field of size p^n then with the knowledge you have you can prove the uniqueness.
but the standard way to construct one such is by looking at splitting field of x^p^n-x
We want to show Fp[x]/(f) and Fp[x]/(g) are isomorphic
What we'll show is x^p^2 - x factors completely in both fields
hence we'll get for free that f and g both divide x^p^2 - x
because in Fp[x]/(f) the minimal polynomial of (coset of) x is f
but then it will also satisfy the polynomial t^p^2 - t in (Fp[x]/(f))[t]
In particular f factors in Fp[x]/(g)
Then get the map Fp[x] --> Fp[x]/(g) by sending x to a root of f
so f would lie in the kernel
which will give you a map
Fp[x]/(f) --> Fp[x]/(g)
This is a map between fields, hence is automatically injective. And both sides have same size, hence automatically surjective!
yep
yea you're using lagrange's theorem here. look at the multiplicative group which has size p^2 - 1.
now any non-zero element in the field satisfies a^(p^2 - 1) = 1
and hence also satisfies a^p^2 = a
0 also satisfies the last equation, which shows every every elment of Fp[x]/(f) satisfies t^p^2 - t = 0
now this is a polynomial of degree p^2, but you already know p^2 distinct roots of it
if you have a group G of size n then a^n = e in the group
because <a> is a subgroup
so order of a, which is |<a>| will divide |G| = n
so a^n = e
issokie, don't say that >.<
i was too excited that i forgot to write this lol
nanana
hey everyone, I would appreciate it if someone could clarify this:
if you look at the field as an additive group then you get (p^2) a = 0
but what i want is to look at the non-zero elements of the finite which forms a multiplicative group of size p^2-1. So we'll get a^(p^2-1) = 1
since you can compose the map with itself, it must have same source and target. And then there is also a notion of identity on that object!
f^0 = id
f^(n+1) = f^n o f
yep!
(pardon my english, i can't type correct grammar when i'm doing math >.<)
is that by convention or rather a consequence?
more like a definition?
i see
in the end you want this formula to hold f^(n+m) = f^n o f^m
yeah sure
if f is also invertible, then you want it to hold for all integers

Yeah, there is a recent paper that finds a closed form minimal free resolution for monomial ideals that I'm trying to understand
And its built on the idea that you can compute multi graded betti numbers of monomial ideals using some simplicial homology
The second thing is the part that I'm stuck on at the moment - it's detailed in the book by Miller and Sturmfels but it's super terse
The first chapter
And its really weird, like you build a bunch of simplicial complexes out of your ideal and then compute their usual simplicial homology and somehow that gives you what you want
That sounds ominous
how can we identify if a cartesian product is the same as a direct sum?
for instance i'm looking at abelian groups of order 6750, we have the product Z50xZ135
the lcm of 50 and 135 is 1350 so the elements of the group have order no greater than that
is it immediate that the group is isomorphic to Z5+Z1350 ?
i presume not, because if we have the product Z25xZ27xZ10 this also has lcm 1350 but isn't isomorphic to Z50xZ135... right ?
what do you know about finite abelian groups ?
they're finitely generated modules over Z
do you know stuff like chinese remainder theorem ?
yea
or the theorem that classifies finite abelian groups
well then you can just use the chinese remainder theorem to split up everything as much as you can, then see if they are the same
i'm not sure if it's the theorem you're referring to but i know how to find abelian groups of a given order in terms of elementary divisors and invariant factors
yeah that
Z50 = Z2 * Z25, Z135 = Z27 * Z5, so Z50 * Z135 = Z2 * Z27 * Z5 * Z25
Z1350 = Z2 * Z27 * Z25, so Z5 * Z1350 = Z2 * Z27 * Z5 * Z25
so yeah those two are the same
Z25 * Z27 * Z10 = Z2 * Z27 * Z5 * Z25 too
... huh, i didn't think about it like that, thanks!
Z50 * Z135 = (Z2 * Z25) * (Z27 * Z5) too I guess
$f(x) = (x-1)\dots(x-n)-1$
anyone can help to show this is irreducible in Z[x] for all n?
Yes
sounds like something einsenstein criterion maybe can do ?
or maybe not
just let a be a root of f(x), now $(a-1)(a-2)\ldots (a-n) = 1$
Pappa
and now all of the factors of the LHS have to be integers, and their product is 1
that shows there is no factor of degree 1
but uh why do we need that
well it's a start I guess
okay i think ive got a soln now
nice
assume to the contrary, that $f(x) = g(x)h(x)$. Now $-1 = f(1) = g(1)h(1)$, and similarly for 2, 3, $\ldots$, n. So $g(x) = -h(x)$ for all $x \in {1, 2, \ldots, n}$
Pappa
We get that g(x) = -h(x) because their product is -1, so one takes the value 1 and the other takes the value -1
now look at the polynomial $p(x) = g(x) +h(x)$
Pappa
and how do i finish
you say that it's either 0 or some degree >= n polynomial
yeah
so it has to be 0 if the factorisation is nontrivial
You could have just ended with f=-(h)^2 but f(n+2)>0
sure
i was thinking on using the fact that g and h monic
and so wlog g has leading coefficient 1 and so h has leading coefficient -1 so contradiction
You could have used Lagrange interpolation to get the same result in a slightly different way
im not familiar with that
actually i have a question
what do you guys mean by trivial factorization
p=u*(vp) where u and v are units
oh right
so after considering p(x) = g + h(x)
p has degree of 0
dont think i understood how that finishes it
p is zero at n points
yah
oh
ok'
so we assumed that f(x) = g(x)h(x), how does that contradict that? not too sure
so h(x) + g(x) = 0 for all x <= n
does that somehow mean that h(x)g(x) = 0 for all x <= n
you can conclude p=q(x-1)(x-2)...(x-n) where q is a constant=g(x)+h(x)
Suppose q is not 0. Now,this forces one of them to have a degree which is atleast n. Let's say deg g=n then deg h=0 since deg(gh)=n. So,h has to be a constant polynomial and under the constraints is forced to be 1 or -1
Which means h is a unit
yeah
we have to study both cases
oh yes
ok isee
what about in the case that q = 0
how is this done
if q is not 0 then it has degree at least n. Since both g and h have degree at most n, at least one of g or h must have degree n, and so the other one must have degree 0, so the factorisation is trivial
If p(a)=0 then p(x)=(x-a)q(x) for some q of deg (deg p-1)
oh
wait here I was thinking q was g(x)+h(x)
alright i think i got it
i think ive got a slightly better way to end this
$(x-1)\dots(x-n) = -g(x)g(x)$
Yes
just compare the leading coefficient
can somebody give me a hint as to how to prove that if a finite group is the direct product of its Sylow subgroups, then for each divisor d of its order there is a normal subgroup of order d?
I feel like it all comes down to proving that the non maximal p-subgroups are normal in their respective Sylow p-subgroup (I think I've shown that that is enough) but I can't do it.
maybe I'm just missing something obvious...
Fix a p and let's say G=PxQx... Where P is the p Sylow subgroup. Let R be another p Sylow subgroup. Therefore an element in R can be written as a tuple (a_1,a_2,a_3...)
Now by lagrange a_2,a_3... all have to be identity(since x^a=1 and x^b=1 implies x^gcd(a,b)=1)
Now each element in {(x,1,1..)|x in P} can be identified with an element in P
Which means the element in R is in P
Which means R=P,i.e., There's exactly one p Sylow subgroup
@chilly ocean
didn't we already know that? if the product is direct the Sylow subgroups are normal and therefore unique
Yea in that case,Non maximal p-subgroups being normal is trivial
Because if g is in P
xgx^-1 is in xPx^-1=P for all x
is P the maximal p-subgroup?
But that doesn't tell me that the non maximal p-subgroups are normal in P right? that just tells me that if Q is a non maximal p subgroup and x is in P then x^-1 Q x lands inside P,am I missing something?
I know, but what you've told me doesn't prove x^-1Qx=Q
it only proves that it's in P
That doesn't feel true
I know
I think the best approach is to induction
Assume every p-group upto order p^k has a normal non maximal subgroup of every order below it
prove that holds for p^k
Assume that holds true till |G|=p^k
Take G,such that |G|=p^{k+1}
Now |Z(G)|>1 by class formula
Which means there's a normal subgroup of order p
Call this subgroup N
Then G/N has a normal subgroup of order p^m for any m<k
(I'm going afk for a bit, thank you for helping me)
And for every normal subgroup P in G/N you have a normal subgroup in G with order |P||N|
and you are done
Hi everyone.. could anyone answer me why linear algebra is useful in group theory?
I know there's a link between both called representation theory
You know ring actions?
Not really
You know group actions?
yes kinda
So,You basically let a ring act on an abelian group to get a structure called module
And vector spaces are special cases of these structures when the rings are fields
Hmm this is a bit too complex
Ok, Let's say you make a group G act on another group H:
along with the usual group action properties you add a new property:
(h.a)(h.b)=h.(ab)
Under this property action of h on G can be completely defined by action of h on it's generators
In other words,The generators "form a basis" and action of h is like a "Linear Transform"
This is like a pretty important property in group theory
Because see semi direct products
@limpid pilot
My brief answer without technical details would be: When you represent a group by linear transformations, you have the advantage that this representation always âdecomposesâ into complementary parts (unless it's âsimpleâ). Groups don't have this; not every (normal) subgroup allows for a complement (e.g. take C2 in C4). This makes the structure of representations simpler to study.
For instance, we can represent the cyclic group of three elements C3 by linear maps âÂłââÂł by cycling the basis vectors, i.e. the generator x of C3 would be assigned the linear map Tx: e1âŠe2âŠe3, the neutral element e would be represented by the identity over âÂł, and xÂČ would be represented by (Tx)ÂČ.
This representation of C3 is in some sense the âsimplest conceivableâ, but even that decomposes into two âsubrepresentationsâ: All of these transformations leave the line through e1+e2+e3 invariant. And the plane orthogonal to it is also invariant, giving us actually an âeven simplerâ representation where we just rotate a plane by thirds!
These âeven simplerâ representations tell one a lot about the group. But please don't ask me what, lol.
Well thank you so much @carmine fossil and @wraith obsidian for the great explanations. It helped me a lot and I'm one step closer. It's extremely appreciated!
if you want,here's an example
define G=<h,k|h^3=1,k^2=1, khk^-1=h^2>
let k.h=khk^-1
this can be seen as Z_2 acting on Z_3 as k.(x)=2x,if you let 2x to mean x^2
Thereâs a link between linear algebra and group theory called representation theory. It converts the world of groups into the territory of linear algebra. Linear algebra specifies the arithmetic behind different kinds of linear transformations. In the representation theory a matrix is assigned to each element in a group following certain rules and it also needs to respect the relationship between elements in the group. If those guidelines are respected, we can define it as a representation of a group. This is exactly why linear algebra is useful in group theory. Basically, the groups can be extremely complicated and this kind of representation of groups provide a simplified overview of these groups that resembles a simpler version in the format of linear transformations. With the linear transformations we have a simplified look at the groups and are able to understand the groups without having to get into the complexity of it.
What do you think of my explanation?
I think so
Also, idk why but representation theory feels more like module theory,rather than linear algebra in particular
hey @carmine fossil I just wanted to thank you for bearing with me and for helping me solve my problem
Well⊠a k-linear representation of G is a module, over the group ring kG
and the invariant subspaces / subrepresentations are just submodules
or are you aiming at something different
idk any representation theory but yea I think that feels right
I think you should look more closely
tried it again is it correct?
a few things...
where you do (=>)
This means you're assuming the thing on the left and you're going to prove the thing on the right. So you know I is not R, hence it doesn't make sense to start with "Assume I = R"
But i think you meant <= here. so that's okay
where you actually say <=, i don't understand how union got in the picture to begin with. And R^* contains 1 and I contains 0, so assuming their union is empty is just wrong... how does that prove anything?
i was trying to do proof by contradiction
assuming the left is false
and attempt to do that with each side
the left thing is false when I = R
but when you're doing => then to do a proof by contradiction you'll assume the thing on the right is false and try to see where things go wrong
would this be the correct way to start?
yea makes sense
but that implication is always true, the right contains 0 whether or not I=R.
o
so is there no point in trying to prove that impliction then if it's always true
because i'm trying to prove by contradiction
you need to show intersection is empty in this case!!!
im trying to show that if N is the nilradical then A/N absolutely flat implies that every prime ideal of A is maximal
i know already that A is absolutely flat iff A_m is a field for all maximal m
so if i take a prime ideal p of A then i can pass to A/N and then (A/N)_m (or the image of m in the quotient whatever) and p is a prime ideal in (A/N)_m which is a field so p = (0) in (A/N)_m
so then for x in p it passes to x + N
and then ux + N = 0 for some u not in m, right?
i.e ux nilpotent
im not really sure where to go from here
maybe im going about this all wrong xd
i believe fastest way is show that spec A is hausdorff
The part about the nilradical is irrelevant, since the primes of A are the primes of A/N
yea
So with that reduction in mind, I will just show that in an absolutely flat ring A every nonzero prime ideal is maximal. Since a quotient of an absolutely flat ring is again absolutely flat, we may reduce the problem to showing that A/P is a field for every prime ideal P. The claim is that any absolutely flat ring which is an integral domain is automatically a field.
@maiden ocean Do you think you can proceed with that or do you want more hints?
sounds like the full solution already ngl
I mean, you have to prove that ID + absolutely flat gives a field
Hahaha
But maybe they have that as a known theorem or something
i believe it was one of AM's exercises lul
Does anyone have a good textbook recommendation for Hopf Algebras?
I think âG is a good one
?
Lol thanks I guess
If anyone has any actual recommendations that would be cool
I'm finding Sweedler a bit hard to read
its not, though local + absolutely flat -> field was 
i think this makes sense though I also have to show that the quotient of an absolutely flat ring is absolutely flat :p
but that seems not that hard by using the principal ideals are idempotent characterization
i think can directly show spectrum is hausdorff?
i could but the exercise is to show that 4 things are equivalent including that haha
actually you can just localize everywhere and done
oh i got it 
nisu
i am absolutely flat too
Given a finite field extension E/F such that E is the splitting field of some subset S of F[x]
how do i prove that E is also the splitting field of a finite subset of S
if E = F then you can take the subset to be empty
Else pick a polynomial f1 in S and its splitting field E1. if E1 = E then the subset is {f1}, else
pick a polynomial f2 in S that doesnt' factor over E1, say E2 is the splitting field over E1, if E2 = E, then {f1,f2} does the job else
....
this has to end as the degree [En:F] keeps increasing
Wtf is absolutely flat
every module over it is flat
Weird
no u
Fuck you
@mods please ban immediately
What is the rank of a Lie Algebra?
samengl
hi
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Von_Neumann_regular_ring this apparently
In mathematics, a von Neumann regular ring is a ring R (associative, with 1, not necessarily commutative) such that for every element a in R there exists an x in R with a = axa. One may think of x as a "weak inverse" of the element a; in general x is not uniquely determined by a. Von Neumann regular rings are also called absolutely flat rings, ...
woah that's cool
is this true?:
If G is a group, A is a normal, abelian subgroup of G, then for all a in A and g,h in G, gag^-1 = hah^-1
it's trivially true for g,h in A
ye
I'll see if I can prove it for all in G
I don't think it's true
pls thank you so much
it isnt true
me neither
I'm leaning towards it not being true as well
surely it doesn'
yup that's exactly what I was about to say
S_2 in S_3
wait S_2 isn't normal in S_3
epic fail
<(1 2 3)> is
true
okay so then why does my professor tell me that this action is independent of choice of g bar?
<(1 2 3)> is isomorphic to C3 no?
<(1 2 3)> isn't normal either lmao
I think the only normal subgroup has to be A3
lemme double check I'm rubbish at permutation mulitplicaiton
you don't have to check anything
it's very obviously normal
it's characteristic even
it's also of index 2, another reason it's normal
it's one of the most obviously normal subgroups of all time
wait hold on lemme check tho
okay yes itâs definitely normal and abelian but can u guys thing of a g and h in S3 for a counterexample?
identity and (1,2) works
as the other one
okay so then what the fuck my prof talking about
better ask your prof
like am i missing something?
I see the word homology and I pipi my pampers bro
well he's said it's ga = gag^{-1}
why is anarchy chess leaking into this server
yeah I know lol
somehow that and A being abelian concludes that g âą a is independent of choice of g bar
and i have no idea why
hold on g bar is in E not G
correct
spooky
danmarino900
i believe he means the image of a in E
yeah under the module structure he's defined
but i just donât understand why the independence
wait so the mapping from A to E is injective and E is the image A under this mapping correct?
If A was in the center of E it would make sense
no
A->E is not surjective itâs injective
all good ty for trying
any two representatives differ by an element of A. A is abelian.
? i donât understand
assume g and g' in E represent the same element in G (i.e. map to the same element in G)
then g^{-1}g' is in A
ye
so g' = ga for some a in A
wait no
?
howâd you arrive at that conclusion
oh you mean itâs in im(A->E)
sure
okay gotcha iâm with you now
yes
for any x in im(A ---> E)
alright i think i see it
g' x g'^{-1} = ga x (ga)^{-1} = ga x a^{-1}g^{-1} = g aa^{-1}x g^{-1} = gag^{-1}
gotcha. okay thank you so much!
p(g^{-1}gâ)=1 is what my brain was missing lol
p:E->G btw
right
a possibly simpler way to put it is
E acts on A by conjugation (as A is normal)
the restriction of the action to A is trivial (as A is abelian)
so the action factors through E/A (which is G)
ugh
the term âfactors throughâ reduces a year off my lifespan whenever i hear it
đ
so itâs like the elements of the fiber of any g (which kind of represent the same element in E/A) in G acting on any a in A coincide
itâs kind of like an action of E/A on A thatâs well-defined since the sequence is exact
right?
and a quotient by a normal abelian subgroup is special since that allows you to âfactorâ the action of E on A to E/A on A?
no
the reason why it factors through A is because A acts trivially on A
because it is abelian
are you saying this?: an action E on A factors to E/A on A if and only if the action of E on A, restricted to A on A, is trivial
oh shit
I thought it was when I saw E/A = G
this is also the first isomorphism theorem but not what I meant
hey I'll take that as a win considering how bad I am at sequence stuff
you have a map E ---> S_{A} given by the action
A \subset Kernel of the map
so the map factors through E/A
okay, it's not quite the first isomorphism theorem
but this is how you map out of quotients
alright lol that makes sense though
we just so happen to have this because the action of E on A in this case is conjugation and A is abelian and normal
yes
Its true that a polynomial in a finite field of char p splits in a splitting field of x^{p^k} - x for some k, right?
I have a theorem that says that if F/K is a splitting field of a polynomial of degree n then [F:K] <= n! and another theorem that says F is a field with p^n elements iff it is the splitting field of x^{p^k}-x for some k.
Combining these, if you were to take the splitting field of an arbitrary polynomial f of degree n in a finite field, then its splitting field is finite by the first theorem i listed, and therefore has a power of p elements. Then the second theorem shows that the splitting field must also be a splitting field of x^{p^k}-1 for some k
@thorn delta that's right
Extensions of finite fields are unique -- For each prime p and each positive integer k, there is a unique field of order p^k
and it's the one you described: The splitting field over F_p of x^{p^k} - x
nice, thanks!
Is there something an ideal can't be? Or can it be any subset within a ring?
erm... not every subset of a ring is an ideal, if that's what you mean
Why not? As long as we can "describe" it?
,w ideal of a ring


i think you know, an ideal is a subset of a ring that is closed under addition and "absorbs" multiplication, in the sense if r is an element of R and i is an element of I, then r*i is in I
and is non-empty
im reading this on wikipedia. How does an automorphism in Gal(Q(sqrt a)/Q) induce an automorphism in Gal(C/Q)?
i mean, I have only seen extensions up to a splitting field. I'm not quite sure how to go about some even larger extension
maybe every automorphism of Q(sqrt(a))/Q can be extended to C/Q by zorn's lemma?
this feels kind of weird though, i feel like there should be an automorphism that extends in a natural way, like fix as many elements as possible
i dont think so cuz needs axiom of choice to show theres automorpisms of C other than conjugation
ah hm
interesting
possibly a dumb question, but how does this part work that I've underlined?
That's because C/Q(T) is algebraic and C is algebraically closed, so by definition C is the algebraic closure of Q(T)
if F/k is algebraic and you have a map k --> L with L algebraically closed, then you can extend this map with zorn to F --> L
Since you have the map
Q(T) --> Q(T) --> C
You can extend it to
C --> C
oh yeah... đ€Šââïž
This had to be an isomorphism else you get a non trivial algebraic extension of C
Wild Automorphisms are Wild.
-- Yui Hirasawa :p
yui hirasawa?
thinking about it we can have an an automorphism of C that fixes the algebraic closure of Q other than the identity
yui chan 
Was she not on season 2 and 3?
Sad


is a submodule just a subgroup of a module?
and closed under multiplication by elements of the ring
aah
I believe all you have to check is that a subset is nonempty and x - r y is in the subset for every x,y in the subset and any r in the ring
I could watch this gif a whole hour 

noooooooooooo
How many non-abelian groups are there of order $900=2^{2}\cdot3^{2}\cdot5^{2}$?
Bannanachair Monarch
Idk, probably like at least 3
(what will you do with that information lol?)
I don't know, I was just bored and thought of the problem and couldn't figure it out
I'm wondering if it's a known result or if it's actually really hard
fun fact:
for any n <= 63, there is less than 50 non abelians group of order n (at most 15 except for 2 numbers that I forgot)
and then, for n = 64, there is exactly 256 non abelian groups
Prime numbers have no nonabelian groups, as do squares of primes. If p is prime, there is exactly one of order 2p, which is the dihedral group.
n=64 is just an absolutely bonkers case from what I've heard.
t
so
i dont know why p(theta) = 0 ?
like
whats the point of using theta like this
probably helps to see an example like p(x)=x^2+1 is pretty popular with p(theta)=0
then you can represent complex numbers as a+b*theta
how is theta chosen?
so suppose the generating elements are like, a, b, c
then you just get all elements of the form (a^m)(b^n)(a^p)(c^q)...
and collapse them in accordance with the relations
sure
sometimes it's quite difficult to tell if you've found them all
do you have a specific problem or
hmmm
i wonder if you can collapse this somehow
zx = xyz = xzy = yxy, nothing suggests itself
oh, yes
i mean if they're all distinct then it's really nice
and if they're not then it's still easier
so that's basically says that all you ever need is (x^i)(y^j)(z^k)
there's no need for nonsense like xyzyzyzyzxyzxyzxyzy that can't be collapsed
With a group that small itâs probably feasible to write out the Cayley table
i think i'd just do it the straightforward way in this case
just write out all the (x^i)(y^j)(z^k) and multiply it by itself and twiddle it down with the relations
hmmm
cayley table might not be such a bad idea
eh, no, still overkill
well maybe
that looks about right
That looks right to me
no
just need to find the thing for all of them
tf
i count 12
in that set you gave
it might be, but it's not necessarily
for example in dihedral of the triangle thingy you have r^3 = s^2 = 1 with rs = sr^-1; then (rs)(rs) = (rs)(sr^-1) = 1, so order of rs is 2
in fact it's a reflection
Yeah thats an example of a relation that causes a collapse
you would need quite a convenient group for the hcf to do the thing, i mean the lcd would work for (finite) abelian groups i think? am i smart
For order of the elements?
this
i think it would have to be, what
just (Z_n)^m or something
ok i am just wildly conjecturing
whatever
No that sounds right to me
Sounds being the operative word lol Iâll have to think about it more
Itâs def true for cyclic groups
yeah the non-cyclic groups are the hard bit lol
maybe there is a shortcut i completely missed
like you noticed you can write every element in the form x^i y^j z^k
so there are at most 12 elements in the group. Lets consider the case when all these are different, so we have a group of order 12.
zx=xyz is same as saying [x', z] = y which means this group isn't abelian. now y and z commute so {1, y, z, yz} is a subgroup of order 4, since x'yx = z this subgroup is normal but not contained in the center.
if you recall there are only 3 non abelian groups of order 12, the dicyclic, dihedral and alternating. dicyclic doesn't have a normal subgruop of order 4, and in dihedral that subgroup is the center.
so if these elements were distinct, then the group would be A4. So it suffices to show that A4 admits that presentation.
if not, the group is smaller and we need to look further.
yep
no
if there's Cn there's something with order n i believe
lol, proof by knowing all the small groups
bloody hell
if you find elements x, y, z in A4 satisfying those conditions then you'd directly prove the isomorphism (so forget how you got the idea to look at A4 đ )
word problems are hard
A4 doesn't have any subgroup of order 6
probably not
yeah
looking at the presentation it just doesn't feel like there's a subgroup with either only x, y or x, z
i'm not sure what this has to do with anything, just because 6 divides 12 doesn't mean it's in there
sage: A
Alternating group of order 4!/2 as a permutation group
sage: (x, y, z)
((1,2,3), (1,2)(3,4), (1,4)(2,3))
sage: (y*x, x*z)
((1,3,4), (1,3,4))
sage: (z*x, x*y*z)
((1,4,2), (1,4,2))
sage: (y*z, z*y)
((1,3)(2,4), (1,3)(2,4))
so the proof now is very simple
G = <x,y,z | x^3=y^2=z^2=e, yx=xz, zx=xyz, yz=zy>
since x, y, z satisfy the relations, we get a group hom
G --> A4 which is surjective
but like we argued |G| <= 12
this means G must be iso to A4

@strong valve stop me from being here
I am going to write to modmail
if A is an integral domain and K is its field of fractions i want to show that K is the direct limit of the submodules Ax for x in K. id appreciate a hint about what directed set is supposed to be indexing the Ax 
AMs defn of direct limit would require homomorphisms from every Ax to Ay with Ax < Ay as well
so i cant just use like, Ax -> Ax^2 by sending x to x^2 or whatever
and i return
since no one else pointed it out
it's only isomorphic to A4
it has non-trivial subgroups C2, C3, C2xC2
but it's not isomorphic to them
isomorphic means that they are essentially the same group
among other things, they have to be the same size
but C2 is gonna be smaller than the group
yes
erm
there just isn't
it's like, why would there be
well in D3 or D6 or whatever there's also three elements with order 2
so firstly why S3 specifically
and secondly just because those elements exist doesn't mean they make a subgroup
because it's just like
i mean if you take all the elements of order 2 in Sn generally, they generate the entire group
so it's wildly inconsistent
idk, it just isn't a thing
there's no reason why it should be true? idk
$x^3 +3x + 3$ is irreducible over Q and u is a root
Yes
how do i find u's inverse?
u^3+3u+3 = 0
i tried some euclidean domain properties
multiply by u^-1
đ
.
study complex ana
for me too
nvm im a brainlet just order by inclusion lmao
this is basically just saying that K is the union of submodules of that form
For "is the direct limit of sub things..."
you're looking basically at union
so the directed-ness of it will come from subset inclusion, you look at the system of
Ax < Ay (so Ax -> Ay via inclusion when Ax < Ay as sets)
Note: This could be wrong since i haven't done this exact problem but this is my chmonkeytuition
I think this is directed because if you write x = a/b, y = c/d, then I think both Ax and Ay are contained in e.g. A(1/bd) because x and y are in there
Does anyone know where I can find this book?
It's not on libgen
There are notes of the lectures the book is based off of, but they are not easy to read through
the ams bookstore 
you have n+1 elements and the degree of your extension is n
so they have to be dependent
Does anyone know if (x+1)^6 is considered reducible over Z_7
I would think it is because it's already given as a product of nonzero polynomials , but I don't know if the fact that it is factored already matters
yeah think so
Yeah it's reducible
I'm trying to show that a monic polynomial P is irreducible in Q, but all I'm given is that P(-1)=7 and the reduction of P mod 7 is (x+1)^6
I think the problem is set up so that I should be able to use the modular irreducibility test but (x+1)^6 is not irreducible mod 7
So that doesn't really work
Now I'm thinking maybe I can use the fact that the roots of the polynomial in Z[x] must be divisors of 8 or any multiple of 8, but that doesn't seem too helpful as I'm not even given P, only the reduction of it
do you know eisenstein's criterion?
Yeah
and have you seen how sometimes its convenient to apply it to shifts?
take f(x) = P(x-1)
so we know f(x) = x^6 (mod 7)
and constant term = f(0) = P(-1) = 7
what do these 2 conditions say about coefficients of f?
The leading coefficient is 1 and constant coefficient is 7?
leading could also be something like 8 right
but when you reduce mod 7, it becomes 1
oh nvm, we're given its monic
nope degree of left is 7 right is 6. they can't be equal.
That's what I thought you wrote
f(x)=p(x-1) and f(x)=x^6
Sorry if I'm being really dumb
i wrote f(x) = x^6 (mod 7)
But the thing that is giving me trouble is we don't know what p(x) is only it's reduction
that the condition we're given. p(x) reduces to (x+1)^6 and so p(x-1) reduces to ((x-1)+1)^6
oh lol
So eisenstein says that if x^6 is irreducible then out original is too?
x^6 isn't irreducible đ¶
Yeah I know
so this is right, what about the other coefficients?
They must also be multiples of 7
yep!
So I guess p=7 satisfies eisenstein
yeo!
the proof is pretty elementary say you have an integer polynomial f and a prime p such that p doesn't divide the leading term, but divides all other terms. hence f = a*x^n (mod p)
lastly we're given that p^2 doesn't divide the constant term. in this case we could conclude the irreducibility.
because if f= g*h is a non-trivial way to factor, then going modulo p, we get a non-trivial factorization of ax^n, so looks like bx^s * cx^t
this is non-trivial so s,t >= 1
but this says that constant term of g and of h are both divisible by p, so constant term of g*h is divisible by p^2. this is a contradiction
Ooh that makes sense
Wow what an awesome use of eisenstein
I think my prof was trying to jebait us into using the modular irreducibility
I think i got it now, thanks for the help
I guess I'll go rigorize this now
my dream is to one day have a question be answered by det so in the end they put that eevee emoji
give det the eevee role
do we already have such a role, other than the one SashaMomo has?
Yea,That role
Godel
could someone help me finish out a proof?
i have a test in like 20 minutes and i need to get this done before then, the pace of the questions chat is just too slow rn
here is the question at hand
here is my work so far
looks fine so far I guess
yeah then from property (ii) we have J=I or J=R
we can break into cases there
and note if J=R then 1_R in J
and we know that I is a subset of J how?
okay forget it I'll just skip over that part
yeah J=(a)+I
how does this make a field?
we need to find inverses
if J=R which is the typical case, then we know that 1 is in (a)+I
so 1=ra+i for some r and i
then r is the inverse
okay good enough
i have another question but I'll have to come back later because i have a test
i still don't really understand but i don't have time to understand
What are the prerequisites for learning about linear algebraic groups? I've done a course in classical Algebraic Geometry and in finite dimensional Representation Theory, is that enough?
I don't really know anything about Lie Groups or Algebras beyond the definitions
linear groups are just matrix groups right?
*groups that are isomorphic to matrix groups
I believe they also carry the additonal structure of being Zariski closed subgroups
(over the real or complex numbers anyway, which is what I'm interested in)
could've sworn all you needed was a homomorphism from the group to GLn
either way I think you'll be fine but reading up more on lie groups won't hurt
I think you also need that the subgroup of n x n matrices of GLn is defined by polynomial equations
I'm not an expert though obviously, so you might be right
I'm not an expert either so you might also be right lmao
lol, fair enough
yo I'm trying to find the smallest field L such that Q(3^(1/3)) \subset L and L is normal over Q. So that field is going to be Q(3^(1/3), epsilon_3) where epsilon_3 is a complex root of unity of order 3, since it's a splitting field for x^3 -3. Is there anything more to say here though, should I argue more why this is the solution?
That seems intuitively obvious but I'm just asking how to make it more rigorous I guess
Iâm currently using Humphreyâs book. I think those are roughly all you need, combined with some time, and willingness to look up some results
Just a word of warning, if you use Humphreyâs book just know that thereâs some results he will just state, but not prove.
An example is that a constructive set H contains a set U which is open and dense in the closure of H. I ended up looking at Borelâs book which had a proof
Thereâs 3 books just called âLinear Algebraic Groupsâ which are the standard text, by Humphreys, Springer (an author named Springe, not the company), and Borel
Iâd just pick one to use as a main text, but look at the others as you need
i am back
Let R be an integral domain
Show that R is a field IFF every ideal of R[x] is a principal ideal
and here's what i have thus far
does this seem like shit
Why do you need to assume R[x]/(x) is iso to R, it simply is
idk he wrote it down in hints and we technically haven't proven it in class yet
you need to know the fact that finite normal extensions are precisely splitting field of some polynomial. if L is a normal extension then the irreducible polynomial x^3-3 should factor, so Q(crbt(3), omega) is contained in L. But as Q(crbt(3), omega) is a splitting field, its normal, but as L was the smallest normal extension with crbt(3) you get L containted in Q(crbt(3), omega).
Hence L = Q(crbt(3), omega)
You'd have to show that splitting field extensions are normal, depending on your definition of normal and what you are allowed to assume
đ€
yeah we showed that no0rmal iff its a splitting field
đ€
Itâs really simple, just take the map R[x] -> R given by sending x to 0, and sending the constants to themselves, and that proves it
Cool then you're done
okay there you go then
it doesn't matter much anyway, since the question doesn't really ask about that
I mean if youâre going to use that result, it does
Or the map R[x]/(x) -> R
Where r+(x) -> r
thanks, needed confidence cause Im not sure about anything nowadays
You canât just assume something unless youâre doing contradiction
Anyway, itâs unclear what the second part of your proof seeks to do
I dare you homie you react with the mfkin apple one more time
Then donât write assume I guess, just say âas...â

"You may assume this result"
Anyway, I still donât see what the latter part means
I'm just peeling it directly from the assignment
Cool thanks a lot!
idk I'm just trying to follow the hints


