#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 567 of 407
like U8 = {1, 3, 5, 7} and has subgroups {1, 3}; {1, 5}; {1,7} each pair intersect trivially, but clearly U8 doesn't have order 8
yea
this is the same example but ig written out completely
yea
but will G = its sylow groups multiplied?
if we're assuming the sylow groups commute with each other then yep
why?
that's one hypothesis here
i mean
how do you know that G = sylow groups multipled given that they are normal & commute
isn't this was the theorem says?
its an assumption
like if G = sylow groups multiplied then G is isomorphic to direct product
for that we still have that H_1 ... H_n isomorphic to H_1 x ... x H_n
cardinality of right right is |G|
hence the subgroup H1... Hn = G
did i get what you're asking right?
maybe i can rephrase myself
so if we want to use this
We need the subgroups to commute, intersect with identity only and G = groups multiplied
then we have result
but my confusion is
how can we be sure that G = subgroups multiplied
in this case, G's sylow subgroups
yea so for this instead of applying the theorem on G, apply it on the subgroup H = H1...Hn
now the property H = H1...Hn is trivially satisfied by definition
ok
so we get |H| = |H1|*...*|Hn| = |G|
since |H_i| = p_i^a_i and |G| = prod of p_i^a_i
right
this actually forces H = G
since H is a subgroup with same size as G
ie G = H1...Hn =~ H1 x ... x Hn

another Q :D
if |G| = 36 then G is not simple
number of sylow 2 is {1,3,9} and no of sylow 3 is {1,4}
if we say no of sylow 3 is 4
let S = sylow 3 groups
Let G act on S
Consider the corresponding permuation representation
See that its not injective
so kernal isnt just 1
does this work?
sure
yea it works, but you need to say why the kernel isn't all of G, that's because by sylow 2nd, any two elements of S are conjugates. Hence the action is not trivial.


Btw earlier there was a discussion about whether group of order of 48 is simple.Has it been solved yet?
I see
yup xD
I proved directly by showing that there exists two subgroups of order 3 that has the same normalizer therefore impossible though.
If it’s simple then by direct calculation we have that there are 3 Sylow-2 groups and 4 sylow-3 groups therefore there must be at least two sylow-3 groups that have the same normalizer
wait
Yes since all sylow-3 groups are conjugate to each other therefore impossible to have the same normalizer
how did you conclude that at least 2 sylow 3 groups have the same normalizer?
Their normalizers are of order 16 therefore sylow-2 groups
Oh I made a mistake their normalizers are of order 12😂😂 then forget it
with 2nd sylow theorem
Index of N_G(H) equals to the number of subgroups conjugate to H
whats a G-set lol
Yes but I guess it’s a dead end
it does
remain innocent
Yes it has quite good properties like pullback kind of stuffs exist
im gonna act like i understood what you said :D
And any G set is isomorphic to a disjoint union of sets of the form of cosets G/H
my school doesnt have a class about category i dont think
My school doesn’t even teach algebra...😂
this isnt undergrad stuff right.... ? categories
lol
categories is high school stuff
my highschool was emmmm calculus
categories aren't useful unless you use it
it's pretty redundant to learn it early on
such a non trivial statement
applied category theory is a meme i think
i don't think they've gotten any new result
the only time i open text in category theory
is when i realize i need it

urs moment

I think that theoretical physics almost is pure mathematics like I didn’t know that things like stability conditions of triangulated categories have physical backgrounds
No, not just physical background I think it is only useful in the field of physics.
I know a mathematics classmate who is studying stability conditions and he has no idea what it does since he doesn’t learn physics nor do I
i did a physics class and hated it
I don’t want to learn physics either I just want to know something about Noether theorem like how to prove it someday then don’t touch physics again.
I searched it on wiki and the “ mathematical expression “ of it doesn’t look like mathematics 😂😂
Yeah... I hope that there are some ways to learn mathematics extracted from physics but without learning physics for real.
i need to study for exams :3
noether is pretty neat
you can somewhat fuzz the proof if you blackbox all the variational calc stuff and pretend it works
which i dont actually know why it works yet
to get a hint of the underlying geom of noether, look at: https://www.math.columbia.edu/~woit/wordpress/?p=7146
and by hint, i mean "thats all there is"
do you have any reference that show how triangulated categories are related to physics ? This surprised me
good evening guys
anyone here who wanna talk about ZFC and how it's related to Zorn's lemma?
wrong channel bub
#foundations probably
mirror symmetry?
but really its about dg cats
mirror symmetry ? wtf
I don't see the link between symmetry and triangulated categories x)
hi
im having smal abmout of trouble interpreting a question
this is the context
When it says f(x) has a factor the square of some irreducible polynomial in f. Does it mean
For f(x) = (x-a_1)(x-a_2)...(x-a_n) where a_i are in K, one of the (x-a_i) is equal to some x^2-b in F[x] with b in F?
or like
one of the (x-a_i)^2 is an irreducible in F[x]?
Im thinking the last one.
Because it says: f(x) has as a factor, meaning one of the (x-a_i), the square of some irreducible polynomial in F[x], p(x) in F[x] irreducible such that (x-a_i)^2 = p(x)?
ok
so not one of the linear factors, but one of factors in general
well wait
it says f(x) is composed of linear factors in F[x]
K[x]*
i cant find this from googling for 10 seconds so i will ask here does anyone (maybe @latent anvil) know what the locally finite condition means in the context of a hopf algebra?
Graded hopf algebra if it matters
if it's all linear factors it's immediate
ooft
yesh
ok so ig thats it for one side of the iff
the => way might be a little different
wait no
if its 0 that means one of the factors appears twice 🤩
ok
ig it wasnt that hard
ty 🙂
roots* instead of factors
nvm sham i figured it out
but now f may not be a product of linear factors
wot
no i think it is defined as such miss ariana
in the hypothesis it is defined as being that way in K[x]
or am i missing smol detaille
it factors in K[x] but it doesnt may not in F[x]
ah
it does ask about that.
it still seems somewhat doable
if two of the linear factors in K[x] are the same
hmm
is the factor squared in F[x] instead of K[x] 🤔
can't know i assume
but the linear factors may not be in F[x]
but if we assume like you said f(x)=h(x)g(x)^2 in F[x]
btw
quick question
how do u know determinant so quickly
oh
reapeated roots
?
ya
but x+i isnt in Q[x]
but x+i isnt in F[x]
but i was falsely thinking that since we know it appears twice , (x+a_i)^2 MIGHT BE IN Q[X]
BUT THAT ISNT NECESSARILY TRUE
caps

i think you gave me a really clean lead 🙂
with the f(x)=h(x)g(x)^2
but then again
g(x) in K[x] might not have g(x)^2 in F[x]
but my goal ig is to show that f(x)=h(x)g(x)^2 using the fact that it has repeated roots in K[x]
yesh
hmm
so like
we know for a_i in K f(x)=(x-a_1)...(x-a_i)...(x-a_n)
or since del f(x) = 0 => f(x)=(x-a_1)...(x-a_i)^2 ...(x-a_n)
maybe a better place to look at things is consider the ||gcd|| as well as the ||derivative||
wanting to go some stupid cheaty way, I would decide to regroup f(x)=h(x)g(x)^2 with h(x)=(x-a_1)...(excluding x-a_i^2)(x-a_n)
ok
so
i def wont look at those spoilers
but
tell me if it has to do with galois groups
nop
ok
nothing too fancy is really needed
it's just kinda hard to motivate
(at least the solution im thinking off)
kool :D
ok
so
we also know f(x) is monic
but like
idk if that helps tbh
prolly not
oo
maybe something to do with basis of splitting field
it's a field so monic doesnt rlly matter
or degree
hmm
they do mention degree of polynomial
and the extension K is of degree n
so like
K:F = n
but no intermediate fields
unless i decide to take some L as the splitting field of (x-a_i)^2 over F
wait nvm
it cant be a splitting field
im pretty sure
its either in K or in F
ok ariana I have another idea of thinking about K as a F linear basis
we know basis of K is {1,a_i,a_i^2,...,a_i^(n-1)}
and f(x) is composed of a product of (x-a_i^k) for k<n
if we know one of these factors is repeated then (x-a_p)^2 with p being one of the a_i^k ends up turning into another a_i^q?
i cant phrase it that well but im pretty much trying to say that knowing that one of the roots is repeated and is in K means that it gets moved to another basis because it gets squared
nvm im thinking its simpliler than this
bruh
is K just F adjoined some elements in K because K is splitting field over F
so like
K = F(a_1,a_2,...a_n)
and each of these elements can be represented by irreducible monic polynomials in F
quite tricky to think along these lines
i might look at ur hints because even thinking along these lines is gonna lead me to dead end it feels
i was thinking that since one of the a_i is repeated in f(x)
either a_i becomes one of the other a_k or it goes into F
but if it goes into a_k that means something
can't really think what though
oh it isnt irreducible
well wait nvm
its (x-a_i)^2 not x-a_i
yeah wait
if (x-a_i)^2 = (x-a_k) that tells us something but isnt clear to me atm
(x-?)^2 = x^2 -?
yesh
im not rlly sure how this would work out :p
and i would say that (x-?)^2 = x^2-?(depends on characteristic of field)?
but the x^2 part would still undoubtly be there
it should also stay irreducible in F[x] though, retracting this statement
x-? isnt in F[x]
so x^2-? might not be
ok 15 minutes and ill look at hint
ok
so
going along with the line of reasoning that (x_a_i)^2 = x-a_k for some k<n, this implies that (x-a_k)^2 = x-a_l for some l <n
this would keep repeating though
but it has to terminate somewhere qq
(x-a_i)^2 is quadratic in x
yes
it doesnt make sense to say it is x-a_k
no i mean like
it might be the root of the irreduicible polynomial of a_k
so like
irr(F,a_i)^2 = irr(F,a_k)
ok not necessarily
ig my wonder is
(x-a_i)^2 cant really be in K[x]
or nvm
it has to be
but i mean like
(x-a_i)^2 might be an irreducible in F[x]
or it has to be
yea that makes sense
as a counter example
ig the differnece here
is that
well not really
i was thinking we can take an irr(Q,isqrt2) as an example
and the splitting field would be F(sqrt2,i)
what is irr
irreducible polynomial in Q that has root isqrt2
ok so x^2+2
if you jus sprinkle in a bit of galois in it it would work
which part though, degree of extensions?
the gap is that all your galois conjugates must appear as roots
so you take a product of Π_σ (x-σa_i) and that gives you a polynomial in F(x)
where σ goes over the embeddings of F(a_i) to some algebraic closure
ok i forget what embeddings are
but it isnt really a trivial thing to work out
(intuitively the different roots of the minimal polynomial of a_i)
so in this case the reason we have a repeated factor is because every element in this product is a repeated factor of f(x) in K(x)
this would be a more galois theory based approach
soo essentially it takes a product over all the F-embeddings from F(a_i) to K
the rough idea is
minimal polynomial of a_i must divide into f(x)
it is right?
maybe lemme go back a few steps
so the main idea in this is
if we have some polynomial f(x) in F(x)
and it's splitting field is K
then if a_i is a root of f(x) in K
ok
then the min poly of a_i must divide f(x) in F(x)
theres a significantly more elementary method tho🙃
seperable?
divides cuz minimal polynomial magic
(essentially if it doesnt, then you can argue by bezout that funny things will happen)
so if a is your min poly and b is f, some linear combination of them gives 1 but a_i is still a root to both of them
so a_i is a root to 1
which is very illogical
slight hint for a much easier solution is to use this bezout/gcd thing to your advantage
yea essentially we have a super nice property that if f(a_i)=0 and g(x) is the minpoly of a_i, then g(x) actually divides into f(x)
yup
(minpoly of a_i)
and your min poly is in F(x)
alright
but this is independent of repeated facotrs
oh wait
using the fact that del F = 0
we have that min a_i ^2 is also in F[x]
ooookk
so if min a_i divides f(x) once, and (x-a_i)^2 is a factor of f(x) in K[x]
the reason we can actually say this is due to the separable part
separability ensures your minimal polynomial has no repeated roots
minpoly can have any degree
of a_i
(actually it isnt thats why i needed to edit haha)
I think -1 is in Q
or something
x^3+1 and x^3-1 has roots -1 and 1 respectively
generally this argument is kinda long and meh, a bunch nicer way is to look at the ||derivative||
what did earlier spoilers say
wait hold up
so we have that K = F(a_1,a_2,...,a_n)
and seperable means that derivative of min a_i is not 0
right?
yea
how tf this translate to no repeated roots?
ok
brb
using intuition
so like
gcd = 0 iff f'(x) = 0
?
wtf
gcd is greatest common divisor
how tf one of them 0
oops gcd is not 1*
0 can occur for finite characteristic - this can actually detect multiple roots for nonseparable case
yesh
so x^2 is seperable
wait what
ik there are seperable polynomials
but if we are reffering to field extensions
separability is a thing about field extensions
in general case we have
gcd(f(x),f'(x)) is not 1 <-> f has a repeated root in splitting field
Separability is also a thing about polynomials
its the same concept though?
Yes
ok
so
so is a seperable field extension, a field extension over a seperable polynomial?
or in other words
Idk what a field extension “over” a polynomial means
No
(splitting field)
that isnt quite the definition of separable field extension tho
Yeah so if you do that process to a a separable poly you get a separable extrensiob
separable extension demands min poly of every element in the field extension to be separable
so if K is the splitting field over a seperable polynomial in F[x] then K is a seperable field extension?
ok
i need to get my language exact
ah ok
so like
since K is seperable in our example we have that gcd(f'(x),f(x)) ~=(not equal) 1
(!= usually not equal in text context)
ok
Sorry idk what “our example” is
um
it isnt 1 because it isnt 1 in K(x)
You can compute the gcd in F(x) and compute it in K(x) and should get the same result if you expand everything
Im confused, K is a separable field extension
yesh
And the polynomial f(x) is also separable
it's as nice as it gets lol
so a rough tldr theres like a few ways you can "detect" repeated roots
discriminant = 0 tells you theres a repeated linear factor in the splitting field
a repeated linear factor tells you gcd(f,f') is not 1
gcd(f,f') is some polynomial in F[x], say p, and p^2 must divide f purely by properties of f' and gcd
Are you sure about that?
What do you think that gcd is
Bruh what lol
x^2-1 you divide by x-1 or x+1
for 2x you only got x and 2
so gcd is 1
ok
so it doesnt have repeated
all of these are iff
wait
we dont need disc = 0 to tell us that gcd(f,f')!=1 since we get that f is seperable
wait
we do actually
seperable means derivative not equal to 0
its a given in the problem though
(we don't actually need separability)
We are given that f is separable
And therefore so is K
All this means is that if f has a double root then each of those roots come from a different irreducible factor
oh ok
seperable doesnt imply no double roots
wait it does though
we just went over this
Separable and irreducible implies no double roots
The whole point is that f(x) in this problem could be the square of some irreducuble poly
separability tells you that your derivative doesnt vanish, this isn't sufficient as you can have finite characteristic
buncho, thats one side of the iff and i understand that part
Ok so actually there seem to be two definitions of separable out there
One of them is “all irred factors have no repeated roots” and the other is “has no repeated roots at all”
I was using the former
Which side are you trying to understand now?
disc = 0 => f(x)=h(x)g(x)^2 for both in F[x]
i think miss ariana has given me the key
even though she gave me nice recap ill try and restate once more
Lets assume that f(x) isnt divisible by minimal polynomial of a_i in F[x].
So f(x) and min(F,a_i) are coprime => f(x) * m+min(F,a_i) * n = 1
but this is a contradiction since a_i is a root of both f(x) and min(F,a_i) which implies 0=1. So, f(x) is divisible by minimal polynomial of a_i in F[x]
Next we have that (x-a_i)^2 is a factor of f(x) in K[x] since Discriminant of f(x) = 0
Sorry, I had office hours
ok
and gcd(f,f')!=1 because Discriminant of f(x) = 0 implies repeated roots
so there is a p(x) that divides both
ok
and if we have p(x)^2
why is it true that 2p(x)p'(x) divides f.
yeah why does p^2(x) divide f
ariana said purely on properties of f' and gcd
sorry i'm not sure why that's relevant here? If disc = 0 then you have a repeated root alpha which has a minimal polynomial p(x). f(x) is divisible by p(x). But. f(x)/p(x) still has alpha as a root, since the multiplicity of alpha as a root of f(x) is at least 2, but the multiplicity of alpha as a root of p(x) is 1. therefore f(x)/p(x) is also divisible by p(x), which you can rewrite as saying that f(x) is divisible by p(x)^2
if you want to go about it your way, suppose that f(x) = p(x)g(x) and f'(x) = p(x)h(x). Differentiating f(x) with the chain rule, we get f'(x) = p'(x)g(x) + p(x)g'(x), which is equal to p(x)h(x). therefore, the whole left hand side p'(x)g(x) + p(x)g'(x) is divisible by p(x). Since the right term is divisible by p(x) this means the left hand term is as well
oh ok
but notice that p(x) and p'(x) have a gcd of 1
so "p(x) divides p'(x)g(x)" implies that p(x) divides g(x)
so back to our original f(x) = p(x)g(x), we see that f(x) is in fact divisible by p(x)^2
yes that is the hypothesis of the problem
p(x) is an irreducible factor of f(x)
and in the problem it says
all irreducible factors of f(x) are separable
hold up
distinct roots implies gcd =1
repeated implies not
ok
seperable implies distinct roots implies gcd=1
ok
you cleared a lot up for me
really appreciate ya
i feel bad though becaause it feels as if ive been given the answer
np and gl 👍
you have to be shown some answers
or else you won't know how to do it at all
if youve never seen a technique before, how are you supposed to know how to use it?
i just showed you a new technique
(related: there are always more problems no matter how many you are walked through)
true
but i just feel guilty whenever i ask for help idk
even if i thought through it a little bit
that's not good
or a lot
there's nothing wrong with asking for help
the way i see it is if i ask for help doesnt that mean im not ready to work on the problem by myself
so i should just relearn previous classes because i am not knowledgeble enough
math is supposed to be hard and if every single problem you do is obvious/easy it means you aren't in the right class
idk what else to say other than i think your attitude about asking for help is wrong
the only way you're going to get better at math
is learning from people who came before you
work on problems with other people
You can also derive the theory yourself I guess
if you do everything in isolation you're only handicapping yourself
yes, and you will take the same length of time it took them to do it originally
i.e. 50+ years
oh i guess thats a perspective i havent really thought of
isnt every undergraduate math class an accumulation of decades of work in a sense?
yes
more than decades lol
just because you learn something in a month doesn't mean it was invented in a month
the theorems you learn were full-on research papers at one point in history
so like you are free to try to rederive everything yourself but don't be surprised when it takes you a decade to learn field theory while it took your peers 2 months
because they asked questions and used the resources available
i didnt suggest googling answers lol
I think it's sort of okay to look up answers as long as you understand why it works, understand why the approach was used (what led the person to try it?) And stuff like that
inah
i like asking ppl
i enjoyed asking here because i am given opportunity to understand answer
id say google overall sucks
but best experience ive had is looking up stack exchange answers for an analysis proof
but all i got were hints
so i followed the hints and arrived at answer myself
i like hints.
Let $E$ a vector space and $ F=Vect(e_1 ,e_2 ,e_3)$ and $ G =Vect(w_1 ,w_2) $two vector sub-spaces of $E$. What is the difference between $F+G$ and $FUG$?
Shura
If I understand correctly e1 + w1 may not be in F \cup G.
You can see it by looking at R^2, taking F = lin(0,1), E = lin(1,0), F \cup G should be OX and OY axis, but there are vectors such as (1,1) in F + G.
I'm afraid I don't get your point
Oh, you are asking how you define those sets?
$F + G := { e + w : e \in F, w \in G }$
Godel
well the two notation left me puzzled
F u G is just a set union. (At least that's how I interpret it)
No, if that's a normal set union.
here is an example, consider E=R^2, and F=the x-axis and G=the y-axis. then the union is just a cross looking shape
Lol, look up 8da. 
ah lol
is there anyone relationship between FuG and F+G
I mean, there are special cases where those are equal.
I assume that FuG C F+G
i guess you can say F+G is generated by FUG, but this is sort of trivial
oh ok
just want a hint
for part b it says show discriminant of f(x) is in F
now tell me if this is right path to think of
i should write out the products and then make a generalized polynomial that satisfies it as a root and show that it is reducible into linear factors in F[x]?
ok
not really sure how to "make a generalized polynomial that satisfies it"
maybe that is possible, although this is not the way i would do it
well, i don't have the details figured out, and maybe what i'm thinking of doesn't even work, but i think one way to do it could be to consider the fact that ||(\delta f)^2 is fixed under all permutations of the roots||
i guess it forfeits the answer if it works, but my algebra is not fresh enough in my head if the details work out
Ill look but before that
would my way really work or is it fallacious
because say you write out a generalized polynomial that satisfies it as a root
the generalized polynomial will be in terms of a_i's which are in K
how would I make any conclusions about its place in F
general speaking ofc
i don't know, eg in the case n=2, we have (\delta f)^2 = alpha1^2 - 2alpha1 alpha2 + alpha2^2. it's not obvious to me how to make a polynomial that has this as a root
but eg (\delta f)^2 is apparently symmetric
this sounds like a good thing
and i'm not exactly sure what it means to find a polynomial that satisfies it and reduce it into linear factors, if we wish to show that (\delta f)^2 is in F, then i think this would mean that the polynomial has to be x - (\delta f)^2
so it is basically equivalent to showing that (\delta f)^2 is in F
wait
idk if del f ^2 expands like that
because we dont know the characteristic
also wdym its apparently symmetric
i'm not sure what you mean, regardless of the characteristic it should. maybe 2alpha1 alpha2 goes to 0 if we are in characteristic 2
you know, (\delta f)^2 is invariant under swapping alpha1 and alpha2
oh ok
i hope i am not taking you down the wrong path, i could be saying irrelevant shit 🙂
the thing is ive heard this
no no
our chapter goes over symmetric functions
i dont actually understand it too well because it wasnt discussed in lecture afaik
like when is a polynomial not symmetric?
arent roots always interchangeable?
yeah, if you have a function in the form (x-r1)...(x-rn), then roots are always interchangeable and the function stays the same. but we are talking about an expression involving r1,...,rn (alpha1,...,alphan).
ok
so when factors are linear roots are always interchangeable
actually i cant think of an example when they arent for polynomials in 1 variable
linear or not shouldn't matter, eg, you can work in a field extension in which the polynomial splits, then swap the roots, then come back to the original field, and it will be again the same
i'm also not even sure what it means to swap roots if we are not already working in a field extension where the roots exist
so is there an example of a polynomial in Q(sqrt2) that isnt symmetric
i'm not sure what you mean
um
Im trying to understand what you mean when you say a polynomial is symmetric by getting an example of when it isnt.
sorry, i just meant like we have (\delta f)^2 which is a formula involving alpha1,...,alphan, and we can take any permutation of these alphas and (\delta f)^2 remains unchanged
is this true though
so if we have (a_1-a_2)(a_2-a_3)(a_3-a_4) and then swap to get (a_1-a_2)(a_2-a_4)(a_4-a_3)
every instance of a_3 becomes a_4 and a_4 becomes a_3
its the same?
you are talking about n=4 case? but (a_1-a_2)(a_2-a_3)(a_3-a_4) is not equal to \delta f
yeah n4 case
\delta f should be (a1-a2)(a1-a3)(a1-a4)(a2-a3)(a2-a4)(a3-a4)
oh
i didnt know thats what it would look like
so it contians every combination of roots
yeah
something like that, whatever it is, just every pair of roots is in there
ok
ill look at your spoiler now
oh you say delf^2 is fixed
thats because f is symmetric you are saying
erm, because delf^2 is symmetric
yea sorry thats what i meant
or whatever the terminology is, i could be goofing it up
have you seen the fundamental theorem of galois theory?
yeah they are a bunch of theorems that relate fields to their galois group which is the group of automorphisms which permute roots of the splitting field
some have to do with degree
i remember the ones dealing with degree mostly
also random question
do we know if our field F is char 0 or not?
or is there no way to tell from our givens
ok
so my textbook is giving big leads
they didnt describe symmetric functions too well
but they brought up a field extension by symmetric functions (tbh best way I can describe it) and one of the galois theorems
not too much context in one picture );
if you are talking about whether K is a separable extension of F in problem 12, then i think this is probably true, since K is the splitting field of f and it says the irreducible factors of f are separable
but as to whether the field F is char 0, i would guess it is possible to construct examples satisfying the givens in problem 12 such that it is not char 0
yeah ig
wait a second
ig the way it wants me to do this is to make an intermediate field, say L, using the symmetric function (being the discriminant) and show that its index compared to base field is 1 or [F:L]=1 using the fact that [K:F] = n.
maybe K:L = n also?
because the way im seeing it is that the discriminant contains every root and every permutation of it
and the galois group of K over F should also contain every permutation of roots
do we know that [K:F]=n?
yea
in the problem we are given that K is a splitting field of F over polynomial f(x) which is of degree n
oh wait
it can be greater than n nvm
*K is splitting field of f(x) over F
Ok, so for example, let's take the left diagram
What happens if you start with an element (g, h) and follow the left path?
umm what is a projection map
You know, like an element (g, h) in GxH maps to g in G, that would be the projection onto the first coordinate (pi_1)
so u wanna see if pi_1 of g = pi_2 of h right
wait no other way around
of g of pi_1 = h of pi_2
Erm, I'm not sure I follow
just for the commutative part
idrk what im doing
lol
so if you put g,h on the left side, what happens?
how does it work for all of H
because you dont know what H is
So I'm saying like, if you start with (g, h), and you go through the first map on the left, you get g, right?
What happens when you go through the second map on the left?
h?
How do you get h? It should be an element of GxH
uhh idrk what im doing
So if you go along the left path, and you start with an element (g, h), it should be like (g, h) -> g -> (g, e)
right so the right path would be (g, h) -> h - >(e,h)
Yeah
which means its not commutative?
Now the question is, does (g, e) always equal (e, h)?
oh
Yeah
so the right diagram
you wanna put in (g,h) again right
left path just gets you (g,h) -> (g,h)
and right path is (g,h) -> (g,e) -> g
There are two paths in the right diagram, G -> G and G -> GxH -> G (both starting and ending at G). So we should start with an element in G, ie just g
Yeah
e is in H
yes, although e is just used to represent the identity of whichever group ur talking about
so for any g in G, g will map to the pair (g,e) where it creates all the elemnts of GxH
right
unless the only member of H is its identity, it wont create all elements of GxH
wait so why isn't the left diagram commutative
because the pairs (g,e) and (e,h) are not always equal
you should be able to see that they are only equal when g=h=e
yea
ok and right side is just g and g are
always equal
yes
ok this makes sense
yup
are projection maps just taking first or second value lol
like a coordinate point
pi_1 = g and pi_2 = h in (g,h)
yes
What happens when an element is invariant under every permutation in the galois group Gal(K/F)? can we say it is in F
last thing, for the one on the right, when g-> (g, e), it doesn't map to all of GxH
right
so does the middle step matter or uhh
do you mean the pi functions
i mean, it wont be a map from GxH to GxH then
ur mapping G to GxH first right
does that matter at all lol
wait does mapping mean that its mapping to codomain or range
right diagram
oh sorry
oh, so you're asking if the first step on the right path is pointless?
because we revert it right after?
idk i was just doing reverse logic to see if the left one could be right because (e,h) and (g,e) are subsets of GxH since GxH are codomain
and for the right diagram, when g -> (g,e), it doesnt map to all of GxH
u still have to think abt the intermediate step to see if it works?i think
wait, why are you concerned about it mapping to all of GxH
idk im just so confused lol
im just trying to help a friend with abs alg but im 15 ;-;
hav u tried getting older
mmm okay, so originally you just wanted to find out which of the two were commutative, right?
ya
which you now understand?
p sure
yea
first diagram maps to two unequal things
second diagram maps to two equal things
therefore proving commutativity
okay yup
if thats a word
tell ur friend to ask here
yes
the pi (projection) map undoes the addition of the "e" component from before
uh
yea
,w commutative diagram
they definitely do matter
uhhh
"but g,e is just a subset of GxH and not all of GxH
how do you know the maps dont have to be onto"
uhh
what is even the issue
i dont see how onto/not onto is leading to the misunderstanding
idk tbh
they dont have to be onto cuz, it doesnt matter? it just has to be a mapping?
why are we talking about onto here? This isn't relevant to why the left diagram doesn't commute
the left diagram doesn't commute simply because you get different answers in general for the two morphisms GxH->GxH in this diagram
,w projection map
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uhh
projection maps are the obvious ones out of products here
first coordinate for pi_1 and second coordinate for pi_2
the projection maps are the ones that project out individual factors of the product
yes
they are the coordinate projections if you will
not quite
I guess in the example you're thinking of with groups
the projection maps from products are a special case of this
but products make sense in many more contexts and projection maps out of projects always make sense whenever products make sense
if you want the reasoning, by rank nullity both rank and nullity are 1, so pick a basis for kernel say {u} and so u will die. extend this to a basis {u, v}. Now we want image to be <u>, easiest thing to do is map v to u.
im still processing all this 😐
oh F i see a [2] at the end... don't say this is from a test >.<
(okie i'll trust you on that)
another way to think this would be to see what is T^2
since image of T = kernel of T, we can say T^2=0
i'll tell you what i was thinking
i read somewhere that any linear transformation from R2 to R2 can be written as (ax+by, cx+dy)
so i was trying to use that information
yea this would do, only thing is that you get 4 variables so gets kinda tedious
writing this in your way, it would be (x,y) --> (y,0)
so first i calculated the null space
oh now i can understand :p
what i said earlier meant (1,0) --> (0,0) and (0,1) --> (1,0)
so basically i gave the matrix for the transform
[0 1]
[0 0]
oh okay okay
this helped!
if you have studied about eigenvalues, you would know that T^2 = 0 reduces the calculations by a lot!
i studied about eigen values but nothing of the sort T^2=0 😐
btw thanks!
that equation just says that both eigenvalues would be 0
(and if you want an overkill for the problem, use the jordan normal form)
okay i'll study that
this is something new too 😥
this is probably the simplest way to reason. do you want me to say more on this?
seems like you would know the words "rank", "nullity" and "basis"
yeah i do
rank + nullity = dim R2 = 2, but the condition says that rank = nullity
yes
so the kernel is 1 dimensional, and hence i can pick a basis for it, say {u}
picking anything in R2 - <u> will be linearly independent to u, so lets pick v
{u,v} then is a basis for R2
and its enough to tell you the image of basis elements to define the linear transformation!
since u was in the kernel, it must go to 0.
but we have the condition that im T = ker T
so v must land inside the kernel, that is a multiple of u
T(u) = 0 and T(v) = c*u
kernel of this map is indeed <u> and if c is not 0, then image is also <u>
i kind of get it now
Why does the conjugacy class of 5 cycles in A5 split and why doesn't this happen to for example the 3 cycles?
Because you can't find a even permutation x such that x(1,2,3,4,5)x^-1=(1,2,3,5,4)
That would imply
(x(1),x(2),x(3),x(4),x(5))=(1,2,3,5,4)
And whatever you choose for x(1),you end up with an odd perm
Yeah that is a great explanation!
For 3 cycles,you can choose a x in such cases such that x is even
Okay, but is there any "criterium" for this?
I think so, in a5 at least
in A4 they split
Okay so let g be a odd permutation and let's look at g(12)(34)g^(-1). Let g'=g(12), which is even. Then g'(12)(34)g'^(-1) = g(12)(34)g^(-1) which shows that the double transpositions do not split. Could you somehow "generalise" this? So for example, let's look at tau (in A5) and it's conjugacy class. If tau consists of disjoint cycles such that they commute with each other, then the conjugacy class don't split. Is this right?
But then the contraposition of this would be "conjugacy class splits => the above does not hold" which is not that interesting since we are looking for criteriums for which it splits and not it's consequences.
Wait, do the composition of transpositions commute if and only if those transpositions are disjoint?
So to show that the 3 cycles, (123), don't split in A5 we could use a similar argument. Let g be odd and let g'=g(45). Then g'(123)g'^(-1) is g(123)g^(-1) so we could always "transform" the odd g to an even permutation. This "trick" and the above do not work for (123) in A4 which shows that they split there (if there are no more "trick" to be used). It seems that the criterium here is that if tau commutes with an odd permutation then the conjugacy class of tau don't split. However, I am not sure.
And in fact, this works! You could prove this using the exact same method as above
