#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 566 of 407
:o
list all groups of order 28
thats what i did lolol
index
|HH’|=|H||H’|/|H\cap H’| and since H and H’ are assumed to be distinct |H\cap H’|=1
So we’re done
how the fact that the subgroup is unique implies the subgroup is normal ?

It’s not
the intersect is a subgroup, which must divide 7
stupid q, why can you say that there are necessarily two subgroups of order 7 tho
(I mean without any Sylow)
You’re assuming there is and then you’re getting a contradiction
yes, sylow p subgroups anyway
yes
Hence it’s unique hence normal (since it must necessarily be closed under conjugation)
oh lol
very sweet
Okay yea this is a nice proof no Sylow

You should still copy the entire proof of Sylow I-III as an embedded lemma in your proof though
lol
Yes, even the proof of Sylow boils down to this 
i still feel like it can be done differently
eh, this is nice
This is a nice enough proof
I don’t see how it can be made much more direct than this
$\varphi : G \rightarrow $ Sym($S$) where S = left cosets of $ \langle a\rangle$ a is of order 7. Its a homomorphism, call the kernal N so $G/N \cong Im \varphi$ i.e N is a divisor of 28 and (28/N) is a divisor of 24.
I got up to here on my own
Is this a dead end?
Yes
from this N is 2 7 or 14 right?
oh using the fact it's characteristic to imply its normal
me neither
Just prove contrapositive
@prisma ibex i didnt understand your argument
so we assume that H and H' dont intersect and of order 7
Mhm
no
No
Yup
which is prime
so well, either the intersection is 7, and then they're not distinct
or the intersection is {1}, which is what we want
and then?
Then you take HH', you have card(HH') = card(H)card(H')/card(H \cap H')
so here card(HH') = 49
yeah
but HH' C G
and card(G) = 28
so absurd
so there is only one subgroup of order 7 in G
how do we know that HH' is a subgroup
it's not
you don't need it to be a subgroup
it's the set of hh' where h in H and h' in H'
hmm
Err sorry
so theres only one subgroup of order 7
Yes
and now you take a f: x |-> gxg^-1 for some g € G
and f(H) is again a subgroup ('cause f is an automorphism) or order 7
so it must be H
so H is closed under conjugation
and so H is normal
5G enthusiast
hmm
Well so I'll say it anyway since I do not care too:
take x € G with ord(x) != 1, then ord(x) | p so ord(x) = p, and then G = <x> so G is cyclic and a cyclic group is abelian

5G enthusiast
Just reprove Sylow at this point
5G enthusiast
Let $p$ be an odd prime. A video I watched claimed that to find an integer $a$ such that $a$ is coprime to $p$ and $a$ is not a square in $\bQ_p$, it suffices to find a nonsquare $a$ modulo $p$ by hensel’s lemma. I feel like this doesn’t need hensel’s lemma at all since if you have a square root in the p adics then you can truncate the digits to get a square root in modulo p
Whoever
you have ti backward
you're trying to find a nonsquare in Q_p
not a nonsquare in F_p
if you want to find a nonsquare in Q_p
it suffices to find a nonsquare in F_p
by hensel
Ah ok
Hi everyone, I would like to get a nice description of the ring $\frac{k[x,y,t]}{(yt-x^2)}$, has anyone some idea?
sirfelipe
hey everyone
I've been confused recently about the notion of vector spaces
is there, by any chance, a vector space E where E is NOT a ring?
Nice, the morphisms is $f(x)=u^2, f(y)=uv$ and $f(z)=v^2$, right?
sirfelipe
if vector space doesn't have cross product? idk
and what if it had cross product?
well there would be an operation of 'multplication' that would map two vectors to another
which is essentially what multiplication is in a ring
another operation that maps two elements to another element
doesnt necessarily have to be a group under multiplication either so
i don't know what the identity is for cross product
what confused me most was
i mean integers mod n are a ring but they aren't a group under multiplication
in general
mm
unless n is prime
its still not very much related to vector spaces
ahhh
how did you get from vector spaces to rings
but what I believe is this vector space( field( ring( group)))
its common to build rings on top of vector spaces but they usually arent rings themselves
am I wrong?
uh
either i misunderstand or that idea is wrong
if you mean "is-a" then no
vector spaces arent fields nor rings
i mean from the groups as we add conditions we reach vector space
you only have an additive group in the vector space
cross product is super useless
its like incredibly specific to one particular vector space
i only thought of cross product because it's the only thing I can think of that maps two vectors to another
the generalization takes more than 2 vectors
chad exterior product vs virgin cross product
cross product is kinda unrelated to the vector space concept in general
this doesn't feel right
probably because it's the other way around
so you guys are saying that E is vector space doesn't imply that (E, +, x) is a ring ?
there is not even a multiplication operation in the first place
it is never a ring
R over R
mmm
the vector space definition does not have a multiplication of vectors
it cant be a ring by its own definitions
its just that some rings happen to be vector spaces too
like fields for example
why are you all mentioning cross product, it's not even associative
oh that makes sense
it was brought up, i replied, who even knows
so a field can be a vector space while vector space is not necessarily a field?
yes
yes
what a heartwarming news
a field over a field over a field
if you really want your rings, you can fix some vector space and consider its endomorphisms
you can add them and composition serves as multiplication
this will give you a ring
more generally that works over any abelian group
those are common rings
good to know I am just uninformed and stupid
I'm working on a problem regarding the polynomial $x^2+3x+4$ over the field $\mathbb{Z}_5$. I have that the two roots of this polynomial are $\alpha,\beta$ (i don't actually care about what they are) and I'm trying to show that $\mathbb{Z}_5(\alpha)=\mathbb{Z}_5(\beta)$. I've found that if $\beta\in\mathbb{Z}_5(\alpha)$, then $\beta=a+b\alpha$ for some $a,b\in\mathbb{Z}_5$, which gave me $a^2+2ab\alpha+b^2\alpha^2+3a+3b\alpha+4=0$, but I'm not sure how to proceed from here.
panoramatopia
Obvs $\alpha^2+3\alpha+4=0$, and there are some terms in that equivalence that are similar, but I'm not sure how to extract the $b$
panoramatopia
ah, just realized i can pick a and b to get the equation i want 
wait nevermind i can't 
doing so just gives me alpha = beta
nicer way to finish the proof is notice that the polynomial would factor into (x-α)(x-β) then you have α+β=-3
Yeah, I was gonna say, you can just compute alpha and beta with the good old quadratic formula
Maybe a nitpick, but "Z5(alpha)=Z5(beta)" makes me wince, if we don't specify a bigger field that everything is happening in
they are indeed equal as fields extensions tho not jus isomorphic
it's kinda like k(x)=k(x+1) thing
How do you define k(x+1)?
the smallest field extension of k containing x+1 ig
I would think this is the subfield of k(x) that is generated by k and x+1
Whereas with k(x) is presumably fractions of polynomials in x
Annoying set theoretic issues 🙂
hence one ignored all of these issues
I guess so. Also I'm getting a math minor and i have to take one of these two classes
What’s ur major or planned job?
Computer science
" Re-examination of the calculus of functions of one variable: convergence, continuity, differentiation, the mean-value theorem, and the Riemann integral."
This is the course definiton
Yeah I assume it’s just real analysis
For advanced calc
I don’t think there’s any real big difference in which would be more useful, so it’s kinda up to you I think
I like algebra more so I’d say to do that, but I think there’s a real argument for that
I assume you’ve seen a lot of similar stuff to the thinfs you’d do in the advanced calc class
Oh lmao
Don’t do abstract algebra then
It’s like linear algebra but cooler, but it’ll resemble that
Lollll crap
Well
I think linear algebra is important for computer science tho
And abstract algebra can be, but it again depends on what u do
I can appreciate linear algebra , I do not like my grade or teacher 😂
abstract algebra ends up being quite useful in a lot of theories in theoretical computer science
If u want to become a software developer at some company it doesn’t really matter much
But as they say if you wanted to do theoretical stuff you’ll need it
Well out of all my A's in college Theory of Comp Sci and Linear Algebra are 71% C's so
im pretty bad at it
fuuu i dunno
I myself didnt really enjoy linear algebra but really enjoyed abstract algebra
Like ik its important but if i dont pass its gunna really screw up my graduation time
Hm
Its like do I do what i'm supposed to and barley pass , or take the easy way out lol
Also "concrete" linear algebra like solving systems, finding ranks of matrixes etc and "abstract" linear algebra gives a really different feeling
and abstract algebra is a lot closer to the second one
So you may end up really enjoying abstract algebra as Godel did even though linear algebra wasn't that fun for you
hmmm
only if i knew
I've done web dev and thats pretty fun, depends on the company tho
Yes actually alot depending on what you do
It could be really simple stupid math , or pretty complex 2d arrays and backend junk
You know, like you need to do 1+2 to know how many widgets to add to the website
lol
LOL
You can also incorperate literally anything into web dev, Machine learning, bots , all kinds of stuff
networking
may be 2D/3D maths, combinatorics ? A lot of other things too, just giving examples 
They are trying to make HTML handle VR rn
more like webgl (or equivalent) handling VR properly, than HTML handling VR, I think, lol
yeah right
guys if $|G| = p^kr$ gcd(r,p) = 1, $H_1 = {a \in G | a ^{p^k} = e}$. why is $H_1$ a sylow p subgroup? i dont see it
or xml if you're special
But yeah web dev can go from baby poo poo creating a website with "wix " to really complex pretty fast
oops
Yes
G is also abelian *
not really
(my game started, I leave this to someone else sry :p)
thx 😄
So Yes. What’s the order of every element in this group?
It won’t be fixed, but it has to divide p^k right?
yes
yes
Okay, so do you agree that H_1 is a p-group in view of Cauchy’s theorem?
yes
hm
a subgroup that is the highest order of a prime that it could be
Right, but there’s an equivalent definition that might make what to do a bit more obvious, but it requires the use of a Sylow theorem
rigt
Do you know that theorem which says any p-subgroup is a subgroup of some Sylow-p subgroup?
yes i do
So this actually says it’s equivalent to say that a Sylow-p is a maximal p-subgroup of G
yes
Because if you aren’t a Sylow-p you properly embed into a Sylow-p
Okay so in view of that, say H_1 isn’t a Sylow-p subgroup
What can we then do?
Shut up simpurk
um find an element that isnt in H_1 but in a sylow p i guess
(the p sylow need to contain H_1 though)
It actually wouldn’t
Because the mere existence of this element derives a contradiction
well
oh ? how
Well the order of the Sylow-p is p^k
g's order needs to not be a divisor of p^k but its in a sylow p so it must have an order of p^k
Exactly!
yeah i got it
By being in a Sylow-p g^{p^k} = r
But then g is in H_1
So Shika-Blyat this fact alone means it doesn’t matter if the Sylow-p contains H_1 or not
Thanks @next obsidian
I think there’s one thing we havent done tho
ive done it yep
But a priori there’s no reason it is
Okay good
I assume this requires abelianness right?
Since H_1 as a set always exists
yep, G is abelian
It just might be too big
Kk
Just an important point I wanted to make sure you took into consideration
Like... H_1 s a set will always include every Sylow-p
But if G isn’t abelian it might be too big
I think that the condition you need specifically is that there’s only a single Sylow-p
oh right, ok i misunderstood what you were trying to do
Then H_1 is a Sylow-p by like size considerations
right
sry 

I'm trying to get my head around representations. In the following theorem there is a lot of talk about the basis of a representation.
What does it mean for a representation to have a basis? To me a representation is just a group homomorphism and why does the form of the matrix represnetaiton affected by choice of basis?
In particular in the picture above, I don't quite understand point 2.50
It’s basically a change of basis thing
Like, the output R(e^itheta) is this n x n invertible matrix with coefficients in C
But then you can choose different bases on C^n which will mess with that matrix via something like a
P^-1MP
And so the claim is via a change of basis you can put it in that form
an element of gl_n is abstract-- as long as you turn it into a matrix, you need a basis
So the matrices represent the elements of the groups by acting on vectors right?
yeah
random q, any intuition for the fact that any subgroup of index p in finite G is normal if p is the smallest prime divisor of |G|?
hmm
bc it was quite surprising in the book
eh, probs not important
Bullshit "intuition": a subgroup of prime index is maximal, so there are only 2 choices for it's normalizer. So it's at least 50-50 shot if it's normal.
🤔
Kaisheng the only intuition I can really offer is that it's true when p = 2 by a simple argument that there's not enough space
Namely, one shows that gH = Hg
In the case when an index 2 subgroup exists you have that 2 is the smallest prime divisor of |G| since |G| = 2|H|
So something something it just holds when you replace 2 with the smallest prime divisor of |G| and there's something about the rigidity of the structure of groups (something something symmetry idk) that makes it so you couldn't have a different conjugate
Z[sqrt(3)] = {a + b*sqrt(3)| a, b in Z}
I can't tell if that's a field
I know it's an integral domain
you might be able to find an explicit formula for the inverse of an element. maybe you can find one that doesn't live in Z[sqrt 3]?
if even one element doesnt have an inverse then it's not a field
not quite, if by the conjugate of a + b sqrt 3 you mean a - b sqrt 3
yeah that's wrong
hmmm
The reciprocal is obvious but we're in the integers
yeah I'm unsure
try to write 1 / (a + b sqrt 3) as something of the form c + d sqrt 3
hint: ||multiply the numerator and denominator by the conjugate||
hm
I'm honestly at a loss for some reason
is it its own inverse?
no that doesn't make sense nvm
you can also look at it in the following way
given $a + b\sqrt{3} \in \bZ[\sqrt{3}]$, you want to try and find $c + d\sqrt{3} \in \bZ[\sqrt {3}]$ such that $$(a + b\sqrt{3})(c + d\sqrt{3}) = 1.$$ if you expand this out, you get $$ (ac + 3bd) + (ad + bc)\sqrt{3} = 1. $$ so you ought to have $ac + 3bd = 1$ and $ad + bc = 0$, right? now you can solve the system of equations to get $c$ and $d$. are they always integers?
TTerra
it'll be a field if they're always integers, and it won't be if you can find just one a + b sqrt 3 for which c and d aren't both integers
gotcha
(i've swept under the rug why it follows that ac + 3bd = 1 and ad + bc = 0. this is essentially because 1 and sqrt 3 are linearly independent over Q. you can try proving this separately, if you want.)
(but it's not really the point)
Did Zoph leave the server?
I wanted to tell him that I figured out the problem I was asking about for 2 weeks
hes a weeb loser anyways (no, im not projecting)
kek
Here's the solution if anyone's interested
Let $\phi(x)=\frac{f(x)}{\prod_i(x-a_i)e^i}$. Then we wanted to show that for infinitely many $a\in k$, $\phi(x)-\phi(a)$ does not have $a$ as a multiroot. This is the same as saying that for infinitely many $a\in k$, $(\phi(x)-\phi(a))'=\phi '(x)$ does not have $a$ as a root. If it did, then $\phi '(x)=0$. We also know that $y^p-y=\phi(x)$ so $-dy=\phi'(x) dx=0 dx$ which would imply $\frac{dy}{dx}=0$ which results in a non-smooth curve.
Have a Banana, Bitch
I don't think that this is something that is obvious in the paper because the word smooth is mentioned once at the beginning and never again, but I'm glad that I figured it out
Probably. There was a shitshow this morning
He was unhappy with the conduct of the mods
What happened?
Oh zoph left too? Damn, two good users down. I guess i almost left as well
Who all left and what exactly happened?
From what i know, ultra and zoph
It’s a long story and im on my phone and dobt wanna go throughnit all again..... maybe sham can cover me on this one haha
I am going to do French homework finally

please don't
yes pls don't remove the bitch
I don't think generalizing is a good thing outside of math
That's what I had to do when I joined my school's discord
But my actual name shows up in the Tex bot lol
Dang since Zoph is gone Chmonkey is the only one I can rely on to verify facts about my research without actually studying the material myself

lol ur trash
"the image of the exponential map lies in the identity component of G" is listed as an elementary property of the exponential map on wikipedia, but i don't see why... can anyone offer assistance 🙂
regarding a lie group G
the image of the exponential map is connected (exp is continuous and \mathfrak g is connected) and intersects the identity component (exp 0 = e)
it's a finite dimensional vector space 
don't stare people it is rude

Sean, \mathfrak g is homeomorphic to R^n
Which is what tterra is saying here
ahh i see
Yup, just choose a basis
It is very very funny
thank you both
This proof seems too trivial
Cna someone verify
It asks to prove that $Q\otimes_Q Q\cong Q\otimes_Z Q$.
Have a Banana, Bitch
I'm worried I might be missing some detail
is the isomorphism supposed to be as abelian groups?
oh as rings
is that supposed to be the universal property of tensor products?
because it looks like you're showing something is a coproduct
tensor product is the coproduct in this case
do we know that a priori?
I mean tensor over R is the coproduct in the category of R-algebras. They aren't asking banana to prove it.
and looking at the proof, I assume that's what they're using
yeah people typically write the structure maps from the base ring
either way i think it's easier just to write down the map
let's show that both of these are isomorphic to Q. For the first one this is clear. For the second one note that pushouts preserve epimorphisms and monomorphisms
hmm does this finish the proof hold on
A morphism of (commutative) rings which is both an epimorphism and a monomorphism and whose domain is a field should be an isomorphism
i would just do this by hand
yeah a tensor b -> ab
my brain is too small to think in terms of categories
How can one disambiguate a ring of polynomial functions from a ring of polynomials over some field K? Usually, they are both written as K[x], aren't they?
I would take k[x] to be the ring of polynomials, I have never seen this to mean the set of polynomial functions. Admittedly I have not seen a notation for the set of polynomial functions
It's the notation offered by Wikipedia: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ring_of_polynomial_functions
In mathematics, the ring of polynomial functions on a vector space V over a field k gives a coordinate-free analog of a polynomial ring. It is denoted by k[V]. If V is finite dimensional and is viewed as an algebraic variety, then k[V] is precisely the coordinate ring of V.
The explicit definition of the ring can be given as follows. If
...
Hello, I would like to know why isomorphism implies that if AB=C then A'B'=C'
To do this, I have to prove that the isomorphism, call it f, has to satisfy: f(AB) = f(A)f(B), but how do I prove this?
That's the definition of an isomorphism
All I know about an isomorphism is that its a bijection from G to G'
Let AB = C in G and let A->A' , B-> B' and C-> C'
now why would C' be equal to A' B' ?
A group isomorphism is a bijection with that property
"In abstract algebra, a group isomorphism is a function between two groups that sets up a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of the groups in a way that respects the given group operations" (c) Wikipedia
Hello! Is this a valid proof of Cauchys theorem? Let's look at all the $p$-tuples $a_1, \ldots, a_p$ where $a_i \in G$ such that $a_1 a_2 \cdots a_p = e$. There is $n^{p-1}$ such tuples. We can permute all the $p$ tuples in a cyclic fashion $p$ times so we get that $p$ divides $n^{p-1}$, ie. $n^{p-1} = k_1p$ for some $k_1$. If one $p$ tuple only consists of one element then it has order $p$. One such $p$ tuple is $e$. Assume that there exists $q$ such $p$ tuples. Then the remaining $p$ tuples can be permuted cyclically, so $p$ divides $n^{p-1} -q$. We get that $n^{p-1} - q = k_2p$ for some $k_2$. We then get that $q = p(k_1 - k_2)$ which can't be one so there is at least one element of order $p$ that is not $e$.
older sister
But I haven't used the fact that a prime p divides the order of the group, so I feel like something is wrong
Oh, I forgot to say that the order of G is n in the proof above
You used p divides n in saying q=p(k_1-k_2)
@rigid cave
If p doesn't divide order of group, you have a nice proof of fermat's little theorem
Oh wow, look at that! Now it's time to prove fermat's last theorem
Guys, I am about to publish a proof of fermat's last theorem and I want opinions on it. We shall use the proof of contradiction. Assume that it's wrong. Then Andrew Wiles proof is wrong. But he's a genius so we arrive at the desired contradiction. QED.
that makes no sense
This result is absolutely groundbreaking, you just need to understand it
Here's how you prove it. Assume fermat's last theorem has a solution. This would produce a semi stable elliptic curve that is not modular but since every semi stable elliptic curve has an associated modular form it's a contradiction
Boom I just fit the proof into the margins
Naaahhh it's wrong. My proof is better
Here's another one. Proof: left as an exercise to the reader
If $G$ is right adjoint to $F$ and we have a commutative diagram $%
\begin{tikzcd}
& X \arrow[ld, "f"'] \arrow[rd, "g"] & \
G(Y) \arrow[rr, "G(h)"'] & & G(Z)
\end{tikzcd}$. Then is the following diagram also commutative?
Have a Banana, Bitch
$%
\begin{tikzcd}
& F(X) \arrow[ld, "N(f)"'] \arrow[rd, "N(g)"] & \
Y \arrow[rr, "h"'] & & Z
\end{tikzcd}$
Have a Banana, Bitch
Where N represents the natural isomophism between the hom sets
My physics lecturer keeps talking about compact lie groups but hasn't even bothered defining it.
So what is really a compact Lie Group?
Do you know what a lie group is?
So Lie groups come equipped with a topology right?
Ok so it's just a topological space with compact topology?
Yup
To be more precise
You can think of a lie group as a group object in the category of manifolds
The problem is that physicists never mention topology but in my notes it is mentioned that compact means "group space is bounded". How do I relate to this notion with the topology of the manifold?
Closed is often the same as bounded
So they are talking about topologically closed?
Maybe. You'll need to show us the context
Compactness can be used to define (global)one -parameter group of given vector fields as I understand.
Ok here is a theorem in my notes: "If G is compact, then for every representation there is an equivalent unitary representation. This is analogous to Maschle's Theorem for finite groups"
can I get help?
Usually if they don't have a prefix then yeah
In this case we are basically just working with matrix lie groups so subsets of C^n I believe
I see so their compactness is just closedness I suppose
closed and bounded
Yeah right
@timber grail Try and think of simple elements of each
(what's Z_5[i] ?
)
I think it means adjoining a root of x^2+1
I think this is it right?
Not quite
I don't like this definition
more like Z[I]/5Z, even though that ends up being the same thing ig ? 
i'm lost
Try and work with 2 in each case
and see if you can find inverses

All of them are IDs though
I think we have the different definitions of Z_5[i]
that's Z[i]
According to me, R[i] is "R adjoin a root of x^2+1"
ok ? I mean you can see Z[i] as Z[X]/(x^2 + 1) ig, but I don't see your point 
which is the right one in your opinion
Oh wait my bad
maybe yall be using some whack shit, Z[i] is polynomials in i as far as I know (which is just elements of the form a + i b)
and how do you define polynomials in i?
I'm just stupid
Z[x]/(x^2+1) would be one way to do it
yep
or you can just define it directly, Z[i] = {a + i b | a, b in Z}
which seems much easier
to work with (here at least)
when you quotient by a principal ideal <p> you are basically setting a relation p = 0
I know
you really like to define things don't you
2^2=-1 in Z/5Z😂😂😂
so @timber grail, PorosInMyAshe already pointed out that there's 0 divisors in Z_5[i], so it can't be a field right ? Is it an integral domain ?
Do you think 2 is inversible in Z[i] ?
What do you think that Z/5Z[i] suppose to mean? Z/5Z is already the splitting field of x^2+1
the great defining of 2021
Like I said it already contains two roots 3 and 2
tinkywinky is dead.
Is this trivial after we use that every finitely generated module over a PID has a free resolution of length one?
yea but you'll be assuming that Tor doesn't depend on chosen free resolution
sad
I'm not exactly sure what i'm supposed to do here
We can assume M, N to be finitely generated because any module is the direct limit of its finitely generated submodules and direct limit commutes with tensor product?
not really I just need help Im studying for a test
ya'll seem condescending
if M,N are finitely generated and you know the theorem, then very little... just write the resolution for M, tensor with N, because of the tailing 0s the homology is also 0
up btw @timber grail 
What if I don't know the theorem?
How do I verify it for the PID case
That Tor is not dependent on the resolution?
there was a section about that in aluffi, but i didn't read the properly
probably some judicious use of snake lemma
Wait I'm confused
Does allufi want us to take the result of independence of resolution in good faith and prove it in two lines?
Or does he want us to prove the result of independence of resolution for PID in this problem
thanks
its the first option
i think you're supposed to take than on faith, he promised the proof in last chapter which i still haven't read
like how else would you define Tor?
yeah @timber grail 
you da real mvp
maybe you can use this kinda of definition
which he has outlined some stuff
:chino_sip:

Thanks.
this was on page 510
the snake lemma gives you a long sequence
that is basically the Tor sequence above
I think that independence of resolutions is because that given two projective resolutions P and Q of M , then 1_M from M to itself can be expanded to f from P to Q. Similarly g from Q to P then it’s easy to verify that gf is homotopic to 1_P and fg is homotopic to 1_Q using the property of projective modules
i left chapter 9 from the start of section on homotopy >.<
f is homotopic to g if there exist s_n from P_n to Q_(n+1) such that g-f = d_Q s + s d_P
Direct product
11
i.e. direct sum
i think it should be 5?
yea that's what i got
oh i'm bad
20 elements minus 8 units and the zero
i need a tutor in this course
this practice sheet got me feeling stupid
@chilly ocean can you tutor?
same
@rustic crown do you think that this is a good enough answer?
we're taking the same class together and the instructor is just brain dead
so we need a tutor for a study group
need help with parts 3 and 4
u could clear this up by sending picture of the full window
perhaps a title saying practice sheet or something
I believe that fundamental questions like those should be done by yourself...
^this but you'll need to find a reference to learn the topics
Unless you can’t find the definition of those concepts...
(any intro algebra book would have it just poke some and see what you like)
yea looks good to me
It just seems like literally writing out the definition
Hopefully I don't lose too many points
wait why would a practice sheet
have an mc selector
why go through that extra effort lol
Could be an exam
maybe ask another one of your classmate?
yeah i put this at like a
I've had classes where that has happened
10% chance of being legit
wait what points could be lost here 
But it is a bit suspicious
It's a homework problem guys
you're good

okay combined w that message im going to go ahead an <@&268886789983436800> this is pretty sketchy w @timber grail and mamba
That's for when I take algebraic topology next year
if u try to cheat ill alg top i'll cut u
Correct
houp

spring 2020 moment
wait when is spring 2020

Okay. How about complex analysis?
same but replace max with me
actually im very confused about this
never understood how these seasons things work

Yeah he's taking a test lmao
also wtf is the spacing lmao
What was the post? I see something was deleted, but not the image itself.
This
The multi choice image
So its like a combo of things
first they just posted it, when questioned they said it was a practice sheet
The message linked from before
which doesn't make a lot of sense w that format
mentioning assignment
Yeah and in a different channel they claimed it was an assignment
and they wouldn't show more of their screen or anything to demonstrate it wasn't a test
Can you post a full screen screenshot of the work @timber grail
kindasus
Algebraic topology has so many details. Gosh.like I doubt that there is any person who can remember how to prove the exactness of Mayer-vietoris sequence two months after reading it.
you don't really need to
is the answer
you can kinda spend some time to fill in the fdetails if you realllly need
I think doing Aluffi would be really helpful with AT
Category theory + Homological algebra
Ah yeah fair enough
In intro Alg Top courses the hom alg is usually pretty tame
but worth brushing up on
It's a grad course
A little less predictable but usually still true
But I was told I didn't need to take undergrad AT before it
Are you into AT?
Yes it is probably my PhD topic
I'm about to graduate undergrad
Well the ideas you learn in a first AT class
are completely necessary
for any algebra-flavored field
esp AG and AT
Gotcha
I'm really interested in taking a class in model theory/universal algebra
but there aren't any classes offered at my uni
But does universal algebra really contain much mathematics context?
Like I thought that it ended up as some kind of computer science...
I mean math at the beginning
There's some neat applications I saw which was something like "if a statement is true in an algebraically closed field of char p for for all primes p, then it is true in C"
There was some condition on the statement, but I don't remember it
I see,interesting
What is this theorem called?
Sorry I was blind
😂😂

It's mentioned in the stack exchange post
seeing math 490 made me go like :o
Because we have a math 490. Then I realized almost everywhere probably has a math 490
woaawild
Logicians care about universal algebra
its not totally niche or obscure
but i would say most mathematicians dont know much about it
hey all. Given two finite posets X and Y, does X x Y inherit gradedness, atomicness, co-atomicness, and/or diamond-ness? I'm having such a hard time keeping track of these definitions rn and would appreciate some guidance
atomicness (and dually coatomicness) seems trivial to prove that are inherited
cuz if (x1,x2) > (0,0) in XxY then xi>=bi>:0 where bi are atomic so (b1,b2)>:(0,0)
: means > and nothing in between
Okay I have been stuck on what I think should be a simple degree computation for awhile and I cannot tell why I am being dumb
So let’s say we are starting with a polynomial algebra P(x_1,x_2,...) where the degree of an x_i is 2^i-1
Let us further equip this polynomial algebra with the following coproduct
$\Delta(x_n)=\sum_{0\leq i\leq n} x^{2^i}_{n-i}\otimes x_i$
MaxJ
Okay now suppose y is an element of this polynomial algebra and you know two things about y
- y has even homogenous degree
- Delta(y) is a sum of even degree terms
Claim: y must live in the subalgebra generated by the squares of the $x_i$, i.e. $P(x_1^2,x_2^2,...)$
MaxJ
I am reading a very terse proof of this fact (in fact this is like two words in a longer terse proof)
And it should be trivial i.e. I think it should be straight from degree concerns
but I keep doing computations with toy examples and I am not convinced it is true
So I was wondering if anyone has input
(For those who do not trust my ability to copy the information here, which is fair, the claim is 3.1.6 on page 61 of Ravenel’s Cobordism and Stable Homotopy)
——————————-
Okay so maybe I will try to find a counterexample. Clearly the degree of any $x_i$ is odd, so any product $x_ix_j$ is a potential choice for $y$ satisfying the first thing we know
MaxJ
Then $\Delta(x_i)$ is a sum of terms $x_{i-n}^{2^i}\otimes x_{n}$. These terms should have degree $2^i(2^{n-i}-1) + 2^{n}-1$
MaxJ
I'm not sure I agree. I feel like you've swapped i and n
Then the product of $\Delta(x_ix_j)=\Delta(x_i)\Delta(x_j)$ should have terms that look something like $x_{i-n}^{2^i}x_{j-m}^{2^m}\otimes x_{n}x_{m}$
MaxJ
i think i literally swapped i and n
but thats because im bad at notation
not the math
right?
(my original defn is in terms of x_n)
When we define Δ(xn) we get stuff tensored with xn on the right
Here you still tensor with xn on the right
But are computing Δ(xi)

the definition is wrong the computation is correct
hahahaha
okay so let me edit that for posterity
oh texit isn’t updating it it got bored
well $\Delta(x_i)=\sum_{0\leq n \leq i} x_{i-n}^{2^{n}}\otimes x_{n}$ is the correct defn
MaxJ
Back to this, the left and right terms should both be even here
so I feel like this is a counterexample?
I wonder what im messing up im sure its very dumb
Yeah, I agree
(i guess its also possible there is something else I know about y that makes this work but that the book didn’t mention)
okay well at least i am not crazy
I wonder if I can find this claim elsewhere it should be in some paper of milnor


@sturdy marsh maybe you will recognize this as the dual steenrod algebra and be familiar with the claim idk if you care about these computations
i tried to avoid using \xi but it ended up being more work bc i wrote it out of reflex
it is??
lol
Yes
mb
oh isn't lmao
ok
so what ive done so far is
Sylow 3 has order 3 and there are either 4 or 1 of them.
If there are 4, they trivially intersect
so thats 8 distinct elements that are in sylow 3
but then what?
i cant do something similar with sylow 2
will sylow 2 groups and sylow 3 groups ever intersect?
A problem I've been churning over in my head that I've been unable to solve: Are there any fields ${G,+,\times}$ where the groups ${G,+}$ and ${G^{},\times}$ are isomorphic? (Where $G^{}$ is just $G$ but without 0 so that it can be a group) I haven't been able to think of any, but I also haven't been able to think of a proof that they can't exist.
Bannanachair Monarch
F2 

too late
wait they can't ever be isomorphic because they don't have the same number of elements, surely
or well
the identity of one doesn't map to the identity of the other??
wait no hmmm
It suffices to check the case where the characteristic is 2 right
Because F^* has an element of order 2
And F infinite
you are assuming the field is finite?
yeah i saw the problem right afterwards
Namely -1
also i think it needs to be characteristic 0. {G,+} has elements that satisfy px=0, but {G*,x} doesn't
er
fuck
i feel like this should never work
Ye there arent any
but i am a complete rube at field theory so
i think what i said above is right, x^p=x in a field of characteristic p right?
I just know the for 1+1+1+...+1 = 0 where there are p ones
or was it x^{p^n}=x in a finite field of order p^n?
The case where the field is of char 2 is also pretty easy to figure out
Just note that if F is of char 2 then for every x in F^* you have x^2 = 1
But x^2-1 = (x-1)^2 which clearly only has one root
(x+y)^(p^n) = x^(p^n) + y^(p^n) in a field of characteristic p
but we are interested in the infinite case
and i believe even simpler, (x+y)^p=x^p+y^p, EDIT: er, maybe just different, not stronger
that's special case of one i said
what is n?
natural
What's a nice introductory book for Lie Groups and Representation theory for beginners?
doing the introductory group action questions and it's weird bc they seem to oscillate between trivial and hard to even start on
probs they'd all be trivial if i really understood them 😔
fulton harris
^
no
i will just meditate on them and i will find that they are trivial
or else i will just ignore them and move onto more interesting bits of the textbook and come back later maybe
ok today is not a day for doing exercises
i cannot
today is a day for just skimming the rest of the chapter
I did not read through the computations properly. There might be something of use in https://people.math.rochester.edu/faculty/doug/otherpapers/Milnor-A.pdf
i ended up figuring it out
and im now stuck on the next part
which i also cant find a reference for
so the question in the book asks me to "find the order of each group" then lists $Z_{18}, S_{4}, S_{5}, D_{4}, U_{18}$ but i have no clue what S, D, and U represent
NocuousNick
likely the symmetric, dihedral, unitary groups respectively
if youre not familiar with those, check your textbook for a definition
this is a weird question. i don't know what U is, but the other groups, the order is basically definitional
alright and like finding a specific order for a set how do you do that? we went over like a singular element but not a whole set
"order of a group" means "number of elements in the group"
its a different definition than order of an element
(though related)
seems like you missed a couple things, id reread the textbook chapter
yes that is the idea
I'm trying to prove that kernels are limits using this definition
Let $\phi:M\rightarrow N$ be morphism with kernel $K$ and the map $i:K\rightarrow M$
Have a Banana, Bitch
Is the key here to define $I$ as $Obj(I)={M}$ and $Hom_I(M,M)=id_M$?
Have a Banana, Bitch
And defining C as the category of things like $A \xrightarrow[]{f} M$ where $\phi\circ f=0$ and morphisms as morphisms that force commutativity?
Have a Banana, Bitch
I haven't worked out the details, but it seems like this is the only thing one can do
The only thing that's bothering me is that $I$ in this proof is not really used at all
May i ask what book is this?
actually nvm i can just search it lol
Algebra Chapter 0
It's a pretty good book
do you know what a pullback is
I think so?
Isn't it like if you have f:A--> B and g: B--> C
then the pullback is gf
oh, no
i mean the limit of this diagram:
[
\begin{tikzcd}
& A \dar["f"] \ B \rar["g"] & C
\end{tikzcd}
]
Oh yeah
Isn't that the final object in the category I described above?
Similar to that
Not exactly
But like you consider the category where the objects are diagrams from X into A and B
which commute with f and g
yes
Yeah
have you computed pullbacks in Set yet
we haven't given them a name
But I think that's basically what I'm doing right?
We know that the Kernel is the pullback in the category I described earlier
And we're using that to prove that its a direct limit
My question is not very conceptual
My bad
yeah it's confusing
I'm just making sure that my proof is valid
Here's the detailed argument
I'll send a picture because diagrams are a pain to Tex
i have to study for my exams now so i can't verify your proof unfortunately, but here is a hint: ||in Set, the limit of the above diagram is {c in C | f(c) = g(c)}||
$G$ is a group where every sylow group is normal. Show G is isomorphic to the direct product of its sylow groups
Yes
This seems like an induction argument to me
why
It clear that this is true when G = 1
But if we know that G = sylow groups multiplied that does it
since sylow groups dont intersect
and they r normal so they commut with each other
Yes
I guess you wanna somehow show that given a G and a sylow subgroup P normal in it
G/P x P is isomorphic to G
I don't know if this is even true, but it seems like a good starting point
cant we just use the fact that
If H,...,Hn subgroup G and they all commute with each other and trivially intersect and $G = H_1 H_2 \dots H_n$ then $G \cong H_1 \times \dots \times H_n$
Yes
this would do it right?
you need to be more clear about "trivially intersect"
pairwise i think
intersect with just the identity
like H ^ H_2 = 1
:o
or something similar
Will I need to change my server name too?
