#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 548 of 407
oh
hmm
well how could a be in <a^2> its like
all of the elements in <a^2> are a^2k
k in integers
2k can't be 1
???
Yes
oh
so basically it's not in it, right
i see
So that's a proper subgroup
and then you keep going
And it has to be smt different from the above mentioned 3 subgroups
oh this was enough
oh
i see
right we just generated a proper subgroup of G that was not one of the three which is a contradiction
G is finite
Good
and i guess to show that |a^2| is not 7, i can just use the fact that |a| is infinite
since (a^2)^7 = a^14 which cannot be the identity
?
Yeah, that is correct
nice
Any infinite cyclic group has infinitely many subgroups
And being an infinite group without having an infinite cyclic subgroup is pretty hard
And involves having infinitely many subgroups in a different way
(eg the group (Z/2Z)^N if you've seen that before)
Basically imagine a sequence of binary elements which is eventually 0
You can add 2 such sequences componentwise
can't the direct sum of like infinitely many of any finite non-cyclic group work
as an example of an infinite group with no infinite cyclic subgroup
Well that's an interesting question
Yeah, it can I guess
Any sequence of elements with only finitely many nonzero entries is only going to generate a subgroup of a finite direct sum
eg if your generators is (a_1, a_2, ..., a_n, 0, 0,...) Then it is going to generate a cyclic subgroup of G_1xG_2x...xG_n
Anyway metal back to your proof
ya
Hint,how many elements are there in <2>?where by 2,I mean the element 2+48Z
did you tried this?
not exactly sure what that means tbh
an expression for the order an element in Z/48Z ?
$|\overline{x}^{a}| = \frac{n}{(n,a)}$ ?
in general, you can compute the order of an element in Z/nZ
Yes
What does the order of an element mean wrt the group generated by the element?
Yes
I was thinking about the relation between |x| and the group G=<x>
Yes
And an element with order less than order of group does not generate the group
ye
And an element with order=order of group generates the group
So,Just look for such elements
so values of a that are relatively prime to n
i did that initially, but the next question it Z/202Z so i was hoping there was a quicker way
totient?
whats that
No of coprime numbers below a number
as if there's only one
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_things_named_after_Leonhard_Euler#Functions euler is sodding everywhere in maths
but yes probably it's that
i should make a function and name it after me
but anyway the main point is totient m*n = totient m * totient n
when gcd(m,n)=1
https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/767576686324875265/812046352581787688/485820733537386526.png
are any of statements below correct? if they'ren't can anyone point out what exactly isn't true so that i can recheck my work. Thanks
the first two are correct but redundant. the whole point of the "if and only if" is so that you only have to write one of those two!
the third statement is not correct; take beta = 0
Z/2Z is a field but gcd(0,2) = 2
also just a general note on mathematical writing, you generally want to use your variable names to express things
using beta and L is really confusing to me
i totally guessed the iff tho, i can't relly see the 2 directions
why is one a greek letter and the other is a capital letter?
lower case l looked weird, mb
I guess my point is that regardless of whether or not they're correct, statements 1 and 2 are equivalent to each other. so if one is correct, so is the other, so writing both of them was redundant
use \ell
for lowercase l
but also why are you using \beta and \ell?
why not \alpha and \beta?
or k and \ell?
how exactly can you state z/pz being a field in terms of gcd? is it possible?
yes, just fix the problem I pointed out
or the only option is to say p>2
beta = 0 is a problem for that statement, so just remove beta = 0
"for all beta not equal to 0, gcd(beta, p) = 1"
or "for all beta in Z/pZ, beta \neq 0 implies gcd(beta,p) = 1"
gotcha, also, as said i couldn't really prove that the non existence of an inverse implied gcd!=1, any tips?
just prove that if gcd = 1 there is an inverse and if gcd > 1 there isn't an inverse
use bezout's identity
hey so im trying to prove if h is an ideal of g_2, then a^{-1} (h) is an ideal of g_1 .... we know that g1,g2 are lie algebras and a sends g1 to g2 (homomorphism), can i just say take an x in g_1 and a y in a^-1 (h)
then a([x,y]) = [a(x), a(y)] is in [g_2 , h} is closed in h since h is an ideal of g_2
does that make sense?
ahh kk got it
ah but i have another question
how comes der(g) is a subalgebra of gl(g)? the part where i am at is that
[der(g), der(g)] ⊆ der(g)
how does this imply der(g) is a subalgebra of gl(g)?
ah because gl(g) is the lie algebra of all linear endomorphisms of g?
smells like jacobi identity to me
the bracket on der(g) is just going to be the commutator coming from gl(g)
you can check that a linear combination of derivations is a derivation, so der(g) is a vector subspace of gl(g). then, to say that it's a lie subalgebra is to say [der(g), set(g)] \subseteq der(g), i.e. that der(g) is closed under the bracket
([der g, der g] \subseteq der g is the exact same thing as saying der g is closed under the lie bracket)
Would z_10 work here
yes
say 2*5=0mod10
for the first sentence ye
This is not a ring because its not closed under addition right
And this is not a ring since it has no additive inverse right?
ahh right, k makes sense. Ty sir

so if we want to show ⊆ der(g) for a lie algebra g do we just slap a jacobi identity into it
see if it works
and if it does
⊆ der(g)
what you need to do is check that, with the commutator coming from gl(g), der(g) is closed
meaning that the bracket (commutator) of any two derivations is another derivation
i said jacobi identity because the proof probably uses the jacobi identity
that makes sense,
its just that now ive proved for another case
that the ad(g) ⊆ der(g)
and i just slapped jacobi in there
and it seemed all gucci
let g be a lie algebra, prove ad(g) is an ideal of der(g)
i guess ideal is a special case of subalgebra
yeah
hence why we slap jacobi
all lie ideals are lie subalgebras
so you wanna prove that ad(g) is a subspace (easy) and that if a is in ad(g) and b is in der(g) then [a, b] is in ad(g)
yeah i said basically
x,y,z is in g
and slapped the jacobi
and now i have
[ad(x)y,z] + [y, ad(x)z]
and its like gg
cuz ad(g) ⊆ der(g)

I think
we should change the standard text of "Use the Jacobi Identity"
to
"Slap the Jacobi"
exactly
and then we get to have even more fun name with clifford algebras
because boi do i have some names for the gamma bois

Can someone explain why the rational canonical form of a transformation stays the same even if we move to a larger field?
invariant factors
So I guess I'm asking why are the invariant factors unchanged
they do not take the field into account at all
Hold on
If V is viewed as a k[t] module and wriiten in that form
we get that the f_i are elementary factors
Why is it true then that if F contains k, then V = F[t]/(f_1) + ... + F[t]/(f_m)?
As a F[t] module
multiplication by t = multiplication by the transformation
do you know where those f_i come from
okay hold on gimme a sec
do you mean F tensor V
Uh I don't think so
if V is a k-vector space, the map you have make sense
We haven't done tensor products yet
Brofib is avoiding choosing a basis, basically
I think my question is basically this
okay, so ignoring the iso, if you work through the construction, RCF doesnt care about the field
the entries will be in the smallest field containing all the entries of the matrix
I don't think it would be very difficult to prove that the invariant factors remain the same after we move to a bigger field
Isn't there a uniqueness statement about invariant factors?
yes, from modules over PID
Yeah I though about doing it that way
But I think it might not be correct
I think it reduces to this
It is certainly cleaner if you can write it out with tensor products, oh well (sorry, this isn't helpful)
Lets say we write the matrix A as a matrix of the form (block matrices with 1's right under the diagonal, some constants r_i in the last column, and 0's everywhere else)
then is this necessarily the rational canonical form?
yes
and the polynomials on the columns are the invariant factors?
yes
Oh okay
This is the uniqueness theorem I was talking about
i.g the important bit isnt just the uniqueness theorem, but there is no factorization going on when looking at invariant factors
so if given a matrix, over a field F, you could view this as a linear operator on a vector space over k
where k \subset F is the smallest subfield containing all the of the matrix
and then over k[t], you have an RCF by modules over PID
and then by the uniqueness thm you see that the RCF doesnt change for any other field
so im a bit stuck if anyone can explain to me why using the trace can prove that sl(n,k) is a subalgebra of gl(n,k)? namely using for x,y in gl(n,k) and tr(xy)=tr(yx) and hence tr([x,y])=0
I understand why these properties work, but why does this strictly prove sl(n,k) is a subalgebra of gl(n,k)?
oh
are we assuming near the identity hear?
so the determinant behaves like the trace?
oh wait i think
i might have it
so sl(n) consists of precisely the traceless matrices
heh
i was overthinking it
im confused on the lie algebra sp(n,k) ive expanded it out using the lie bracket but dont understand how they've gone from the step $y^T x^T J_n - x^T y^T J_n$ to $-y^T J_n x + x^T J_n y$
𝓐eteer
@chilly ocean any ideas?
Hi,
Suppose that $\operatorname{ord}(g) = m$. Then $g^n = e$ iff $m \mid n$.
For the forward implication, is the following proof valid?
Suppose that $g^n = e$. Firstly, we must have that $m \leq n$. Let $k$ be a positive integer such that $g^{mk} = (g^m)^k = e^k = e$. By the uniqueness of the identity, we must have that $g^{mk} = g^n \implies mk = n$. Since $k$ is an integer, then we have that $m \mid n$ as required.
opengangs
I understand the way my professor proved the forward implication (n = mq + r and show that r = 0) but was wondering if this method is also valid
No this doesn't make much sense
You say that "Let k be a positive integer such that..." but all positive integers k satisfy that condition so I'm not sure what you mean by that
Later, its not true that g^(mk) = g^n implies that mk = n
I mean, it's true that e^2 = e, but not true that 2 = 1 for example
@coarse forge
Okay I see my flaw, thanks
an automorphism is just an isomorphism from one group to itself?
Yes.
oke ty
im not too sure about what i got for this one
if we let Zn be generated by x
the |x| = n
using a theorem |x^a| = \frac{n}{(a,n)}, x^a will also generate Zn if n,a are relatively prime. So wen (n,a) = 1, <x> = <x^a>. thus the map is an automorphism
does this work at all?
Yes! But what about the converse?
trivial
im sure about the converse
just that the solution was completely different to what i had thought so i had to confirm it was also correcgt
Is there a Z[i]-module with 2 (or 3) elements?
See the discussion in #advanced-number-theory ; the prime (2) ramifies as (1+i), so we see that the Z[i]-module Z[i]/(1+i)=F_2 has 2 elements
I can prove this: Z/pZ has the structure of a Z[i]-module iff p=2 or p is 1 mod 4. This is because a Z[i]-module structure on Z/pZ is the same thing as a Z[x]/(x^2+1)-module structure, which is the same thing as a choice of automorphism x in Z/pZ such that x^2 = -1, which exists only if p=2 or (Z/pZ)^\times has order divisible by 4.
Yeah
right that makes sense but I don't see why it divides it
also what does H <= G mean?
just that H is a subgroup of G?
It's a subgroup
subgroup
ok
I think you could maybe do this via like an induction
I haven't fleshed this idea out but
show that if f(a) is not equal to o(a) then f(a) <= o(a)/2
I feel like you ought to be able to do this
then you can replace a with a^2
and each time you do this you half the order of a effectively
Or something like that
this probably isn't the best way to go about this
wait so what if the order is odd
¯_(ツ)_/¯
no i think i've got it lemme have this
so if f(a) >= o(a)/2
ok well call the element in H h
well h-1 has order <= o(a)/2
contradiction
more or less?
oh I see kinda, so then f(a) must be < o(a) / 2?
yeah so my initial idea doesn't work
new to this group theory stuff I got no idea what I'm doing
honestly same
ok just pinning this down into text bc i need more space free in my brain
intuitively it should be lagrange's theorem wrt. <h> somehow?
Write o(a)=f(a)q+r
changing the question I was a bit vague: If i have an automorphism, can I refer to it as an endomorphism aswell?
Then a^r is in H so r=0
so only the identity is in H?
the identity is necessarily in H
No, the point is that r<f(a)
and f(a) is the minimal non-zero integer n such that a^n is in H
This is similar to the proof that subgroups of Z are the nZ
good stuff
@severe osprey what's your definition of automorphism ? of endomorphism ?
Automorphisms are endomorphisms which are also isomorphisms
endomorphisms are maps from itself to itself
such as
$g: X \to X$
F.B.I
is an endomorphism
and automorphisms are g's which are also isomorphisms
@rich ravine
It's kinda hard to explain what im asking but
Could I refer to something as an endomorphism
even if it was an automorphism
aswell
It depends on the context
adjoint representation
what do you lose saying it's an automorphism
Oh I just don't like writing automorphism
does your argument use the property that it's an endomorphism or that it's an automorphism
I'd say just get over it lol
:C
cries
@rich ravine well another reason is if I was to say adjoint representation as endormorphisms and automorphisms, could I just say endomorphisms instead of both
petition to rename automorphism
to...
indomorphism
cuz it's like endo and iso :>
If left and right cosets are equal, does it imply being abelian?
no, let G be a non-abelian group, and consider the left and right G-cosets
what does it mean by 'invertibility of [a] in Zn. I'm just confused what invertible means in a modulo class.
sorry, depends on the operation on the group
what operation is it talking about. There's two operations in modulo, addition and multiplication, and they both have identity
well it should be addition
it's likely talking about multiplicativity
integers are closed under addition
lol take Terra's word
I'm still in the class so I could definitely be wrong
[a] always has an additive inverse in Zn so asking about inverses there is kind of boring
but whether elements of Zn have multiplicative inverses is a more interesting question
and boils down to whether the a representative a is coprime with n (as in the exercise)
this is also why Zn is a field iff n is prime
gonna learn about rings soon
ring properties were already mentioned but not rings themselves
look at it like this
would I use chinese remainder theorem partly?
if as + nt = 1, what happens to this equation if you take the cosets in Zn?
you get [a][s] = [1]
because [n] = 0 in Zn
ahhh
[s], yes
so in particular the set of all elements of Z_n which have representatives coprime to n is a group

sorry i forgot how to type english there
what about the other way around? if you have [a] in Zn, and you can find an [s] in Zn with [a][s] = [1], must a be coprime to n?
proving (R^3, x) is a lie algebra do i just vector product R^3 x R^3, as this shows we make a mapping back to R^3 which what a lie group does, and then just slap the jacobi in there and show its = 0
you need to prove that the cross product (which is presumably the operation here) is bilinear, antisymmetric, and satisfies the jacobi identity
yeah
isnt that what a lie group is equipped with
though
the skew symmetric bilinear map
commutator,
and jacobi
lie algebra
a group operation lol
oh yeah

well sure lie groups have commutators, but it's not the same commutator as for a lie algebra
(G, [ ])
you're conflating lie groups and lie algebras
a lie group is a group with a smooth manifold structure making the group operations smooth
a lie algebra is a vector space with an antisymmetric, bilinear operation [,] satisfying the jacobi identity
o
oh wait
so a lie group is just some endomorphism of spaces
with a differential structure
i feel like when u stop typing ive done this to u 
XD
insofar as a group is the set of symmetries of some object, sure
i'm not too comfortable with that statement but i guess you can make it work
in other words locally?

well you know i was thinking the other day if we have a level set right, this proves a vector isomoprhism right?
between manifolds
does the converse hold?
just write them down
there are only 6 computations to do
take each element \sigma of S3, and compute the set \sigma H
$\sigma H = {\sigma h : h \in H}$
Brofibration
Brofibration
my bad didn't see this @sturdy marsh
I'm just confused on what a right coset really is
could you give me one example of a right coset
right
and the right coset <3>2
is the set of multiples of 6
i.e. numbers of the form (n)(3)(2)
Uh wait
so the coset is just an offset?
you're offsetting by 2?
yes
ok I see
it's a "shift" of the subgroup by an element
yes!!! (exclamation points because this is exactly the right idea)
it's also good to think about this for vector spaces
that was a pretty big brainfart
LOL
say you have some plane P through the origin like x + y + z = 0 in R^3
you're good
















yeah that makes sense
uhh the entire 3d plane?
well the union of all of the cosets is always the whole group, sure
but they're still distinct from one another
so let's try an example, whats the coset of P by v = (1,1,1)?
just as a random example
That's almost right, but you have a sign error
any element of v + P looks like v + w = (x + 1, y + 1, z + 1) for some w = (x,y,z) in P, right?
then (x+1) + (y+1) + (z+1) = (x+y+z) + 3 = 3 because w is in P
oh ok I see
and conversely if x+y+z = 3 then (x-1,y-1,z-1) is in P and (x-1,y-1,z-1) + (1,1,1) = (x,y,z) so (x,y,z) is in v + P
right makes sense
(we don't need to worry about left vs right cosets because addition is commutative)
left and right just refers to where you're applying the offset?
either to the left or right?
right, it's like gH = { gh : h in H } or Hg = { hg : h in H }
ok I appreciate it
first is the left coset and the second is the right
okay so
v + P = {(x,y,z) : x + y + z = 3}
can you make a conjecture about what all the cosets of P are?
like what they look like
x + y + z = n?
not just an integer
or can all real numbers be applied to cosets
yeah right
if we worked in Z^3 the answer would be different, but also we'd lose some of the geometry
exactly!
so
the cosets looks like {(x,y,z) in R^3 : x + y + z = c}
for a parameter c
what does this look like geometrically?
it's all the parallel planes!
which is the same as what you said
I think this is a good picture to keep in mind
for cosets
oh yeah that's what I meant, makes more sense
bet I appreciate it
thanks
so quickly going back to the question I posted
I'm still a little confused on what cyclic subgroups are, what would an example of a right coset of this be?
so the cyclic subgroup is H = {e, h, h^-1, h^2, h^-2,...}
so on, forever
if h has finite order n then H = {e, h, ..., h^(n-1)}
what does h^n denote (I'm very new to group theory, my bad)
so you just keep multiplying h with itself
oh, ^n is like a power
h^3 = h * h * h
yeah but how does that apply to a group
yeah
oh so this is just the operation of the S3 applied n times
Do you have notes/a textbook?
oh
then uh
don't do that?
why are you searching random group theory problems online without reading a textbook?
idk I didn't think it would be as abstract with all the notation
thought it would be more intuitive like other math classes
I mean idk how you would learn like, calculus without reading some notes/textbook/watching lecture
fair enough
I was more like comparing it to number theory, where you can learn a lot from just thinking abt the problem
you can do that in group theory too
sorry for wasting your time 😦 should've consulted notes before
but it's the same in number theory, you need to see a definition of "equal mod n" eventually
true
np haha, you didn't waste my time
But I think you are wasting yours a little if you don't use outside notes
and just to reiterate, doing problems is really important for learning math in general, but you need to also know definitions
I like Dummit and Foote's book
alright thank you
just for the satisfaction of finishing this problem though, what would some right cosets be?
I saw this on wikipedia
just the permutations of 123, is this what S3 is about?
S_3 is the set of permutations of the numbers 1, 2, and 3
Any ideas for this? I played around with \alpha and noticed it was the negative golden ratio, so it's a root of X^2+X-1 in Q[X]. However, I only managed to get this b/c I plugged it into a calculator. Is there any efficient way of getting the minimal polynomial of \alpha?
Maybe not a good strategy in general, but if you already know it's quadratic, you can square alpha and try to write it as a linear combination of alpha and 1
I tried this and got (writing beta for zeta) $$\alpha^2=\beta^6+2\beta^5+\beta^4=\beta^4+\beta+2.$$
Athurus
It might also be helpful to note that this number is 2cos(2pi/5)
not sure how to express this in terms of alpha and 1
yeah I got that
so I thought of using chebyshev polynomials but that seems kinda overkill (although it worked)
yeah, so you need to use the fact that $\zeta^4 + \zeta^3 + \zeta^2 + \zeta + 1 = 0$
Zopherus
oh yes of course, then I assume that reduces it to a degree 2?
something like that yeah
alright ill give it a shot
ah yes it works, thanks so much that was a lot easier than I had originally thought
wait, it's all just matricies
Hmmm, how would I approach finding a basis for part (5)?
I know from experience that this ring R is a representation of the quaternions
that was pretty standard to show
and I know that M_2(C) is a free module over R because, every module over a division ring has a basis
I tried some basic guesses, but nothing seems promising, any tips?
would anyone help with in thinking with this problem (not give answer)
I know that the two subgroups mentioned are indeed cyclic
but I'm unsure how to get to G is cyclic from this fact though
it seems like it might be related to multiplying groups but we haven't covered that yet - perhaps someone could comment on if it does?
if there's only one subgroup of a given order, that subgroup must be normal
so you have normal subgroups of orders 3 and 11
I'm not sure what a normal sub group is
ah
we haven't covered that either
basic idea: let x!=0. There are 3 possibilities for the order of x: 3, 11, or 33. Show that the order of x is not 3 nor 11.
Okay sure that was an approach I was considering
The problem is, I don't know of anyway to show that an element can't be of order 3
Espec. here because it could be of order 3. In fact exactly one x is of order 3
oops, i made a mistake.
let x!=0 have maximal order in G. Then x has order 11 or 33.
I think this is probably the right place to start
problem 4 is basically free marks, but I have no clue how to find a basis for M(C, 2x2) over the quaternion matrices qwq
I don't know a lot about modules, but maybe: do free modules have a well defined dimension? The at least if it is free it must be dimension no more than 4. and you could probably show it's not 1
Not in general for noncommutative rings, but it should all work out here since we're working over a base field C
I think dim_C R = 2 and dim_C M_2(C) = 4 but I'm not sure (about the dimension of R)
yeah that sounds right
so I just need to find 2 linearly independent matrices?
No, that's not sufficient
In Z×Z the elements (2,0) and (0, 2) are linearly independent but not a basis
It might be sufficient since R is a division ring?
yeah you're right, it's not sufficient because I could take [[1, 0], [0, 0]] and [[0, 1], [0, 0]]
even with a division ring it doesn't work
oh wait
it does! :U
Okay so for my question here's what I came up with
You have an element that generates a group with order 11
and an element that generates a group with order 3
at most there are a total of 14 elements between these groups
then take an element not in those 14 elements
This element must have an order of 33 since there is only 1 group of 11 and 1 group of 3
(and don't take the identity element)
But I'm no sure perhaps someone could help debunk this
could it not have some other order
it doesn't say that those are the only subgroups
Right but since the order of an element has to divide the group the only options are 11, 3 and 33
11 and 3 are already taken
(and it says there's only one of them)
nice! sorry if I wasn't much help
to my memory linear algebra works pretty much the same over a division ring
in some ways it's better than modules over a commutative ring
(in other ways it's worse)

wait srs?
i rmb there being very messed up things
like AB=1 doesnt imply BA=1 i think?
honestly idk noncom kinda pain
hey can someone explain to me the intuition behind lower central series of a lie algebra
I get its used to show nilpotency
but I dont actually get what's happening
do we keep quotienting the group till we get the centre?
In the definition for a transitive group action, I am unsure of why we need to say for all x, rather than for any x in S. Is there an example of a situation where the orbit of one element in a set is equal to the set, but the orbit of another element in that set isn't equal to the set?
It seems a bit unnecessary, because it seems to me that if the orbit of any element is equal to the set then wouldn't the orbit of every element be equal to the set?
uh could you give the full definition
okay
yeah, on it, lol
I'm just thinking of this in terms of the basic example of say, the cyclic group C_3
why we need to say for all x, rather than for any x in S.
what's the difference?
oh by "any" you mean pick a particular x?
Sorry, I should have said, that there exists an x
sure
sure as in, yes that would also be correct or just with my clarification?
no, i mean your clarification
the canonical example AFAIK is an orthogonal group acting on, say, R^2 \ {0}
Yeah I agree that the definition is stronger than strictly necessary, but as you note, they're equivalent and this form is a lot earlier to use in practice
And its also more intuitive too
no this isnt stronger?
wait
its just as strong as you need for equivalence, right? unless im being a dumbass
because the action on the unit circle is transitive
but it isnt on R^2 \ {0}
if two definitions are equivalent, how can one be stronger than necessary

that makes no sense
I just mean the statement seems stronger, even though its not actually
oh lmao
Like usually we write things as "weak" as possible in some sense, because usually its easier to prove weaker statements
but we don't do so here because of what I said
this is the canonical example of what, exactly?
of a case where "there exists x" wouldnt be enough
there might be a simpler example but this is the first that comes to mind
Okay, so in the case of R^2 \ {0} there is an element where the orbit of that element under action with the orthogonal group is equal to R^2 \ {0}?
wait yeah uh, I'm pretty sure these are equivalent nami
A lot of transitivity proofs do go through the alternative statement you use though. Like choosing a special element x in S and showing that you can get from x to everywhere
showing that the action of a group on its Cayley graph is transitive for example often does this where you choose the identity element of your group/Cayley graph
Getting my wires crossed is a regular occurence, no worries
Okay! That's actually great to hear, because I was about to do a transitivity proof and it seemed like proving it for all elements was a bit unecessary
anyone know about the weight lattice for algebraic torus?
In mathematics, an algebraic torus, where a one dimensional torus is typically denoted by
G
m
{\displaystyle \mathbf {G} _{\mathbf {m} }}
,
G
...
So the weight lattice of an algebraic torus is the group of algebraic homomorphisms from your torus to the multiplicative group in your field
basically, the group of characters of your algebraic torus
where the group operation is pointwise multiplication
the weight lattice will be a free abelian group whose rank is the same as that of the torus
that's actually pretty cool imo, is there an obvious reason as to why that's true?
I guess each of the generators of this free abelian group will be the character with is just projecting onto the i'th coordinate, and sending the other coordinates to 1.
yep. makes sense
wikipedia says taking weights gives an anti equivalence between the category of algebraic tori and the category of free abelian groups
thats kinda cool 🤔
why would it be an anti-equivalence? i guess it has to do with taking maps out of tori? its like taking the dual space of a vector space
which are maps out of the original vector space
thats exactly why.
Say you have a morphism of algebriac tori T -> S.
Then form the weight lattices X* (T) and X*(S).
Take any character in X*(S) and precompose with the map T -> S to get a character in X *(T).
This gives a map X*(S) -> X *(T) between free abelian groups in the opposite direction.
i like this
How do you recover a map T -> S between algebraic tori from a map between their weight lattices X*(S) -> X *(T) in the opposite direction?
well lets just work with the rank 1 case for now
lets say T and S are both rank 1
then a map between them will just be taking an N'th power
this induces a map between weight lattices X*(S) -> X *(T), namely the one that's multiplication by N
(just think about it, ask me if you have questions lol)
I just realized that an map between tori T-> S will always be surjective
kinda like a covering map
wait is that true?
no
say you have a weight lattice Z^2 and another one Z, and the map between then is projection onto the first coordinate
this is definitely a valid map between abelian groups
so there should be a corresponding map between algebraic tori
and I claim it the injection of a rank one torus into a rank two torus, where its identity on the first coordinate and a constant 1 in the second
ok this actually makes a lot of sense
In the mathematical field of representation theory, a weight of an algebra A over a field F is an algebra homomorphism from A to F, or equivalently, a one-dimensional representation of A over F. It is the algebra analogue of a multiplicative character of a group. The importance of the concept, however, stems from its application to representatio...
you know after reading that definition I'm slightly disappointed that's not called an eigenweight
"In this context, a weight of a representation is a generalization of the notion of an eigenvalue, and the corresponding eigenspace is called a weight space. "
Another better term would be eigencharacter
eigeneigen
I'm working a problem and I think I just need some clarification here... So I'm trying to prove Burnside's lemma
But it seems to me that one gets that |F|/|G| = the sum for all x of 1 / |orb(x)| which is not the same thing as the number of orbits in the action of G on X
What is F exactly?
I think this may be an issue of parsing the question
but to me |F|/|G| being equal to the number of orbits in the action of G on X means that |F|/|G| = the sum for x in X of |orb(x)|
but I am pretty clearly getting the sum for x in X of 1/|orb(x)|
you may also want to note that
where
I just have a suspicion that this question is phrased in a way that is either counterintuitive, or is perhaps just wrong
I think it's just how many orbits there are
How is A* a graded ring? For example, if x is an element of a, then x* = (0, x, 0, 0, ...) is an element of A*, so if A* is graded we would havw x*^2 in a^2, but it is not!
Its square is (0, x^2, 0,...), so still not an element of the summand a^2.
I am missing something, but I don't know what it is..
ye that's not the multiplication on A^*
x lives in degree 1
x^2 lives in degree 2
I guess the example to keep in mind is just a polynomial ring over a field
say k[t]
we have a module iso $k[t] \rightarrow \oplus_{0}^\infty k$
Brofibration
but the multiplication on the ring is not componentwise multiplication on the thing on the right
it's multiplication of polynomials
idk if that made sense @cyan marten
im super sleepy
but lemme know if youre still confused
go to sleep
I am typing up homework 
word problems come back with a vengeance
combinatorics is just the study of word problems
just spam gen functions
i have no idea what a generating function is
people seem to like the book generatinfunctionology
i wish I knew more computer science and coding 
generatingfunctionological generatingfunctionology
Functional generatingfunctionology
It's weird how we have both geometric algebra and algebraic generatingfunctionology
functionological generating theory
function
fonction
🥖
fun
I have some very exciting and tense news
⠀
I got a really great sealed deck on magic arena and am currently 1 game from winning the league
no losses so far

















It is the biggest/best thing going on in my life rn
It did. I am still annoyed they didn't how multiplication works..
graded stuff is confusing
I have a tweet about this
It's so dumb
It's literally like, nothing. Graded rings have so little info
And yet
So confusing
graded rings 
Why are graded rings/things so confusing for me. It's literally just indexes and extra sign terms. There's nothing to be confused by!!!!
I was doing singular cohomology stuff I think
yes do it
so you can find my account?

graded stuff confused the crap out of me while doing proj for the first time
i can reply but make it so you can't see the reply 

That too brofib
I think like, twisting sheaf/shifting the degree on O_X modules was when I totally checked out of my AG class
yup
I mean I was very behind and lost anyways but something about the graded stuff was too much
Alright wish me luck gang
Good to know!
I'm gonna beat this league without any losses

Is my intuition for a-filtrations of bounded difference (a an ideal) correct?
M_i and M'_i are of bounded difference iff they define the same topology


Currently at 1 loss 0 wins in my second go at the final round...
okay I won this round
it all comes down to this

welp I lost lol
Opponent had a crazy deck
gahhh
Can someone tell me about a non-trivial use of Yoneda's Lemma?
i had something interesting come up with yoneda the other day. there's these things called characteristic classes in topology, and they're pretty much natural transformations from a specific contravariant functor F to the cohomology ring functor Top^op -> Set. It's a nontrivial theorem that F is representable, but once you know it you know characteristic classes are really just elements of the cohomology ring of the representing object
F(X) is the set of isomorphism classes of vector bundles over X, if that is meaningful to you
(you actually need to add some topological niceness constraints but if you eg restrict to cw complexes everything I've said is valid)
Oh and this is interesting because you can actually just compute the cohomology ring of that representing object explicitly
Sorry, I'm trying to think of examples without blackboxing things
Yoneda is very important in AG but I'm going to butcher it if I try to explain
@next obsidian if you're up
I'd still like to hear it
So one thing yoneda tells you is that you can always work with the functor that an object represents instead of that object
Right?
you lose no information
Yup
Terminology aside: if X is a scheme, Hom(-, X) is the functor of points of X
so it turns out that a lot of schemes are awkward to work with but have very nice functors of points
Have you seen the fibered product of schemes?
Yes
Right
It's miserable
Awful construction
Annoying to work with
but!
It represents a very very nice functor
what's the functor of points of X ×_S Y?
right exactly
So it's the fibered product of the two functors of points of X and Y
So yoneda can reduce messy statements about fibered products to nice statements about functors
Why is the functor nicer? Because it's valued in sets
And we know how to prove things in sets
and actually you can use this to construct the fibered product
There are certain criteria that tell you when a functor Sch^op -> Set (or even Ring -> Set) is representable by a scheme
so one way to avoid the tedious construction of the fibered product of schemes is by showing the fiber product functor is representable
There are other useful representable functors, like A^1_Z represents the functor X |-> O_X(X)
Or even better A^1_k if you're in the category of k schemes
Okay that's pretty cool
I think so
I guess for me like, yoneda can be a powerful tool but it's most important philosophically
it tells you you go look at representable functors
Okay so here's where it gets really out there
Do you know anything about manifolds?
Uh not really
hmm okay
sure
Well we have very nice theorems about when a quotient of a manifold by a lie group/finite group action is still a manifold
Very handy for eg constructing the grassmannians as smooth manifolds
it would be nice if we had theorem like this for schemes
so assuming G is a finite group acting nicely on X, is there a scheme Y such that maps Y -> S are the same as maps X -> S which are invariant wrt the action
Does that make sense?
So in manifold world we can take a quotient of the sphere by a Z/2Z action to get projective space
I think I get what you're saying
Not the technical bit
But I can see that Yoneda is pretty useful
Sure, I won't go any further in this example
the point was going to be that these quotients don't exist as schemes, but do exist as functors
and yoneda might lead you to think, hey, schemes are just a certain type of functor
Maybe more general classes of functors are still geometric?
and that's how you end up getting into stacks
Which I know nothing about but chmonkey is currently taking a course on
Dang
I wish my school had classes as specialized as those
I think the highest we have is algebraic geometry
So I had a question
Nevermind it was a stupid question
hell yeah
Yup
Limits in a functor category are computed objectwise
(if the target category has all limits)
Is Yoneda an example of Grothedick's relative viewpoint?
They sound similar, but I just wanted to make sure I'm not completely misinterpreting them
Let F be a function field in one variable over k. Is the ring of integral elements over F of any particular importance?
I have an idea for a project and I'm trying to see if anyone knows this is worthwhile
What's the „relative viewpoint“? I've heard of grothendieck's notion of „generalized elements“ by seeing elements of X as morphisms Y→X, is that it?
Yes that's exactly it
Then I'd say yes, at least that's how Yoneda has been introduced to me.
My view on that is that in set, we can recover what a morphism f: X→Y does by „probing“ it with singleton maps *→X.
Taking a more non-trivial example, like Grp, we see that this works when we replace the singleton by ℤ.
Yoneda now gives us that Hom(Hom(-,X),Hom(-,Y)) \simeq Hom(X,Y) (modulo some covariant-contravariant-swap I always do), which essentally means that morphisms X→Y can be recovered once we get a natural translation of the generalized elements, i.e. „probes“ of X to generalized elements of Y. So Yoneda is essentially saying that this „trick“ works no matter how absurd your category is, once you include all the objects of your category as possible probes.
Got it. Thanks for the detailed answer
Yoneda is cool because when you want to generalize a scheme you generalize it by working with certain nice functors which in a sense let you glue (have descent) the way a scheme does
In order to do this you’d need to know that a scheme is a type of functor, because how can you generalize a scheme to a special functor if it isn’t a special case of tha?
So to even define these things you end up implicitly using that morphism of the functors of points are exactly the same as normal morphisms between the schemes.
There’s also a lot of constructions which are easier to verify from the functor of points. If you want to define a group scheme it’s actually easiest (IMO) to consider it as a factorization of the functor of points through the category of groups. Then, to define an action of a group scheme on another scheme it suffices to actually define a on the nose group action on the functor of points
This for example makes it easy to see that the pullback of a principal G-bundle is again a principal G-bundle, and the G-equivariance of a map is again, easy to see via the functor of points
This lecture is part of an online graduate course on Lie groups.
We give several examples to show that, over fields of positive characteristic, Lie algebras can behave strangely, and have a weaker connection to Lie groups. In particular the Lie algebra does not generate the ring of all invariant differential operators.
For the other lectures...

hey guys, if i and j are solvable ideals of g
why is 1 - j a solvable ideal of i + j
characteristic classes, cohomology operations
Lol char classes were my example
on a side note, how comes [i+j, i+j] = [i,i] + [j,j] + [i,j]? shouldn't there be a 2 on [i,j]?
I'd never thought about this but it's a very interesting perspective on yoneda's lemma
wait no I thought about this a couple weeks ago in terms of simplicial sets I just forgot
Still very interesting
it's a really good article
gets me in the mood for category meming
and then 30min later the category meming gets too dry and I want to do something more concrete 
lol
This notation is used by eg Alper
It’s a good notation
Well it's not really the notation I care about, it's the fact that maps h_U -> F are the same as elements of F(U)
Which is what we'd expect if F were maps into some fixed space
this is like how we can think of the elements of a simplicial set as like singular simplices, since Δ[n] -> X is the same as X_n
Division
?
multiplication by inverses?
So, $\mathbb{R}/n\mathbb{Z}={n\mathbb{Z}+r;|;r\in[0,1)}$, how do you in a similar way like $\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z}$
亜城木 夢叶
Uh what? That's just the n = 1 case
when n = 1, we have [0,1)
No, I mean that R/Z is just R/nZ if you let n = 1
i am looking for a general form
Zopherus
which is the same thing that you have if you set n = 1
its okay, dw ab it :)
Hello c: I had a simple group theory question that I asked a while ago but am still not clear on. The exercise given is this:
And the author defines powers like this:
When I did part (a) myself, I just argued that $x^{a+b}$ is $xxx...x$ (a+ b times), so you can split it into two groupings, one with "a" of them, and one with "b" of them. The product is independent of bracketing (which was proved earlier in the section), so the new product is the same.
But when I looked online, the solution given was to perform induction on "b" ONLY. My question is why you wouldn't also need to perform a double induction, using both "a" and "b".
kirafa
I'm not sure why induction is necessary at all if you already have associativity of multiplication (the general version you are allowed to multiply any number of terms in any order). But I guess if you don't have general associativity then you need to be more careful, and induction is necessary
