#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 549 of 407
is it obvious?
you don't have to use induction on a to prove x^(a+0) = x^a x^0
that is very obvious yes
i mean i think it's obvious but i've gotten burned before when i tried to assume stuff like that
alright
I mean x^(a+0) = x^a = x^a 1 = x^a x^0 if you really want to "prove" it
but that is a very obvious statement that you can take for granted
I feel
general associativity has already been shown in a preceding exercise
i just thought it was a bit strange to require induction for something that seems so straightforward, especially given that we're allowed to just count the number of terms in each product
I agree yeah
alright sweet, thanks so much (:
@crystal vault this is a common idea
For some statements, you can prove them directly without induction
Like the statement that 1+2+...+n = n(n+1)/2 you can prove directly with no induction
ooooh yeah i was gonna ask about that at some point
just because something has to do with natural numbers doesn't mean you need induction right?
So for these, you take an arbitrary n and prove it for that arbitrary n
like you can just say "let $n \in N$"
Yeah exactly
ok perfect
So they're taking an arbitrary a
kirafa
But using induction on b
oh ok
perfect, that clears up the rest of the confusion
but all the same, i don't necessarily need to use induction for this, right?
Yeah agreed
ok sweet, thanks so much
this has been bothering me for a while
so i really appreciate all your guys' help
@mild laurel why did you give up honorable?
Let's say the integral domain has a minimal ideal
Now,This ideal is principal (otherwise it's clearly not minimal)
Call the generator a
Let's say there is a nonzero element b,now consider the ideal generated by ab
ab is not 0, since this is an integral domain
and (ab) is contained in (a)
oh, and that is not possible since this minimal ideal cannot (ab) in it?
Yes
Although you need to check if (ab) is a proper ideal of (a)
Just pick b to be a nonunit(This requires the ring to be an integral domain)
If all elements are units,(AKA a field) your statement is true, since there are no proper ideals
||Let's say b is a non unit and (ab)=(a) this implies abk=a for some k,which implies a(bk-1)=0 implying b is a unit,a contradiction||
minimal ideal means ideal which doesn't contain a proper nonzero ideal
Your proof has a slight flaw. You’d have to show there’s no ring in which you have exactly one nonzero non-unit
Err...
No you’re fine
I retract my statement because you can look at a^2
you still need to show that (ab) is not (a) I think
ah right b noninvertible
Nvm
Chmonkey
Also I really dislike the idea that a minimal ideal is necessarily non-zero
Since for AG the fact that an integral domain has generic point the zero ideal is because that’s a minimum prime
Feels kinda weird
In AG we only look at prime ideals though
minimal prime ideals are minimal among the prime ideals
not the best at abstract algebra here
let $\textrm{res} : \hat{A} \to \hat{B}$ be defined by $\chi \mapsto \chi \mid_B$ where $A,B$ are finite abelian groups and $\hat{A}$ is the dual group of $A$ and $B$ is a subgroup
bacono
prove that $\ker \textrm{res} \cong \widehat{A / B}$
bacono
I'm thinking some finagling with the first isomorphism theorem of groups but honestly I'm not sure how to approach this
I don't think it's really first isomorphism
I think using the idea that anything in the kernel of this map takes the value 1 on all of B, you can get a map from the kernel to \widehat{A/B}
slimvesus
I think I see, I'll try that
What?
0 ideal
oh right, was thinking of only primes
squirtlespoof
$\frac{\mathbb{Z}_{M}}{{Nj,j= 0,\dots,M/N}}=\frac{{0,1,\dots,M-1}}{{Nj,j= 0,\dots,M/N}}$
亜城木 夢叶
it is under addition, dont see how do they form a group
Neil_P
I guess ( { 1, e^{2 i \pi /3} } ) makes a spans the extension field?
Neil_P
not quite
well, it factors considerably
you should think about what the irreducible polynomials it factors into are to determine the degree
Any tips? I'm trying to prove that, in general, the degree of the splitting field of ( x^n - 1 ) over ( \mathbb Q ) is ( \phi( x ) ), where ( \phi ) is the euler toitent function
Neil_P
would this be ( (x^3 -1)(x^3 +1) = x^6 -1 ) ?
Neil_P
Gotcha - how does that generalize?
well from the geometric series you can see x^n - 1 is divisible by x^d - 1 when d|n
Right - because they're roots of unity
My bad - there's more to the question that I forgot to mention
Neil_P
hmm - I think I misread the problem then. it does actually say ( e^{ \frac{n \pi i }{2}} )
Neil_P
Probably on the instructor's part then. You're right
wait - isn't it (2 pi i / n)? Because a full turn around the circle is ( 2 pi i), and you want (1/n) th of that
Yeah that
This is equivalent to showing that the cyclotomic polynomials are irreducible.
Thank you
Let $w=\sqrt{-14}$ then
a+bw=(a-2b) mod P=
rem((a-2b)/18)) mod P
DrunkenDrake
18 is the smallest natural number in P
So consider the map
phi:Z[√-14]->Z/18
phi(a+bw)=(a-2b)+18Z
the set of ideals of Z_18 is just {0, 3, 6, 9, 12, 15} and {0, 2, 4, 6, ..., 16}
meaning the # of ideals of R containing P is just 2
was what i wrote correct
im still wondering how an ideal containing P would look like
You left {0},{0,6,12} and {0,9}
dumb q, in ring theory do we not consider 0 and R as subrings
or however the terminology works
They are subrings
Tho,we don't usually call R a ideal of R
The corresponding ideal to say {0,9} would be P U 9+P
Where P=<2+√-14>
An ideal of R containing P is the preimage of some ideal in R/P(the map being R->R/P phi(a)=a+P)
If a is not 1,y is uniquely defined by x
im just not quite sure what to do about a, b, x, and y being in Z_p and a, x being in the units of Z_p
Z_p here is p-adics?
its the group of integers mod p
Otherwise, that statement just says a is nonzero
dont think its p-adics cus we didnt get that far
but a can be 1 because gcd(p, 1) = 1
Take that as a separate case
When a=1 ,it depends on b
If b is zero,x can be anything
If b is nonzero,x is 1
And y can be anything
ok ill try to do it case by case
but theres only two possible cases for a and x anyway: 1 and p (mod p)
Hi, how would i go about listing all the cyclic subgroups of < Z_10, + > ?
my first thought was that every set under Z_10 is a cyclic subgroup, since they're all groups under addition
i guess the bit that's confusing me is how a set like Z_6 is a cyclic group under addition, when it has more than 1 generator
every set under Z_10?
a cyclic group can be generated by multiple elements, that's fine
i mean: multiple elements in a cyclic group can generate that group
so what is the definition of a cyclic group then?
generated by a single element (doesnt have to be unique)
oh
so kind of looking at each element separately
so there's groups which can be generated by more than 1 element?
sure
Z/6Z is generated by either 1 or 5
but for your original question first think about which order those subgroups can even have
(or actually you can just look at the subgroup generated by each element)
Hey !
I'm a bit stuck here, let me explain
I'm working on clifford algebra here,
and i need to find a condition for a,b,c, and d such that A is an automorphism
And after that, i need to describe all the matrix-A that satisfies thoses conditions
any idea on where/how to start here ? :)
K_
Where,
K_
In R, any "uncountable infinite sum" is essentially countable, in the sense that almost all terms vanish. Is this true in any topological abelian group?
The proof I know uses the ordering of R.
how do you define an uncountable sum without an ordering?
the definition I know in R involves taking a supremum
I only need to order the index set, not my group.
I don't know what the standard way is, but I saw it defined as the sup over all finite sums (which also doesn't need ordering).
I am not sure how the approach by nets work, but it seems more satisfactory.
Oh, my bad
What if I consider all accumulation points of the set of finite sums?
Also, does the approach via nets use ordering? From what I understood, we define a net whose elements are finite sums (I am thinking of a well-ordered uncountable index set), and then one can speak of its convergence.
Yeah, as you said, for this we need an ordered group.
slimvesus
I was thinking of the sequence 1/n, which has a single accumulation point and thus converges to it. But this is misleading, because if we consider the net (?) 1/x for x in (0, 1), say, then every point is an accumulation point, and we can't read off the "limit".
I see
I am still not sure how to define f_a though
Aha
And we use the natural ordering, right?
I mean an element is farther off in the net if it corresponds to a larger finite set.
I see
To make sure I follow, this is equivalent to "sup of all finite sums" formulation, right?
When we're working in an ordered group.
But it seems strange that we could drop the ordering and get the same thing..
Maybe it works but it's trivial in the sense that it rarely ever converges
Me neither
What's the sum of the set X = (-1, 1)?
I think it just doesn't converge
It's just sup{s1 + s2 +... + sn : s_i in X}
Here the elements are distinct
X is a set - we don't have indexing, so there are no "repeated elements" (which can happen if we have a sequence, say).
In the definition I saw, yes, but I don't see why it's necessary.
Ohh, good point.
Makes sense.
Let I be an ideal of a commutative ring A. Define I^\infty = the intersection of all powers of I.
I was thinking of products whose terms are elements of I
Let A have the I-adic topology. A convergent (countably) infinite product whose elements are in I is in I^infty..
Is it true that elements of I^infinity are such countable products?
More accurately, linear combinations of them, just like the situation of I^n.
For context, this is (trivially?) true when A is Noetherian, by Krull's intersection theorem.
I^infty is a really curious object
Pretty sure you're gonna need to force localness of the ring as well, or at the very least I < J(R)
At least if you want to use Krull's intersection theorem
Ohh, I had just learnt it, so I forgot.
Let's go with I <= J(R)
I have a question with exercise 1.8
In order for this problem to make sense I think you need to assume that G is abelian
I don’t think that product is wel-defined otherwise
If G is trivial group, then f=e, but order of e is 1
That doesn’t satisfy the hypothesis of the problem
The trivial group doesn’t have any elements of order 2
You don’t need to say nontrivial
The trivial group does not have exactly one element of order 2
Maybe it is meant in the sense that no matter which ordering we used, the result would be the same. That would be pretty interesting.
I don’t think this is true tho
I don’t have a counterexample, but I would be mad surprised
Maybe look at Q_8
No
Ohh, my bad
Q_8 fits the bill
Yup
I see where your brain was headed
But not every Sylow-2 is made of only order 2 stuff haha
What 2-groups have exactly one element of order 2?
I think it's possible that Q8 is the only one
Maybe the generalized quaternions are a generalized counterexample
Highly doubt this
But then, in such a group G, we will have a^(|a|/2) = z, where z is of order 2.
For every element a in G
I think this is a relatively strong restriction, at any rate.
Yeah
Yeah
Well.. That doesn't really help
To classify these groups, it suffices to classify 2-groups with this property. But the hypothesis never holds in a 2-group.
Let z be of order 2. Then <z> is normal, and thus we can consider G/<z>, and try to prove that it has the same property..
This could ultimately help in proving that only generalized quaternions have this property (if it's true)
If that's true, and G is of order 2^(n + 1) and has a unique involution, then by induction G/<z> is isomorphic to Q_(2^n)
So G is an extension of Q_(2^n) by C2. I choose to believe that this forces G to be the next generalized quaternion group.
Why is the r module not free
Which R module?
Yeah

twitter reference
ah jeez
i have small question
suppose i have the following permutation expressed in the um
( ) notation
forgot the name
anyway
ab = (13)(245)(6)(124356)
i want to reduce this to product of disjoint cycles
oh its called cycle notation 💀 lmao
ok
yeah so i got to this so far
= (14)(25....?
idk how to deal with that 6
i know we usually omit the 6 but i just left it in there cus why not
5 will go to 6 but 6 just.. stays there
i want to put 6 after 5 and just close the cycle but 6 doesn't go to 2??
maybe i am over tinking this
😔
see where each number is mapped
and make your cycles from that
rather than trying to do an ad-hoc method
so:
1 -> 4
2 -> 5
3 -> 2
and so on
once youve completed the list you can just follow each element to make a cycle
and these are guaranteed to be disjoint.
Very quick question. With a cyclic group (Z_n, +) (modular arithmetic). Are all subgroups covered by the set of subgroups formed by all valid generators?
covered?
equality really
oh i thought you meant like, topological covering
uh
every group has generators
and certainly if its a subgroup of Z_n those generaators will be from Z_n
im not sure what you mean by "valid generators" admittedly
I guess it is better re-phrased. Can a cyclic group have a subgroup that is not a cyclic subgroup, just a group.
Like, if I find all generators of these finite groups. Can I simply use them to find all subgroups?
ohh nami that worked ty
oh no, subgroups of cyclic groups must be cyclic
this is actually a good exercise
a single generator yes
but yeah this is a good exercise, although iirc the most elementary proof requires the division algorithm
nice, I was hoping that was the case. I'm still pretty shakey with groups and subgroups. the common rotational symmetry examples make perfect sense but when it gets all numerical it starts to get a little less confortable
i feel that
im in my first course in group theory
and it was fun and games with the dihedral group
me too 🥴
but then they did cyclic groups
in fact
and i shat myself
yeah, I'm in both my first course on groups, and first course on graph theory. All of these new proof styles are hurting my brain 🥴 I'm coming from just a bunch of analysis courses
(an analogous result holds for the infinite cyclic group btw)
(the only subgroups of the infinite cyclic group are [isomorphic to] the infinite cyclic group itself)
(and the trivial group)
(in fact, if you really wanna nerd out, you can prove the theorem in the screenshot i posted using that fact! since the infinite cyclic group is Z and its subgroups are nZ, just consider quotient groups Z/nZ)
@scarlet estuary when you said every group has generators, how does that work? I've been learning about cyclic groups and their generators. But if the generators aren't a property of this cyclic setting, it starts to confuse me.
Like if a group isn't cyclic, does that just mean that it contains a cyclic group generated by certain elements, but then there's also some other stuff that is in the group but can't be in a cyclic subgroup?
to clarify
every group has some generating set
its just that cyclic groups have exactly one generator
other groups have more than one generator
ohh, so it's just a lil nuance with the definition of a cyclic group. gotcha
(except the trivial group which has an empty generating set)
this fact follows from groups being closed BTW
yeah, I get that
suppose there is an element g not generated by the generating set S of a group. then we could construct a new generating set S' = S U {g} and it would now generate g (and it still only generates group elements since they're closed).
then S U {g} would be a generating set that actually generates g
contradiction
this argument can be applied if S is empty.
(again, unless your group is the trivial group! in fact the assumption that g isn't the identity is necessary)
So with a group in general. Would it be valid to say that every element in a group G is in at least one cyclic subgroup?
And this is just the group of integer powers of g with respect to whatever group operation?
so just to be clear, if we generate a group from an arbitrary g in G, it doesn't ensure in any way that this cyclic subgroup is finite or contains the identity right?
in fact, more generally, for any finite set of elements of a group G, there exists a smallest subgroup H of G given by intersecting all subgroups containing each of those elements
And this is just the group of integer powers of g with respect to whatever group operation?
yes
so just to be clear, if we generate a group from an arbitrary g in G, it doesn't ensure in any way that this cyclic subgroup is finite or contains the identity right?
it must contain the identity but it may not be finite
it must contain the identity because g^0 = e
but it won't be finite if g^n is not equal to g for any n > 1
this can, of course, only happen if the parent group is infinite as well
ah, so g^0 is like a trivial case?
yes
the identity can be generated by any set
by just taking empty products
and this should make sense, since after all, these are subgroups
so they must have an identity
the fact that they coincide with the group identity is perhaps less immediately obvious
but it can be proved from uniqueness of inverses
yeah that makes sense

sorry if i kinda threw a ton of facts at you there
its just that cyclic groups are VERY well-behaved
so its easy to rapid-fire rattle off a lot of info about them
no no it all makes sense. That H and G smallest subgroup part was a little confusing but everything else makes sense
in fact, more generally, for any finite set of elements of a group G, there exists a smallest subgroup H of G given by intersecting all subgroups containing each of those elements
basically suppose you have a set of elements {g_1, g_2, ... g_n} from G
i want to find a "smallest" subgroup H of G that contains g_1, g_2, ... g_n
by "smallest" i mean
is a subset (and thus a subgroup) of any other subgroup containing g_1, g_2, ... g_n
since intersections of subgroups are subgroups (a good exercise!), what we can do is just
take ALL the subgroups of G that contain {g_1, g_2, ... g_n}
and take the intersection of all of 'em
and that MUST be the smallest subgroup containing them all
if your set {g_1, g_2, ... g_n} only has one element [so it actually looks like {g_1}], we get the fact we were talking about earlier
Ah, I haven't seen the fact about intersections before (or maybe I missed it 🤔 )
that makes sense
actually i dont think finiteness is required here either
so your set of elements could be infinite if you wanted
since arbitrary intersections of subgroups are subgroups

thats harder to prove though

yeah, interesting 
thats a side tangent to the discussion about cyclic groups in any case
but it does show that in many ways, facts about cyclic groups are just "simpler" versions of facts about general groups
this is a theme that shows up frequently in algebra: facts about principal ideals are "simpler" versions of facts about finitely generated ideals
facts about groups are "simpler" versions of facts about groupoids
theyre just a weird categorical generalization of groups
you dont have to worry about them, theyre not that useful if youre not doing pure category theory
basically its like, the defining/interesting property of groups is the fact that we can take inverses, right?
closure, associativity, identity are "common" features of operations we study
since these show up in function composition
being able to take an inverse of every element is "special"
groupoids are the category theory version of groups essentially
ah, interesting
a category where all the morphisms are invertible
by the way, when people say "group theory is the study of symmetry", this inverse thing is usually what they mean
that's what makes groups special: theyre the "simplest" structure in which we can take inverses, hence the natural setting to discuss symmetry
(this isnt technically true, there are actually simpler structures, but they're far less nice than groups)
ah, like "morphisms" branching out to other terms like isomorphism and homeomorphism that are used all over the place?
yeah, a "morphism" is a function that preserves some sort of structure
theres a precise categorical definition but thats the intuition
homomorphisms preserve the structure of the group operation (or whatever youre taking a homomorphism of)
a homeomorphism preserves the topological structure of the space
(in the sense of being continuous)
etc
yeah interesting. I have all the linear algebra, real/complex analysis, and calculus I could ever need so I know those contexts. but its a bit weird to go to pure algebra and work on the "lower level" structures
sets have no structure, so "morphisms" in the context of pure sets
are just functions
since there's no structure to preserve
only pretentious people call them "morphisms" in this context
sane people call them "functions"
sadly category theorists arent sane
Really pretentious people call them set-functions 😌
ah, so if I say like "bijection", that's in the context of a function on a pure set and the lack of structure. but using the word "isomorphism" is implying that we have the same kind of mapping but some sort of structure is being preserved?
I always wondered why the two words were used almost interchangeably at times.
well in linear algebra we have isomorphism as a consequence of invertible (bijective) linear transformation and so the dimension of the vector spaces are the same right
so is this a similar thing
but instead of dimension it's just
size of the group or something
you can have bijective maps between groups that arent isomorphisms
o
i didn t know that :3
but like, if i have two groups of 8 elements
yeah, so you would say that "the bijective mapping sometimes carries the isomorphic property"
and just pair up their elements randomly
this is a bijection
but (probably) not an isomorphism
ah okay yeah that makes sense.
thats a bit of a weird way to phrase it but sure
wait oh do i have it backwards
to be precise, an isomorphism is just:
- a homomorphism
- that is a bijection
isomorphism implies bijective
thats all
in a linear algebra context when we talk about linear maps
"linear map" is a synonym for "vector space homomorphism"
so we're already talking about homomorphisms
hence bijective linear maps are already isomorphisms
the terminology can get a bit criss-crossy.
ah yeah, I think the linear algebra context was what confused me but "linear map" is a synonym for "vector space homomorphism" clears it up a lot
For groups or linear transformations, Isomorphism = bijective + homomorphism
In namington's examples of groups the bijection won't preserve multiplication
Could someone help me with this linear algebra problem? im lost
not really sure where to start with this, i know that it's vectors and i need to put them into a 2x2 matrix since it's R^2 but not sure where to go from there. any help is appreciated
Z[x_1, x_2, \dots, ] for example
(x_1) \subsetneq (x_1, x_2) \subsetneq (x_1, x_2, x_3) \subsetneq \cdots
the ring of integer polynomials in infinitely many variables
anything else interesting about that beast?
oh
ig i can read more about polynomial rings on wikipage
Countably many
Smh my head zoph
has the ring of integer polynomials in continuum many variables ever come up in your life chmonkey
I’ve thought about it yes
Z[continuum many] isnt countavle
While Z[countably many] is
Which makes it smaller than Z[[x]]
Which I hate
Also not for integers but for alg closed fields of char 0 this is kinda important I think
Cuz if you have only countably many stuff you can do an embedding into C or something
do people even care about such esoteric rings
i mean id assume people do
but like
any decent reason to
poly ring in countably many variables (with a different grading) represents formal group laws
:o
wait i always thought formal groups is from finite poly rings/formal power series or am i thinking of a diff thing
yes, they are related to formal power series
a 1-dim commutative formal group law over a ring R is an element of R[[x,y]] satisfying a bunch of things
There's a ring L which represents the functor which sends a ring to formal group laws over the ring
and it's a theorem that this ring is a polynomial ring
ahhhh cool
weirder polynomial-ish rings also turn up
like the novikov ring
which turns up while defining Floer cohomology
How do I find a matrix for 4?
I mean I know how
But is there any way other than guessing the linear combination?
What do you mean guessing the linear combination?
For example, I want to know the basis representation of $\phi(\xi)=\sqrt{2-\sqrt{2}}$
Have a Banana, Bitch
How am I supposed to get that
I would probably write it in terms of xi (allowing division by xi) then reduce it to a polynomial in xi
I'm an idiot
I computed the powers of \xi and forgot that they were... powers of \xi
I got that it is equal to $\frac{\sqrt{2}}{\xi}$
Have a Banana, Bitch
Then there are two things to address, sqrt(2) is not in Q, and 1/xi is not a polynomial in xi
Can someone verify this for me?
What is the order of z = (1 + i) in the abelian group: The non-zero complex numbers with respect to multiplication?
I think the order is infinite 🤔 because regardless of proper complex rotations, this vector is not a unit vector and so it will increase in magnitude with each power, hence it never reaches the identity.
How do we address these?
How do you write sqrt(2) in terms of powers of xi and elements of Q?
yes thats right
thanks !
basis representation?
like
how 1,ξ,ξ^2,ξ^3 are linearly related?
they are linearly independent tho
ξ^4 can be seen directly from minimal polynomial
Ohhhhhhh
okok so basically what you do is
You kinda "reverse engineer" it
so an example is like
$$x=\sqrt{1+\sqrt2}$$
$$x^2=1+\sqrt2$$
$$x^2-1=\sqrt2$$
$$x^4-2x^2+1=2$$
$$x^4-2x^2-1=0$$
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
ah oops misread
Hey guys, anyone here familliar with Clifford or Weyl algebra ?
Let $Q_{ij}$ be a $n \times n$ symetrical matrix , Clifford algebra :
\begin{align}
Cl(Q) = \braket{\xi_i}{i=1,...,n \quad ; \quad \xi_i \xi_j + \xi_j \xi_i =Q_{ij}}
\end{align}
Find the condition on the matrix $A_{ij}$ so that
\begin{align}
\xi i \to \sum_i A{ij} \xi_j
\end{align}
Is an automorphism
K_

there are 5 isomorphism classes of groups of order 8
there are a little more than 1.8 billion isomorphism classes of semigroups of order 8
Hello! I am currently reading about the Banach-Tarski paradox here http://math.stmarys-ca.edu/wp-content/uploads/2017/07/Alex-Lowen.pdf. I am confused with the proof of theorem 6. The red areas are the parts that I do not understand. When defining $A_i^*$, why do we need to have braces around the set? It seems unnecessary. I am also confused with the last sentence. How does that follow directly?
おねえちゃん
What does even $g_i(A_i(R))$ mean?
おねえちゃん
||I don't like how it's written. || wrt the long red line, you can think it as making G act on R ||like multiplying the previous eqs by R||, so if you write the action you could see how does it works with the union. Why braces? Idk, as they write it as a union (and then they use A_i(R) ).
g_i( A_i(R)) is g_i acting over A_i(R), and A_i(R) is the set of g.r with g in A_i and r in R (i.e. A_i*)
Oh okay! Thanks for your answer. I am still a little confused why the set X equals the union of g_i(A_i^*). Would you care to explain this? I have also posted this question on math stackexchange (here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4038452/confused-with-a-proof-about-paradoxical-groups) in case you want to answer there!
That's why it's ugly notation
but i shall ignore that
Man, I've been sitting here for hours trying to understand this...
really frustrating
A_i looks like some subset of the group
This M is your R
so naturally $A_i R = \bigcup_{g\in A_i}gR$
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
(idk why they use a choice function)
the big brackets are probably typo
Yeah I thought so as well
you need a choice function to construct R i believe?
Homeomorfismo, that proposition in your image looks like the theorem I'm looking for!
Why choice function, just state the set of representatives
wdym?
Yes, it is
Can you send a picture of the proof?
you still need a choice function for this dont you
It's the same, you need to do what Ariana did
to construct the set of representatives
Yeees, but
Aesthetic, ig
im guessing the objective of that thesis is jus show banach tariski from zfc lol
Idk, doesn't matter
Well your book uses the same method as my picture.
I know
But the picture helps
Oh well, It's getting late here so I will try to figure it out tomorrow. Thanks for your help!
X=G.R
Yes, I understand that. But I am not sure how to go from there
Replace G by the union of gi Ai, then do what Ariana did
alright so from lin alg i remember the ker being equal to like null space or something, its analogous to the abstract algebra def right? like how would I find the kernel for this perhaps
What did Ariana do?
where ker(f)={g in G | f(g)=e'}
This
oh wait
hm
they literally say it lol
K is non empty
ok so ker(f)={A in G | f(A)=det(A)=ad-bc} is that right or
you haven't said anything about what f(A) equals
you've merely given the definition of what det(A) is
the kernel is gonna be the stuff for which that value is the identity
which in this case is 1
I think...
I must use my chmonkey brain
to remember how multiplicativity of determinat works
Yes, it will be {A in G| f(A) = 1}
is this true?
S^1 is abelian but S0(2) isnt
so how are they isomorphic
S^1 is the group of complex numbers of size 1, with multiplication
S0(2) is the group of orthogonal 2x2 matrices
0(2) is same as S0(2)
how is SO(2) nonabelian?
matrix multiplication isnt commutative
No two matrices commute?
also O(2) is not the same as SO(2)
wth i need to tell my lecturer to fix the error
anyway if two groups are isomorphic, their orders must be equal, if one is abelian then the other is and most relevantly the mapping of an element under the isomorphism has the same order as the original element
is that too opaque? it's clearer with the actual notation
we havent done much with orders yet
they both have infinite order so idk how do distinguish between them
yeah those first two things aren't really relevant
try the third
look at orders of elements
so in 0(2) the orders are all finite
the matrices represent either rotations or reflections
oh so order has to be an integer then
does it?
rational?
(btw it's O(n) not 0(n))
- raised to the power
oh. well that's really unfortunate, i gtg
someone else should be able to help you out tho
O(2) isnt abelian
oh wait duh
also, you won't be able to distinguish the groups just by looking at rotations
yes i know now. i thought SO(2) is same as O(2)
i think i was still thinking about SO(2) also
Since SO(2) ≈ S^1
what's that symbol? isomorphic?
Ari is saying this shows O(2) isn't isomorphic to S^1 × {±1}
yeah I'm just be lazy lol
SO(2) is immediately isomorphic to S^1 cuz like both are just rotations of the 2D plane
yes we did that in the first part
here
i think i was just going to go for infinite elements of order 2
then the second part is done as well
Also works
ok time to be productive

what's the operation for S^1 x {pm 1} ?
termwise multiplication?
> what's the operation on this product?
> take product
oh so S^1 x {pm 1 } is abelian but O(2) isnt
now it makes sense.
my lecture notes said O(2) is same as SO(2)
u can imagine how good they are at explaining then
also what was the argument about infinite order?
or infinite elements with order 2
so in O(2) we have infinite reflections
Yup
so (A, 1) * (A^-1, 1) = e
oh so its just 1
also no
What's A?
A represents rotation with pi
right, which is just -I
yes, so is the answer 4?
3 here too
(A, 1)
oh true
i get it now, thanks
what book do u recommend for groups and group actions?
today's my first day starting it
dummit and foote
and how is groups and symmetry by armstrong
jacobson
DUMB FOOT
dumb foot chapter 13 is dope
there's a super cool proof of wedderburn's little theorem in the exercises
Aluffi had a really cute proof in the exercises
Let $G$ be a group such that $(ab)^n = a^bb^n$ for all $a,b\in G$ and for some $n\in\mathbb{N}$. Define
$$
H = {a^n : a\in G}.
$$
Does anyone have a hint as to how I can show that $H$ is a normal subgroup?
vov&sons
I'm having trouble showing that $ga^ng^{-1}\in H$ for any $a,g\in G$.
do you mean a^nb^n?
vov&sons
g a^n g^-1=(gag^-1)^n
ah yeah sorry, my bad
doesnt this imply G is commutative already tho
cuz abab=aabb
ohh for some
oops
oh my god, I can't believe I didn't see this
thank you
so it's kind of like a telescoping sum
haha yea once you learn this you cant unsee
i rmb that problem in herstein was stuck for so long
then searched online and saw taking conjugate
and 
ya I've been trying to do some weird stuff for like an hour and it just was not working 😔
ari there is a cool thing related to this
let k be some integer
Call a group k-abelian if (ab)^k = a^k b^k for all a, b
If a group is k-abelian for three consecutive k then it is abelian
I think there's other stuff like k-abelian iff (1-k)-abelian
Sounds kind of creepy
It is weird
Let $F'/F$ be an Artin-Schreier extension of function fields over $k(x)$ given by the equation $y^p-y=f(x)$ where $f(x)\in k[x]$. and $k$ is algebraically closed. Consider the differential $x^iy^jdx$ where $i,j$ are non-negative. For what values of $i,j$ is this differential holomorphic?
Have a Banana, Bitch
Have a Banana, Bitch
But i think it has negative order at the ramified place of infinity
Here's my reasoning
Let $\bar{\infty}$ be the ramified place over $\infty$. Then notice that $x^iy^jdx=x^{i+2}y^jd(\frac{1}{x})$. Thus, $ord_{\bar{\infty}}(x^iy^jdx)=ord_{\bar{\infty}}(x^{i+2}y^j)$
Have a Banana, Bitch
Can someone verify this?
Prove that the subgroup generated by any two distinct elements of order 2 in $S_3$ is all of
S$_3$.
Yes
Yes
$\langle (1,2), (1,3) \rangle = \bigcap_ {(1,2) \cup (1,3) \subset H, H \leq S_3}H$
Yes
is this the correct definition? how could this ever be the whole group S3 ?
S_3 is just D_6 tho
Use a presentation to show the said generated subgroup will be iso to D_6
and hence S_3
is using the definition not helpful ?
can someone answer a quick question? what happens when k is 1?
I mean,just writing down the terms works too
i guess so
oh ok ty
I must say banana bitch has an interesting background, the other day you came here about a simple field extension question, today it sounds like some crazy algebraic number theory shit
so if a and b are of order 2, and d8 is of order 8, why that does mean its not possible to write every element in the form of a's and b's
Is it enough to say that, if alpha was algebraic then K_0(alpha) would be an algebraic extension of K that is larger than K_0 contradicting the fact that K_0 is the largest? I feel like this argument is too simple and I'm missing something. New argument below, but still seems too simple (especially because this question was labelled as a question that's supposed to provide bonus points).
Athurus
how do i show that sign of a permutation with odd order is even?
ive managed to show that the sign is (-1)^m where m is the number of cycles in its cycle decomposition
Decompose it into transpositions
Use this
that's how i proved this
so i decomposed it into cycles and then i decomposed each cycle like this
In an odd order cycle,There will be even number of such cycles
And each transposition is odd
that's not exactly true. m should be the number of cycles of even length in its cycle decomposition.
ah i made an error
just realised
i thought order meant the number of terms and got confused
we proved that sign(ab)=sign(a)sign(b) previously
so if a has odd order then (sign(a))^(2k+1)=1
doesnt make sense
sign of the identity is 1 right?
and a has odd order so a^(2k+1)=e
oh yh sign(a) must be 1
but if a has even order then its sign can be 1 or -1 right?
hello
i am once again returning to ask for help 😔
for two things this time
i need to prove that the inverse of an odd permutation is odd
i think i know how to do this but im so worried about missing something
if you have a cycle with an even # of terms, then the sign of that cycle is -1.
do u know sign(a)sign(b)=sign(ab)?
in my proof i said basically this: Take some odd permutation K = k_1k_2...k_j where each k is a 2 cycle
sign?
wait what is sign
order?
then ur not meant to use it
i then took the inverse using shoes and socks
shoes and socks?
its a silly thing to mean u reverse the order
(ab)^-1 is b^-1a^-1
shoes and socks 
anyways i said the inverse was k_j^-1...k_2^-1k_1^-1
but each 2 cycle is its own inverse so
its jst
k_j...k_2k_1
so K^-1 has j number of 2-cycles
ye
oop i forgot to mention
j is odd
from assumption
so ... is that it
that's the whole proof right
im not missing some strange case 
Have you seen A_n?
sign is just (-1)^(num of transpositions)
i was gonna ask to show that A_n (set of even permutations) is a proper subgroup of group of permutations
S_n
and uh i was just gonna use the finite subgroup test
here n is finite in the problem
sgn(a)sgn(a^-1)=sgn(1)
nuuu but i can't use sign
How are you defining odd permutations?
odd permutations are those that can be written as a product of an odd number of 2-cycles
and we showed in class that it was well defined, just not with sign or anything
we somehow just
didn't talk about that
The inverse of a product of 2-cycles are just the same 2-cycles but in reverse order
right zoph
so i wrote in my hw that the inverse is just the same number of 2-cycles just arranged in reverse
so the inverse is also odd
Btw, A_n is also the subgroup generated by 3 cycles
what
3 cycles...
o.0
oh
also

so to show A_n is a subgroup of S_n i just said it was nonempty subset cus identity is in A_n, then i took two even permutations A and B and now i want to show that AB is also in A_n (finite subgroup test)
so the thing is
i feel like
there are many ways for this to go
since on one hand maybe all of these cycles are distinct which is fine
automatically we have even permutation
but then maybe there are some non-distinct 2 cycles , one in A and one in B
and i can't just commute them obv cus not necessarily disjoint
and maybe if these two identical 2-cycles appear in a manner where they can cancel each other out
like the last 2-cycle of A and the first 2-cycle of B
if those are the same cycle then identity and so we just took away 2 cycles
which also seems fine
but
this seems very hairy to me
uhhhhh, if your definition of even permutation is just can be written as product of even number of 2-cycles, then you're just done
idk how to organize my thoughts
oh
oh right
i dont
i don't need to worry about
any of this
omg
hgggggggg
okay ty
what's the operation is i) ?
Take a wild guess
Yes
ok so is this (12)(34)(13)(24) ?
1 goes to 2 then 2 goes to 4
2 goes to 1 then 1 goes to 3
have i got the notation correct?
this looks a bit dodgy
in cycle notation
taking the "product" is the same as composing the permutations
(i hope im right)
u just have to always have those rules for reading the product of cycles in mind ofc
i thought we're supposed to feed in from left
Which direction you read it from is convention
huh?
Pain
convention is to feed in from the left
is there a quick way to show associativity from the cayley table?
That's a subset of S_4
what is
V_4
so u mean i should use that to show associativity?
do we have 6 isomorphisms for part iii)?
oh shit sorry
how? is that lagrange?
oh no i get it
Have you shown order of a permutation is LCM of orders of disjoint cycles present in it?
yes
is this true?
Why do you think that's true?
if we have all of them of order 2 then apha^3 will not be a 4 cycle
*can be 4 or 12
alpha should be (1432) suppose order is 4
1,2,3,4,6,12 are possibilities according to order dividing 12 condition
what about 5 6 and 7
5,6,7 will be fixed
we havent done that yet
how are they fixed under alpha?
alpha^4=1
theyre fixed under apha^3
are we assuming that for now?
This
Wait, It's not even lagrange
ok so if the order is 4 then alpha is this
It's just order of a element g divides k where g^k=1
this?
That's for this
Now,6 isn't a possibility here, because to get a LCM of 12 you need a disjoint cycle of length 4
yes
You can have 1 4-cycle,1 3-cycle
Now,There are no elements of order 12 without a 4-cycle
(because you need some cycle with 2^2 as a factor for 12 to be LCM)
So you end with
{(4321),(4321)(567),(4321)(576)} as your possible elements
what if it's just two disjoint prime cycles
so not necessarily
But they're necessarily products of disjoint cycles, each of which is of order p (p fixed), right?
Yeah
how do i do this part?
i was trying to work backwards
decomposing aphabeta
and assuming it to be cyclic
i should have cases right?
for when n is prime and when its not
Ever heard of D_2n?
i think so
That's your answer
its the dihedral group right?
Yes
so two reflections that have a product which represents rotation by 2pi/n
Take the permutations corresponding to those reflections
how do i show existence
Take a polygon of n sides and mark some points
Apply a rotation and note where the points land,that would be your r(similarly for reflection)
For example (123) is your "rotation"(r) for a triangle
(23) will be your reflection(s)
Now just consider elements rs and s
(123...n) will be your rotation (r) and (2 n) (3 n-1) (4 n-2) .... will be your reflection (s) in n case
I'm not sure if this is a question that's solved through algebra or number theory, but I'll try asking it here
thanks! i seriously need to practice more questions. i wouldntve guessed to use D_2n
I have 2 irreducible, distinct, polynomials in Z[x] with degree larger than 1. I want to show that they cannot have a root in common in $F_p$ for infinitely many $p$.
AoiKunie
do you mean that you want to show that the set {p | f and g have a common root in F_p} is finite? or that {p | f and g don't have a common root in F_p} is infinite?