#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 543 of 407
we use x^-1 to find that e is in H but then to check if x^-1 is in H we use e
???
what
no, we use x to show that e is in H
and then once we've done that, we know e is in H, so we can use it to show that x^(-1) is in H
hmm
I think you should has yourself what the definition of a subgroup again is
ok i will reread that and come back to this
so many 🐺 reacts and so few messages
no i said 🐺
ok so we're just going through the group axioms by doing this test but by choosing the right elements in H to do so
cus i see now that the "whenever" part is important
a,b in H => ab^-1 in H
is supposed to be true
for all a,b in H
and since H is nonempty we can choose one element in it and deduce that xx^-1 is in H which is e
hmmmmmmmmmmm
agh this still feels weird
this is why im gonna be getting two passes of this stuff
big thinky
do u have a question?
i did
im still thinking on it
what if we changed the rhs of the implication
what if it wasn't ab^-1
in H
It feels weird at first but if you look at its quite restrictive
hmm
sorry I shouldn't say restrictive
it seems like the choice for ab^-1 is the one that ensures that all the group axioms come out of it
hmm maybe i should look at examples of subgroups that Fail this test
H is a subgroup if it contains the identity, and if its closed under multiplication
no subgroup will fail this test tho 
no group will fail this test
er right
i shoudl say
subsets of a group that are not subgroups
poor phrasing initially :3
The whole point of this theorem is the following two statements are equivalent:
- H contains e, and H is closed under multiplication
2)a,b in H, implies ab^-1 in H
what does closed under multiplication mean
you also need closed under taking inverses in 1)
subgroups are automatically closed under taking inverses?
hot take: this theorem is dumb and I think teaching it isn't worth it
we're talking about sufficient conditions to have a subgroup tho lime?
it's a cute trick to for packing together the three conditions (1) identity is in there (2) product is in there (3) inverses are in there
closure under multiplication means that if a and b are in H then ab is in H for all a and b
i feel like
this is way too compact
my teacher showed another test
which seemed way more friendly
I would agree metal
I straight up think the a b^-1 thing is not worth thinking about
it's obscuring the real idea of a subgroup
hmm
I thought H contains e and H is closed under multiplication implies H is a subgroup?
oh yea, it would work for finite groups
ah gg
it looks like an exercise lolz
oh
I think its a good exercises
and its a hand trick for doing exercsises
i mean is good way to test if students know what subgroup is ig?
I don't think it's important for actually checking that something is a subgroup
it's usually cleaner to do the conditions separately
(it isnt cuz it's so unnatural)
agreed
coming in late but I think it's a reasonable exercise in order to get students practicing working with group axioms, but it shouldn't be presented as a theorem or anything which is ever used at all
in general I think this is something not done very well in math classes, especially intro ones
from calc to group theory
making clear the difference between what is an important theorem and what is just an exercise meant to help you practice certain skills or applying certain definitions
This is good point I’ve never thought about
About modules take A=k[x], atyiah macdonald says that in this case an A-module is a k-vector space with a linear transformation
how do I see this?
To give a module structure is the same thing as giving a ring morphism from A to the endomorphisms of my group M
I think to give a ring morphism from k[x] we need only say were x is sent
I think you just look at the restricted action by $k$
Since A contains k
Oh wait were you asking the other way around?
Sorry i thought the second definition was easier
Like how to make a k vector space into an A module using some linear transformation?
no im asking how to see that a k[x]-module is a vector space with a linear transformation
but i think what you said makes sense
If have a module structure, then we can restrict to a k-module structure
this is a vector space
I don't get the "with a linear transformation" part of your question
then the linear transfomartion is just saying that the point v is sent to x acting on v
example 4, i am trying to understand what they meant by with a linear transformation but i think i get it now
Oh okay this is slightly different
you take an A module M
and you look at the map "multiplication by x"
Define this map as T_x
this is the linear transformation
Then this A-module can be identified with a k-vector space (simply restrict the action) and the linear map T_x
on the vector space (M,\mu restricted to k\times M)
I think what it's trying to say here is that there is a bijection between A-modules and ordered pairs (V, T) for a k vector space V and a A-module transformation T
yeah thanks very much I see now
Can you send a screenshot of what it says before the example?
This is a good way to think of it fyi
I was confused because i was thinking what the heck is (x^2+x)*m is
clearly by k-vector space we allow infinite dimensions
Yup
Using the standard definition of a module, the elements in M are the basis vectors?
for a k-module
I don't get what you mean
Like is every element of M a basis for M?
the answer is no as 0 can never be a basis
Also, in general, modules do not need to have a basis
Yes
Say M is k-module. The dimension of M is the cardinality of the abelian group M
R=reals; R^n is an R vector space but R^n Is not a basis
No that's not how the dimension is defined
The dimension of a k-module (usually called a k-vector space) is the cardinality of a basis set of the k-module
i interpreted this as lime asking whether the set M forms a basis
for M as a k-vector space/module
the set of the group M yes
I have the answer now but the question was
Let M be a group of size n. Give M the structure of a k-module. Then there is some way to consider M as a k-vector space.
Is it the case that the dimension of M as a vector space is n.
In general no
Also, the dimension depends of the module depends on how you "give M a k-module structure"
jesus this alot more subtle than i thought it would be, I was thinking that if we had M=Z/3Z, and k=R. Then M as a k-vector space would be R^3.
But yeah now I don't even see how you can give Z/3z an R module structure
What you're thinking of is the free k-module over the set M=Z/3Z
I was just thinking of it as a formal multiplication
which you will encounter in this chapter
when it contructs tensor products
Yeah I think this chapter and integral dependence were my favorites in A-M
ugh flatness
I think flatness is pretty cool
Non-flatness on the other hand...

Sorry for the super late reply, but I don’t quite see y you get a map from the cokernel
I don’t have much familiarity with cokernel aside from the definition
This is the universal property of cokernel
Coker f: M -> M’ has the property that if you have a map M’ -> N such that M -> M’ -> N = 0
Then there’s a unique map coker f -> N such that M’ -> coker f -> N = M’ -> N
This is the definition of cokernel
Then it’s the universal property of quotients
How do you show each f_i belongs to some ideal generated by some finite subset of S?
each fi is some finite combination of things in S
How do you know that?I think that's my question
that's how generation works, you don't have infinite sums
like f_i = a_1s_1 + .... + a_ks_k
s_j in S
a_j in the ring
So,when we say an ideal generated by an infinite set{f_1,f_2...},we mean
elements of form g_1 f_1 + g_2 f_2... Where only finite number of g_i's are nonzero?
annoyed by the name tho so geometric but so ungeometric
Do you have any good intuition about the property
Hmm I usually just think of it how I think of normal subgroups
It's how one would want a module to behave, but not every module behaves that way
are these quantifier-free axioms for boolean algebra complete? if not, is there a complete quantifier-free extension of it?
katia

I know of an extension of it adding the following axiom, but the catch is that it uses existential quantification
katia
Huntington says in Sets of Independent Postulates for the Algebra of Logic that this axiom and axioms 7 and 8 are independent from axioms 1-6 and 9, but not that this axiom is independent from 1-9, so it's possible 1-9 are complete, though I'm not sure
Moth | not male
@unique juniper
It follows that we can now write I as a product of m transpositions in which the
first transposition to be applied fixes n (this was proved under the assumption
that τm(n) ̸= n, and I is already in this form if τm(n) = n).
i dont get that part
That just seems like a unnecessarily complicated proof
identity is even,therefore it's a product of even number of transpositions
no... so the point of the the lemma is to define the notion of sign of a permutation
nvm
is there a better proof?
yep
This
Which book is this?
Algebra and geometry by Alan Beardon
do you want the better proof or want to understand this proof?
i haven't read it... but the idea looks like pushing the element "n" towards the very left until its gone
could you link a better proof?
i like this one, the group S_n acts on Z[x1,..., xn] by permuting the xi
Now consider the polynomial D = prod_{i<j} (x_i - x_j)
What we're trying to do is push the "n" towards the left as much as possible
ye
if τ_m(n) = n, then τ_m doesn't "contain" n and so we can keep moving leftward from τ_{m-1} and so on
but in case τ_m(n) = a, then we need to work a little to see how to get another product for identity but which doesn't have a "n" in its last transposition.
this is handled by the induction, since m>=2, we can divide it according τ_{m-1} in the 4 cases.
if you look carefully, we replaced the last 2 permutations in each case with 2 other permutations such that n doesn't appear in the last transposition.
so by this whole argument, we say that we can change the product in a way such that the last transposition didn't move n.
if you continue this argument, then you can assume that τ_2 also doesn't move n.
but since the whole product was supposed to be identity, τ_1 must also fix n.
all in all, you completely removed n from the product. and now it only has elements in {1, 2, ..., n-1}, and so we may use induction hypothesis
ugh
i dont get it
"It follows that we can now write I as a product of m transpositions in which the
first transposition to be applied fixes n"
that "first" refers to τ_m...
didn't get what you mean...
the product of these 2 transpositions is identity... so it does fix n...
lemme try it with n = 3 to see if i can see it
Ok
So
I get the idea of pushing it all the way to T_1
all the transpositions fix n
nice
since all fix n, you can just look at the product over the permutation of {1, 2, ..., n-1} and so you'd be done!
nice thanks

Let F be a field, and K a field extension of F. Suppose a, b \in K are algebraic over F with degrees m and n, where m and n are coprime. Prove F(a,b) is of degree mn over F and F(a) \cap F(b) = F.
For the first statement to prove, I am thinking of using [F(a,b):F] = [F(a,b):F(a)][F(a):F], so I try to show [F(a,b):F(a)]=[F(b):F]. I let p(x) be the min polynomial of b over F, and want to show that p(x) is also the min polynomial of b over F(a). Am I on the right track?
[F(a,b):F] = [F(a,b):F(a)][F(a):F] = [F(a,b):F(b)][F(b):F]
So [F(a,b):F] is divisible by both m and n and hence by mn
But [F(a,b):F(b)] = [F(b)(a):F(b)] <= [F(a):F]
So [F(a,b):F] = [F(a,b):F(b)][F(b):F] <= [F(a):F][F(b):F] = mn
So it should be equal to mn
I think we can continue with this approach as well
But I don't see an easy way to prove that minimal polynomial for b is same over F(a) as well
yea, it would be more or less the same argument... say a smaller degree polynomial q(x) was the minimal polynomial for b over F(a). Then the [F(a,b):F(a)] = deg(q) => [F(a, b):F] = deg(q) * [F(a):F] = [F(a, b):F(b)]* deg(p).
deg(q) * m = [F(a, b):F(b)] * n
n divides the product on left, but is coprime to m,
hence n = deg(p) divides deg(q)
deg(q) >= deg(p)
this contradicts q had smaller degree.
can someone guide me through showing addition and scalar mult. are well-defined?
Addition being well defined is just W being a abelian(and hence normal) subgroup
makes sense
For scalar multiplication, Let's say a+W=b+W
Then a-b is in W. Since W is a vector space ca-cb will be in W
Implying ca+W=cb+W
so a and b are any random elements in V?
yep
Yes
"Since W is a vector space ca-cb will be in W"
what axiom does this follow? (I assume its from an axiom for vector spaces)
could you elaborate?
Are you familiar with normal subgroups?
I should be, but I'm not very comfortable with them yet
left and right cosets coincide
Yes
oh, then ofc addition follows
I mean W is normal because the abelian group V is abelian
"It is clear that f maps even per-
mutations to odd permutations, and odd permutations to even permutations"
dont you need to know how many transpositions that P can be represented as tho?
idk how its "clear"
Well, you are always adding one transposition to it because you are composing with σ
So if there is an even number and you add one, then there is an odd number
And vice versa
@unique juniper
ok
Do you understand?
ok i misread, got it
Okay
ty
Thanks for the response. How do you know that [F(b)(a):F(b)] <= [F(a):F]?
Cool, thanks
[F(b)(a) : F(b)] is the degree of the minimal polynomial of a over F(b) and [F(a) : F] is the degree of the minimal polynomial of a over F. If m(x) is the minimal polynomial of a over F then m(x) is a polynomial with coefficients in F(b) such that m(a) = 0, and thus the minimal polynomial of a over F(b) divides m(x) in F(b)[x]. In particular the degree of the minimal polynomial of a over F(b) is at most than the degree of m(x)
let $X \subseteq \bR$. if $A$ and $B$ are finite subsets of $X$, then the statement $$\sum_{a \in A}2^a = \sum_{b \in B} 2^b \iff A = B$$ is true when $X = \bN$ or $X = \bZ$ - this follows from uniqueness of finite binary representations. however, this statement is false for $X = \bR$ because, for example, $2^0 + 2^2 = 5 = 2^1 + 2^{\log_2{3}}$.
my question: what about the rationals? does the statement hold for $X = \bQ$ ?
xdres
yeah, I think we can put ourselves in a finite galois extension of $\bQ$ that contains the roots of 2, and if we have two inequivalent representations then we can pick an element and look at the automorphism that changes this and keeps the other elements fixed to produce a contradiction.
Merosity
but might be some details to sort out, I don't think we can quite guarantee we will be able to fix all the other elements every time perfectly
Soft question
For people who are good at algebra
How do you conceptualize algebra in your head/mind’s eye
For geometry you can have this strong visual intuition or do tricks like picturing a familiar manifold and making sure you don’t use any of the specific properties of that particular manifold
i am not good at algebra but i will answer it anyways cuz im bored
u dont
its abstract
maybe at best u can have an idea or two or like motivation behind definitions
but thats it i think
u just work with defs thems
thats just my bad opinion
I don’t even strictly mean conceptualizations that give you intuition
what do u mean then
For example one way of keeping track of stuff if R is a ring with I and ideal contained in J
You can picture those three bits of information as the one image of the set R contains J contains I
But I would like to hear how some of the large brains conceptualize algebra
yea 0 large brain for me but like
i mean
this is just information that u cna think of as you like
but for example
how would u 'conceptualize' key theorems
or like how do u recall them
?
for u?>
Very high information sentence
haha
.
ig
Lagrange’s theorem I read as text in a book. When I recall the theorem I don’t think recall the sentence ‘if G is a group and H is a subgroup then the order of G is divisible by the order of H’
what do u do then
I get an abstract picture of a group H fitting in G n times
I mean you can have plenty of visual intuition for topology even though a general topology space is not a possible physical space
lmao i am the opposite way
im learning about topology now
and i just cant do shit haha
I imagine the group represented by matrices in GL_n(R) and are the symmetry group of some shape in R^n or find some kind of specific geometric picture for the case at hand
if it's more than just some silly problem that I care about, I have some picture in my mind
A common theme for me is subconsciously thinking in terms of examples.
yea i think examples are the way to go
Rn in topology. Polynomials or integers in algebra etc...
I imagine a queue of isomorphism theorems, and standing first in line - boom
I imagine it as like, the more of the kernel you quotient out, the more injective the original becomes lol
The first isomorphism theorem is like saying, man I wish this map were injective. But it can't be, because some nonzero shit maps to zero!
So you just pretend everything that maps to 0 is 0
I don't think geometry is really the best way to see it
I don’t really mean a geometric intuition
But a pictorial representation for touring the information
If I’m doing a problem I don’t want to be thinking of some sentence
But, to be clear, lots of geometry is super visual! I don't understand any commutative algebra other than what I can translate into geometry, for example
lol geometry. I mean algebra
Yeah so I know there are these nice geometric intuitions with spectrum of rings and intersections of ideals
yeah, I just think of the first iso thm as like we can lift the lid on an element of the group and peek in side to see all other elements that it was a representative for
idk if that's pictorial enough
but like, even at a much simpler level than spectra
You can translate intuition about polynomial rings over C into decent understanding of rings as a whole. Even if schemes give a better picture in general
Okay say this question here
Look it’s not to hard to just bang out the definitions
But can you try think about what way you think about the problem when you read it
quotient groups can be thought of as fiber bundles
When I read that, I say a ring where every function is supported on one "point"
x^n=x makes me try to think about a projection I suppose
and you have a section precisely when the fiber bundle is trivial
Also every prime ideal is maximal literally means 0 dimensionally, which also is what you wany
*want
Okay
So in general I should think about an arbitrary ring being a ring of functions
These are really good questions by the way! Yeah, that's what Grothendieck tells us, and it tends to work out more often than it doesn;t
My topology lecturer was big on talking about ‘meta-cognition’
Now we say a ring of functions
Do you just think about functions form R to R and try not to use and properties of those
I pretend to think about C to C, because real numbers tend to obscure stuff now and again, but basically yeah
And these functions supported on a point because x^n=x
Ah that’s why we needed complex
Yeah in some sense this couldn't happen otherwise. Probably you can prove that under reasonable geometric assumptions, these are euivalent, but it's been a hot minute for me
*equivalent
that squid still turns me on to this day
actually could someone help talk me through this picture
The furry-ness is related to taking some closure
the furry stuff are generic points
All algebraic geometry should be thought of as over a field
So over Z, you have a family of different varieties
furry-ness///
and some italian at some point said "that's a mean-a generic point"
you get the usual affine line Z
so you see the affine line there
then you "extend" those primes to like fibers
and usually if you just plug in the variable, you get a "generic point" (x,y,...)
and the prime at infinity of Z corresponds to like
(x)
(x^2+1)
type of primes
For me, algebraic geometry made sense when I understood that all AG is fibers over something. And GRothendieck's magic fan bullshit about schemes over Z meant every variety ever is a fiber of something over Spec Z just felt right
Are the supports of functions related to the topology of the spectrum
im at the "fibers over something" part of my ag path rn 
nice this is pretty readable
They are what is called associated points, which is admittedly confusing as shit
gl took me years to have somebody finally tell me how simple that whole idea is
So an associated point need not be a point
It's a point in the cheeky "points need not be closed" sense, yeah
Okay
Wild guess
Being a local ring means
All the functions have support contained in some compact set
Vakil's book has a really wonderful and readable chapter on (well I guess everything) but especially on associated points and fuzz
Yeahhh sort of
but you have to remember that everything in AG is compact
because I don't fuck with non projective stuff
local rings actually predate rings in like "functions that don't have poles at this exact point"
Sorry I didn’t get this at all
whose closure is some subscheme
like think about the case of Spec(Z)
you have closed points (p) for p prime and also a generic point (0) whose closure is all of Spec(Z); this is drawn as some "fuzz" at infinity
Local rings come from complex analysis, originally. They are like "power series" which converge at a point
it's a point that is "everywhere but nowhere in particular"
in the usual topological sense
intersection of all closed sets?
these are points in the Zariski topology
a lot of points in the Zariski topology don't behave like points in the usual sense: in particular some points in the Zariski topology are not closed
seems like you care more about maps to other things instead of itself
Ehh the Zariski topology is not fundamental
it's usually kind of hard to think of the Zariski topology as a topological space in the usual sense, too many of the usual intuitions about topological spaces fail
which makes sense cuz spec k is a very boring thing
Really?
The Zariski topology was invented because it makes sense in not the complex numbers
But then we got sad because complex numbers have a decent topology
and invented the étale topology
haha yea
etale topology feels more in this vibes
well the Zariski topology was invented because it allows you to endow Spec(R) with the structure of a topological space such that the topology corresponds to certain commutative algebraic properties of R
and it constructs Spec(R) as a "universal" topological space with commutative ring of functions R in some suitable sense
But it goes back to..well Zariski, but especially Weil who were not concerned with Spec(R)
I'm pretty sure Weil was interested in Spec(R)? 🤔
They just wanted finite fields
no? Weil was concerned with more than that?
Is there a good intuition in this ring of functions picture for ideals
Weil was concerned with non projective things for sure
but non-fields? not sure honestly

I mean Weil had a good understanding of the whole number fields/function fields picture
Yes! ideals are subvarieties
among those certainly includes things like Spec(Z) and many more
I guess, but there is still no sense where that is a literal 1-1 translation
Maybe not, but Weil is certainly talking about the same objects here
Very fair point. I have in mind a very particular set of papers when I think Weil
So I will concede
I mean I'm thinking of his letters to Simone Weil in which he communicates this function field/number field analogy
it also shows up in some other of Weil's papers
it was definitely pre-Grothendieck but the same ideas were there
That whole time period is a clusterfuck of "who really was thinking what"
and it's so cool to read about
yea
Sus variety of ? The spectrum?
Wait, so is Weil the first to write about the function field-number field connection?
more or less yea
Is it true that when we at a ring can we viewed as a ring of functions, we actually mean the ring of functions over its spectrum?
Technically, yes. But remember a scheme is a family of a varieties in the classical sense, so that's what we want
literally yes
But literally in a sad way where we constructed schemes to make it true
I only know the definition of a variety to be a k-space isomorphic to a closed subset of affine space
I have not seen schemes yet
eh, don't worry about schemes if you haven;t seen them. They just extend varieties to work in more situations that geometers want
The intuition is variety
If "large brain" = "pissed away my life getting a PhD" yes
for variety, don't even worry about affine opens
In the manifold setting this is lovely picture
just think "zeros of polynomials"
All the nice small disks
we glue because we like projective things
because again
I don't fuck with non-projective
Is it a good exercise to try rephrase prime maximal radical ideals
In terms of what they look like for a ring of functions
you spit out a lot of words in a row, and I'm not sure what you're looking for
Oh like, prime, maximal, and radical separately?
Yes 100%
Sorry yes
And read Atiyah-MacDonald for the answer if you haven;t
Where is the answer in atiyah?
Spread out through the exercises in every chapter
Atiyah and Macdonald aren't your firend
but it's all there
We can’t have any nilpotent elements as a function from C to C
If you like "learning" or whatever you can find this shit in Vakil's AG notes
we sure can
think about x^2
it's not zero
but it basically is to a physcicist
I had a strong fear that I fundamentally misunderstood all my training so far
lol algebraic geometry is one of those things that makes no sense until someone who already knows it tells you all the secrets
as is tradition
Do you have the secret sauce
yes, talk to anyone in your department because they know better than I ever learned
I still remember talking to my advisor about some "basic" shit we didn't know the answer to
and he calls over the geometer next door
who already has his coat on and uber called
and answers the question is 30 seconds
so
anyone wants to invite me to their department
my department rn consists of me, my cat, my piano
I'm always happy to talk algebraic geometry, but you have to be willing to deal with someone between piano and cat in intelligence
yall
so im trying to find centralizer G(A) with G = GL(2,R) ie grp of 2x2 matrices w real entries, and A = [ (2,1), (0,1) ]
and im stuck
i let B be arbitrary part of GL(2,R) i wrote it as [ (a,b), (c,d)]
and did AB = BA but my equation is kinda basic*
i get c = 0, b+d = a
and thats it
well also ad - bc =/= 0, so ad =/= 0 so a = b + d =/= 0, and d =/= 0
Fuck divisors
Also shoutout AG secret sauce, the secret sauce you need to be told is actually “think about it for 12 hours a day for a few months and it’ll make some sense”
That's enough to conclude the centraliser is made up of elements of form [(a,b),(0,a-b)]
a,b are free variables restricted by those conditions
everything is matricies

i am currently
matricesing
idk this might be better suited for top geo
but it's also about rational canonical form
so maybe linear algebra
so ill post it here instead :^)
I'm trying to show that if $J : E \to E$ is an iso of real bundles satisfying $J^2 = -Id$ then $J$ can be locally represented as
$J_0 = \begin{bmatrix} j & 0 & \ldots & 0 \ 0 & j & \ldots & 0 \ \vdots & \vdots & \ddots & \vdots \ 0 & 0 & \ldots & j \end{bmatrix}$
Shamrock -> E -> B
where $j = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -1 \ 1 & 0 \end{bmatrix}$ whoops
Shamrock -> E -> B
so the linear algebra version of this is that $J^2 + 1 = 0$, so $J$ has minimal polynomial $m(x) = x^2 + 1$, so $J$ has all invariants factors $m$, boom apply rational canonical form
Shamrock -> E -> B
but this is not constructive and so it's hard to bring it over to continuous bundle land 
or at least it's not explicit
hi banana
Hello
is your username a reference to this? https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=k4f9m4OYkCY
(Nice to get back to animating, since I was so busy with school).
This is an animation based off of the latest incarnation of My Little Pony, which I love now. Had to put my own spin on it. Don't hate when you can masticate. Peace and Hotdogs.
Skaijo out.
DA (higher quality flash version): http://skaijo.deviantart.com/art/Friendshi...
2011 brony deep cut that I still remember lmfao
Haha no, it's a reference to something I said when I was in kindergarten to some girl from my class
ah gotcha
Let $R_1$ and $R_2$ be rings with coprime characteristic. Let $\varphi$ be an automorphism of $R_1\times R_2$. Prove that $\varphi (1,0)=(1,r_2)$ for some $r_2\in R_2$.
Have a Banana, Bitch
1 goes to 1 in my ring homomorphisms btw
I seem to have shown $r_2 = 0$
Shamrock -> E -> B
let $p$ be the characteristic of $R_1$ and $q$ the characteristic of $R_2$. write $ap + bq = 1$. Then $p \varphi(1,0) = \varphi(p, 0) = \varphi(0,0) = 0$, so $\varphi(1,0) = (ap+bq) \varphi(1, 0) = b q\varphi(1,0)$ if we write $\varphi(1, 0) = (x, y)$ then $(x, y) = (b q x, b q y) = (b q x, 0)$
Shamrock -> E -> B
bezout's feels right here regardless
Hmm I have been trying this for the past 20 minutes and I still can't do it
no I think its correct
hmm
weirdly stated then
ah I think maybe I see
so $\varphi(1,0) = (bq x, 0)$ and $\varphi(0,1) = (0, ap y)$
yeah?
Shamrock -> E -> B
Yup
Shamrock -> E -> B
I see
second equality is $\varphi(1,1) = \varphi((1,0) + (0,1)) = \varphi(1,0) + \varphi(0,1) = (bqx, 0) + (0, apy) = (bqx, apy)$
Shamrock -> E -> B
i mean it looks right but it's stronger than your statement
and doesn't use that it's an iso
so idk
ah okay
I just reduced it to this
then im comfy with it
you use a similar trick to show $\mathrm{Aut}(G \times H) \cong \mathrm{Aut}(G) \times \mathrm{Aut}(H)$ when $|G|$ and $|H|$ are coprime
Shamrock -> E -> B
which is a fun problem
@latent anvil I think there might be a problem with this proof
oh dear
Because both (1,1) and (1,0) are mapping to the same thing
How so?
(1,1) maps to (1, 1) = (bq x, ap y) and (1, 0) maps to (1, 0) = (bq x, 0)
Oh I think I used y to mean two different things at one point
Proof should still go through though
Also I think I was being a fucking idiot with the bundles thing
omfg this is obvious
Let $\phi(1,0)=(x,y)$. We get (ap+bq)\phi(1,0)=\phi((ap+bq)(1,0))=\phi(bq,0)=bq\phi(1,0)=(bqx,bqy)=(bqx,0)$. Similarly, we get $\phi(0,1)=(0,apy).$
Have a Banana, Bitch
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Ah! I did the same thing lol
update: I was not an iditio
it ended up being a variant of maschke's theorem, which is kind of cool
i mean i was a little bit of an idiot but still
Hi, I’m starting a course on abstract algebra in a few weeks. What are some textbooks that would be useful as an additional resource?
Oooh I’ll look into them ty!
Funnily enough, the course outline did recommend the Jacobson textbook so I shall look into that! Tyyy
That's a low bar

so many haters
G a l l i a n
Gallian is for kids
gallian is actually garbage

before I thought it was passable
but now that I actually looked through it a bit
because of my course
actually just use wikipedia page for abstract algebra
over gallian
gallian is to abstract algebra as stewart is to calculus

wow
yea the book is like abit not in depth but not to that level
the text is only lacking like group actions ig ( which is obviously very important but still )
its not a bad book 😦
an algebra book without group actions is a bad book
AA book with no group actions 
yikes
imagine leaving out the reason anyone actually cares about groups

I’ve been trying to think about rings in term of rings of functions
If we imagine the functions are over some field or ring that does not have zero divisors
Then a a ring of functions being an integral domain
Is implied by all the functions having finitely many zeros
And I think it’s also implied if every function is non zero on a dense set
We could think of the ring of Z\oplus Z as being the ring of functions generated by Z-combinations of these
This only works if the field or ring is infinite, otherwise you're in trouble
Ah good point
there's a nice example of "two elements a, b in a ring which are multiples of each other but not associates" with rings of functions that I've always liked
thinking about rings as rings of functions is not a bad way to get intuition about things
as long as you are careful to not rely too heavily on properties of, say, continuous functions on the real line, to try to make general statements about commutative rings
Yeah
I’m trying very hard at the moment to think about the way I am thinking about maths
With algebra it just feels like I am pushing formal statements about
But this ring of functions picture is really helping
yeah I've always found ring theory hard for that reason. I think groups are nice because you can visualize them as symmetries of objects, and with fields I always think of extensions of Q and galois theory which feels concrete to me
In geometry I feel very comfortable picturing a 2 dim manifold and not using any of the properties of being 2d when I reason
But if I think an example of a ring I only have a feel for the specific properties of that ring
but with rings I think it's easy to just push statements around and not really feel like you're not really dealing with any particular object
Yeah
But for me personally this tends to lead to a problem where
I can’t “chunk” all the formal statements together well
And eventually the tower of what I’m learning because too unstable
I always have two go back and check what the statements of the kind like the intersection of prime ideals is prime , or something about an intersection being contained in a prime and such and such is coprime
the intersection of prime ideals may not be prime
take a product of fields FxF
0 X F and F X 0 are prime
but their intersection is (0,0)
which isnt prime
Proof of my my confusion
yeah idk if there's a way to clearly organize all the concepts and interpretations of the stuff you learn during your first go at it
over a longer period of time, it sorta happens automatically?
like say you're learning comm alg right now, if you do AG later you will go back and look at some comm alg stuff that you forgot
and that second pass at it should normally help you digest it completely
idk if it is feasible to ask for a crystal clear picture of everything you learn during your first pass at the subject
also, reading MO soft-question threads that ask for motivation/intuition/interpretations of stuff can help
Yeah this is very true
I know this is a late response, but how can the extension be finite if there are infinitely many roots of 2?
the sums are finite, so we only need to look at a specific finite extension if there is a supposed counterexample
so like for instance suppose you give me 2 different representations that are equivalent x, y then we have x=y in some finite extension of Q, with a linear combination of these basis vectors of roots of 2.
then you have x-y=0 which is a nontrivial linear combination of basis elements equal to 0, contradicting that it's a basis
Show that every element of order 14 in $S_{10}$ is odd
Yes
so when can an element of Sn ever have order 14
just need to check my reasoning for this one
go on
if we supposed P = p_1 ... p_m
The LCM of the lengths of those permutations would be 14
And you need an even and and odd number to get 14
Cycle of length 2 has a sign of -1 (odd)
if that makes any sense lmao
yeah i think that's it
sweet
can someone run me down on how to do this?
I know we suggest a basis and prove its linearly independent + spans the quotient space
I'm stuck on proving it spans
By the division, we have q(x) = a(x)p(x) + r(x), with deg r < deg p = n. So the images of 1, x, x^2, ..., x^(n-1) do span F[x]/(p).
Is it not true in general that ever permutation of odd order is even and vice versa?
no, that is not true in general
(1 2)(3 4) is of even order and also is even, while (1 2 3 4) is of even order but is odd
Is there such thing as a cyclic group generated as follows? $G = {g^q: q\in \mathbb{Q}}$
I don't think so, having rational exponents is only like well defined if you have like a divisible group. But, any finite abelian group is not divisible. Any infinite cyclic group can be written as a direct product with \bZ in it, and the integers aren't divisible, and a group that's a direct product is divisible iff every factor in the direct product is divisible. So, like no cyclic group is divisible, so like the rational exponents wouldn't make much sense unless you define it to be something else
@main quiver
Oh crap thanks for that lol
i think it's true for n-cycles
um yes
if so then every integer can be written as 1 + 1 + 1 + ... + 1
or -1 - 1 - ... - 1
for enough 1s
which is what 1^k means in this group
i see
remember that exponents in group theory repreesnt repeated application of the group operation
in this case +
NOT integer multiplication
yeah thats where i got mixed up at :D
Every ring is the ring of functions on its spectrum
Can some direct me to where to read about this
It's simple, if you have A a ring, then for every f in A you can define a function tilde f from Spec(A) to the sum of A/p for p in Spec(A) by defining (tilde f)(p) = f mod p
@chilly ocean what does "ring of functions on the spectrum" mean to you?
ring of ace functions
Hey does this definition of what a module is make sense to anyone?
Previously, we discussed how elements of a group act on each other, and we also talked about how elements of a group act on some other object or set of objects (like three painted eggs). We now generalize this notion to a set of $q$ abstract objects a group can act on, denoted $M={m_0,m_1,m_2,\dots,m_{q-1}}$. Just as before, we build a vector space, similar to the one above used in building an algebra. The orthonormal vectors here will be
\begin{equation}
m_0\mapsto|m_0\rangle,\quad m_1\mapsto|m_1\rangle,\quad\dots\quad m_{q-1}\mapsto|m_{q-1}\rangle\tag{3.48}
\end{equation}This allows us to understand the following definition. The set
\begin{equation}
\mathbb{R}\mathbf{M}=\left{\left.\sum_{i=0}^{q-1}a_i|m_i\rangle,\right|,a_i\in\mathbb{R},\forall i\right}\tag{3.49}
\end{equation}is called Module of $M$ (we don't use square brackets here to distinguish modules from algebras).
this is just a free R vector space
@golden pasture what do you mean by "free"
oop idt the word free is needed lol
it's just R^q as a vector space
it isn't how we define modules
Ok so in general a vector space is a set with some properties, but here it seems that we are looking at the set of all possible linear combinations of some elements
which is exactly what a vector space of dimension q is
There are many ways to do this problem and it’s easier to just define a subjection from Z and quotient by the kernel but I would like to use the universal property of the tensor product to do this question to get used to working with the universal property
If Z/nZ tensor Z/mZ is Z/gcd(n,m) Z
We can define a map from Z/nZ times Z/mZ to Z/gcd(n,n) Z by
([a],[b]) maps to [ab] where [x] represents the respective class in the quotient, there are some well definedness stuff to check but that’s not too bad
Next we need that this is bilinear, and by that we mean linearity wrt scalars in Z since we view everything as a Z module
This is also fine
This is where I get confused
Sorry this is the problem
My English is not very good
No worries
I am a native hiberno-English speaker but often this leads to problems
My confusion is
What area is hiberno from?
(just curious)
I'm assuming that's a language
Also sorry for interrupting your question again lol
To use the universal property of the tensor product to show that Z/gcd(m,n)Z is indeed the tensor product
We need to show that if P is a Z module
And there is a bilinear map from Z/n times Z/m it factors over the map we defined above
Oh lmao, hiberno-English is just the dialect spoken in Ireland
Ah gotcha lol
It’s just English but I mumble
Oh lmfao I thought for a sec you grew up in a gaeltacht
Very funny, I was at a summer school in Italy once, lots of different nationalities at it, Italian spanish Costa Rican American
We were drinking one night about a week into the school
And one of the guys says
‘I’m sorry lime I didn’t understand anything you just said’
Lmfaoooo
Someone else jumped in
‘Me too! I thought I just had bad english and couldn’t understand him because of that’
‘I usually just try and guess from the context and tone of voice what was said’
Was a very funny night
my parents have been watching reeling in the years recently and it's a very different experience for then than it is for me
Partially because they have cultural context, but also because they can understand the accents 
Oh you should follow this page if you some Irish fun
Just a bunch of funny moments from reeling in the years
Okay sorry for interrupting your question
tensor product
you want to factor through the map Z/nZ × Z/mZ -> Z/gcd(n, m)Z
Oh yes
Call this map b
Call the map from Z/n x Z/m to an arbitrary Z- module P by p
I want to show that p= i composed with b
for a unique i : Z/gcd(n, m)Z -> P
Oh I thought it was the other way around?
uhh
Since b has image Z/gcd and p has image P
We also have to show that this i is unique?
Rip to a G
I am very confused about how to tackle this
The map p and Z-module P are pretty arbitary
all we know is it’s bilinear
yup
So what's this factorization saying really
It says that p doesn't depend on the value of x, y, only on their product
Ah so
The map i should send [ab] to p(ab,1)
And then bilinear of p makes it work nicely
Makes sense to me
Just be careful about products of residue classes vs scalar multiplication and all
when invoking bilinearity
Wait
Take Z/5 times Z/3
(2,1) should equal (7,10)
But the first gets mapped to 2 mod 15
The second gets mapped
Oops lmao
lol
is it true that the gcd of m,n is the smallest number you can write as am+bn with a b nonzero?
suppose you could write am+bn = k with k not divisible by gcd(m,n)
but the left side is divisible by gcd(m,n)
so k is divisible by gcd(m,n)
contradiction
(and the other direction is bezout's identity)
What's a reductive group? Over an algebraically closed field it's just a Dynkin diagram 👏
Quick sanity check
M an A module, a an ideal of A that annihilates M, then M is an A/a module
M as an A module is isomorphic to M as an A/a module?
yup
Err
Not exactly
Isomorphic as what?
If you extend and restrict scalars of M along the map A -> A/a you get an isomorphic A-module
(in this case)
(and the extension of scalars is iso to the A/a-module M you're talking about)
First sentence: taking a union with an empty set doesnt change the original set
so if A_n is empty we can "pretend it isnt there"
like adding 0 or multiplying by 1
Second sentence: See "the above remark"
Third sentence: The only case you have left to consider, then, is to consider the case where there are infinitely many nonempty A_n sets
now we're "pretending" that all the A_n are nonempty
since again, if one is empty
we can just ignore it
so we're assuming that the A_n are already nonempty
(which is what the yellow highlighted part means)
(also i just realized this wasnt #proofs-and-logic )
(it should really be there)
okie, ty
sideurk moment, but am i missing smth or do these as they are not show its a subring 
sideurk moment
(slightly different from yours but equivalent)
might be a good idea to prove for yourself that those 4 properties imply a given set is a subring!
its a good exercise
though kinda easy
most of the proof boils down to "we inherit this behaviour from the parent ring"
i thought subring test involved showing identity was in S hm
subring test i just learned in class involved showing closure over a - b and ab^{-1} on a subgroup (perhaps I'm misremembering)
if you require the unities to agree then
you need an extra criteria
to say their unities agree
not all definitions of subring require this however
and if yours doesnt you're still okay
idk what exact definition youre using
but based on the screenshot i assumed your def doesnt require this
well actually we didnt get a def lol
Joe papa
ok archsys alt acc
this is showing that A[x]/p[x] is isomorphic to (A/p)[x]
I don't understand why A to A/p being surjective implies the kernel is a superset of p[x]?
everything in p[x] vanishes
it seems to me its easier to say in one step that the kernel is precisely p[x]
the image of f is non zero precisely when all its coefficents are zero, which only happens if all its coefficents are in p, which is p[x]
yesh
@scarlet estuary is there an easier proof for that?
just construct an injection from the direct sum to the natural numbers
by using unique factorization of primes
hence it is countable
can we use the union defintion for the proof?
Is every abelian group the additive group of some ring? Here I am assuming the existence of unity (so letting ab = 0 doesn't work).
It is easy if G is finitely generated, for example, because we can use the structured theorem.
Pretty sure this will have smt to do with choice
Structure*
well you know the classification of abelian groups
soooo
the classification gives a ring structure
The axiom of choice is true.
What about infinite direct sum of Z?
I'm not saying infinite product
We do? I think we only know the finitely generated ones.
It still works.
hm time to think of cursed nonfinitely generated ahelian grous
Maybe the Prüfer p-group is a counterexample because it is Artinian but not Noetherian as a Z-module.
I feel like any ring structure will force the identity to be (1, 1, 1,...) Which is not there in the group
What about rng?
lol Z[x]
Wait, it's actually the direct limit of Z/p^nZ so can be given a ring structure.
Q/Z is a very funny group
Isn't that just floor for rational numbers
I didn't se it at first
as in?
ahh nice
You can define multiplication by ab = 0 for all a, b. But we can do that, then make this rng into a ring (there's a canonical way to do this, I think)..
Wait... Can't we just take the group ring?
you want to preserve the additive group tho
For a group G, the additive group of ZG is the direct sum of |N| copies of G.
Abelian groups where every element has finite order, but there is no upper bound on the order cannot be made into a ring with unity; namely if 1 was your unit and it has say, order n, then for any x you have n*x = (n*1)x =0
mm makes sense
Say every element has order dividing n, so this goes wrong if there is no upper bound on the order
namely Q/Z is indeed a counterexample
I remember seeing this on MSE I think, lemme see if I can find the post
Yes
Here is was, I think the top answer is the same argument as I had https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/93409/does-every-abelian-group-admit-a-ring-structure
Nice!!
I only know because I thought about this once myself before and then I googled and found that MSE answer
Its a nice and clever little argument
all i know is that just check with groups like Qp/Zp Q/Z μ_p^\infty and if they work it's probably true
What went wrong here?
Pretty much 
Quite so
the additive group is prob different if taken as a direct limit of rings id guess?
Ah I think I see it, the maps used to define the direct limit are multiplication by p, Z/p^n -> Z/p^(n+1), but these are not ring homomorphisms
Oh, for the same reason Q/Z doesn't work (Z is not an ideal)..
ye
Is there a nice way to think about the quotient of P/S, where P is the countable direct product of some (group, ring, module) with itself, and S the direct sum?

that sounds very cursed
like say simplest example
direct product of F_2
and direct sum of it
direct sum isnt an ideal so we ignore the ring case
yea i have no idea what kinda group it makes lol
Wait, why isn't the direct sum an ideal? A typical element in S is (a, b, c,..., 0,0,0,0,0,...) so when we multiply by an element in P we get an element in S.
It has the same "two functions are equal if they agree except on a set of measure 0" spirit..
I love your index free notation lol
Suppose A < B < C are rings, where C is fg as an A-algebra and as a B-module. I thought B must be fg as an A-algebra, but apparently this isn't true.
Proposition 7.8 of Atiyah-MacDonald says that B is fg as an A-algebra if A is Noetherian.
(I obviously didn't think of this situation before reading AM)
I don't understand why, and can't think of an example where the Noetherian condition is necessary. Any help would be appreciated.
If u1!=v1 multiply both sidea with a_1 and rearrange





