#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 542 of 407
oh wait, nvm
we technically never showed that $R \setminus \mathfrak m$ is multiplicative so its probably looking for some explanation of that
kxrider
... i think thats what its looking for anyway. meh, ill go with that
this is a weird one
they asked: all normal subgroups N of a normal subgroup H of G, is itself normal in G
like, whether it's true?
and you can choose either true, false or true if N is in the center z(H)
just by the looks of it it seems like its probably no because if the first option is false so should be the third
really? i could see 3 while not 1
?
for 3?
if 1 is always true choose 1
else:
if 3 is always true choose 3
else: choose 2
probably
because you see
they are now a teacher for this course, we already passed it
now they try to teach and for that they need to solve questions
and some were hard
like that one
i dont know anything about group theory even though i have a very good grade
yeah but
uhhhh
3
why isnt 3 right
oh damn well
there are a few questions they asked me
i thought it wasnt too much but some images contain more than 1
I'm having trouble writing a proof, I'm pretty sure it's really simple but I'm not sure where to start
Show that in a ring R if a + b = d and a + c = d then b = c
I'm trying to think of some property of groups that will help me here.
I don't think it's associativity
I suspect that it's something to do with the identity element
can you write out what a group is
have you er, not covered the cancellative law of groups?
I'll try, and no I haven't.
are you doing rings before groups 
a lot of ppl do that
okay thats not totally unusual
No, but the textbook I'm using covers both pretty sparsely

you have a + b = a + c
A group is a finite set of elements with a binary operation that has the properties of closure, associativity, an identity element, and an inverse.
what have you been taught to do since like 1st grade
ok so
I'm serious! I'm not trying to be condescending my point is you can just do what you think you should
I mean you can't just remove a from both sides and say b = c can you?
why not?
consider that the inverse of a is -a
Ok, I may have been overthinking this one. Thanks guys.
The textbook I'm using is Childs, concrete introduction to higher algebra btw
higher algebra 
well
higher algebra introduces child to concrete
nitpick
the given proof works for rings since their additive structure is abelian
but in general groups just saying "add -a to both sides" is a bit too vague
yeah
you need to add it on the left
and that suffices
Turns out algebra is the hardest thing 
E_infinity
this person has never heard of inter-universal teichmuller theory
Lol what a loser
bad meem
riemann more like why man amirite
Yeah why man did you not solve it
I did manage to help her
I asked people on the WhatsApps
But if this is group theory galois is the hardest course ever
I did the course last year and I don't remember this at all
Wait wait why do you guys talk about iutt
Did he actually prove the thing?
No like
Slimvesus understands it all tho
Did the abc take the L
cuz it doesn't use groups
do you seriously believe this? You're showing your profound ignorance of the elementary theory of heights, at the advanced undergraduate/beginning graduate level
uhhhhhhhh
lmfao
this is a direct quote from big M
ah yes i remember now
I can only say that it is a very challenging task to document the depth of my astonishment when I first read this Remark! This Remark may be described as a breath-takingly (melo?)dramatic self-declaration, on the part of SS, of their profound ignorance of the elementary theory of heights, at the advanced undergraduate/beginning graduate level.
it's even better
SS = Scholze and Stix
Wow

I thought this was going to be like
Some reddit person replying to someone on r/math saying
yeah it reads like an attack helicopter thing
"no IUTT is wrong lol"
yes lmao
i watched a lecture of his for meme potential
I looked at UChicago REU 2020
bruh
o ya i should work on my app for that
What is there to really work on for that one? The research statement?
yup
I was confused with a lot of them not asking any more questions
I mean that's really all there is to work on ever
so I was thinking like maybe I missed something
like you have your CV and transcript and an SOP
eh the ones I applied to last year like
En mathématiques, on procède souvent par analogie puis généralisation commune mais le Graal est la correspondance qui permet d'obtenir un résultat dans un domaine à partir d'un autre. Récemment l'analogie entre entier et polynôme a donné naissance à une correspondance entre espaces dits perfectoïdes sur un corps de caractéristique mixte (arithmé...
wanted you to answer some questions

look at this chad
I thought they got funding this year?
They did but like
they try to accept like
3000000 people
so it's not enough haha
I looked at the papers written and they have such a huge range of like
sophistication of the material covered
O O F
my project was incredibly category brained
and we had to define a natural transformation for her
why is she on that project
rip
Dman
I'm imagining getting assigned to TA for like a PDE project
and just going
¯_(ツ)_/¯
l o l
sorry guys
Do they really put people into subjects they don't know like that?
Idk how exactly it happened, I think we weren't the only group she was working with
Also for this reu the grad students weren't really part of the project or doing research
They had like office hours style things
having a big brain fart moment
How can i see that y^2-x^3-ax-b is irreducible in k[x,y]
it certainly looks like it should be irreducible since the y term is on its own but how do I know nothing funny will happen in a field of characterstic p
In general I've tried to find functions into an integral domain for which the kernel is precisely the ideal generated by that
I don't have a good guess off the bat what such a map would look like
are you replying to me
Yes
so i should try find a phi:k[x,y] to R some integral domain and show that the kernel is (y^2-x^3-ax-b)
k[x,y]/(y^2-x^3-ax-b) then has no zero divisors
but maybe there's better ways to show polynomials of > 1 variable are irreducible
Right, but like
to just show that is exactly the same as showing the polynomial is prime
<==> irreducible
I think you can view it as a polynomial in y with coefficients in k[x]
then y^2 - f is irreducible iff f is not a square or something
and then use Eisenstein or something???
oh that's a good idea too
do what Kedar said
I thought eisenstein was only integral valued coefficients
this is a good idea
it's just the exact same thing
hahaha
except prime is what it means in that ring
I think you need the base ring to be a UFD??
But you certainly will have that for k[x][y]
Do you have any ideas for this? I want to find what conditions on a and b make Z(y^2-x^3-ax-b) smooth
I know this theorem
Yeah you need at least one of the partial derivatives to not vanish - think of the implicit function theorem like for differentiable maps.
In this case the Jacobian is (f_x, f_y)
squirtlespoof
You mean $\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{-5}]$?
evilbuggy
all these rings are orders in number fields hence 1D noetherian
so really you are asking for primes
in the case of $\mbb Z[\sqrt{-5}]$ it isnt rlly super simple cuz it isnt a PID
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
but your best hope is to basically "factor" primes in Z inside that ring
$\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{-5}] \cong \frac{\mathbb{Z}[x]}{x^2 + 5}$
evilbuggy
By correspondence theorem, the maximal ideals of $\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{-5}]$ correspond to maximal ideals of $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ containing $x^2 + 5$
evilbuggy
The maximal ideals in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ are of the form $(p, f(x))$ where $p$ is a prime and $f(x)$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{F}_p[x]$
evilbuggy
iirc Z[\sqrt5] is probably a euclidean domain under the usual norm function i believe so can just characterize all primes there pretty easily
tho ig this is as good as it gets for Z[sqrt(-5)] without going too fancy into factoring ideals
With some little work, we can prove that f(x) should be equal to x^2 + 5
So, the maximal ideals of Z[x] containing (x^2 + 5) are of the form (p, x^2 + 5) where p is prime such that x^2 + 5 is irreducible in F_p
The problem boils down to finding primes p such that x^2 + 5 has no roots in F_p
For p = 2, clearly x^2 + 5 is reducible in F_2
Suppose p is an odd prime
x^2 + 5 has a root in F_p if and only if there is some element x such that x^2 = -5 mod p
So there are two cases
-1and5are both squares of some numbers inF_p
-1 is a square in F_p if and only if p = 1 mod 4
From quadratic reciprocity law, 5 is square of some number modulo p if and only if p is square of some number modulo 5
So, p = 0, 1 or 4 mod 5
Therefore, if either p = 1, 5 or 9 mod 20, then x^2 + 5 is reducible in F_p
- Both
-1and5are not squares of any numbers inF_p
-1 is not a square in F_p if and only if p = 3 mod 4
From quadratic reciprocity law, 5 is square of some number modulo p if and only if p is not a square of some number modulo 5
So, p = 2 or 3 mod 5
Therefore, if either p = 3 or 7 mod 20, then x^2 + 5 is reducible in F_p
So, for an odd prime p, if p mod 20 is in {11, 13, 17, 19}, then (p, x^2 + 5) is a maximal ideal in Z[x]
uhhhhhhh
wha
t
Yeah that part is correct
jus a example of how prime ideals look like, here are the first few:
$$\left(\sqrt{-5}\right)$$
$$\left(2,\sqrt{-5}+1\right)$$
$$\left(3,\sqrt{-5}+1\right),\left(3,\sqrt{-5}+2\right),\left(7,\sqrt{-5}+3\right),\left(7,\sqrt{-5}+4\right)$$
$$\left(11\right),\left(13\right),\left(17\right),\left(19\right)$$
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
prime = maximal here except for (0)
(in fancier terms, this is a 1 dimensional noetherian ring)
Okay
if you notice hard enuf, we are actually factoring x^2+5 over Z/pZ for most of the primes
so it reduces down to determining over what integer primes is 5 is a quadratic residue
tho the proper reason why this works is uh
f(x) is either x^2 + 5 or a degree 1 polynomial such that f(x)(ax + b) = x^2 + 5 modulo p
I didn't see that second case is also possible
ok im dumb lol
so
$\frac{\mb F_p[x]}{x^2+5}=\mb F_{p^2}$ iff $x^2+5$ is irreducible mod $p$
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Yeah
otherwise we just factor x^2+5
Okay
me cant into concrete examples lolz
and this also shows that these primes are maximal
and these also shows we found every maximal ideal cuz any maximal ideal is prime
and clearly any prime is maximal unless (0)
I don't know much about noetherian rings except for the definition 😬
hahaisok 1D noetherian rings basically mean the longest ascending chain of prime ideals has length 2
and (0) is prime
so we have $(0)\subset\mathfrak p$ is the longest chain
so $\mathfrak p$ is maximal
Ohh so it can't be generated by more than 2 elements, right?
also that
but this doesn't imply that
i think you can have 1D noetherian rings where primes are generated with more than 2 elements?
the reason why prime ideals in this case are generated by at most 2 elements is because when you localize at every maximal element, you get a discrete valuation ring (every ideal is generated by 1 element)
(i.e. the domain is a dedekind domain)
yee it's super cool
I started reading Atiyah Macdonald's CALG
But it was very dense and I didn't get the motivation behind defining things like Nilradical, Jacobson Radical, extensions and contractions
It was as if he was just defining bunch of things
So I am planning to read Eisenbud instead
lol i just worked through all the exercises in it the definitions became like "because it has cool properties" to me
neukirch algebraic number theory introduces these in context of number theory if you're interested
AM chap 9 and 10 is useful for neukirch if you want to see the more general picture
but at that point you already completed AM lolz
For what number fields $K$ does every automorphism of $K$ restrict to an automorphism of $\mathbb{Q}$?
lugita15
Any automorphism of a field fixes its prime field which is Q in this case
OK thanks guys
Now I have a more general question: if E is a finite extension of F, then does every automorphism of E restrict to an automorphism of F? If that’s not always true, under what conditions is it true?
I assume you mean when F is F_p or Q. But I want to keep F an arbitrary characteristic 0 field. Is there any condition I can impose on E to make every automorphism of E restrict to an automorphism of F?
yup
for first part
for second part no
you just consider the tower
F/E/Q
oh hm
wait lemme rethink ah
i think what we really want is
every element in Gal(F^gal/Q) that permutes F also permutes E in a nontrivial way
the most simple case is when F has no non-trivial automorphism
which has a big family cuz we can consider some polynomial p(x) whose galois group is S_n then adjoin a root of p(x) to Q
not too sure if there are more nontrivial examples tho
we can run the same contruction on E/F
we can run the same contruction on E/F
suppose we have some polynomial p(x) in F[x] with galois group S_{deg p}, then adjoining a root of p(x) to F gives an extension with no nontrivial automorphsim
suppose we have some polynomial p(x) in F[x] with galois group S_{deg p}, then adjoining a root of p(x) to F gives an extension with no nontrivial automorphsim
suppose we have some polynomial p(x) in F[x] with galois group S_{deg p}, then adjoining a root of p(x) to F gives an extension with no nontrivial automorphsim
suppose we have some polynomial p(x) in F[x] with galois group S_{deg p}, then adjoining a root of p(x) to F gives an extension with no nontrivial automorphsim
suppose we have some polynomial p(x) in F[x] with galois group S_{deg p}, then adjoining a root of p(x) to F gives an extension with no nontrivial automorphsim
discord bugging out for me
rip
That’s exactly the case I’m interested in. Suppose that F has no nontrivial automorphisms and has infinite transcendence degree over Q, and let E be a finite extension of F. Then under what conditions do all the automorphisms of E fix F?
Hmm
If you take F = R and E = C then it's false
trying to think of other interesting examples
squirtlespoof
it's easier to see $$\frac{\mbb Z[x]}{\left(x^2+5,2,1+x\right)}\cong\frac{\frac{\mbb Z}{2\mbb Z}[x]}{\left(x^2+5,1+x\right)}\cong\frac{\frac{\mbb Z}{2\mbb Z}[x]}{\left(x^2+1,1+x\right)}$$
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
Hi there, would anyone know something about Calogero-Moser singular spaces and about the use/interpretation it could have in theoretical physic?
probably better to ask in physics server lol
yep, I posted it there too :)
Show that in Z_8[x], there are infinitely many square roots of 1.
What I have so far is I've found the square roots in degree 0 and 1. I know that the leading coeff must be 4, and the constant can be 3, 5, 7. My idea is try to show that for any n, there's a sqrt of 1 that is degree n, but I'm not sure how to continue, or if that's the right track. Help?
there is a characterization of units in a polynomial ring
in general you should show that units of a polynomial ring is a unit iff the constant coefficient is a unit and the other coefficients are all nilpotent
and then from whatever construction you have of this I guess you can get square roots
Oh sick, I got it; 4^2=0, 3^2=1, so for any n, consider (4x^n+4x^n-1+...+4x+3)^2
Thanks for the hint
(1 + 4f(x))^2 = 1 for any f(x) in Z_8[x]
Cool, thanks
lugita15
Never mind, I figured it out.
how to solve a tetrational equations such as this: $^n 2 = 3$?
Deleted User 738983d
though idk if that belongs to algebra (this channel)
or in other words, how to calculate the super-logarithm, such as this: $slog _{2}{3} = n$
Deleted User 738983d
assume slog is super-log
look for an element of order 3.
@glossy yoke would 2 be one of order 3?
yeah
Then what would I do?
examine the subgroup generated by 2.
{2, 4, 6}
yes.
sure.
alright
im very sure only like 5 people in the world reallly cares about this so your best luck is reading papers on what those people have done
also idk where it should belong literally no one ever does this afaik
I had a question about terminology
I'm reading a paper on function fields and it mentions orders of the field F
Here's an example
I'm pretty sure that it means that there is a w and a point(or place) P such that ord_P(w) = p-1
can someone confirm this?
im very sure only like 5 people in the world reallly cares about this so your best luck is reading papers on what those people have done
also idk where it should belong literally no one ever does this afaik
@golden pasture ive found one, it says to use abel function of an exponential function, but i barely understand and i cannot find abel's function
abel transform*?
(may want to move to some analysis channel)
What is a split torus?
not sure, it loooks like $slog _x (z) = A _{z} [x^z] (z)$
Deleted User 738983d
looks like a cursed ring to me
more info if you want to know. yet in munafo class system there is no such thing
only way i can solve it is "abel function of exponential function" but i cant find it anywhere, only hope is if anyone knows what is it and how to calculate it
may want to ask in an analysis channel
and give a reference for where you found it
are here any analysis channels?
ok thanks
lol
jacobson
(see pinned msg in #book-recommendations)
but my very biased perspective is jacobson
jacobson is too old
stupid question but how do i prove this
he left it as an exercise but it looks weird
idk what to do
induction prolly
yea that's what i thought too but ig i'd have to split into cases

you can probably deduce the case for negatives from that for nonnegatives
something like that, yeah
"the induction is trivial and left as an exercise to (audience)"
-your prof, and now you
that's how you prove these things
oh jeez am i supposed to use this...
i feel like that would be way too easy no
i feel weird using this
also this is the first time i've ever talked in these advanced channels other than the pedagogy one 
This is exactly what you're supposed to use
Oftentimes things are definitional so they are easy
i see
Im learning the basics of homology groups from fraleigh, and one of the excercises is to show that $\partial_2(\partial_3(P_1P_2P_3P_4)) = 0$. The first boundary isnt too difficult (i think), and i need to calculate $\partial_2(P_2P_3P_4-P_1P_3P_4+P_1P_2P_4-P_1P_2P_3)$. Here i immediately run into problems, as im getting $\partial_2(P_2P_3P_4) = -P_3P_4+P_2P_4-P_2P_3$, and $\partial_2(P_1P_3P_4) = P_3P_4+P_1P_4-P_1P_3$, but now the $P_3P_4$ terms wouldnt cancel as they should. I'm probably just misunderstanding how to calculate the boundary or how the indices should be treated with respect to orientation.
Pappa
I tried to prove these two equivalences, and for both problems and both directions I'm stock on how to show the kernel of the middle part is the subset of the image
So for (i) => I'm not sure how to show ker(bar u)=im(bar v), for (i) <= I'm not sure how to show ker(v)=im(u); for (ii) same thing
I can easily show that im(bar v) is a subset of ker(bar u) but the other direction is a bit difficult
M'' is the cokernel of M' ---> M
if you have something in ker(u bar)
then the composition M' ----> M ----> N is 0
so you get a map from the cokernel to N, i.e. a map from M'' to N
such that M ---> M'' ----> N is equal to the map M ---> N
which means it is in the image of v bar
in general you cant generate the whole field from repeated addition of one element unless the order of the field is prime
it is probably either referring to the α in F_q=F_p[α]
or a multiplicative generator
if I have a set $G$ with operation $*$ where every $a$ is guaranteed to have a right inverse $b$ and a right identity $e$, does this show that $b$ is also the left inverse of $a$?
vov&sons
(the operation * is associative)
Yes, that's correct
can someone explain to me what this means
a set S is countable if one can find a bijection between natual numbers and S
ill answer in #discrete-math
im reading robert ash basic algebra atm, anyone read it before or think its good?
its my second text on algebra...i just finished 1st chapter
How do I find the Galois group of $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{1+\sqrt{2}}, i)$ over $\mathbb{Q}$? I have checked that the extension is indeed Galois, and has degree 8. Are there nice ways of doing this or you just have to do it 'by hand'?
det
Let $K=\mathbb{Q}(a)$ be a number field which is not a Galois extension of $\mathbb{Q}$, and let $p$ be the minimal polynomial of $a$. Then is $Aut(K/\mathbb{Q})$ isomorphic to the group of permutations of the roots of $p$ that are in $K$, or are things more complicated?
lugita15
things are definitely more complicated. since K is a simple extension, you precisely know that the group has order = n = number of distinct roots of p in K. In particular this is not isomorphic to Sn since n! > n.
here i'm taking n>2. But if you want this to be true, you need to have n = 1 or n = 2.
in general we probably only get that the automorphism group acts transitively and faithfully on the set of roots of p in K.
What is a rational character?
@rustic crown Oh right, it’s not even true in the case when K is a Galois extension of Q. But is there anything different in how Aut(K/Q) acts on the roots of p in K depending on whether K is or is not a Galois extension of Q?
Are rational characters just characters have have image inside of Q, i.e. have values +1 or -1
I am currently reading Galois theory as well, so I can't say much. But since Q has char 0, any irreducible is automatically separable. So one easy thing we can say is |Aut(K/Q)| <= deg p with equality only when K is Galois.
This is the case if \chi is assumed to be a unitary character. But in general you might have some unitary characters, in which case the statement is that these are rational iff they are a rational multiple of a rational unitary character, iff all the values of \chi are contained in Q
So the context is this
Is k assumed to be characteristic 0 here, or completely arbitrary?
arbitrary
okay so your representations are just assumed to be in characteristic 0
i.e. both your representation V and the character \chi_V
I think saying "defined over k" here is a little confusing when k is positive characteristic
Rational character doesn't seem to be defined up there the same as in my first google search
e.g. the identity on $\mathbb G_m$ is rational according to the usual definition but the definition given here, taken literally, implies the value field is $\bC$
Icy001
What's the generic point of a linear algebraic group?
What's the generic point of GL(2)?
What's the generic point of affine space k^n?
(a, b; c, d), where a, b, c, d are in R, right?
GL(2) is the group of invertible 2×2 matrices. It's a variety because its defined by the polynomial det=/=0
ah, christ
@uncut girder, are you working with them as schemes or varieties?
I can tell you what the generic point of the scheme A^2 is
But no definition of variety I've seen has allowed for generic points
Varieties dont have generic points?
Not to my knowledge
Tell
So by definition $\mathbb{A}^1 = \mathrm{Spec}\ k[x]$
Actually let's do A^1 to start
Shamrock -> E -> B
(x-a)
You're missing one
(0)
Right
So $\xi = (0)}$ is called the generic point because it has the property that $\overline{{\xi}} = \mathbb{A}^1$
Shamrock -> E -> B
In A^2 we also have a generic point (0)
But also any irreducible curve has a corresponding generic point
A point on the curve whose closure is the curve itself
and generally since point = primes and primes = irreducible closed subsets and closure of point = set of all primes containing p we get generic points of all affine subvarieties
More generally any scheme has a unique generic point for each irreducible subset
Wdym prime = irreducible closed subset
in an affine variety
prime ideals of the coordinate ring are the same as irreducible closed subsets
unless I'm fucking something up lol
So the generic point of k^2 is not really a point of k^2 
It is if k^2 is a scheme
but yeah lol idk what they mean if they're sticking to varieties
What's the difference between scheme and variety

Quite a bit
schemes are locally ringed spaces
Which locally look like Spec A
Varieties are just like open subsets of closed subsets of P^n for some n where P^n is projective space over a(n algebraically closed) field
People who are more schemepilled than me will define a variety as a certain kind of scheme
Bad
Open subsets of closed subsets?
in terms of schemes, a variety is an integral separated scheme of finite type over a field
some authors drop the irreducible condition
some might ask for the field to be algebraically closed
lol
Yeah so like, I would call A^2 \ {0} a variety
Wait no lol
So if you just take a closed subset of A^n
We can make A^n an open subset of P^n
lmfao nope this one is backwards too
okay take 3
Yes okay consider the curve y - x^2 in A^2
This is an open subset of the curve zy - x^2 in P^2
which is itself a closed subset of P^2
there we go
So this is an example of an open subset of a closed subset of P^n
Which we might want to call a variety
Okay w.e
Okay let's say you have a group and a vectorspace that this group acts on. So V is a representation. Now if V is over an algebraically closed field then V = k^n is affine space and so has a generic point. And then what does it mean to say the generic point is a single orbit? Does it mean, that under the group action, the generic point stays fixed?
Idek if my question makes sense...
How do I do this?
I know it has something to do with row and column reduction
But I suck with matrices
the form in prop 2.11 is where it's a diagonal matrix with d_i dividing d_{i+1}
you can compute the gcd of all n*n minors to find the product d1...dn
We haven't really done that yet
I thought the procedure was: Do row ops, multiply all matrices that you obtained from doing row ops
Do the same for column ops
yep
After that, you use those matrices to somehow get the desired basis
so to C2 --> C2 + 2C1 and C3 --> C3 + 3C1
Wait
this gives,
-6 0 0
-15 6 9
we are allowed to do column operations
Yeah, but even in column ops we're not allowed to multiply by non-units
And 2 is a non-unit
yea, but we are allowed to add any multiple of one row to any other row
Oh okay
I'm not allowed to do C1 --> 2C1
but the other 2 operations are alright, since you can reverse what you just did
I did the procedure
Here's what I got
R2-->R2 - 3R1; R1--> R1+2R2, R1 --> R2 and R2 --> R1
What are the corresponding matrices for these?
so you got,
3 0 0
0 12 18
Yeah
you should get,
[1 0]
[-3 1]
for the operation R2 --> R2 - 3*R1
doing this row operation on a matrix is same as multiplying by that 2*2 matrix from the left
[ 1 0][ -6 12 18] = [-6 12 18]
[-3 1][-15 36 54] [ 3 0 0]
lol this made me laugh
Okay so I now have the matrices for all 3 rows
lol
Do i just multiply them now?
to get one of the bases?
yea but make sure you don't multiply them the wrong order
yea
but multiplying matrices is kinda a pain, so its generally nicer to just augment an identity matrix and do the operation on the matrix along with that identity
$\begin{pmatrix}-3&1\ -5&2\end{pmatrix}$
Have a Banana, Bitch
I got this
Symbolab
so is my basis for Z_2 (-3,-5) and (1,2)?
or is it (-3,1) and (-5,2)?
i need to check, but probably this
lol i was doing by hand 😛
Hmm what do i do to get rid of the 18?
Because I can't multiply a column by 2
actually wait
yea but you can do C2 --> C2 - C3; C3 --> C3 + 3*C2; C2 --> -C2
I don't think you need the last step
yea, but +6, looks cuter 
let me figure out the matrices
[1 0 0]
[0 1 0]
[0 -1 1]
For the first transformation?
pls respond I sent you my matrices 
haha it was a joke
$\begin{pmatrix}1&0&0\ 0&-1&3\ 0&1&-2\end{pmatrix}$
Have a Banana, Bitch
This is what i got
$\begin{pmatrix}1&0&0\ 0&2&3\ 0&1&1\end{pmatrix}$
Have a Banana, Bitch
so say P = be that earlier 2x2 matrix and Q be the inverse of that 3x3
So in the inverted matrix
i have a bad feeling that i got it backwards lol
i think we need to invert the 2x2 and not this
so your basis should be {(1, 0, 0), (0, -1, 1), (0, 3, -2)} for Z^3 and {(-2, -5), (1, 3)} for Z^2
=\begin{pmatrix}-2&1\ -5&3\end{pmatrix}
Have a Banana, Bitch
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let's just quickly check
So the basis in the rows for both of them?
columns for both
we just wrote M = P^-1 * A * Q
so the answer is either that or
{(1, 0, 0), (0, 2, 1), (0, 3, 1)} for Z^3 and {(-3, -5), (1, 2)} for Z^2
It's neither
yea my calculations says this is the one
Is this what I should be doing?
Because then I get this
Which is different from the original
the first one should be
-2 1
-5 3
But we're taking the inverse of that right?
could you send me the latex for this?
$\begin{pmatrix}-3&1\ ::::-5&2\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}3&0&0\ :::0&6&0\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}1&0&0\ :::0&2&3\ :::0&1&1\end{pmatrix}$
Have a Banana, Bitch
$\begin{pmatrix}-6&12&18\-15&36&54\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}-2&1\-5&3\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}3&0&0\0&6&0\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}1&0&0\0&-1&3\ 0&1&-2\end{pmatrix}^{-1}$
det
this is what we got from those elementary operations
yea so v1 = (1, 0, 0); v2 = (0, -1, 1) and v3 = (0, 3, -2)
u1 = (-2, -5) and u2 = (1, 3) we get,
Mv1 = PAQ^-1 v1 = P A e1 = P 3e1 = 3u1
Mv2 = PAQ^-1 v2 = P A e2 = P 6e2 = 6u2
Mv3 = 0
Is every finitely generated abelian group finitely presentable?
yea, that's because Z is noetherian
I can't use this without proof because we haven't covered this yet
Is there an easy proof of every finitely generated abelian group being finitely presentable?
Z is noetherian
Can't you just take the map from Z^n to your group G given by the generators
We haven't proved that Z noetherian implies all fin. gen. Z-modules have finite presentations
Then the kernel of that map is an ideal which is finitely generated because Z is noetherian
it's a one-liner
it's the thing liquid said
I can expand on this a bit if you want. The map is given by mapping the basis elements of Z^n (the coordinate vectors) to the generators of G
what does it mean by unique?
That there are not two or more additive and multiplicative inverses
That there's only one
Contradiction is redundant. For an element a, suppose b and c were both its inverses. Demonstrate b=c using definition of inverse and some algebraic manipulations.
I’m late to the party but I prefer the view that varieties have generic points, you just aren’t aware of them if you study them as varieties
And that a good substitute for a genetic point in the case you are working over Q is a point with transcendental coordinates
Well actually even over C, you can just take a point with coordinates in C(t)
Hello! I am struggling to understand this section, specifically the part where the author mentions that the splitting field for f(x) over F(s_1 ... s_n) is F(x_1 ... x_n). I am confused because there is a theorem that says that if f(x) is a polynomial over a field F with roots a_1 ... a_n then F(a_1 .. a_n) is the splitting field for f(x). This makes me think that the splitting field for the polynomial in the image above should be F(s_1 .. s_n, x_1 .. x_n). In the wikipedia article about Galois theory they state the same thing expect that they use Q (the rationals) instead of F. Can someone explain why this is true?
you can show fairly easily that F(s1,...,sn,x1,...,xn) = F(x1,...,xn)
How would I do that? If F(s_1,...,s_n, x_1,...,x_n) = F(x_1,...,x_n), wouldn't it imply that F(s_1,..,s_n) = F?
no, the latter won't happen unless s_i in F... which doesn't happen since x1, ..., x_n are indeterminates
the splitting field of f(x) is the smallest extension E of F(s1, ..., s_n) over which f(x) factors completely. So E must contain all roots of f(x). Can you continue from here?
Well if E must be the smallest extension of F(s_1,...,s_n) and also contain the roots of f(x) then I would simply adjoin the roots of f(x) to F(s_1,...,s_n) to obtain F(s_1,...s_n,x_1,..x_n). What am I missing here?
that much is correct. But now can you see why F(s_1, ..., s_n, x_1, ..., x_n) = F(x_1, ..., x_n)?
I think the point is just that each s_i is contained in F(x_1, ..., x_n).
There's nothing you need to prove here
Ohh okay! So this happens because of how s_i is defined, right? Since s_i is some combination of x_i then it surely must be in F(s_1,..s_n), right?
i think you want the last thing to be F(x_1, ..., x_n)...
Yes, I was little too fast there! Thank you guys, you really helped me!
np 👍
i asked this once before but one more time shouldn't hurt too much
how exactly do you use coxeter groups/reflection groups to show things about polyhedra and polytopes and so forth? like what would an example of a nice property be that's proved by group theory?
also, same question but group actions
Show that one can think of the grassmannian of dimension $n-1$ of $k^n$ as $\mathbb{P}^{n-1}$ (defined here to be the set of one dimensional subspaces, or lines, of $k^n-1$.
Have a Banana, Bitch
i have the intuitive idea of identifying each such subspace as the line "perpendicular" to the space
But I don't know how to state that for an arbitrary field $k$
Have a Banana, Bitch
what is your definition of projective space
oh wait nvm
yes, you roughly have the right idea
you can construct a "pairing"
the inner product V × V -> k determines orthogonality when V = R^n and k = R
but there's a natural bilinear map that always exists, with no extra structure
It goes V × V^* -> k
So the "orthogonal complement" should really be thought of as a subspace of V^*, namely the annihilator
That's my intuition at least
and for V = k^n there's an iso V ≈ V^*
Since we have a canonical basis
Hmm so what should my map be?
Note: We haven't studied dual spaces yet
Neither have we done bilinear maps
So I don't think we can use those
Maybe I can do something like this
Fix a basis $w_1,\cdots,w_{n-1}$ for $W$. Let $w_i=\sum_{j=1}^nk_{ij}e_j$
Have a Banana, Bitch
We need to find a vector $v=\sum_1^nc_ke_k$ such that $\sum_{j=1}^nk_{ij}c_j=0$ for all $i\leq n-1$
Have a Banana, Bitch
So we have n unknowns (c_k) and we have n-1 equations
Can't we say something about the solution set of this?
Like there is a non-zero solution to it
and all solutions are on the same line?
Were you talking about something like this @sturdy marsh ?
I guess the we still have to show that the solution set is invariant under base change of W
Ah sorry for the confusion
This sounds correct to me
I think I almost got it.
I just need to prove the following
Given $n$ unknowns and $n-1$ homogeneous equations, the solution set exactly equal to a line
Have a Banana, Bitch
Say W is an $n-1$ dimensional subspace of $k^n$. Given a basis $S=w1,\cdots, w{n-1}$ define the matrix $M(S)$ as the matrix having $w_1$ for the first row (in standard basis representation of $w_1$), $w2$ as second,..., $w{n-1}$ as the $n-1^{th}$. Then the solution set of M(S)x=0 will be the same as the solution set of M(S')x=0 for some other basis S' of W
Have a Banana, Bitch
I feel like both of these are basic facts from linear algebra that I have forgotten
i found the answer to this. The automorphism group must act on the roots faithfully and transitively which means it can be identified with a transitive subgroup of S4 of order 8, so it must be a sylow-2 subgroup, and since all sylow-2 subgroups are conjugates, and D8 also acts faithfully and transitively on 4 vertices, we get Aut group is D8.
I dont see how that theorem lets them rearrange the last part. That map doesnt "Fix" anything?
uh
not really sure what your confusion is
do you not see that (1 5 4) and (2 7 6 3) are disjoint?
no
they dont share any elements.
alternatively, to use the definition they gave in 1.3.4
clearly for each number from 1 to 7
they are in at most one permutation
$X = (1 5 4)(2 7 6 3)$
Yes
for example, the cycle (2 7 6 3) maps 1 |-> 1
yes, the point is that sigma can be written as a product of two permutations
The definition says that for every 1 ... n
right.
and here n = 7
and the definition of disjoint holds true
if we let $\alpha = (1\ 5\ 4)$ and $\beta = (2\ 7\ 6\ 3)$
Namington
ye
then $\beta(1) = 1, \alpha(2) = 2, \alpha(3) = 3, \beta(4) = 4, \beta(5) = 5, \alpha(6) = 6, \alpha(7) = 7$
Namington
so the definition of disjoint is satisfied
an easier way to "think about" disjoint though is just saying "the cycles share no elements"

The binary operation is composition
Is that just assumed ?
Assuming that section is about S_n, yes
scratching my head over this one a bit. i tried finding some sort of relationship or pattern within the coefficients as I expanded the polynomial but I couldn't find anything that seemed easily identifiable. Am I missing out on some theorem that applies here?
x-c is a factor of p(x) iff c is a root of p(x)
Consider also ||Fermat's little theorem||
ohhhhhh
i think i get it
What about when x=p=0? My memory is telling me that (p-1)! = -1 mod p but i can't remember if that's an actual theorem or not
That's Wilson's theorem
don't put that p=0 lol
Also use the fact that a polynomial of degree n can have atmost n roots in F[x]
thank you 
oh okie
Actually, This is a nice way of proving Wilson's theorem
yea, but you also have the straight way directly by pairing up a with a^-1 and only elements that left unpaired are the ones that satisfy a^2=1. So this reasoning works in any (finite) abelian group...
that is product of all elements = product of all order 2 elements
That works too,but this is good too
true 
Are you familiar with McKay's proof of Cauchy Theorem?
i don't know by the name, but are you talking about the one that uses coloring necklace by elements of the group satisfying that product of the beads = 1?
yea, this argument was too cute
Take |G| such that p doesn't divide |G|
This is generally said using class equation or by using Burnside's lemma
There is exactly one equivalence class of size 1,i.e., |G|^(p-1)=1 mod p
the nice thing is that this proves a seeming stronger statement, that number of elements of order p is (p-1) mod p
or termed differently, number of subgroups of order p is 1 mod p.
this looks a lot like sylow's third theorem, and indeed iirc its true that number of subgroups of order p^k such that p^k | n, is 1 mod p.
Yes
If G is an infinite group, does it necessarily have a subgroup isomorphic to the integers? I'm thinking this will fail if every element has finite order, but I'm not sure how to provide a specific example.
(Z/2Z) x (Z/2Z) x ....
or another way to say this is,
set functions from N to Z/2Z under point-wise addition.
got it, thanks
Det’s example works because it is not finitely generated. An infinite finitely generated abelian group will have a subgroup iso to Z though @narrow ibex
thanks for clarifying, I was actually getting hung up on finitely generated abelian groups specifically
so the infinite product of Z/2Z w/ itself didn't even come to mind until det mentioned it
I think this is true for infinite finitely generated groups in general, not just abelian ones. Consider the cyclic subgroup generated by each generator. At least one of them has to generate a subgroup of infinite order
there exist finitely generated infinite groups where each element has finite order. i don't know how to construct it, but it's called the Burnside problem: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burnside_problem
The Burnside problem, posed by William Burnside in 1902 and one of the oldest and most influential questions in group theory, asks whether a finitely generated group in which every element has finite order must necessarily be a finite group. Evgeny Golod and Igor Shafarevich provided a counter-example in 1964. The problem has many variants (see ...
even if generators have finite order, you can have an infinite group. like, consider the free product of Z/2Z with itself. Though a and b might be order 2, ab has infinite order.
ah, right okay
I brought this up a week or two ago and no one had anything to say, I hope it's ok if I ask again:
Suppose you have a ring of non-commutative polynomials of {i, j, k}, an orthonormal basis for R3: for example, D(i, j, k) = i^2 + j^2 + k^2 or C(i, j, k) = ijk + jki + kij - ikj - jik - kji.
Then define a substitution map as a square matrix A, so a transformation that maps i, j, and k to some three arbitrary vectors; is there some way to find all the eigenvectors of A? By which I mean, the polynomials P for which P(Ai, Aj, Ak) = nP(i, j, k) for some scalar n. For example, C(Ai, Aj, Ak) = det(A) C(i, j, k) for any A.
And all the ordinary eigenvectors of A will still be eigenvectors of A ofc
Does this make no sense the way I phrased it lol
I swear this is a valid concept, for example take $A = \begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 & 0\
0 & 0 & 1\
0 & 1 & 0
\end{bmatrix}$
Then, Ai = i, Aj = k, Ak = j
So D(Ai, Aj, Ak) = i^2 + k^2 + j^2 = i^2 + j^2 + k^2 = D(i, j, k)
And C(Ai, Aj, Ak) = ikj + kji + jik - ijk - kij - jki = -1 * C(i, j, k)
NotASemicircle
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I had a question about chain complexes and cochain complexes
Given a chain complex, can't we just flip it around to get a co-chain complex?
For example, $\cdots \longleftarrow A_i \longleftarrow A_{i+1} \longleftarrow A_{i+2}\longleftarrow \cdots $can be made into $\cdots \longrightarrow A_{i+2} \longrightarrow A_{i+1} \longrightarrow A_i \longrightarrow \cdots$
So why even bother studying both of these when they are essentially the same?
by "flip it around" do you mean
apply Hom(X, -)?
because you cant naively just "flip the arrows" due to dimensionality issues
Have a Banana, Bitch
those are the same complex
both of those are chain complexes since their differentials (arrows) are decreasing dimension
Does the indexing matter?
well they do if youre reusing indices
lmao
if your i is supposed to be a different i then its not a big deal
Like say that the complex was indexed by the integers. Can't we fix the issue by just taking every index and turning it into its negative
but if you use "i+1" twice in the same sentence im gonna assume theyre the same i
One sec I'll make it more precise
but yes, (the differential in) a chain complex decreases the degree whereas a cochain complex increases the degree
this matters more than "the direction of the arrows"
Let $\cdots \longleftarrow A_i \longleftarrow A_{i+1} \longleftarrow A_{i+2}\longleftarrow \cdots$ be a chain complex indexed by the integers. Then define $B_i=A_{-i}$ (do the same for the maps, but idk how to write stuff over the arrows. Then, $\cdots \longrightarrow B_i \longrightarrow B_{i+1} \longrightarrow B_{i+2}\longrightarrow \cdots$ is a co-chain complex
okay sure
Yes, so is there a point to not just study one instead of both?
Have a Banana, Bitch
well cohomology gives you different invariants
than homology does
the formal interpretation here is that cochain complexes are (categorical) duals of chain complexes
Does that mean there is an isofunctorism (is that a word?) between the categories?
wikipedia can probably exposit this better than i https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cohomology#Singular_cohomology
right basically @vestal snow
Gotcha
duality is a "functor" from a space to its dual space
and its "inverse" is called a "pullback"
(this is a slightly theory-of-modules-biased viewpoint but its good enough)
So any category theoretic info we get about chains will also be true for cochains
However, when we think of chains and co-chains as some constructions of, say, topological spaces
We are fixing a point of reference, so to speak
So we can't say that they are the "same" from a fixed point of reference
Thus, the need to study them separately?
Is this the intuition?
Can someone help me with this from atyiah macdonald, I've found this solution but I'm a bit confused.
We are trying to show that if $f$ is a unit then $a_0$ is a unit and $a_i$ for $i\neq 0$ are nilpotent
lime_soup
@vestal snow sure, and oftentimes when we talk about chains, intuitively our constructions are becoming "more degenerate"
like going from a space into its boundary
whereas cochains go the other direction
for an analogy, its kinda like differnetiation vs integration
I don't understand the comment about since A/p is an integral domain, f must have degree zero
differentiation is easier to compute but often less nice/powerful
the invariants cohomology gives us are typically very powerful relative to homological ones
One more question
Say we define define a way to construct a chain from any topological space. Now, we reverse the arrows from the category of topological spaces, and create a cochain from this new category in the same way as we did originally.
Will the chains from the original encode the same (topological) properties as the cochains from the new (up to translating these properties from the topological spaces category to the cotopological space category) ?
When do two polynomials over an integral domain multiply to give you a unit?
What can you say about their degrees?
Sorry yes this is exactly where my confusion is, I believe the following two things to be true but they contradict each other
- if A is an integral domain, then deg(-):A[x] to Z is an additive function. This would give us the result.
- Consider F_p[x]. then x^{p-1}*x=x, but the degree function is not additive then
Ah I see you're making the mistake I once did
Do not think of polynomials as functions
$x^p\neq x$ as polynomials
Have a Banana, Bitch
okay so we don't apply the characterstic rule to the formal variable
oh maybe i am using the wrong term
Do you mean fermat's little theorem?
just this thing when you have a field of characteristic p that a^p=a
Yeah, that only works for elements of F_p
Not for like, F_p^2 or Fp(t)
(everyone I know who's learned field/galois theory has made mistakes like this in positive characteristic though, you're in good company)
just hopping on board here to say that this doesn't matter anyway, what you wrote above that this doesn't apply to the formal variable is correct
x^p and x are not the same polynomials over F_p
The way I like to think of polynomials is formal expressions (until you learn category theory, then you should think of it as an initial object in a special category)
one has degree 1 and the other has degree p
yeah i understand the exercise now
wait so
what is the story with field of prime charaterstic
i thought charaterstic being p was that a^p=a
Nope
(not trying to be dismissive when I say "it doesn't matter" -- this is a very good thing to think about and the explanations shamrock and banana are giving are correct -- just wanted to point out to you that there are two separate questions being discussed)
in fact, F_p is the only field which satisfies a^p = a for all a
Consider something like F_4
so a field of characterstic p, is not torsion free as a Z module
And you will see that a^2 does not equal a for all a in F_4
If it did, that would violate the number of roots theorem over fields
This has p torsion
god i really regret pretending char p didn't exist earlier in my mathematical journey
Haha I know what you mean
I still don't understand (in)separable extensions
someday I will learn number theory and see how it all fits today

If you want a more algebraic treatment of inseparable extensions, consider checking out Stichtenoth's book
I mean I've seen the algebraic treatment lol
what do i actually have to know about fields of characterstic p
It didn't stick
I think seeing it in an arithmetic or geometric context would help more
What do you want to do with them?
Very little if you want to do pdes
Even less if you're interested in architecture
read atyiah macdonald
Isn't there an analog of PDE for p-adic analysis?
Not a whole lot about them specifically, but keep in mind that finite fields exist
so don't treat polynomials as functions
I think it's worthwhile to know two things about fields of positive characteristic
(1) existence and uniqueness of finite fields
(2) if k = Fp(t) and K = k[x]/(x^p - t) then K/k is inseparable
I also have this bad thing of thinking characterstic p means F_p
Yeah haha also very common when learning this stuff
Characteristic p actually means Fp, Fp^2, or Fp(t)
If it helps, every char p field contains F_p
i remember doing some alg geom problem
so it was an algebraically closed field
show that such and such a zero set was irreducible
then it asked about the case what about char 3
and then i started trying to show that the polynomial had some root in F_3
Unrelated, but every alg. closed field is infinite (proof is a nice exercise to try out)
this is 'funny' part of me mistake
i knew this to be true
and i knew that F_3 was certainly not infinite
but it didn't click that what i was doing was wrong
Happens to everyone I think
Which is why I've made a point to work out one example and one "counterexample" to every theorem I see
This is what I was trying to get at with the two ideas above
The first tells you every possible example and counterexample to anything about finite fields
The second is what you should think of whenever you see the word "separable"
Thank you kings
