#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 544 of 407
$a_1a_2^{u_2}..a_k^{u_k}=a_2^{v_2}...a_k^{v_k}$
MoonBears-D-
If u_1!=v_1
So?
One side will have a factor of a_1 and the other side will not
If the factor of a_1 is not on lhs,multiply both sides with a_1
ok
If you have seen Cauchy's or Sylow's theorems, you can quickly prove that |G| = 2^m. If p is any prime dividing |G|, there's an element of order p. But every element has order 2, so p = 2.
Proving that G is abelian is easy: We have (ab)^2 = abab = 1. Multiply both sides by ba to get ababba = ba = ab (because bb = aa = 1).
Actually you don't need the full Cauchy theorem. Since we know G must be abelian (by the second part), you can use "Cauchy's theorem for abelian groups," which is easier to prove.
wiki provides a counterexample (https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Artin–Tate_lemma), more concretely we have
let A be the ring Q[x_1,x_2,...], clearly not noetherian and let I=(x_1,x_2,...)
Let C=A[y]/y^2 and let B=A+Iy be a subring of C
verify the conditions but B cannot be finitely generated as an A algebra cuz you need x_1y, x_2y,... as the generators of the algebra
theres another counterexample that this resembles a lot trying to recall what isit rn
oh ye theres one thing in groups where subgroup of finitely generated group may not be finitely generated:
Take the group generated by the matrices $\begin{pmatrix}1&1\0&1\end{pmatrix}$ and $\begin{pmatrix}2&0\0&1\end{pmatrix}$
now consider the subgroup with $1$s in its diagonal
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
the general intuit behind finding nonfinitely generated things inside finitely generated things is somehow restricting enuf such that all your generators are missing and no new finite set can be found
Nice! I didn't know what it was called.
Oh, yeah. Also the free group on two elements contains free groups of all ranks.
yea
True!
If we forget about the finite/finite type distinction (maybe we shouldn't...) then all we have really is that C is fg over B and A. It's not obvious now that B must be fg over A.
yee
yxy^-1 is an element of order 2
ness
Try it
to be fair
-_-
-_-

hm
yxy-1 is also an element of order two ?
so x isnt the only one?
this is weird
no, x is the only element of order two
and yxy-1 is an element of order two
soooo
?
how can x be the only element of order two when yxy-1 is also of order two
there is a way, what is it
maybe im missing a theorem
lmao
so how do you use that
ok
so just replace x for that when we need it
and done ig
i might actually switch books
I understand how to prove this not using the ping-pong lemma
xD
but I don't know how to use the ping-pong lemma for this
try to stare extremely hard at it
it shouldnt be too too hard to find 2 regions that satisfies the ping pong lemma i think
lemme stare at it
This is generally good advice
Clara Loh's text "Geometric Group Theory"
Ty
ok so
lets just call the matrices say
A B
There has to exist some region R such that BAR = R
(take the principal axis, and expand to a cone)
then select region r such that Ar is not in r but BAr=r
then apply ping pong lemma

a lot of "visualize this"
kinda painful but writing it explicitly is more painful 
i believe this construction shows any 2 rotations that are on diff axis and not by a rational multiple of 2π should be free
thank you for the explanation, will keep working at this, and if I come to any explicit conclusions I'll ping ya
There is some similar content in the second chapter of The Banach Tarski Paradox book
the one by Wagon?
I'm aware of how to prove this using a more.. number theory method, as well as the whole "pick 2 rotations of two axes that are irrational multiples of 2pi"
there's some pretty interesting theory
I was unaware this proof could be done using a straight forward application of the Ping-Pong lemma, since I've only seen it applied to SL(n, Z)
otherwise the regions get a little higgledy-piggledy
I see where Ariana is coming from o: (pretty sure she meant BᵐAⁿR = R?), it's just finding such a region xD
yes
ah yesh oops
mbmb haha
yee
this
have a ring homomorphism A->B
and then like
it satisfies both axioms for an A-module mixed in tgt with those of a ring
so kinda like multiplication distributes over addition
what are the other ring axioms idk
f(a)1=f(a)
f(a)b=bf(a)
really just define an A-algebra as (B,f) where f:A->B is ring morphism and B is an A-module with multiplication defined by ab=f(a)b
Ok
Well I asked because algebra over a field has a different definition for some reason
Well it’s still equivalent
But different
Fair
Speaking of
B is a flat A-algebra means, B is an A-algebra (hence also an A-module) and B is flat as an A-module
?
yes
Do you have a hint of what I should look at for ii
I know there are solutions online but I’d like just a hint
I’m not sure how to invoke the property of B being an A algebra
try to write the thing as a composition of exact functors
The reason why we want B to be an A algebra is so that you can consider modules over B as modules over A
I just used rewrite rules
Altho I think you might have needed to sneak in a (x)_B B in there somewhere
just play with the properties of tensor AM gives you and have a long series of trivial equivalences and it magically falls out
How would i show this
hint: Q is a field
Q is a FIELD!
'
Assume the ideal J is nonzero, take a nonzero element of it and use the definition of an ideal.
This is the thing that confuses me lots
Q is my favorite field
Say M can be considered both an A module and a B module
Is a field just a group under multiplication?
This is called restriction of scalars
B being an A algebra is the sam thing as a map phi: A -> B
Such that the image of A is a subset of the center of B
Yeah so if we have a a ring morphism from A to B we can do this
Which we do
Okay so
The way you consider a B module as an A module isn’t where you’re confused?
What I am confused about is, it does not seem that these module structures are interchangeable. But we seem to use them as if they are. For example phi from A to A that sends everything to 0 is ring morphism so we can view M as an A module in two ways and they don’t seem related
Well A isn’t flat over A in that case
Err
I guess it is
They are related tho like
Consider M as an A module like under the second version
And then if you apply restriction of scalars you’re now saying that am = 0 for all a, all m
Like...
The module structures are different
And they’re built up on the same set
So when people say ‘now view M as an A module’
Well
We really have a map
From B-modules to A-modules sending M as B module to M as an A module
Call such a thing a bi-module
If M and N are bimodules, it’s not nesccairly true that M tensor_A N is isomorphic to M tensor_B N
Yes
Also a bimodule is a bit different haha
Altho I guess for commutative case it’s all sorts of weird
The thing is tho
You have the following result
If N is an (S,R) bimodule, M an S-module and L an R-module
Then (M (x)_S N) (x)_R L = M (x)_S (N (x)_R L)
So it’s associative even tho you’re changing what you’re tensoring over
For some reason these two propositions don’t assume nor conclude the full short exact sequence
But is it true that a short exact sequence is exact iff the hom sequence is exact
I meant a short sequence
If that makes sense
I was just asking myself this earlier
The tensor product is always right exact
Oh sorry that’s a different question all together
This is because Hom isn’t an exact functor
This is not true
The common example is the exact sequence 0 to 2Z to Z to Z/2Z to 0
Wait the tensor product isn’t exact either
Hom(Z/2Z,2Z) and Hom(Z/2Z, Z) are both zero. The thing you have to be careful about is to remember that our morphism of commutative rings my definition is unital
Yeah
Yeah the tensor is only right exact
I am also working through atiyah atm
Feel free to @ me whenever
Alright
Yeah
This chapter of modules is just pain
I might not know the answer but it’s nice to work through things together
Yeah I’m just trying to focus on doing the exercises
I kind of just finished the chapter
I’m trying to review
Before going into exrercises
Oh I might be wrong about the terminology of left vs right exactness since Hom since one of them is contravriant (flips the order)
Did you ever figure out how to show the thing about a flat B-module being A-flat?
I can give you a proof but it sounded like you were trying to understand why it’s true intuitively
Imo it seems kinda intuitive to me, it’s just like a transitivity sorta thing
both homs are left exact
Hi, I'm doing an assignment and one of the questions asks me to prove two groups (in particular a subgroup of GL(3, R) and R^2) are isomorphic and I'm using the first isomorphism theorem, and I think I have the solution. The problem is that I don't have my head around it, I have used the definitions and it's worked out but I don't have a firm grasp on understanding what exactly all of it means. Does anyone have a good way to visualise the first isomorphism theorem?
I always find it odd when people want to visualize things that are purely algebraic
You might get some amount of headway thinking about real vector spaces or something, but I don’t really see how visualizing comes into play when you deal with GL(3,R), the isomorphism you make let’s you port this over to R^2 and then for the particular subgroup you can start to visualize things maybe
I mean I don't find it odd, humans like visuals
and I think visuals are pretty important to help motivate certain things
or to help understand things
but after a point, it's also important to remember when things can't be visualized
in nice, intuitive ways at least
i feel like without some visualisation i can't remember it or properly understand it
that might be a bit of an L considering the whole "abstract" part of abstract algebra
fuck
although
generally i'm good with concepts in abstract algebra so far, except for statements where there's a lot going on
here i get a bit confused
'abstract' doesnt make it less geometric tho
in fact more in many cases
G/K is the quotient group , i.e. all left cosets of K in G (and K must be a normal subgroup) ?
I mean it's still important to be able to abstract things out
but is this equivalent to G minus K ?
yeah they don't have anything to do with each other
i see
quotients take a while to 'get'
I remember learning about this theorem last year at the end of my linear algebra course without being taught normal subgroups
but quotient groups are defined by normal subgroups right?
I personally found lattices nice to help me understand quotients
what's a lattice
a way of visualizing group structure
yeah or you could define them using a group operation on the fibers of a map
in some sense, the quotient groups appear at the "top of the lattice"
this has me thinking of structure of chemical compounds and salads
yeah i'm lost
a lattice basically partially ordering every subgroup of a group by inclusion
for example. this is the lattice of D_8 (or D_4 depending on which notation you like)
suppose you wanted to know what the quotient group of D_8 by the subgroup <r^2> is
what that does, is it "collapses" <r^2> to 1
this is the symmetries of a square?
yes
so the lattice of the quotient group is the red part
because everything else gets collapsed to the identity
that's how the lattices of quotient groups are contained in the main group, near the "top" of the lattice
(the lattices of subgroups on the other hand are contained near the "bottom")
it's a neat way of visualizing things
it does get too much to handle as your groups get more complicated
but it's what helped me to develop some intuition for quotients
ok i kinda get it
you can also sometimes see how certain groups are contained in other groups as isomorphic copies
like this
you can see that an isomorphic copy of the klein 4-group is in D8
so these tiers are decreasing with order
yes, each row are subgroups of the same order
and a subgroup is contained within the one on linked above it
and this lattice shows every possible subgroup ?
yes, well you can sometimes make a partial lattice
if you only care for some of the subgroups
okay
but ya, that's what you can think of happening when you take quotient groups or talk about isomorphic copies of groups in other groups
no, <r^2> is the normal subgroup here
oh
this is D8/<r^2>
<r^2> becomes the identity
in the quotient group
so <r^2> is the "new 1"
and becomes the bottom of the quotient group's lattice
i see
by the fourth isomorphism theorem, every subgroup that contains <r^2>
is reflected in the lattice of the quotient group
wait wait i haven't reached the second theorem yet x')
but thanks, this is super neat
i wonder my lecturers didn't show us these lattices
they're mostly a visualization tool
not really a necessary thing to learn group theory
so I guess for time reasons or something they might've skipped past it
Is it true that $\frak{a}\otimes A=\frak{a}A$ where $\frak{a}$ is an ideal of a commutative unital ring $A$
Whoever
does this tie in with number theory? so far i've only come across ideals and rings in number theory
It’s true for and A-module M that M tensor_A A is just M
Oh wait
For any *
Well aA is just a
But it is often written like aA
To emphasis you are viewing it as an A-module not just an ideal of A
You mean small a right?
(a) is an ideal, also a module as well, (a)=aA
is there an elementary reason for why the additive group Q is not iso to QxQ
the simplest argument I came up with is that there is a way to quotient QxQ by Z, such that there exists a monic Z -> QxQ/Z
whereas in any quotient Q/Z (they're all the same), all elements are of finite order
this might be really dumb but
you can quotient QxQ by Q and get Q out right?
so it can't be the same
how do you should you can't do that in Q?
because if G/G = G, G = 1?
you're running into an issue with set theoretical notation
i don't understand the issue
if you're talking about things being invariant under isomorphism
then having specific subsets is not invariant under iso
i am very confused
when you write G/H where H is a "subset" of G, the isomorphism invariant version of the statement is that you have a monomorphism H -> G which you're quotienting by
ok so set theoretically, Q is not a subgroup of QxQ
whaaat
kinda like saying Z isnt subset Q at this point
there is a subgroup of QxQ isomorphic to Q
but interesting qn
maybe you can show that there is a proper subgroup iso to Q
whereas in Q that's not the case
Q cant be the direct product of any two non trivial groups
'is to to'
suppose Q = H x G
then like take an element and then like project it into G ; f:H x G --> G
and then?
why?
cuz this homo must be injective
from Q?
why?
are you thinking of ring homs?
you can most certainly project Q onto things with nontrivial kernel
theres only one noninvertible endomorphism on Q
but there are many noninvertible endomorphisms from GxH to itself
Hom(Q,Q) is functions of the form f(x) =ax for some a in Q
ye
yeah, that sounds right
multiplicative Q
this is bijective
since we get Hom(Q, Q) vs Hom(Q, Q) x Hom(Q,Q)
here you get your contradiction already
i.e. End(GxH) isnt a domain for nontrivial G,H
here's an elementary way, I think
any abelian group map between Q vector spaces is Q linear
dimension is isomorphism invariant
mm yes lin alg spam
probably not
is a nice way to prove things
I think I'll stick with "has a proper subgroup iso to Q"
it is more elementary in the sense it is just lin alg
I mean like, the claim becomes k^2 and k aren't iso as k vector spaces
but just takes more pain
wait sorry how do we know that's impossible for Q?
by looking
aw is that a thing you can say
i was so close to that
so you're looking for a monic Q -> Q, look and the image of 1 and observe it's a surjection
what
yee
im sorry f is from Q to Q
so automatically surjective
that's not what I consider lin alg 
maybe I'm just a brainlet
linear algebra for me is very broad
all of my lin alg happened over R and C
I'm vaguely familiar with vector spaces over other fields
that is called physicists lin alg
if Q is iso to GxH --> we have a map from Q to Q where we send each element to G --> this is a homomoprhism from Q to Q
but nowhere ready to translate things to them
as some1 said
that's fair
endo(Q) is Q
most lin alg intros goes more generally for modules over fields
linear algebra is very broad
includes riesz representation, the open mapping theorem, Tor, and nakayama's lemma
😌
at some point it becomes rep theory
isnt nakayama ag
idk where
in my brain all of this is linear algbera
CA*
Nakayama is commutative algebra yea
how lmao


lol
pushout
rep <- la -> modules
I mean Lie theory is closer to linear algebra than is most of (commutative) algebra imo
yea
oh true!
yes
lie theory is also linear algebra
lie is very much linear
just say all algebra is linear because reps exist
lie groups, banach spaces, finite group representation theory, homological and comm alg
all of this is linear algebra
all of math is secretly lin alg
why is homological algebra linear algebra
okay anyways I have an reu app due in < 3 hours and need to start my research statement
bye yall
have fun not knowing linear algbera
rip
Can we reason by trying to show that there's no way to impose a field structure on Q x Q? But I am not even sure that's the case..
it is the case
in general, the direct product of any two (nonzero) rings is never a field
you're a nontrivial ideal

How do you know the ring structure is the product ring?
called "ideals"
literally the obstruction to being a field
hence, not ideal

This doesn't seem to rule out an arbitrary field having underlying additive group Q × Q
And in fact Q(sqrt(2)) does have that as underlying additive group, right ?
Since it's a degree 2 extension of Q
uhh
degree 2 extension => underlying vector space is Q^2
oh true, he was asking specifically about the additive group
in that case my answer is not that helpful
This is not the case, take any degree two field extension of Q. Eg Q(i)
Exactly
Ugh
also nobody bulli me for coming back to chat, I submitted my application
u mich better accept me or else 
Their program is weird
You decide on a topic with a faculty member
If they let you in
so do you need to mention any faculty members you would like to work with or something?
Nice
What is the module that represents this matrix?
[1 x 0]
[1 -1 -x]
[0 x x]
over k[x]
for some field k
Can someone give me a hint?
We need to find what it is as "a better known entity"
Yeah, I put 4 people
That's what they ask for
Someone who does singularites in char p stuff, someone who does homotopy theory+k theory, someone who does hodge stuff, and Faye's algebraic topology prof
So we need to find a good description for R^3/Image of that matrix
(who does some kind of AT manifolds thingy)
cool
What does this mean?
I haven't heard this terminology before
Basically we have to find a good description for R^3/image of that matrix I just wrote
Where R=k[x]
This was the original matrix which I reduced to that using column ops
I don't know any "special" k[x] modules so I would be very curious to see what the module is
nope
say you have a map from R^m -> R^n
this is just a linear transformation...
once you fix a basis on both sides you can give a matrix for it
now will the image of the map depend on the basis you choose?
Yeah you're right
this is from Aluffi... right?
Yes
I just finished chapter 7 not too long ago
Oh nice
@rustic crown I got this matrix:
[1,-x,0]
[0,1,0]
[0,0,x]
I don't know how to make this into SNF
you can use row operations to killl the second entry in the first row
and you also know that presentation of block matrix corresponds to the direct sums of modules
Will that be reversible?
elementary row operations are invertible 
Oh right
so we can delete a the row and the corresponding column if the only non-zero entry is a unit
that's an elementary row op
sort of
Scaling a row by a non unit isn't invertible
we shall work over fields then

people don't usually consider that a elem row operation do we?
Alright I got
[1 0 0]
[0 1 0]
[0 0 x]
¯\_(ツ)_/¯
Which means that the module is basically everything of the form (f(x),g(x),k)
Right?
Oh wait
I would think it's iso to k?
no... this is a presentation matrix
It's just k
yep
lol
isn't that nice tho? working with that scary module is just working with the field...
@rustic crown Since you've done Aluffi, can you tell me what he wants me to do here exactly?
This is pg 338 for reference
Like is it something like this
Suppose blah = something where blah and something are finite sums and products of Z[x_1,...,x_r], then blah = something for every ring?
yup
Okay
interpreting the xi as universally quantified elements of a ring
I kinda want to study some of that stuff
But AG 😦
Me too lol
Be like me and not really know model theory or ag
I read a book on basic fol stuff at one point but it was a long time ago and I'd like to get a bit deeper
I mean I don't know anything about cohomology and schemes
But I'm planning to speedrun death Vakil over the summer
nice
same... can i join you?
Of course
We can make a study group
My advisor said I should do Vakil/Qing Lui now and EGA in grad school
The thing is EGA is in french
good thing I'm learning French now
for me it's like
AG takes a lot of time to learn
Other math takes less time
you do the math 🧐
I think that
the EGA thing is a massive meme
Would not recommend
I think that's the common opinion as well, a lot of people haven't read all of EGA (I think Vakil even said he hasn't) it's moreso something you just go "f I need a general result time to find it in EGA"
Altho at this point it seems like Stacks Project is better for that
and the stuff I care about at the moment I'm finding myself being pointed to SGA more often now lmfao
Honestly, my advisor seems like the kind of guy to say "Oh you read all of EGA? It was just a prank bro"
lol
Pick up Goertz and Wedhorn frfr
arguably runs onto being too sophisticated, but it offsets this by actually proving stuff
what are the r_i?
oh are you saying like
you have polynomials in Z
they agree as polynomials over Z
Look here for the problem
I think you can clean it up by noting that an identity is equivalent to saying something is 0
Yeah you're right
This just seems weird
Like no two different polynomials in Z[x_1,...,x_n] will be the same
But yeah like if you have a polynomial f(x_1,...,x_n) = 0 then you can map x_i to r_i using the univ property of Z[x_1,...,x_n] and then this gives you a map sending f(x_1,...,x_n) to f(r_1,...,r_n)
So there is no universal identity
and if f is the 0 polynomial then f(x_1,...,x_n) has to map to 0
so that f(r_1,...,r_n) = 0
and that can be viewed as an identity of elements in R
The universal identity is saying that if an identity holds in Z[x_1,...,x_n]t it holds in any ring
I guess you could look at it like this, if you consider an algebraic identity to be saying that
f(x_1,...,x_n) = 0
where f is in R[x_1,...,x_n]
then if you show the identity holds in Z[x_1,..,x_n] it holds in all rings
since you can just send f(x_1,...,x_n) = 0 in Z[x_1,...,x_n] to the same polynomial but viewed in R[x_1,...,x_n]
this is contrasting to say the identity
Yeah but my point is that this will never be possible
wdym?
like
consider x_1(x_2 + x_1) - x_1x_2 - x_1^2
this is mega contrived but like yeah this is the 0 polynomial
I think this is mainly useful for like matrix crap
or doing stuff with determinant or something
you might get some really trash ass polynomial in n variables and you can move it around and it happens to be 0
This is my fifth time learning matrices and though it's much better doing it from Aluffi, it is still my least favorite part of the book
I mean yeah same
Thanks tho, that explained it
I think shamrock had a good example of this
he told me about this thing
i guess the point is
you want to think of f(x_1,...,x_n) as like a formal thing
det
Like Z[x_1,...,x_n] is equivalence classes of these formal sums
so like x - x is a different object than 0
but we call them equal
so there's times where it's like not very useful to know that r - r = 0 for any r in a ring R
but if it gets more complicated, and you ahve more variables it might actually begin to be useful
pretty much yeah
This problem just feels weird
Like I know what I want to say, but it seems hard to formalize it
the adjugate matrix
you have this matrix A
And you can build another one B
Whose entries are polynomial in those of A
And you want to say AB = BA = det(A) I
It suffices to verify this in Z[x1,...,xn]
I think aluffi does this
All of math is reducing things to statements over fields or over Z
or combinatorics
That's just statements over Z
now this is truly based
Lol you're so close to rediscovering Computability
This is actually a valid perspective
Except it turns out there is some math you can't encode unfortunately
But that's why we have higher order Computability
I know that the Eilenberg-Steenrod axioms describe how a homology theory of topological spaces should behave, i.e as a sequence of functors that have certain properties.
Are there similar axioms for a homology theory of algebraic structures?
Like, say that describes at the same time how a homology theory of groups, such as the Galois' Cohomology and say a (co)homology theory of certain say commutative ring (idk if that even exists tbh) should behave, both at the same time and more.
Thanks
Generators and relations pop up all over the place
Kinda. (Co)homology theories can be extremely diverse (lots of extraordinary cohomology theories for spaces, lots of cohomological constructions for algebras with funny properties...)
But the functors will generally satisfy something related to the Eilenberg-Steenrod axioms
Hm I see
I thought homological algebra described axioms for (co)homology theories in general algebraic structures.
Can someone help me clarify the universal property of the tensor product over commutative rings?
If i understand correctly: Lets say we want to take the tensor product of two A modules M and N. Suppose we think that P is the tensor product of M and N over A. To check this we define an A-bilinear module homomorphism from the regular old product of M and N to P (call this map b). Then we let f:M\times N to Q be an arbitrary bilinear morphism into an arbitrary A-module.
If we show that this map factors over b, we know that P is indeed the tensor product
awh that diagram came out awful
It does, in the sense that there are very general tools from homological algebra or even stable homotopy theory that give very general constructions for such cohomology theories
it's just that very general cohomology theories that come out of algebra might not satisfy some of these good axioms
you can narrow things down to nicely behaved cohomology theories and then yea there are various sets of axioms you can choose that makes these cohomology theories "behave as one would expect" in some reasonable sense
There's some cases where you can describe an algebraic cohomology theory as a topological cohomology theory: for some algebraic structure, you can sometimes give a procedure for constructing a space such that the cohomology of this space is the cohomology of this algebra
in this case you can sometimes translate the usual Eilenberg-Steenrod axioms into algebraic statements
The tensor product is unique up to unique isomorphism
Can someone help me with this?
If the x_i generate M over A then and m in M is a sum of a_i x_i
We need to see that we can make 1\otimes a x_i for any a in A
We allowed to multiply by b’s in B
Okay so
You want to make b (x) m for any b in B, m in M
Write M = sum a_i • x_i
Then the way that A acts on b is that a•b = phi(a)b where phi:A -> B
Now you get that
sum bphi(a_i)(1 (x) x_i) = b(sum phi(a_i) (x) x_i) = b(sum a_i•1 (x) x_i) = b(sum 1 (x) a_i • x_i) = b(1 (x) sum a_i • x_i) = b (x) m
Here I use • only to denote when the multiplication is considering something as an A-module
Which is why phi(a_i) becomes a_i • 1 because I’m thinking of how A acts on 1_B in B
@chilly ocean
The first thing is written in a way such that it’s generated by 1 (x) x_i over B
Big ty
@chilly ocean have you read Keith Conrad's tensor product notes? If not, go now. They really make clear what the universal property is and why it is the only thing you should ever use.
lol your profile pic is my phone lockscreen
also I went to a conference at UConnn once
and Ketich Conrad tried to do standup
let's just say his math exposition is a lucky gift to us all
His pfp has tiny masks edited onto the mouths
not really sure which groups to consider for this problem
gut is telling me not to use the additive groups Z_n
but uh dis is weird im not sure what they're getting at here
We call a property local if it suffices to check that the property holds on localisations at primes
often we get even better than this and it suffices only to check at maximal ideals
is there a term for this? perhaps something like coarsely local?
squirtlespoof
I don't think there's a word for that. no
If you want the source @noble saddle
This is probably the best image I've ever made
I like it better than the original
How could you
But also I first listened to them at the same time
Beach Life in death itself is enough to prefer the original
@chilly ocean twin fantasy by car seat headrest
I shall check it out
I always thought your image was some kind of gnome/wizards
DO YOU HAVE SOMETHING AGAINST DOGGGSSSS
granted the original came out while I was in highschool
one time I tweeted out all the lyrics to beach life in death in alphabetical order and nobody retweeted it

Yeah I think the remaster came out when I was in my senior year of high school
Depends on the time of year
oh wow
This is what I saw
That's good
beautiful
I am loling out loud at this
Maybe I should just use my face as my pfp like max
I like using album art though
Perhaps use this no?
what else you into, Shamrock?
I am considering...
Custom made bespoke art
lol
Any two involutions generate a dihedral group (with the conventions: C2 and C2 x C2 are dihedral, as is the semidirect product of Z with Z/(2)).
Shamrock I just found Indian Summer's discog at a record store the other day
Not even a 
I don't think I have, I'll give that a listen too
anyone here like prog?
no
I haven't listened to the band Indian summer but I do like this song called Indian summer https://open.spotify.com/track/3MhOHLfjD0cGoKwgmyo4eb?si=Rtg1NhKGRweiOXPbeR-W0A
I'm a big fan
In January of last year I had the chance to see either mewithoutyou or this band called glass beach
I ended up going to the glass beach concert and finding a new band I really liked
I've seen mewithoutYou like 5 times, and it's always great
but glass beach I don't know
But then covid hit and I will not see any concert in infinity years
will check out
and I think me without you broke up last year too
😭 😭 😭
I should've gone when I had the chance
Actually I remember why I didn't know and it's very very dumb
might be the best band I've ever seenlive
I was messaging with this guy on tinder and we said we'd go together, but then neither of us followed up and the concert was really close
And I didn't want the awkwardness of following up
So I went to a different concert instead
And never heard from him again
dude's suck
well
I am also dudes and did not follow up
dudes
I know the feeling
I had a a similar experience with a dude going to see Dinosaur Jr
God banging out exercises is a great feeling
Yeah
Is there a reason we phrase the Jac radical as all x such that 1-xy is a unit for all y
Oh yeah I mean I've seen it defined both ways
Oh okay
I was just wondering if there was an aesthetic choice for this or some intuitive reason why it’s true if you see it with a minus sign
Hmm I suppose it made those exercises easier
It is related to whether the ring is local, right? it's been a while
probably because the - makes its inverse 1+xy+(xy)^2+...
ehh I guess
you can think of this as like
if 1-xy is a unit then the "m-adic valuation" of x has to be positive for all m, i.e. x is in all maximal ideals
im doing too much nt ig
you can probably just brute force q1, it is only 9x9 multiplication table
Is there an analogue of Nakayama's lemma in group theory?
nakayama talks about modules and about rings
Which one would the group play the role of?
Idk maybe that's too reductive
I just can't think of what an analogue would look like
Well, thinking of modules as rings acting on abelian groups, I thought of something like the action of the Frattini subgroup.

I am not very sure about the terminology right now but I think we can restate Nakayama's lemma as follows: Jac R acts non-transitively on M, when M is nonzero, finitely generated R-module.
That's interesting
I'm a little uncomfortable talking about transitivity of the action of an ideal
It's not clear to me that JM = M implies J acts on M transitively
Hmmm..
I like the analogy between R-mod and G-set here but I don't think you can translate finite generation or transitivity
Those feel specific
Oh, yeah.. There's an essential difference..
For an element g of G, we have gX = X, because by definition g acts as a permutation
yup
A group action on X is a homomorphism from G to Aut X, not merely the set of all functions from X to X (i.e., "End X")
But End X is a monoid, right?
You could define it either way
A monoid homomorphism G -> M lands in the set of invertible elements of M
Where G is a group and M a monoid
We can still think of monoid homomorphisms from G to End X.
yes, and it's the same thing as the set of group homomorphisms into Aut X
As for finite generation, I was thinking of "finitely many orbits."
I don't really get how that's a similar condition
Oh hmm I guess I see your thinking
You have finitely many elements (representatives of the orbits) which "generate" the set
If you act on those you hit everything
(my internet connection is a bit slow)
still feels kind of weird
Ohhh...
Makes sense.
Yeah
So for modules, we have an algebra with two operators (?)* acting on another with one operator (2, 1), and for G-set we have (1, 0). The concept of "generation" uses the operation of the thing acted on (in this case, the operation of the module), and it no longer makes sense to speak of it in the (1, 0) case.
- I meant the universal algebra sense
It doesn’t seem to be stated
But it seems that atiyah-Macdonald implicitly uses that if S is multiplicatively closed then 1 is in S
This is convention
when you talk about S a "multiplicative system" you want to make sure that 1 is in there
It is stated in page 36, fourth paragraph.
The bottom thing should be a_{d-1}
I have shown (2) <=> (3) and (1) => (2). So it remains to show that if this exact functor doesn't kill non-zero modules or non-zero homomorphisms then (a) its additive (b) its faithfully exact. I don't understand this additive-ness requirement nicely.
@carmine fossil ya but don’t polynomials go from a_0 to a_d if they’re degree d?
You are doing a map a -> r +(m),where r is the remainder after divison of a with m
You don’t need to prove additiveness
An exact functor is additive
I think this is by convention...??
Or maybe it’s a result...
additive was defined by saying the corresponding map Hom_R(M, N) --> Hom_S(M, N) is a abelian group homomorphism
Go to page 495
Ohhh I’m so dumb
We’re implicitly assuming the functor is additive
“Let F:R-mod to S-mod be an additive functor...”
And likewise he defines left and right exactness for an additive functor
Why do we need this additive hypothesis?
We want to know that F sends chain complexes to chain complexes
Without additiveness there’s no reason to know that F sends the 0 map to the 0 map
I think is the issue
F as a functor only needs to send the identity to the identity but this isn’t the 0 map
yea this could be it
Honestly I can’t tell you if exactness can somehow get this for you (the fact that it’s additive)
But I think when you talk about an exact functor you ought to assume it’s additive
Unless you have a really good reason not to
its doesn't make me completely happy because "being a homomorphism" is more than just mapping 0 to 0.
maybe you could define the notion of a short exact sequence in a weaker category 
to define kernels and cokernels all you need is the notion of a zero morphism
which can be defined if you have a zero object
(and you need to assume the corresponding limits and colimits exist)
this is almost a pre-additive category
What's the most general algebraic structure in which "a^k = b^k ==> a = b ∨ a = -b" works (where k is a natural number)?
Clearly finite fields don't work, is an integral domain with characteristic 0 enough?
Do you really mean if and only if?
Isn't this true of groups?
Just look at C and you'll see that we have an integral domain with characteristic 0 where this doesn't hold
If k is odd, then backwards implication is basically never true
Aah, the a=-b bit is troublesome.
yeah, C doesn't work. So I'd need an ordered integral domain, no?
Also, do you want k to be arbitrary, or you fix k then find the structure so that this holds?
one structure, all k
I guess this is sort of about roots of unity, if we are in a commutative ring, this is equivalent to (ab^-1)^k=1
...if b has an inverse
Or -1
hmm, is there an unordered integral domain where this holds?
Well, if we do have roots of unity, we are requiring that we have at most 2, those being 1 & -1
ah, yeah, just fix b=1
Well, we will have some roots of unity (1 and -1), but we will never have any others
So we must have characteristic 0, 2, 3 or 4
But char 4 doesn't work because 2^2 = 0^2
why wouldn't characteristic 1 work?
I mean, sure, but who cares about char 1
Considering I'm assuming you want to have 0 \neq 1
But also you can't take any extension of F_2 or F_3
So you have F_2, F_3, and some things of char 0
hmm, I don't see why this is
Because if we have char = n, then we require phi(n) <= 2
Because we have the multiplicative group of Z/nZ having phi(n) elements, and these are all roots of unity
And phi(n) <= 2 -> n = 1, 2, 3 or 4
and Z/nZ is a subring of all rings with char n, right?
Yes
does it have to be a field, though?
Thinking about it, no
Uh, take a UFD with at most 2 roots of unity
That should work
So like F_2[x]
Probably other stuff too, but that is probably at least sufficient
Too tired to really think it through right now
ah, thanks anyway!
I had a question about Jacobian of a variety and group objects in general. My Professor likes to go off topic a lot during office hours and he described them to us, but I was a bit confused about the definition. Let $A$ be a group object over some category $C$. Then $A(X)$ is defined as $Mor_C(X,A)$ and since $A$ is a group object, this is a group. I don't understand what is the group operation in $Mor_C(X,A)$.
Have a Banana, Bitch
saying that A is a group object in C means that A comes with some morphisms


