#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 540 of 407
does that make a little more sense?
Here's an idea for the first problem: to write down a 7-cycle, you're writing down a sequence of numbers among 1-7 that is non-repeating
among which there are 7!=5040 choices, right?
(you have 7 choices for the first number, then 6 choices for the next number because you can't repeat the first, then 5 choices for the next number because you can't repeat the first and the second, and so on)
so 7! take away the repeats
now note that, for instance, (1 2 3 4 5 6 7) and (2 3 4 5 6 7 1) represent the same permutation. So you have to divide out by rotations of your sequence
See how to finish it now?
yes
🙂
For the second question i just show it is a product of even transpositions right?
Close! Transpositions are by definition 2-cycles, and they are odd permutations
but the composition of an even number of transpositions is an even permutation
so you have to show that a 7-cycle is a product of an even number of transpositions, that's one way to do it
Two elements of S_n live in the same conjugacy class iff they have the same cycle type
yeah
so the number of elements in this conjugacy class should be the number of 7-cycles you computed earlier 🙂
mhm!
My algebra course/module started today, loved it :).
nice!
Too bad teacher didn't yet specify which exercises we are supposed to do. Tomorrow is next lecture (remote lectures only due to corona).
There's a nice trick for computing the sizes of conjugacy classes in symmetric groups that goes as follows:
conjugacy classes in S_n are in bijection with unordered integer partitions of n. For such a partition \lambda=n^{a_n}...1^{a_1} the size of the corresponding conjugacy class is given:
I have exercises in the material he has written, but there are so many exercises, I won't do them blindly and hope those are what we are supposed to do 🙂
$\frac{n!}{\prod^n_{i=1}(i)^{a_i}(a_i!)}$
nGroupoid
I had a number theorist for my group theory class, shame we literally only mentioned exact sequences during the last lecture Sadge
still stuck on this q, any help appreciated
For example there are 7 conjugacy classes in S_5. For say the middle one, corresponding to the partition 5=3+2 the size of the conjugacy class is 5!/(2^1 1! 3^1 1!)=20
or say for the next one, corresponding to the partition 5=2+2+1 the size of the conjugacy class is 5!/(2^2 2! 1^1 1!)=15
how would you do this?
hint: the number of elements in a conjugacy class is the index of the centralizer of any element of that conjugacy class
so the centralizer here will be an index 720 subgroup of S_7. Should be able to conclude from here. 🙂
Okay another hint: if a subgroup of S_7 has index 720, what can we say about the size of that subgroup?
(More generally if G is a finite group of order n, what does it mean for a subgroup H of G to have index k? What can we say about the order of H?)
i dont know what is meant by the index
There's also a brute force proof as long as you're willing to relabel elements so that $g$ looks like (1234567)
okay @molten silo we say that a subgroup H of G has index n, written [G:H]=n, if |G|/|H|=n
ok
it's like the size of H relative to the size of G
this is 720 right?
anyways if the centralizer here has index 720 that means the centralizer has order 7!/720=7
Now what do we know about groups of order 7? 🙂
7 - cycle in s7?
yes, this ends up being a subgroup generated by that 7-cycle, so it must be cyclic
said more cleanly, we know that the centralizer has to have order 7, and any group of prime order is a cyclic group
(maybe not the most general approach since this is sort of a coincidence owing to the fact that we're working with a symmetric group S_n where n is prime)
(the general fact nevertheless is that the centralizer of an n-cycle in any symmetric group S_n has index n and is the cyclic group generated by that n-cycle)
(more generally, the centralizer of an element of S_n is generated by that element along with the permutations which are disjoint from that element)
For n not prime, you can still prove the centralizer is cyclic just noticing that all the powers of g are included in the centralizer and there are already n of those
Just show it has no root over that field
Yup Icy that works!
Any hints brothers
@frail zinc If this polynomial is reducible, it must have at least one linear factor, meaning it has to have a zero in F_5. So determine whether or not this polynomial has zeros on F_5; if it doesn't the polynomial is irreducible.
@molten silo If G is a group of order pq for p and q distinct primes and H is a nontrivial normal subgroup of G, we know that the order of H has to properly divide pq
So either H has order p or order q (or order pq, but then the statement is obvious)
What can you conclude about the order of the quotient?
Yup! If H has order p then G/H has order q, and if H has order q then G/H has order p
ok
so it must cyclic right
yup!
@prisma ibex how do you check whether it has a zero in F_5 tho, bit rusty on this
thus abelian
Yup!
thanks
@frail zinc You sort of have to check it by hand lol
I think there are some criteria that make this easier if you're doing this over F_p for p really large but over F_5 there's not much to check
we just want to check whether t^3+2t+1=0 mod 5 for t=0,1,2,3,4
,W table t^3+2t+1 from t=0 to t=4
none of these look like 0 mod 5 to me 🙂
if I was doing it by hand like on a test I'd do -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 instead, slightly faster
True!
If you look at part (ii) you see that if h = [e] then g/h isnt necessarily abelian right
Ahh right so I can just choose any consecutive 5 numbers
Mhm! You just need to choose representatives from each mod 5 congruence class
Ah okay, so it looks like its not reducible
@molten silo that's right, there are examples of groups of order pq for p and q distinct primes which aren't Abelian
for example dihedral groups D_p of order 2p (where p>2)
If you instead let p=q then every group of order p^2 is Abelian: it's either Z/p^2Z or Z/pZxZ/pZ

Your are so clever
(sorry for the chat spam on algebra, I'm preparing for an algebra exam right now and it's kinda helpful talking this stuff through!)
hope this is helpful
🙂
I had a question about function fields and the dictionary between topological and geometric stuff. Suppose that $K$ is an algebraically closed field and $E$ is a function field in one variable over $K$. Let $F$ be a finite extension of $E$. It is well-known that there is an equivalence of categories between function fields and projective curves. Let $C_F$ and $C_E$ be the curves corresponding to $F$ and $E$ respectively. Let $p: C_F \rightarrow C_E$ be a covering map. Is the order of the group of covering transformations of this cover the same as the group of automorphisms of $E/F$?
Have a Banana Bitch
To show something is an isomorphism it must be a bijective homomorphism right?
In groups, yes
thanks brother
Np
What have you tried/done so far?
Hint: what is the determinant of the unit element in GL(n,C), and what is the unit element in C*?
Moreover, how is the determinant of a product of elements in GL(n,C) related to the determinants of the individual elements?
the correspondence is between curves + birational maps and function fields. The degree of the field extension corresponds to the degree of the map
the only problem is that that was how degree was defined for us
Yeah I know. I just used the correspondence to get C_F and C_E
oh ig you can also define degree by looking at the pullback of O(1)
I'm just wondering if the the two groups are isomorphic or not
If we somehow get an equivalance of categories of covering maps and curves and function fields and morphisms, we'd be done
you can still consider unramified covers though
if you have a smooth projective algebraic curve of genus g>0 it has nontrivial fundamental group so you're going to see some unramified covers
true
Assume that the genus is greater than 0
I don't really know what branched covers and unramified covers mean, but I'll try to follow along
you would need something like 2g_1-2 divides 2g_2 -2 or something like that
branched just means like you're allowing some of the sheets of the cover to come together at some points upstairs
in which case we say the cover ramifies at those points (or rather above the points they project to)
otherwise we say that the cover is unramified. Unramified covers are covers in the "usual" sense
have a banana bitch as you do NT, it is related to ramification in the number field sense as well
Like ramified places?
Yes, exact same idea
places of the function field correspond to points on the curve
ramification over those places in the function field sense corresponds to having branching over some ramification points in the geometric sense
Okay I think I kinda understand what's going on
Can someone help me talk through I-adic completions. So with the (x)-adic topology the competion of R[x] should be R[[x]]
The open sets around zero are all the ideals (x)^n
the open sets around any other point is just translations, so f+(x)^n are the open sets around f
Yup!
Now to get the completion of R[x], we take the inverse limit of R[x]/(x)^n
If I understand correctly, the inverse limit is defined to be all coherent sequences
Yup, the completion here is R[[x]]. The point is that given any f in R[[x]] you can consider its truncation to any R[x]/(x^n)
Conversely, if you have a coherent sequence of elements f_n in R[x]/(x^n) then this gives an element of the (x)-adic completion
but such a coherent sequence is the same as giving an element of R[[x]]
hmm okay i am getting a little bit confused here then
a coherent sequence is a sequence a_n and a group homomorphism \phi such that \phi(a_n)=a_{n-1} ?
Right. In this example, you want f_{n+1} in R[x]/(x^{n+1}) and f_n in R[x]/(x^n) such that the former reduces to the latter mod (x^n)
like, each time you "go up the tower" you're prescribing the next coefficient of the power series
and the coherence forces the first n coefficients f_{n+1} to match those of f_n
(I might have some indexing fuckups but you get the idea)
so the group homo is fixed for a given completion
and we are just taking these group homos to just be inclusions
i think this might be where i was getting confused
lol I think I'm confusing myself too haha
well let's think
We have a filtration R>I>I^2>...
passing to quotients that filtration gets reversed
which are a bunch of projections
I mean the other example to keep in mind is like
Z_p is the completion of Z at (p)
so it's the inverse limit of the rings Z/p^nZ
that is, the elements are coherent sequences (n_1,n_2,...) with n_i=n_j mod p^i for i<j
similar statement holds for R[[x]] as the inverse limit of the rings R[x]/(x^n)
Okay
I’ll look at this
I think you can also do it with 0<a<1 defining |f|:=a^ord(f) for f in R(x) to get an ultrametric abs value, making cauchy sequences and getting the completion that way
basically just p-adics but without carrying, hensel should work too
set the output to be =(a,b) and solve the system of 2 eqns
@prisma ibex just wanted to clarify: totally ramified points of a function field = branched points of the corresponding curve?
Very liberal use of =, but you should get the main idea
yea the places over which an extension of function fields of curves ramifies corresponds to the branch points of the corresponding curves
Isn't there a difference between ramified and totally ramified though?
you can be ramified but not totally ramified
if you want to think geometrically in terms of curves, if you have a map of curves of degree n, then whenever a point p has fewer than n preimages, it's ramified
but totally ramified would mean it has one preimage
Yeah I meant
that is the correspondence between ramified points and branch points or between totally ramified points and branch points?
pedantic point: ramification points are what happens downstairs, branch points are what happens upstairs
but yes the the points of ramification downstairs correspond to places in the function field that extensions ramify over
no need to impose total ramification
Hmm this means that I misunderstood something in one of the papers that I was reading
not sure if it's related to this but there are cases where ramified implies totally ramified, for example, if the covering group is cyclic of prime degree
Ah that solves it!
Ah good point, didn't think of this!
It's Z/p^nZ covers
Ahh yup there you go!
oh nice, tha'ts not prime degree but in fact it is also true for prime power degree
Arigatou minna
yw 👍
🥳
err, not just prime power degree, but like
specifically Z/p^nZ
(but not Z/p x Z/p)
cyclic of prime power
yea, cyclic of prime power order 
yep
cool cool this is good
I'm still pretty lacking in my geometric knowledge about this stuff
for fun is there any meaning to tamely vs wildly ramified other than on the higher ramification groups
i too have no geometry
So I'm trying to intuit through it using my knowledge about function fields and the principle "if this was not true, life would be a pain so it is true"
Kinda, yea!
I could swear you helped me on an AG problem a while back
you see
AG != geometric intuit
I was actually going to share one of my favorite unsettling facts. So I mentioned etale \pi_1 as the correct replacement for the fundamental group. This often behaves as we would expect: if you take the affine line A^1 over an algebraically closed field of characteristic 0 then it is etale simply connected in that etale \pi_1 of A^1 is trivial: it has no nontrivial finite etale covers
this is SPECTACULARLY false if you take the affine line A^1 over an algebraically closed field of characteristic p
etale \pi_1 of A^1 in this case is an infinitely generated profinite group

so it has an utterly gargantuan supply of finite etale covers
I looked up the AG definition of branch point and it literally defined it in terms of function fields lol
Ahahaha nice
So this was tautological
Though I guess all of math is tautological
There are non function field definitions of ramification and branching but they aren’t really necessary here where you can just work with the associated function fields
But yea I do agree it’s a bit tautological if you define it this way
Suppose we have a ring X such that for all x in X, x^n = x for some n in N
where that n is the same for all elements in X
is it such that the ring is commutative
I've proven this for the case n = 2
but I'm struggling with the base case
wut
just start your induction at n = 2
the base case for n = 1 is false
take any noncommutative ring
also idk it sounds kinda fake imo
maybe if you're finite
wait I meant to say for some n in N >= 2
whoops
ok but for different sets that n might be different right?
for n>1 it is true iirc
so I can't do induction
but it is highly non trivial
ok that's comforting lol
for n = 3 for instance I know a proof with cumbersome algebraic manipulations
yea same
(non that high but it's technical I mean)
uses (x+y)^3 = x + y
expand that left side
do some manipulation
kinda wack
use the fact that 3x = -3x in the case when n = 3
yeah
btw for arbitrary n I remember I saw this theorem has a name but I don't remember which name it has lol
I was just given this as an exercise by a prof I'm talking with 😭
I don't have any idead on how you can prove it but instead of trying to manipulate algebraic expression, maybe you can get insights of the structure of your ring with much simpler rings
for n = 3 you can factor A like A = 3B + 3C smth like that isn't it ?
I don't remember the proof
for n = 2 you can write A = eA (+) (1-e)A for all e in A, maybe you can find something similar for n>2
Do you know what kernel and image mean?
i got that for the first composition that the kernel is the unit circle in the complex plane
and the image is the positive reals
i think its wrong
That's right.
you sure
The unit circle all goes to 1, which is the identity in the reals under multiplication
And the image is the positive reals because given a real number r, pr_1(|r|, r/|r|) is just r.
so i was right
Yes, to my understanding.
but then in part c we are asked to sketch the quotient
this is isomorphic to the image
how do you skecth the image
Well the image is just the positive reals, whereas the cosets are a bunch of circles. (The unit circle scaled/rotated by some complex number)
The isomorphism comes from identifying each circle with the point at which it intersects the positive real line.
This is equivalent to identifying each circle with its radius
not really understanding
oh ok
but how would i sketch that
i didnt even know the cosets are circles
do the cosets of circles represent the positive reals
the kernel, K, is a circle of radius 1. This is the kernel because it's the set of complex numbers with magnitude 1. Cosets of the kernel have the form zK, for some complex number z. If you think of complex multiplication geometrically, you're scaling (elements of K) by the magnitude (of z) and rotating by the angle (of z). But the angle doesn't matter, because the kernel is a circle. So cosets zK are just scaled versions of K.
ok
and we assign each circle to its radius
Can you ping me if you get an answer
Seems a very cool problem
how does this relate to the image?
the image is precisely the positive reals, which are all possible radii.
yes
so the quotient by the kernel is isomorphic to the image
It's called jacobsons theorem https://ysharifi.wordpress.com/tag/jacobson-theorem/
Just stumbled across that myself
So these circles can be anywhere on the plane
no, they're centered at the origin
Cool that it doesn’t even need the n to be the same for each x
since only the radius had to be positive
just scaled versions of the unit circle
so no translation, just rotations and scaling
yeah
isee
although rotations are invisible, cause, youknow, circles
Oh damn that's a nifty theorem
and for the second composition it had kernel z = 1 right?
Pretty cool alright
Also in hindsight it shouldn’t have been to surprising
x^n=x is pretty strong condition to have on all elements
$\mathrm{Gal}(axy/Brain)$
shamroc$\overline{k}$
$\mathrm{het}$
Chmonkey 2.0
R^op=Я
Rop Rop
return oriented programming time
How?
what does the index mean
do you know what a coset of a subgroup is?
yes
It's the number of cosets
@molten silo I mentioned this before, the index of a normal subgroup is the size of the quotient
But yes PTY said this correctly, take the group homomorphism det:O_4(R)->{-1,+1} sending an orthogonal matrix to its determinant
the kernel is SO_4(R)
i doubt so
consider the case of permutation groyps
or wait just consider the case of any group and any element with ab=ba
it isnt then true that <a>=<b>
Not sure what you mean
This is very not true
?
By this I mean I cannot even think of an example where it is true
In any ring take 1 and any element x
In Z take any two distinct elements
sigh english
*then it isn't true that
I think we all know what they meant
And they probably meant to type
Isn’t it then true that
wait so what part of this are you objecting to?
The mathematical statement is not true
which statement
ab=ba implies <a>=<b>
I am also objecting to you talking down to people for improper English
It’s not everyone’s first language
No need to be rude
what no i'm not i think they meant it's not true that
I doubt they meant that
which is very different from 'it isn't true that?'
If something isn’t true in general, why would they give restrictions that also don’t make it true
i mean i think they knew that it wasn't true
but english is a bad language so it came across the wrong way
Suppose they knew P was not true
Why would they then say
‘Given such and such conditions P is not true’
delete the then from this sentence 'it isnt then true that <a>=<b>'
did someone delete a message or something
Yall are both crazy. Why are you arguing over what someone else meant?
Swap the it and the isn’t
that completely changes the meaning
english sigh
I thought they were talking down to someone for writing a bad sentence
Well I mean anything complete changes the meaning of something incomprehensible
no i though you were jumping on them
misunderstanding
D_3
What is the identity of a group Z with binary operation a • b = a^2 + b
Or is there no identity hence not a group
There's no identity
👍
Can someone give an example of an infinite, non-commutative group which contains elements of every finite order
That’s commutative isn’t it ?
Oh no nvm
Is this because the elements can be written as cycles
And 11 is a prime so will have to have 11 elements but S9 only has 9?
right to get an element of order 11 you need an 11 cycle, and there's no room for this in S_9
do you know Lagrange's theorem?
whereas to get an element of order 10 you can compose a transposition with a disjoint 5 cycle
i thought it is because 10 divides the order of s9. But 11 doesnt devide order(s9)
For this question
yea that works
Is this a valid proof
it's still faster to just take SO_4(R) to be the kernel of det:O_4(R)->{-1,+1} but this is rather direct 
so it works right?
Yup!
Not the shortest proof but it does show that you're thinking about how to apply the definitions directly
Because im not sure how mapping would determine its a normal subgroup
the kernel of any group homomorphism is a normal subgroup
really
well SO_4(R) is more or less by definition the kernel of det:O_4(R)->{-1,+1}
you just have to say a word or two about why determinant is a group homomorphism
then you're good to go
thanks
👍
If you take a look at part 2 of this problems. The first composition has kernel the unit circle and image the positive reals. But for the second composition does this have kernel = {1} and image the unit circle?
What’s an example of two groups G,H with 1-1 homomorphism ø:G—>H such that G is commutative and H is NOT commutative
e.g. take H=S_3 and G=Z/3Z the subgroup generated by a 3-cycle
is it not just the cosets of 3Z
Z3 as in modulo
Yes
Yh yh I’ve seen that
That's Z/3Z
Map 1 to (123)
How do i sketch C/ker{1}, where c is the complex numbers thats not zero
ker{1} as in?
yes
This is meant to be isomorphic to the image which is the unit circle
and so how would you sketch C*/kernel = 1
How do you do part ii)
Normal subgroup means ghg^-1 is in H
Is it referring to left, right cosets ? Or is it a v simple proof that I’m just not seeing
Ahhhh thank you
(I'm pedantic about writing Z/pZ because Z_p refers to something else that number theorists like 😛 )
Ahah no worries I’ve just not seen that notation before lol
"By first isomorphism theorem, this is true"
Oh Yh that’s the same
But how can I prove that
As there’s no actual phi
Just two groups
Construct a phi
Then do you say g ~ G, g~ker(phi) implies phi(g) = identity of H?
~ just bring contained in
Ye
That’s fine but then when doing that. I get phi(g) = e
Or should I be doing phi(g^4)
What is φ(x)?
e
But then the kernel would be G not K
φ(x) = x⁴ should do the trick
Oh wait Yh I was looking at K and H the wrong way round
Oh
You’re right thanks
Np
Why are any two groups of order p prime, isomorphic ?
Any element other than the identity has order p
So if g is not e, then all elements can be written as g^n
This gives them the cyclic structure
that's the only example
Z5 and what other group
2 = 2
2*2 = 4
2*3 = 1
2*4 = 3
2*5 = 0
Perfect okay thanks a lot
Ohh thx
Here 2*n is akin to the g^n previously mentioned
let R be a UFD and let P be a nonzero prime ideal of R such that if P′ is another prime ideal with (0)⫋P′⊆P, then P′=P. Prove that P is principal.
any help with this?
maybe, you can choose a non-zero element x of P, factor x into stuff using the fact that R is a UFD, and then look at the principal ideals generated by that stuff x factors into
don't take my word for it 
How can you show that if G has order prime p, then G is cyclic
lagrange's theorem
any non-identity element has order \neq 1 dividing p, and p is prime, so that order has to be p
And how does that show it’s cyclic
the order of a non-identity element is gonna be greater than 1
in order to force the order to be the prime number p, it has to be a number not equal to 1 that divides p
Okay thanks
it's a very tiny detail but i think it's important to say 
Is there an analog of the greatest common divisor for groups?
not for groups, but there (kind of) is for rings
Why not?
It should be simple. Just take the highest-order common subgroup(s).
How would you define a | b for groups?
The reason it works for rings is that not every element is a multiple of another.
a is a subgroup of b
Did someone solve this?
I thought you wanted to define the GCD for elements..
Maybe what you want is just the intersection, and the "LCM" is then the subgroup generated by them. We haven't really used the group structure, though, only the fact that the set of subgroups is a lattice.
in a group, every element divides every other element
so "divisibility" isn't really a useful notion
What they meant is defining "divisibility" as "inclusion of subgroups."
oh I see
in which case I think it would go the other way. a divides b if <a> contains <b>, so the gcd of a and b would be the subgroup generated by a and b
Reasonable
I would also say that
The gcd is the binary supremum/least upper bound in the reversed divisibility poset of Z, and that's the same as the poset of subgroups of Z
so more generally we should take the binary supremum/least upper bound of two subgroups, ie the subgroup they generate
Yes. Do you want the answer?
Yes.
μ(G) is the number of generators of G
So it's φ(|G|) if G is cyclic and 0 otherwise
Oh kek reversed divisibility
What's the multiplicative group of the algebraic closure of Fp?
Yeah, but I meant whether it had a simple description.
it probably wont be any simpler than a description of the alg closure
which is just throw in all the qth roots of unity
I thought so, but then we know that, for example, all finite subgroups are cyclic..
And whenever p^n = 1 (mod d), there is a unique element of order d.
Maybe it's the Prüfer p-group
ig I am really unsure about what you mean by a nice description
the finite subgroups are cyclic thing is true for C* too
but I can't think of a description of C* other than C - {0}
Basically whether it's isomorphic to some group which I probably heard of in another context. I can't think of a candidate other than the Prüfer p-group (the p-Sylow subgroup of Q/Z), but I am not sure.
It should be the directed limit of Z/(p^k - 1)Z, but I think the maps in-between are weird
Maybe the choice of maps doesn't matter tho, as long as they're injective
when would you both add and divide by an ideal ? why an expression like this (R + I)/I ?
Do you have a sufficient answer for doing each individually?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eckmann–Hilton_argument
Does this imply that there can only exist at most 1 group per set
since all groups have unit
no
Z/4Z and Z/2Z² aren't the same
you can't have the 2d relation with every groups
I don't understand why
If we have N = { 0, 1 , 2 ...}
(N, +) is not a group of Z
No inverses
0 is the additive identity
Suppose (N,+) was a group,given an element a,there would be a'(in N) such that a+a'=0(a' is called inverse of a)
But there is no such a in N,such that say 1+a=0(i.e, 1 doesn't have an inverse)
a can be anything in N
Do you have any examples of numbers that are inverse? (fairly simple examples)
Inverse is specific to an element
You say inverse of 0 is 0
And inverse of 1 is -1
In general, inverse of a is -a
ok thank you
For it to be a group, you must meet the 3 conditions :
-> Associativity
-> Element neutral
-> inverse
?
Yes
Suppose we have an exact sequence of groups M to A to B to C to N
When M and N are zero we know that B is the direct sum of A and C.
What can we say if M and N are no zero?
Why for
{ Z \ {0], . }
1 . n = n . 1 = n
1 is a neutral element ?
The neutral element it shouldn't be 0 always ?
No,The neutral element depends on the operation
I'm trying to prove that if a group's sylow-p-subgroups intersect only in the identity, then the number of sylow-p-subgroups is congruent to 1 mod their order. One can probably show this relatively easily with group actions. I attempted a different approach though, basically by looking at the conjugation of the p-Sylows directly.
I got the result that |Syl_p(G)| = p^k+1, so ≡ 1 mod p^k. However I'm not sure if this is a coincidence and I just accidentally fudged the proof or whether it's valid. In particular I'm not sure if the part that I marked orange is correct. Any help would be much appreciated
Is it manageable to construct a polynomial over an integral domain R of positive degree that does not have any irreducible factors?
I think you'll need R to fail to be noetherian for this to work
And a lot of easy examples (eg polynomial ring in infinitely many variables do have this property)
I think R actually cannot have ACC on principal ideal, because f can be factored indefinitely while the degree of the factors cannot descend indefinitely.
yes, I agree
(the thing you said is why noetherian domains have factorization into irreducibles)
And There actually might have to be a polynomial that can keep splitting out constant terms, while not leaving an irreducible polynomial behind. This sounds a bit like black magic to me
Z is a free group generated by 1, and you just need to study 1 \mapsto g \in G
And follow the definition of a group morphism
And There actually might have to be a polynomial that can keep splitting out constant terms, while not leaving an irreducible polynomial behind. This sounds a bit like black magic to me
@weak flower Does this mean that I need at least 2 elements with infinitely many common factors, and no maximal common factors?
1 \mapsto g \in G ?
the definition is f(a+b) = f(a) + f(b)
and something else too
My teacher gave us this definition to find the morphism)
the "something else" 'is for isomorphism
no
For an isomorphism, it is necessary to prove that it is a morphism + bijective (or null kernel)
you need to have f(identity of Z) = identity of G
what do you mean by identity of Z and identity of G ?
the element that has the property that ae=ea=a for all a
if f is a morphism, then f(0)=f(0+0) = f(0) + f(0) and f(0)=e
f(a+b) = f(a) + f(b)
doesnt matter
well I don't succed this question :/
wrt this, as any element of Z can be written as n = 1 + ... + 1 or - n = - (1 + ... + 1), as f is assumed a morphism, you have f(n) = f(1) + ... + f(1)
so the important thing is what is the value of f in 1
Well, you did like my teacher, but with a little less explanation and precisely, I understood nothing with him, I thought that there would be another method
f(n) = f(n-1+1) = f(n-1) + f(1)
= f(n-2+1) + f(1)
= f(1) + f(1) + .... + f(1) n times
= a* a* a* ...
@weak flower I think if an example exists one should exist with constant polynomials
why we determinate f(n) and not f(-n)
after that my teacher do
f(e) = e
f(a^-1) = (f(a)^-1)
I don't understand
so the important thing is what is the value of f in 1
How we find the value of f in 1 ?
your mission is not to find a single value of f in 1, but to find all morphism f:Z -> G
what you must accomplish is to find a characterisation of a morphism f:Z -> G
Ok but say that f (n) = f (1) + ... + f (1)
or
f (-n) = f (-1) + ... + f (-1)
is it sufficient?
yes. We would like to avoid negative number. How can we use positive number for describing negative numbers?
but given z\in Z with z<0
how do we write it like a function ||(something times)|| of a positive number?
it is just changing the sign, z = -(-z) with -z > 0
and we would like to describe positive numbers in a more elemental fashion
and we write z = 1 + ... + 1 if z>0. This give us a description of Z wrt its generator, wrt 1.
isn't that what you wrote here?
yes
I still do not understand what is the expected answer in this type of question
I already wrote the expected answer
I am trying to explain in detail why you only need to check for f(1) instead of defining explicitly f
yes but must be shown
yes, i said that
and we did it, as any element z \in Z can be written as
z = 0z = 1 + ... + 1z = - (1 + ... + 1)
then we can notice that, given f:Z -> G morphism, we have
f(z) = 0ifz = 0f(z) = f(1) + ... + f(1)f(z) = -(f(1) + ... + f(1))
If we know f, it is oblivious that we know f(1). If we know that the value of a morphism f in 1, we can extend it using the above, and recover f.
So, I was studying today about maximal ideals.
And the professor pointed out that as a corollary that given a ring A and and ideal I, A/I is a field iff I is a maximal ideal, one could easily check that every maximal ideal is also a prime ideal.
But the converse is not always true.
Is there another condition I should impose on a prime ideal in order for it to be a maximal ideal?
He slightly talked about how in every principal ideal domain, a prime ideal is always a maximal ideal.
But is it a iff?
@opal osprey No it is not an iff: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1334665/
I mean the easiest condition to impose on a prime ideal is that no other (prime) ideal properly contains it
Or that the quotient is a field
There really isn’t very nice criterion in general situations, and commutative algebra gives you a few more tools but it requires more assumptions and is a lot more advanced than what you have to work with at the moment
easy example to keep in mind: in the ring k[x,y], the ideal (x) is prime and properly contained in the maximal ideal (x,y)
a way to see that (x) is prime but not maximal: $k[x,y]/(x) \cong k[y]$ is a domain (hence (x) is prime in k[x,y]), but k[y] is not a field
Apopheniac
Just thought of this out of the blue, if ( \varphi : R \to S ) is a ring homomorphism where ( S ) is a reduced ring, does ( \varphi ) factor through the reduced part of ( R )?
g_ijoe
Yup!
You can just show this manually
the thing you quotient out by is the nilradical aka all nilpotent stuff
thanks! I was just about to prove it by hand
the image of nilpotetn stuff is still nilpotent
so if S is reduced they all map to 0
in fact it factors uniquely by property of quotients
nice, I'll go ahead and still prove it for myself, but thanks again for the heads up
how does one go about finding the number of elements in Z5[x]/(x^2+1)
is there a general way to do it for Zn[x]/(f(x))?
what does the bar mean exactly?
$\bar{a}$ refers to the equivalence class containing a
MoonBears-D-
hm we havent really considered vector spaces in this before
but wouldnt 2 fail in the case of Z6[x]/(2x+4)?
since that has inf many elements?
but its isomorphic to Z2[x] x Z3 tho
Prob Z_6 is not a field
oh yea it has zero divisors
so if Zn isnt a field would you always get an inf number of elements in Zn[x]/(f(x))?
or is there a counter
ig you could always break it down to an iso with an inf field somehow
but man coming up with these isos isnt easy 
if it were isomorphic to a field it would be a field
Are the following groups isomorphic? Why ?
I know, if I don't say stupid things, that to show that a group is isomorphic you have to show that it is a morphism [ f(a+b) = f(a)+f(b) or f(ab) = f(a)f(b)] then show that it is bijective (find the inverse, for example) [ a*a^(-1) = a^(-1) * a = neutral element or a + (-a) = (-a) + a = neutral element)
When I have something like
(R, +) and (R>0, *) for the first I experience two get out of difficulty
I have two groups ...
Given a positive real number a,do you agree any positive real number can be seen as a^m for some real number m?
It’s for me ?
If f(x) is monic, this will always be finite
for a field right?
For any n
hm
ok i think i see why
so i can use the fact in the quotient x+a=0 --> x=-a and just keep reducing every polynomial?
err
You have to be careful with that
and a similar thing with higher degrees ig
How do you actually show that f(a)=0 -> x-a is a factor of f(x) over a field?
Do you remember the argument? (it definitely requires being over a field)
but arent I just using the fact that f(x) is the 'zero' element in my quotient?
not sure how the field comes into play
You're right. All you really need to use is that f(x) = 0 in Zn[x]/f(x)
So the real question is how do you make "big" polynomials "small"?
so like if i have Z5[x]/(x-3)
and x^3+3x+1
can I not just keep replacing each x with 3 and reducing mod 5
You can, but that specific argument is relying heavily on x-3 being degree 1
Yeah, that is helpful
But how do you make x^3+3x+1 look smaller in Z5[x]/(x^2-2)?
ok i see now why this fails in the case of Z6[x]/(2x+4)
2 is not invertible in Z6
so i cant do this
It's true
but then that doesnt necessarily mean it has infinite elements does it
Not in and of itself. But consider the set {x^n} for all n>0.
No difference of two different x^n and x^m will ever be divisible by 2, so definitely not by 2x+4
So they are all pairwise not congruent
What does it mean for g(x)=h(x) in Z6[x]/(2x+4)?
ok nvm i think i see what u mean
every polynomial i have is a multiple of 2x+4
but that set has an inf no of elements not divisible by it
so inf elements
I'm not quite sure what you mean
yea idk what i just said either ignore that
every poly is of the form g(x)=h(x)(2x+4)?
That's what it means to be zero, right?
g(x) is zero if g(x)=h(x)(2x+4) for some poly h(x)
Two polys are then equal if there difference g(x)-h(x)=0
i.e., g(x)=h(x) in Z6[x]/(2x+4) iff g(x)-h(x)=k(x)(2x+4) in Z6[x] for some k(x)
sorry internet died
No wories
yea that makes sense, i was thinking about these quotients the wrong way
so essentially in my quotient every multiple of 2x+4 acts like a zero
Yup. Just like figuring out if two integers are equal in Z6 itself
Seeing that Z6[x]/(2x+4) is infinite is a lot like seeing that Z[x]/6 is infinite
ok so
(or, more to the point, Z[x]/2 is infinite)
Yup
Correct
Now for the other part!
also sorry i missed this, but i just take x^2=2 since it acts like a zero
then i can reduce every polynomial to a first order one
ax+b, 5 choices for 5 5 for b so 25 elements total
It's true. But what if f(x)=x^2+x+1 instead of x^2-2?
i can do the same thing no?
or similar
x^2=-x-1 or 4x+4 in Z5
so i can reduce them all to first order polys
Yup 🙂
And since it's monic, you can always reduce things of degree >1 down. If it weren't monic (really if it's lead coefficient is not a unit), you would have the trouble we saw above
yea so if its not a field i need to do more work
All you really need is the lead coefficient to be a unit
that can happen even if i dont have a field right?
You're welcome 🙂
Using these arguments, it's not too hard to give an upper bound on how big Zn[x]/f(x) is when f(x) is monic and degree m
Indeed!

if i have the product of 2 rings RxS
i can easily see the ideals of it would be in the form of IxJ
I,J ideals of R,S respect.
but apparently the max ideals are of the form IxS, and RxJ
i cant see why
what would you want them to be ?
Because any IxJ will always be contained in IxS and RxJ
because I1 x J1 is a subset of I2 x J2 if and only if I1 is a susbet of I2 and J1 is a subset of J2, so if you want a maximal ideal there is no other choice but to have I = R and J maximal in S or vice-versa
thank you
hint: see if $(\bZ/5\bZ\setminus{0}, \cdot)$ is cyclic.
derivada.schwarziana
just write the cayley tables 
take for instance 2 and see what 2·2, 2·2·2, etc. evaluate to
a group is cyclic if it is generated by a single element, so if you can write any element in Z/5Z \ {0} as 2^n for some n you'd show that it is cyclic, and generated by 2
aaand (Z/4Z, +) is also cyclic, it's generated by 1 since 2=1+1 and 3=1+1+1
so you should be able to construct the isomorphism using that
Ok thank you, but you don't need to study (Z/4Z, +), if you study Z/5Z \ {0} is enough
because Z/5Z \ {0} it's cardinality 4
and for that ,
?
Indication ?
are you trying to say that groups are the same if they have the same cardinality? this is false
the cardinal is important here because we use the categorization of cyclic groups
We will now show that a cyclic group is determined, with a
isomorphism near, by its order. More precisely, it is isomorphic to (Z / mZ, +) if its order m is finite
(resp. to (Z, +) if its order is infinite). In addition, any subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic.
the most important here is that the group is cyclic
if two groups are cyclic and similarly cardinal then they are isomorphic
for that
indication?
how do you know they're both cyclic if you don't study one of them to show the isomorphism?
Z/5Z - 0 is not cyclic ?
Don't understand why you say what I said is wrong when it's true
it's not true ?
Ok, I asked the question on a math discord in French, and they told me your questions don't make sense and that I was right
This question does not make sense you have to exhibit a generator, so you have shown that it is cyclical
at no point did you actually say something was a generator lmfao
This is not what I was criticized for.. I said how to solve the question, I was told that was not it
In fact, I too am confused. (WhileEnglish is not my mother tongue.)
We take back, this is my last intervention i don't want to pollute the channel
So, I come, I present my idea to solve the question. I give the definition that solves it and I say
__ Me :__
Ok thank you, but you don't need to study (Z/4Z, +), if you study Z/5Z \ {0} is enough
__ First person__ : I am being answered :
how do you know they're both cyclic if you don't study one of them to show the isomorphism?
__2nd person : __What another person responds to:
I thought this was a perfectly reasonable point, but you seemed not to think so
So I don't understand English ?
If two groups are realizable as Galois groups of some extension of Q, is any semidirect product also realizable?
I don't see why that should necessarily be the case -- do you have a reason to believe it's true?
can you even do it for direct products?
that's an interesting question
like the issue is maybe the two extensions intersect nontrivially
So if we know it's realizable how can we change the extension?
Like can I find other extensions with the same galois group?
Feels hard
Ok i asked this in #point-set-topology but maybe this section is more appropriate.
What would be the symmetry group of a parallelapiped in R3 with L=/=W=/=H
in R2 i know you can rotate by 180
and by 0 of course, so im guessing in R2 itd be order2
I’m not sure but maybe it’s Z_2 for parrelelpipeds in all dimensions? For generic parralelpipeds
Cause you can realize any symmetry group as a subgroup of the permutation group of the vertices i think
For any given vertex, there’s only one other vertex with the same angles and whatnot, which is the oppisite one
Once you match that up, then since all the lengths are all different, it enforces the orientation of all the other vertices
So its identity and inversion only
Hopefully that was coherent
I may just be being dumb, but i cant see why the following is true:
Since the ideal has 4 elements and the ring has 20, there must be 5 cosets
Ideal is principal generated by (1,5) and ring is Z2xZ10
Take the ideal as a subgroup and the ring as a group. then, there are exactly 5 cosets,since no of cosets=20/4
Let the ring be (R,+,•)and + be the commutative operation. Then (R,+) is an abelian group
Implying (R,+) has to be Z_10 x Z_2 by the fundamental theorem of abelian groups
Yes
how does that apply here
(R,+) is an abelian group with 20 elements
yea
Is your ring commutative?
I don't think we can say your ring R is iso to Z_2 x Z_10 as rings in general
let R be a UFD and let P be a nonzero prime ideal of R such that if P′ is another prime ideal with (0)⫋P′⊆P, then P′=P. Prove that P is principal.
I posted this a while back but i had to leave
still no idea how to approach it
.
<@&286206848099549185> could use a tiny push on this q
So say x is a nonzero element of the ideal P, and it factors into primes as x= p_1^e_1...p_r^e_r. Because the ideal is prime, at least one of the p_i ||is an element of P||
Let x be an element of p, then x = up1p2...pn where u is a unit and the pi's are prime. Since P is prime, one of the pi's belongs to P.... Sniped, but sending because I already typed it all
Then consider (pi) to utilize the second part.
@gritty latch
I barely know any Galois theory, but I noticed that if we take Q(a, b) and a and b are somewhat related, but not too much, we get a semidirect product as the Galois group of Q(a, b)/Q.
If $ f: \mathbb{D_9} \to \mathbb{S_8} $ is a homomorphism, prove that $ kerf $ is nontrivial.
What happened with bot lol?
Okay so that was the problem, I saw a solution that says: If kerf was trivial, then f(\rho) (a rotation) would have order 9, which doesn't exist in S_8
And I'm not sure if that's correct, because we know that ord(f(\rho)) | ord(\rho)
And since ord(\rho) = 9, and kerf is nontrivial, we could have ord(f(\rho)) = 3 or ord(f(\rho)) = 9
And in S_8 you have cycles of length 3
try using the first isomorphism theorem instead
||D_9≃D_9/ker(f)≃f(D_9)⊂S_8 and then S_8 would contain an element of order 9||
well it's not a proof since you can't conclude that S_8 has elements of order 9 from "ord(f(\rho)) | ord(\rho)", as you said
that fact about the order is true but it's not enough to prove this
Hey all, I was just wondering what the notation (2, 1 + sqrt(-5))^2 means in relation to ideals of rings
is it { (2a + (1+sqrt(-5))b)(2c + (1+sqrt(-5))d ) | a,b,c,d are in R}
so its like {2a + (1+sqrt(-5))b + 2c + (1+sqrt(-5))d | a,b,c,d in R}
no wait thats just the same as the original ideal
ah gotcha, thank you!
Interesting notation
Have the point groups in four dimensions been enumerated?
That list is missing several.
In fact, it’s missing infinitely many (the step prism and swirlprism symmetries).
It also doesn’t contain any chiral cases.
Well, if ker f = 1, then we have an equality here, not just divisibility, so this is really a contradiction.
How is that so, isn't ord(f(\rho)) = ord(\rho) only if f is an isomorphism?
And kerf = 1 only tells us its injective
No, injective is enough to say that a homomorphism preserves the order of elements
oh i didn't know that, thanks
Could you send me a proof of that? Since I can't find it in textbook or online
look how far you've come, slimvesus
a few weeks you didn't know what a group was
now look at you 
it's obvious
well, if you know groups, then since every ring also contains a group structure, that means you know rings too
as well as modules, vector spaces, algebras, ...
🧠
Next should be rings
Also, Slim what do you do formally? Linear algebra?
*What did you do before group theory
Besides the trivial examples of vector spaces
I don't really think I've ever seen an example of an R-module before.
I am pretty sure algebraic geometric has lots of examples of those.
Could you tell me any?
Also, are there any easier examples besides the ones that naturally arise in algebraic geometry?
Modules appear in algebraic anything, not just AG
anyway, an Abelian group is a Z-module
vector spaces are modules over their endomorphism rings (and this is a fairly important viewpoint)
also, if you have a vector space with an endomorphism, then you can make it a module over a polynomial ring in a natural way
Ideals of rings are modules
abelian groups with a linear group action on them have module structures over the group algebra
Yeah I mean, there are these trivial examples such as taking the direct product of a ring R n times and choosing the ring of scalars as R itself.
singular cohomology is a module over the steenrod algebra
But I'd like some more concrete examples
That naturally arise when studying certain things.
well all of the other examples come up when "studying things"
and abelian groups are wayy more complicated than free groups over Z
for example, Q
but yeah if you want a fairly rich example, look at a vector space with an endomorphism
a very careful analysis of the resulting k[x] module structure will result in recovering the rational canonical form
in general, if you have a family of operators that form a group G, then the space is a k[G] (the obvious way ) -module
Wait, so you think about a vector space V equipped with a certain linear transformation T : V --> V?
and this is sorta the beginning of representation theory
yes
a module over k[x]
So you consider a ring of polynomials of one variable to be the scalar ring.
Looks cool
k[x] module structures correspond to ring homomorphisms k[x] ---> End(V)
But how is the operation defined?
it might be instructive to think about it yourself
You take two elements in your vector space and sum it in the usual way?
the abelian group structure on V is the same
Yeah, I don't really see how the endomorphism plays a bigger role here.


