#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 539 of 407
Err this no longer seems true...
@next obsidian is the topological data of Spec A determined the generalization relation on points?
Exercise: figure out what sham means by that
Umm... I don't think so in general. If A is Noetherian then its a Zariski space and I think the classification of opens as constructible sets closed under generization says that
In other cases
¯_(ツ)_/¯
I haven't really thought about it tho
I want to reduce it to like, stuff about the poset of primes
What was Ari's actual question?
Maybe the radical ideal thing is better
Like... my understanding is
Classify rings R such that Spec R = X
yeah uh...
still don't really know lol
I have never thought about anything even close to this lol
Me neither. It's interesting though
What do you think a "residue class field" is
In the context of local rings I assume it just means k
sounds like number theory 
but man that's such a jank way to say that
> class field

Okay so
pog time
not really but
if A is noetheiran local
Is A/m^n Artinian always?
or something
isnt residue class field like O_K/P
There’s no sheaf here
i assumed O_K was a number field
Is it true if the ring satisfies the DCC on principal ideals?
I think you mean ACC, but yes, the ACC only on principal ideals should be sufficient to get factorisations into irreducibles
Oh lol
Hey does anyone have a good way of describing inner automorphisms? Is it simply an automorphism that is of the same form as conjugation by an element?
yeah, it's an automorphism made by things 'inside' the group itself, as opposed to an outie
Oh that makes the name a little clearer actually
Also,All automorphisms of S_n,(n!=6) are inner
For S_6, Half of the automorphisms are inner
A good way of thinking about inner automorphisms is that they are the only automorphisms which map a conjugacy class to itself(in S_n)
They do preserve classes, but there are outer class-preserving automorphisms as well.
mb
Does f being regular on U here mean that it is regular at all points of U or that f = g/h on U and h is not 0 anywhere in U?
What does it mean to be regular at a point? Does it mean that you have a representation as a rational function in some neighborhood of that point?
Because it so it's the former
Regular functions on U may not be rational functions
Thanks
Is my proof of this correct?
Prove $O_{P,Y}$ is a local ring.
Suppose $<f,U>$ is an element of $O_{P,Y}$ such that $f(P)$ is not 0. Then there is some open subset $V$ of $U$ such that $f = g/h$ on $V$ and $h$ does not vanish at any point in $V$. It is easy to see that $1/f = h/g$ on the set $V - Z(g) ( = V \cap (Y-Z(g))$. Thus, $1/f$ is regular on the set $V-Z(g)$ which is open and contains $P$.
Have a Banana Bitch
This proves that every element not belonging to the ideal I = {f regular| f(P) = 0} is a unit
Very informally (which is precise for some cases like nice varieties that are irreducible) you can think of regular functions as elements on O_{P,Y} and O(U) = \cap_{p \in U} O_{P,Y} for some U \subset Y
did you write the algebraic geometry book by gortz and wedhorn
lol no
I'm using the definitions in the first chapter of Hartshorne
Is my proof correct then?
Can anyone help with this? Let A be noetherian then TFAE:
(1) A is artin
(2) Spec(A) is discrete
(3) Spec(A) is discrete and finite
Clearly 3 implies 2.
what have you tried?
just to double check by discrete we do mean discrete topology
Yup
So here's a question, how are discreteness and finiteness related?
Purely topological question
If we have compact and discrete we get finite
So we probably want to next show that 1 impies 2
Wait so you do you see how to prove 2 => 3?
oh sorry no
Okay, so we need to show Spec A is compact
I'm guessing this either follows form being noetherian or i've missed that Spec(A) is always compact
I'm a little confused with how to work with the zariski topology on Spec(A)
I'm comfortable with the Zariski topology on affine space
Okay Spec(A) is always compact
So now only 1 implies 2 remains.
Its probably best to work with closed sets and show that any set is closed.
Any arbitrary set in Spec(A) is a collection of ideals.
We know that in an Artin ring every prime ideal is maximal
In general the closed sets in Spec(A) are, {V_I where V_I is all the prime ideals contain I, and I is an ideal in A}
Since our ring is also noetherian every ideal is finitely generated
I'm getting a little stuck then, maybe it is better to show that every singleton set is open
FUCK
Spec(A) is only the prime ideals
we already know the prime ideals are maximal
Ah shit sorry I got distracted lol
Does this work?
1 need not always be a finite sum ?
any infinite product ring
so the most important thing about the zariski topology is that you can check everything on the base of distinguished opens
Let's just say I = (1)
which chm is implicitly using
then there's a finite number f_1,...,f_n in I such that
he's arguing that you check compactness on that basis
1 = a_1f_1 + ... + a_nf_n
Ie, show that any cover by distinguished opens has a finite subcover
This let's you do it
is there anything extra you are saysing here instead of a usual base of opens for any topology?
we can always check if something is compact on a basis sets?
Yup
That's true for any topological space and any basis
Distinguished opens (sets of the form D(f) = { x in Spec A : f not in x } for f in A) are very very nice
it's usually easier to prove things about them
And they form a basis for Spec A
yes lol
But the name is unrelated
my real name is even more Irish than ☘️
well, I'm Irish-American (parents were Irish immigrants)
Your name is pretty good too
have you been/know which part they are from
gg
yeah thanks
Nice!
Suppose I have unique factorization of ideals into prime ideals. If $\frak{p}$ is a prime ideal and $\frak{p} \supset (z)^n$, then I see that $\frak{p} \supset (z)$. But does this rely on having unique factorization of ideals into prime ideals?
IamDerek
Or does this hold without having that property?
this follows from one definition of prime ideals
if I and J are ideals with IJ contained in P, then at least one of I or J is contained in P
So it has nothing to do with this unique factorization property
not really, no
Ah yes, that makes sense.
I'm not sure what I need this unique factorization property for I guess.
For reference, this is the problem I'm working on.
I've got the idea of the proof down. I think I even have a correct proof, but I'm not sure what part relies on needing that unique factorization.
what's exercise 17?
It's essentially the same thing, but you assume Z[w] is a UFD
oh okay
maybe the point is just you can talk about "factors" without having to handwave or anything
Can you elaborate?
like, you're talking about factors of some ideal
And now that I'm thinking of it, I'm not actually sure I used the UFD property in exercise 17.
I'm just saying that having unique factorization makes it easier to talk unambiguously about factors of an ideal
Can you explain what would fall apart if we didn't have unique factorization?
Maybe that's a better question
Would it help if I wrote out my proof?
yes it is a better question but unfortunately I don't have much time rn
you can post your proof and maybe someone else can jump in
but I have to run
Okay, thanks!
So my "proof"...
Suppose $\frak{p} \supset (x +y \omega)$ and $\frak{p} \supset (x + y\omega^k)$ for some $k \neq 1$. Then $\frak{p} \supset (x + y\omega) + (x + y\omega^k)$. So $x + y\omega - (x + y\omega^k) = y\omega(1 - y\omega^{k-1}) \in \frak{p}$. By a previous exercise, this gives $y\omega(p) \in \frak{p}$, so $(yp) \subset \frak{p}$. Clearly $(z)^p \subset \frak{p}$. I'm told earlier on in the chapter that $yp, z$ are relatively prime, so as principal ideals they're relatively prime. So you can write it out and show that $\frak{p} = \mathbb{Z}[\omega]$ but that's a contradiction since $\frak{p}$ prime and therefore a proper ideal.
IamDerek
How do I show that $\varphi$ being dominant is independent of the choice of the pair?
Have a Banana Bitch
would that follow from open sets being dense?
I don't think so
Because it is not necessary for continuous functions to take open sets to open sets
The map is dominant iff the preimage of any open set in Y is nonempty
If you restrict the map to some open set $V \subset U$ and if the map is dominant for U, that mean the preimage of any open in Y is a nonempty open of U, so it must intersect V by density of V
radiateur-man
So the map is also dominant if you look only at V
Can someone else me with this?
So far I have: we have an exact sequence 0 to M to N to coker(f) to 0, (f is surjective iff coker(f) is trivial)
Denote A/m by k, then we tensor this sequence with k. Since the tensor product is right exact we have an exact sequence M\otimes k to N\otimes k to coker(f)\otimes k to 0.
If we suppose that this f_m is surjective then coker(f)\otimes k must be zero
We are done if coker(f)\tomes k zero implies coker(f) is zero.
coker(f) is N/f(M)
This is an application of Nakayama’s lemma
Coker(f) is finitely generated as it is a quotient of N which is finitely generated.
As the tensor product is right exact we know that coker(f (x) A/m) = coker(f) (x) A/m = coker(f)/m(coker(f))
The latter being = 0 implies that coker(f) = m(coker(f)) so by Nakayama’s lemma coker(f) = 0
I think my proof is correct, but it doesn’t use the finite generation of M. Maybe someone else can point out if there’s an issue with it
Why is coker(f)\otimes A/m = coker(f)/m(coker(f))?
Also I think we do need to use M being finitely generated as it’s not true otherwise
this is what tensoring with A/I does
for any module $M$ and any ideal $I$ of $A$ we have $M \otimes_A A/I \cong M/IM$
π¯¹(Shamrock)
you have a bilinear map $M \times A/I \to M/IM$ given by choosing a representative and multiplying
π¯¹(Shamrock)
this induces an isomorphism on tensor
and this is true regardless of M being finitely generated, I believe
The the next part of the question asks fo find a counter example when M and N are not finitely generated
I suppose we did youse finite generation of N to use nakayamas lemma
But I still don’t see at all how to come up with a counter example when both m and n are not finitely generated
I
I mean here's the thing, if M wasn't finitely generated but N was and you still had surjectivity of M/mM -> N/mN do the following:
Since N/mN is finitely generated, take preimages of generators x_i of N/mN in M/mM, and call these y_i. Lift these y_i to elements in M, by abuse of notation call these y_i as well. Then call M' the submodule of M generated by the y_i, note that this is finitely generated as we have finitely many y_i. We can restrict M -> N to a map M' -> N, but then M'/mM' -> N/mN is still surjective because all the y_i mapping to the x_i live in M'/mM', and the x_i generate N/mN
So you can apply the finitely generated case to conclude that M' -> N was surjective, but since a submodule of M surjects onto N via M -> N then M very clearly also surjects onto N
Like, you can only ever get bigger by letting M be not finitely generated, so I'm pretty sure you can let M be whatever you want it to be
@latent anvil @chilly ocean I'm quarter irish
Both my dad's parents are half irish
It's what I attribute my natural good luck to
Do you know where from
Do you have any idea of a counter example of N is not finitely generated
Or how to come up with one
I’d thought the way to do would be to have an infinite product ring
And have all the terms in the product above 1 be killed by tensoring with A/m
But I can’t think of a ring or module that tensor with A/m to become zero
yeah so I was actually going to give that as a hint
If there's a counterexample of any kind then there's a counterexample with M = 0 (try proving this!)
ie a ring which you can tensor with A/m to get 0
?
A counter example would f from M to N non surjective
With the induced map o the tensor surjective
Yes, that's what I mean by a counterexample
I claim that if such a counterexample exists then one exists where M = 0, ie where N is a nonzero module but N (×) A/m = 0
Oh okay
Can someone help me walk through if I understand this correctly
Let A be a ring, m a maximal ideal. Then Let Am be the localization at m. This is a local ring. Its maximal ideal is m*Am. Since this a local ring it has a residue field. The residue field is isomorphic to A/m
If we replace m with just a prime ideal p, then the localization need not be a local ring
@chilly ocean
Hmm
If m is maximal is it true that the residue field of the localization is iso toA/m
I assume then in the case where we just a prime ideal p
The residue field of the localization is
The quotient by the maximal ideal containing p
And prime ideals are contained in unique maximal ideals so this is fine
$A_{\mathfrak p}$ is a local ring with maximal ideal $\mathfrak pA_{\mathfrak p}$
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
As a example we have say
$$A=\mbb Z[x],\mfk p=(x)$$
Since $(2,x)$ is a proper ideal, $\mfk p$ is not maximal.
We can understand the local ring $\mbb Z[x]_{(x)}$ as the ring of rational function which is defined at $0$, i.e. functions $\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}$ where $f,g\in\mbb Z[x]$ and $g(0)\neq 0$.
It is a local ring as we have the ideal $\mfk m=x\mbb Z[x]_{(x)}$ of rational functions $q(x)$ where $q(0)=0$, clearly all other elements are invertible. Hence we can construct the quotient ring
$$\frac{\mbb Z[x]{(x)}}{x\mbb Z[x]{(x)}}$$
which consists of rational functions $\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}$ with $f(0)\neq0$ and $g(0)\neq0$. This is clearly a field.
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
$\frac A{\mfk p}$ is in general not a field
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
in the example above, it is jus the integers
I know A/p need not be a field only domain
yup
so this isnt true
Sorry
I said above I forgot to say it again
A a ring take the localization at p a prime ideal, which we denote by Ap.
p is an ideal in A and hEnce contained in a maximal ideal
I feel like it should be contained in a unique maximal ideal?
Shit
let's go back to this example, you have the maximal ideals (p,x) where p is a prime
Okay so it’s only tru that every element is contained in a maximal ideal
There are ideals that need not be contained in a maximal ideal
also false
Ok so, in this first number theory lecture the professor presented to me a way to define C that I have never seen before
you can prove by zorn's lemma
That being C := |R[i]/<i²+1>
Okay so every ideal is contained in a maximal ideal
ye you use that in algebra
So you take all the one variable polynomial of real coeficiente and quotient it by i²+1
yup
But need not be uNique
yea
But this is a new thing to me, because I've seen C before as being R² equiped with a certain product that makes it a field, and also as a field of 2×2 certain special matrices.
How do I prove all these constructions are field-isomorphic?
write an explicit isomorphism
As in is it the case, if we have p a prime ideal contained in a unique maximal then the residue field of Ap is A/m where m is the unique maximal ideal containing p?
Yeah, so I guess that for the case of |R² with a product and the field of 2×2 matrices it's easy for me to see the isomorphism.
But what about |R[i]/<i²+1>?
probably not true either
Damn
A_p/pA_p is generally "larger" than A/m
Is there any nice result about what A_p/pA_p looks like
Or does it actually turn out to be not too hard to just calculate
here "larger" im using it in a intuitive sense lol
you probably need a really funny ring to get like unique maximal ideal containing p
oh nvm
lol
i mean this kinda lolz
but yea
can like
$k[x,y]_{(x,y)}$
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
you can think of this ring in a similar manner as this one
or can do k[[x,y]] for algebraically closed k
basically this, but bigger
Ty king
Hello! I'm doing a problem on the sylow theorems where I'm trying to show that if a group's sylow-p-subgroups intersect trivially, then n_p (the number of p-sylows) is congruent to 1 mod |S| (S being a p-sylow).
By the sylow theorems n_p is congruent to 1 mod p. Does this mean one has to show that |S|=p?
I tried to look at the number of elements in the union of the p-Sylows and did some calculations with n_p but it's not really getting anywhere.
I can send what I've written so far. If anyone has any ideas on how to approach the problem I'd be super grateful.
I think you might have to do some sort of a group action
Like conjugation on the set {G_1,G_2...G_(np)} where G_i are the sylow p groups
a + bx ↦ a + bi
But it's weird because all sorts of polynomials with a higher degree than 1 can still be complex numbers in this definition, right?
R[i]/(i^2+1) is "made up" of polynomials of degree atmost 1
Ooh, ok I see how that can be done
Because if you have a given polynomial ax_n•x^(n)+...a_(0)
Damn
Do you understand what R[i]/(i^2+1) means?
The equivalence class of that would have a representative of form ax+b for some a,b in R
And whenever you have i² in it
You just substitute by -1
That's basically the idea
I was just being dumb when I asked how is it that all the polynomials have degree at most 1
You can just "cancel" a lot of stuff with this equivalence relation.
like, x³+x²+1 = x•x²+x²+1 ~ -x+(-1)+1 ~ -x
so x³+x²+1 is in the equivalnce class of -x
And etc
I thought this was expert trolling for a second, and i was the imaginary unit so drake was trying to take the quotient by the zero ideal
But I overestimated him, obviously
C := |R[x]/<x²+1>, better now lol?
i is just a formal symbol
Anyway, yeah thanks
Idk how I didn't see that
Thanks! Yeah I was kind of avoiding group actions because they're not very intuitive for me at this point. All the more reason to use them though
Hi i have a small question, is a field (like the real numbers) a principal ideal domain ? The ideals of (R, +, *) are {0} and itself, but is R generated only by a single element ?
When you say it is generated by 1, do you mean like the ideal is 1R ?
slimvesus
No it's alright i understood what you meant thanks
It's still a bit weird to me because i'm used to write Z as <1> and just applying addition and substraction an infinite number of times
So i thought well you can't exactly express R the same way
Yes
I'm not sure if i get it
i mean yeah that's true
Nah it was as you said, i only thought of Z as a group and not as a ring, I'm not sure if i can write it clearly but when we say generated by a single element, i think of <1>. 1Z or 1R doesn't look like anything is generated, only that we take the same ring and give the same ring back
It's like well i understand it now thanks to you but I still don't exactly have the intuition
Intuition will come with a bit of time. i have the answer to my question so thank you again
Is there a preferred notation for the order of an element in a group? My book simply denotes it o(a).
|a|?
d and f uses |a| for order of element a
Don't think it's standard
Your book is not unique in using this notation
But I think the bars are more common
|a| and ord(a) seem to be the most common in my experience
Can someone help me check if my proof is right?
the-last-knight
The first part seems good, It'd be nice if someone could confirm my proof of the double implication
i don't see any issues with it
i think you can cut it down in size a bit, maybe by doing the double implication like a series of iff's
but that's just personal taste
I think it's a twitter hashtag
i think it's a sharp
I'm in an exam so I can't post the entire problem for context. Do some authors use this for order?
Bruh
Does anyone know what this notation means?
i've literally never seen anything like it
And you are in an exam
There is none lol
could be the number of elements in the double coset
usually i see #S to mean number of elements in S
so this
I think this is asking for the size of that double coset
Let $R$ be a ring, $I$ an ideal of $R$. We then can consider the category $R/I$-mod of $R/I$-modules.
We call $C$ the full sub category of $R$-mod whose objects are $R$-modules $M$ with $Ann_R(M)\subset I$.
Give a a functor from $C$ to $R/I$-mod which is an equivalence of categories
M/Ann(M) would not be an R/I module in general
I think you want the inclusion to be the other way
if I \subset Ann(M), then M is an R/I mod
Opps yes! that inclusion is the wrong way around
How do I see this?
M is an R-module
M/Ann(M) is an R-module
then because every thing in I anniliates M, and we have already quiotented M by this already, if we are free to make all of these zero in R/I
you don't need to quotient M by anything to make it an R/I module
if 'I' annihilates M, then M can be given the structure of an R/I module
Okay so M is already an R/I-module
Now why can we see that M/Ann(M) is a still an R/I-module?
Ann_R(M) is certainly an R module
but also an R/I module
a quotient of a module by any submodule is still a module over the same ring
If we quoitent and A module by an A-submodule we always get an A submodule?
yes
functoriality of this is fine since compositions work nicely with quoitents
not super obvious that thisis an equivalence of categories to me though
oh
in fact I don't think the functor you defined is actually a functor
ig it makes sense and actually works if you interpret M/J as M/JM
but Ann(M) M = 0
so accidentally, you got the correct functor
but yeah send M to M
(x) is not a max ideal of Z[x] right
Yes
hm
x^2+2=2(1/2x^2+1)
or am I dumb?
whats the easiest way to find the number of elements in Z2[x}/p(x)
just list them out?
how do i show that minimal prime ideals in a UFD are principal?
i assume minimal primes excluding (0)?
show that every prime ideal contains an irreducible element
I've started to learn Ring Theory this week
And I tried to prove this fact here:
Without using any constructions with quotient rings.
The professor mentioned that a proof that goes in this way and I've already proved this fact using this tip.
But my first idea was to do this.
Is this proof right?
Should I be more specific in some steps?
how do you know A has a subfield containing I?
It should be the preimage
The image of an ideal is not always an ideal
Lemme fix it
Thanks for noticing my mistake tho
Hmmm
I don't really know
That example could make sense
But it actually doesn't
I should just get rid of that in the proof
And just write "there's a homomorphism from A to a certain field |K"
Because it's clear that "|K" is a non-trivial ring
And well
We have examples of fields that exist
So it should be no problem to just get rid of that passage.
i dont understand how your argument works then?
oh i get what youre trying to do
yeah clean this up a bit and this idea should work
but your specific constructions are necessary
how do you know that there exists a homomorphism into a field K?
Because every field is a non-trivial ring.
You take |R
Idk
And you can construct |R
okay... but not all two rings have homomorphisms between them
what if there's a ring that has no homomorphisms into any fields?
for example, there is no homomorphism Z/nZ -> Z
I don't really know what did I do wrong
in fact, a homomorphism A -> B can only exist if char(B) divides char(A)
Maybe it's the way it's stated?
the problem is that you havent established that such a K actually exists
how do we know there's a homomorphism from A into a field?
isnt it possible that A only has homomorphisms into rings that arent fields?
[if not, justify why not]
Yeah, it's just that I thought "all non-trivial rings" would include fields as well.
this problem is a bit unfair if they don't know zorn
I didn't mean to ping, my bad
Zorn's Lemma has to do with maximal elements in a partially ordered sets I guess.
in that case though i dont think this argument can be salvaged
I've read about it in Munkres
But I've never really used this theorem any time lmao
uh the point is that
we're only considering Bs where there actually exists a homomorphism phi: A -> B
but you dont necessarily know whether one of those Bs is a field
(the answer is that yes, one of those Bs is in fact a field, but thats not particularly easy to prove)
unfortunately im not sure theres a way to fix this specific argument without that fact :/
Aaah
So I really misinterpreted the problem
It's just that the way it was stated I thought that's what it meant.
Does it really uses Zorn's Lemma?
Maybe I could try to use that for the first time in my life lmao
yes
It would be a fun challenge
Oook
But lemme think by myself
I guess it's gonna be fun
Also
Yeah, I really misinterpreted the problem
The way I did it didn't really make any sense
note that this "maximal ideal" approach only works if A is commutative
unless im missing something
unital is what you need
oh yeah
not commutative
yeah you state the theorem as left/right maximal ideals
ah
duh
okay thats fair
even that eventually uses the idea of a quotient though
which they said they wanted to avoid
in the proof
So the problem would actually be stated as "If A is a ring where, for all non-trivial rings B such that there exists φ : A ---> B an injective ring homomorphism, then A is a field"
It was a translation problem
uh
I kind of translated it the wrong way and got the wrong idea
youre missing the injectivity of all phi
Yup
Thanks
well thats still a weird way to phrase it
i'd probably phrase it as
no field satisfies this
oh wait I misread
If A is a ring where, for all non-trivial rings B such that there exists φ : A ---> B, we have that φ is injective, then A is a field.
perhaps more succinctly:
If A is a ring where all homomorphisms φ from A into nontrivial rings are injective, then A is a field.
what have you tried?
i completed i
no I mean for ii
oh i proved it was injective by statting different x and y values would give different outputs
however i ahve no idea about surjective
look at your argument carefully again
Ok so, the poset I'm thinking about working with is exactly the set of all non-trivial rings B where there exists that injective homomorphism φ from A to B.
This set would be partially ordered
Now I don't really see how every chain would have an upper bound.
what are you trying to prove?
This
that there is a preimage or x,y for every image f(xy)
zatza look at your argument for the injective thing again, you did something wrong
try proving that every ring has a maximal ideal
really i cant ssem to see the probem other than the extra y
any hint
yup
give same value
yup
x = n-y-2
sure...
just find an x and y that work
oh would the above stated inverse be valid as a surjection proof?
you just need to show that there is some x and y such that f(x,y) = n
for each n
so say I give you an 'n'
can you give me an x and y such that f(x,y) = n
you gave me x in terms of y and y in terms of x
but you need to find both of them
okay let's make this simpler
find x and y such that f(x,y) = 3
yes
Why is this in Abstract Algebra?
i didnt know where to post it
Groups, Rings, Fields, Vector Spaces, Modules. What is this one relevant with
its part of my basic computer science course
At least I guess you are not supposed to be here
bro i dunno tbh
will do thanks m8
There another question I had in mind
For example
Suppose you had a ring R and you equip it with an equivalnce relation ~.
If this equivalence relation is not defined in the usual way as the quotient of R by a 2-sided ideal.
Then what can we say about R/~
In the sense that
If we define the operations on R/~ in the usual way as [x]+[y]=[x+y] and [x]•[y]=[x•y]
Can we still guarantee R/~ is a ring?
It's weird how we usually think about quotient rings in a rather specific sense where x~y iff x-y is in a certain ideal I.
Where we could equip R with any equivalence relation we wanted.
yea i was wondering about this a while back. We give sufficient conditions an equivalence relation can have to form a quotient ring/group (relation defined by ideal/normal subgroup), but I've never seen the necessary conditions
This seems to be a rather common theme when one is working with algebraic structures
You usually quotient it by some interesting subset of your original one
With respect to some operation
For example
The quotient space of a given vector space X by a subspace Y is just X|Y where x~y iff x-y is in Y
Why is defining quotients like this a more natural thing to do?
Yeah
I was conjecturing that
But I didn't know how to prove it
I'll try to read that out later
if the operations are well defined then you have a ring
But before I'll try to give a proof by myself.
Why did my prof's module lecture have to be looking so verbose and hard
@opal osprey
Let us take the case of groups, for instance.
Claim 1.
Let (X,•) be a group. Let R be an equivalence relation on X. One would like to define a group structure on the quotient X/R, so that this particular natural map, f:X—> X/R st. f(x)=[x] is a group homeomorphism.
However this is not always possible for any equivalence Relation. The product may not generally be well defined. The conditions on R for when this is possible is exactly this: [e] is a normal subgroup (e denoting identity) and xRy iff x•y^{-1} is in [e] for each x, y in X.
Claim 2.
One might call this the theorem of divisibility for groups (it generalizes our particular fixation on normal subgroups to something we might call “normal subsets”).
(To be added)
I have a question in regards to Boolean algebras, a book I own defines a Boolean algebra as a set B together with two binary operations +,• such that both are commutative, distributive over each other, B contains identity elements 1 for • and 0 for + and for each element a there exist an element a‘ such that a+a‘=1 and a•a‘=0. Then it states that each formulae in a Boolean algebra can be checked by looking at all possible assignments of 0 and 1 to the variables. Why is that the case? Thanks for anyone who answers.
because you're brute force checking it
But you aren’t checking all cases, what if it contains other elements than 1 and 0?
maybe then it wouldnt be called a boolean algebra, but a heyting algebra
I‘m not sure what you mean
yeah doesn't sound like a boolean algebra if it has other elements than 1 and 0
That‘s how it’s defined in my book tho, and that‘s also the definition I found on Wikipedia when looking this up.
It even gives an example of a Boolean algebra consisting of four elements in the exercises
You looked up the branch Boolean algebra
Not a Boolean algebra
In abstract algebra, a Boolean algebra or Boolean lattice is a complemented distributive lattice. This type of algebraic structure captures essential properties of both set operations and logic operations. A Boolean algebra can be seen as a generalization of a power set algebra or a field of sets, or its elements can be viewed as generalized tru...
you sound like you're conflating number of variables with the number of values the variables can take
but I'm not sure what you're thinking
,rotate
This is undoubtedly the definition stated in the book, and what I’m asking is regarding this definition why you can check all cases.
Surely you can admit
Even if you only have seen Boolean algebra refer to the 1’s and 0’s
Surely you can admit there could be generalizations
Especially
When shown examples
Why did you guys get into a fight with me and leave
why can you check for only 0 and 1s?
Nvm you back
sure, the example was shown after I said that though lol
You could have just read the wiki article and I mentioned the example before you said it, but nvm that why can you check only for 0 and 1s?
Wdym
Anyways if someone answers pls ping, the question is #groups-rings-fields message
wdym all possible assignments of 0 and 1
Like if you have x+y•z‘=1 then you can see that‘s true by plugging in all possible values for x,y,z being 0 or 1
This example isn’t true tho
evidently not
boolean algebras are lattices containing 0 and 1 + some other properties
could send a screenshot of the book?
cuz the statement is obviously false
Well maybe a typo or I’m misinterpreting one sec let me send
In the line with see Problem 18.15
It then gives an example of doing that lol
Maybe who were writing this didn’t know what he was talking about that‘s in a small section in the end of the book
this does makes sense tho
Wait how
like jus check if it works for the boolean algebra over {0,1}
Yeah my question is why you can check it for only the specific B algebra and it‘ll hold for any
hm i cant quite think of a proof rn but intuitively feels true lol
I mean kinda the intuition behind this I feel like is just set theory and I don’t see how it would
At least how the books presents it, it seems like a generalization of the algebraic structure in set theory with unions and intersections
you can realize every boolean algebra in terms of sets
And like checking for 0 and 1 would only be checking for the empty set and the „universal set“ if you‘d be working in some weird set theory with one
(or even better in terms of clopen sets of some compact hausdorff topological space)
Hmm I still don’t feel convinced do you know maybe where I could find a proof?
hm not too sure either :p the only place i saw boolean lattices is in AM exercises lol
What does AM stand for?
Algebraic model theory lol can’t think of anything better but I would have no idea what that’d would be about
Ah alright
Apparently algebraic model theory is actually a thing
https://www.springer.com/gp/book/9780792346661
Recent major advances in model theory include connections between model theory and Diophantine and real analytic geometry, permutation groups, and finite algebras. The present book contains lectures on recent results in algebraic model theory, covering topics from the following areas: geometric...
Looks fun
Model theory is already somewhat of a cross between algebra and logic
if i have the subring S of Q of elements m/n, m,n integers and n is odd, and an ideal I in S of the form m/n, m,n integers m is even, how many distinct elements does the quotient ring have
the answer is 2 but no idea how to get there
<@&286206848099549185> any help?
If your conjecture is that there are only two elements in the quotient ring.
So I think the way to go would be "Suppose, without loss of generality, that you have x \in S/I; then, if x≠0, we will show that x=1"
So you suppose that you have an x that is not in the equivalence class of 0
You should prove that it's in the equivalence class of 1.
Or vice versa.
why 1 tho?
Because every ring with two distinct elements necessarily only has a zero element and an identity.
So if your conjecture is that this quotient ring S/I only has two elements.
Therefore when you pick an element in S, either it's related to 0 or to the identity.
Let Z2(G) = { x : [g, x] is in the centre of G}
I want to show this is a normal subgroup of G, but I'm somewhat struggling.
(I've shown it's a subgroup)
Here [g, x] = g'x'gx is the commutator
g is some arbitrary element?
@inner acorn Write down [g,hxh'] and try to find [h'gh,x]
lol yw
I was being derpy, and was determined to try and use gH = Hg
but after playing with a'Ha, the result naturally fell out

I feel like this subgroup should probably be characteristic by virtue of how its defined
Have a Banana Bitch
Never mind, I figured it out
Does anyone have suggestions on where to learn about Witt vectors from?
I found Rabinoff's "The Theory of Witt Vectors" (https://arxiv.org/pdf/1409.7445.pdf) useful when I was learning about them
another fun question, given a group presentation <x, y | y'xy = x^2>
how would I find a free sub-semigroup of rank 2?
The semigroup generated by any element? 
@prisma ibex Thanks, I'll check it out
@stoic rose oops, corrected xD
actually, it's been more than 15 minutes
<@&286206848099549185>

What is y'?
y' is y^-1
If a < b and c < d, a + c < b + d is a theorem or axiom in the reals?
it's a theorem
oh ok, what is it called? I am assuming it's a family of theorems
wait
is it a theorem?
i mean every axiom is immediately a theorem but
you know what i mean
if youre defining ordered fields the canonical way, typically you have the axioms:
a < b implies a + c < b + c
0 < a and 0 < b implies 0 < ab
so i guess it is a theorem under these axioms
but a very easy one to prove
if a < b and c < d, then a + c < b + c and b + c < b + d, so a + c < b + c < b + d

i always assumed you were able to prove this but im glad to have confirmation nami


A friend posed a question to me and I haven't thought about it that much
For a finite group $G$ define $\mu(G) = |G| - \sum_{H < G} \mu(H)$
shamrocK^n(X)
so it's the unique operator satisfying $|G| = \sum_{H\leq G} \mu(H)$
shamrocK^n(X)
Compute $\mu(S_{2021})$
shamrocK^n(X)
So far I've done some small examples. $\mu(C_p) = p-1, \mu(C_6) = 2, \mu(S_3) = 0, \mu(Q_8) = 0$
shamrocK^n(X)
I thought maybe it vanished on noncyclic examples but unless I screwed up my computation $\mu(A_4) = 2$
shamrocK^n(X)
Anyone want to think about this problem with me?
Hum, it's interesting
It seems tricky
He sort of suggested you should be able to come up with a clean definition of μ
And then prove it satisfies to recurrence, so deduce μ has that definition
I could try to write some sage code to compute it for small groups
Good idea
I was doing it by hand but that's error prone
I think you should be able to compute μ on abelian groups also
The subgroup structure of abelian p groups is easy
And if G, H are of coprime order subgroups of G×H are products of subgroups of each
Hum I think for cyclic groups it's phi(n)
that's plausible for me, by mobius inversion
Not sure if what I said is exactly right
That just follows from formula for sum of phi(d) over divisors d
joe pap
hi chm
How are reu apps going?
yeah, I had that thought earlier
oh sorry this was for cyclic
you can like, expand it all out
yeah for general I don't think so
Also I'm trying to show that the functor separated presheaves to sheaves actually gives a sheaf
so it's not started yet
it's...
blech
most of the work so far was really easy and intuitive if you just pretend the open covers are like open covers you know
but this one is a bit weirder
I think maybe if I pondered the equivalence relation longer it seems like trying to do some like stalky locally equivalent thing or something but
¯_(ツ)_/¯
I know this isn't the formula but I'm imagining the formula is something like this $$\mu(G) = \sum_{H \le G} (-1)^{f([G:H])} |H|$$
Merosity
for some f, like a mobius function or something not sure
hmm
actually how are we counting subgroups here
like if we have two of the same subgroups
do we count them as one or two
Wait I think I got the answer
It should be 0 for all non cyclic groups if I'm not mistaken
I thought so too but then I thought I found a counterexample....
We're not counting up to isomorphism, if that's what you're asking
Phi(n) is the number of generators of the cyclic group and each element of G generates a unique cyclic subgroup
Can I sanity check this first?
So this is satisfied
I think A4 has subgroups e, C2, C2, C2, Klein four, C3, C3, C3
A4 has no C3
yeah that's what I was asking
we might as well though, just put an extra factor to count the subgroup frequency
There are 4 C3s
oh!
of course
and that accounts for my 2
nice okay it's more believable now
okay so
prove it by induction
all terms in the sum corresponding to noncyclic subgroups vanish
now sum over cyclic subgroups
you can now sum over elements
with a multiplicity term corresponding to phi(|x|)
does that kind of make sense?
Each element generate a unique cyclic subgroup
So the sum of number of generators of all cyclic subgroups is the number of elements
That's as simple as that
yeah, makes sense to me!
I was trying to go the other way
but you can just prove the recurrence
so... yeah
Is the langlands program still chugging along?
yup
Hi, we know that in commutative rings when two ideals are coprime (comaximal), then their intersection equals their product. I wanted to know under which rings does the converse holds.
Well look at the 0 ideal
I know that the converse holds in ring of integers Z, and not in Z[x]. But does it holds in every PID? can we say that the ring is a PID or a field if it holds?
Yes, what about the 0 ideal?
Intersection equals product
Moreover in Z, (a)(b) is what, and (a) cap (b) is what? Then if they're equal what do you get?
Right, for the zero ideal its intersection with itself equals its product with itself but it's not coprime to itself
So you need at least to ask for nonzero ideals
the qn is what type of rings does the converse hold
in UFDs it should hold i believe
but does that imply a UFD idts
The converse never holds unless you specify nonzero ideals 
I've been thinking about this problem for a while, I didn't get very far in terms of any kind of result, but I do enjoy this problem, I do feel like I got some progress in that things feel a bit clearer now.
Computing this for small groups is indeed a good idea.
I computed it with sage up to S5, and it's 0 from S3 and on, it seems.
Did not expect that
I'm tired right now, so I may have done something wrong in my code, but it yields 0 for A4.
It might just vanish for non-cyclic groups.
Yes, the Langlands program is still EXTREMELY active and there's some really big things that I expect will be coming in the next decade or so
This is not true
μ(Cp) = p - 1
I meant I computed the symmetric groups up to S5
not all of them
I actually used the fact that mu(Cn) = phi(n) to simplify the computation
@latent anvil
Ah gotcha
mu vanishes on all nonabelian groups of order pq
given the subgroup lattice structure, mu can be expressed as a Z-linear combination of the orders of the subgroups
it's something like you count the amount of upward paths from H to G and then that's the coefficient of |H|
I mean, counted as +1 or -1 depending on whether there's an even or odd amount of edges respectively
something like that, not exactly
(jfyi, someone solved it earlier, so don't scroll up if you don't want spoilers)
I was also wrong in my computation if you saw that, the correct version is μ(A4) = 0
I skimmed the chat history earlier
but for whatever reason I missed that
damn
I don't know how I didn't think to just check the recurrence relation with the hypothesis that mu vanishes on non-cyclics
I gotta say that's kinda really fucking awesome though
My abstract algebra course/module starts in 9 hours 🙂
Rings and fields are the first topics
Have fun
I already do
I have the lecture material already
And I know the teacher, he is good
Abstract algebra, is that the same thing as modern algebra? I'm at UC Davis, and we don't have Abstract Algebra, but we have Modern Algebra
yes
The course/module I am taking is just called Algebra actually
Algebra 1, meaning rings and fields to be more specific.
If we have G/H iso K and G/K iso H, then is it true that G iso H x K?
Is this the right place for symmetry group discussion?
Yup
What are orders of the symmetry groups of birectified 7-orthoplexes with the following polytopes inscribed in them?
- Rectified 7-simplex
- 3_21 polytope
Wait, there might be multiple ways to do #1.
Yes?
A ring morphism maps 1 bar Z/70Z to some a bar in Z/35Z
And the ring morphism is defined by the choice of a bar
Do you understand that?
Now,just check if this map is well defined
I do not know how to check that
For example 0 bar and 70 bar are the same in Z/70Z
70 bar =(1 bar)+(1 bar)+(1 bar)..=70(1 bar)
So a bar + a bar...=70(a bar)(in Z/35Z) should be (0 bar)(in Z/35Z)
You mean this?
you did not show that it was well defined here : think
Let's say a bar= b bar,then b=a+70k for some k
what 70 bar mean ?
i don't understand
what bar mean
I'm freench and I don't understand english
very well
Equivalence class of 70 under the equivalence relation aRb iff 70 divides a-b
Do you understand what Z/70Z means?
I mean,like do you understand the elements of the group Z/70Z
The elements are equivalence classes,right?
You write something in literal writing which can be written in mathematical writing
(sorry,was being lazy)
English is not my mother tongue, I do not know the equivalent mathematical words
anyway,I will restate it properly
Let $\bar{x}=\bar{y}$(implying x=y+70k,for some integer k) and let the ring hom be $\bar{1} \mapsto \bar{a}$ , then $\bar{x} \mapsto x \bar{a}$ and $\bar{y} \mapsto y \bar{a}$
Now,for the map to be well defined,
$ x \bar{a}= {x+70k} \bar{a} \implies 70k \bar{a}=0 \bar{a}=\bar{0}$
MoonBears-D-
This case is simple, because that's true for any choice of a
Try finding the ring homorphisms between Z/20Z and Z/3Z
Yes
If i have $A_4$ the set with the identity, 3-cycles and the product of two transpositions and i want to prove $A_4$ is a semi group of $S_4$ to prove $A_4$ is closed i have to verify element by element or there is a way to generalize?
alef0
subgroup* sorry
Just use the fact A_4 is the set of even permutations
Right, use the fact that A_4 is the subgroup of even permutations (you're implicitly using the fact that the composition of even permutation is even)
Maybe a slicker way to say this, consider the group homomorphism S_4->Z/2Z that sends a permutation to its sign: it sends even permutations to 0 and odd permutations to 1
The A_4 is the kernel of this group homomorphism, so it's automatically a subgroup
(in fact this automatically tells you that A_4 is a normal subgroup of S_4)
Oh right, thank you guys!
help
What have you tried?
i dont know it means
7-cycles are elements like (1 2 3 4 5 6 7), or (1 3 5 7 2 4 6) and so on
so permutations
