#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 537 of 407
Maybe it's a semidirect product.
that'd suck because I'm kinda using it to describe a semidirect product lol
Yeah I'll have to check that thanks. My issue is that I'm obviously used to real vector spaces so one over a finite field is basically crashing my brain. I thought for some reason something like "oh finite field means scaling isn't like in a real vs" but then interpreted that as "no scaling" lol
ugh I suck at GT
You are trying to construct a semidirect product whose normal subgroup is Z/p x Z/p?
btw the "big" question I'm tacking is to describe all semidirect products of P by Q where |P|=p^2 and |Q|=q
I'm done with the case where P is cyclic so I'm trying to describe the other case for P by seeing it as a vector space over F_p
not construct one, actually describe them all
so I want to see what the automorphisms of the thing are
also please don't solve it for me lol
but hints are welcome 🙂
I don't think this problem is really easy, but maybe that's just me.
well either way my prof thinks it's manageable for us, this is homework 😂
actually the question is a bit harder, but reduced to that case if you do things right
the order of Gl(2, p) is (p^2 -1)(p^2-p) = (p-1)(p+1)(p)(p-1), p-1 and p + 1 will have prime factors q less than p (for p>=3)
he puts really hard things on our HWs sometimes but he's a bro grading it afterwards
oh I was hoping that wasn't the case, much easier to work with a trivial thing lol
ok thanks for that, I'll think about it 🙂
thanks!
I don't even need to describe the whole of Gl(2,p) for what I want, probably identifying the things of order q is enough to then construct the thing
the thing being the homomorphism that will give me the semidirect product
rather, construct all the things
this is the actual question if anyone cares
tbh it seems like one of the easier ones of the sheet (or I'm just dumb) so this isn't encouraging lol
it isn't very hard
ok yeah thanks. I think I managed the hardest part which was reducing it to the semidirect thing but that wasn't too hard at all because it's just noticing some clever lemmas and theorems to use
so now it's just "getting my hands dirty" actually looking at the things themselves
I found a note describing them and it is three pages long, and the proof wasn't written in a leisurely way.
maybe it proves some things I'm taking for granted because we proved in class or something
If your course is traditional, then I doubt it.
The problem is to classify all elements of order q up to conjugacy.
I'm back
hmm, if X^q-1 splits then all the matrices of that order will be diagonalizable
oh wait a second
the thing I had in mind was wrong
yeah I fucked up
the problem is not as easy as I claimed
but should still be doable using low-tech tools and a lot of casework
The proof I have seen uses mostly linear algebra (results about similarity).
Even though it's low tech, I think it's considerably involved.
Is it easy to find finite groups with arbitrarily large derived length?
well it's a grad course. I mean here it's different from the US but I'm in a master's degree and this is my 2nd GT course so far
Ohh, I assumed it was undergrad for some reason.
nah it's ok 😛
I don't want groups with arbitrarily large order
oh, i can't read
actually this direct product thing was a motivation for the extension problem and cohomology but we didn't get far in cohomology
semidirect*
I know that if N and G/N have lengths a, b, then G has length (at most?) a + b, so I thought I should take semidirect products of some sort.
Yeah, a + b is just an upper bound. But I think a lower bound should be max{a, b} + 1
That kind of justifies the difficulty of the problem.
oh yeah I can see how you might have thought this was really hard if you thought it was on an undergrad context 😂
hnn
direct product of graded rings is confusing
how does the gradiation work
like say Z[alpha]/(alpha^3) oplus Z[alpha]/(alpha^2)
whats the graded structure hhh
is there a good reason why the order of an element and the order of a group both use the word 'order'?
@maiden ocean what did you get
@viscid pewter order of a generator of a cyclic group and order of the cyclic group are the same
You might say order of an element is a special case of order of a group
Because given any group
And any element in that group
It generates a cyclic subgroup
And the order of that subgroup is the order of the element
i'd argue the more important connection is lagrange's theorem.
@uncut girder yea i understand it now its the obvious u just take the ith group in the first ring and ith group in the second ring and direct product them
i got confused cuz i was doing a topology thing and messed up w/ the graded structures on the original rings cuz i was overthinking it
Makes sense
die
Reported
yep, reported sham
I'm being bullied for the simple act of mocking a child
what is this server coming to?
yeah but arch was bullying me
Given a SES of complexes we get an LES in homology
is that a delta-functor?
or is the other condition for a delta functor, the one about the boundary maps commuting not always satisfied?
I checked Weibel, I think if you're a positive degree one then the answer is yes
huh I guess homology is the derived functor of 0th homology
That's weird
Oh this only works on nonnegative degree complexes like chm said (I think)
oh, i'm a fool, V4 isn't a subgroup of Q8, it's just that Q8/Z2 = V4
that would explain it
why is learning painful
Cuz u don’t know things. But then you know things
Let H be a subgroup of order 6, let a be an element of order 2, b element of order 3
If c = ab is an element of order 4, then subgroup generated by a and b can't exist due to Lagrange's theorem right?
Are a and b in H?
Yeah
Alright thanks
So c itself can’t exist
Also this isn’t like
This doesn’t have anything to do with a and b
Or their orders
Something of order 4 csnt exist period
but ab actually gives something with order 4
no, that's imposible
a = [i, j, k] (cycle length 3)
Or if their product is
Those don’t exist in a subgroup of order 6
You mean a and b?
Yeah but I'm supposed to prove that
can you post the entire question
Okay
could clear it all up
I see your point
My point here was just
You can’t have the product of two things in a group of order 6 be order 4
yep yep
In your example this shows no subgroup of order 6 contains both
thanks thats all I needed
Has anyone worked through the rings chapter in Nathan Jacobson basic algebra I?
there are a couple exercises distinguishing left and right inverses
and I can't seem to tell why cause from the way things were defined in the chapter there is a two-sided identity (a1=a=1a for all a in R)
and unless there's something wrong with this proof https://proofwiki.org/wiki/Left_Inverse_for_All_is_Right_Inverse
they should be the same, no?
The chapter on rngs comes much later so we are definitely supposed to assume two-sided identity for the monoid in a ring
what do two sided identities have to do with left/right inverses?
*your confusion with left/right inverses?
the proof I linked and its similar version for right inverse for all being left inverse relies on existence of left (right) identity
so unless there's something wrong with it what am I missing as to why the author is distinguishing between right and left inverses, maybe it's just supposed to make the exercise harder and give me more intuition for more general cases?
we're talking about question 6, right? I don't really see how this is related. question 6 is not saying that every element has a left inverse
yeah it's not, exactly, why is it distinguishing between the two?
because left inverses are not right inverses in general.
that's true but in rings according to that proof I linked they are
No
no, the proof you linked only works when every element has a left inverse
oh true! thank you
that was it
wait hm
sure the way the proof I linked is worded is only taking about semigroups where every element has a left inverse
but doesnt the same proof work just for showing a single element with a left inverse has the same right inverse
what fails in the proof if you were to try to do that
try writing it down
is a noetherian local ring a regular local ring if and only if the completion at the maximal ideal is a regular local ring?
the dimension of the ring and the completion are the same, so I guess my question is "is dim m/m^2 preserved under completion?"
Yes, as $R/m^2=\widehat{R}/m^2$
radiateur-man
If I is a nilpotent ideal of R, and we have a homomorphism of R-modules F : M --> N, then it induces a hom. f: M/IM --> N/IN. It turns out that if f is surjective then so is F. Is there a nice "explanation" of why is this true?
@cyan marten Let $C$ be the cokernel of $M \to N$, so that $M \to N \to C \to 0$ is exact. Then $M/IM \to N/IN \to C/IC \to 0$ is exact (because tensor product is right exact), so $C/IC=0$, so $C=IC$. Hence $C=I^nC$ for all $n$, so $C=0$ as $I$ is nilpotent. Hence $M\to N$ is surjective.
radiateur-man
Also if N is finitely generated and R is local and noetherian, then that actually works for any proper ideal by Nakayama 
I am still not comfortable enough with tensor products. Do we tensor the first sequence by IR?
I also don't get why C/IC = 0
Oh, right. Thanks.
Oh wait, it's just the hypothesis. Sorry.
We tensor it by $R/I$. In general for any module $M$ $M/IM=M\otimes R/I$.
radiateur-man
And $C/IC=0$ because $M/IM\to N/IN \to C/IC \to 0$ is exact and the first map is onto
radiateur-man
Makes sense.
i'm trying to show that every ideal in a noetherian commutative ring with unity can be finitely generated
i've got it when the ideal is countable
but i'm having trouble when it's uncountable
if i can show every ideal can be generated by a countable set i think that would do it but i can't show that either
can anyone give me some hints?
Do you know ACC
yeah that's my definitino of noetherian
So,Take an element x_1 and generate an ideal,and if x_2 is not in that consider (x_1,x_2) and so on
ohh got it
so by ACC it has to terminate which means at that point you've generated the full ideal
Yes
thanks
[crossposted from a different Discord server]
Hmm, for Iwasawa's Lemma (if G has primitive action phi (G->Sym(X)) on X, G=G', soluble normal subgroup A of Stab(x) whose conjugates in G generate G, then G/ker(phi) is simple)... is there a converse of this form:
For every simple group G, is there a set X and group H such that G=H/N, H has a primitive action on X, H=H', soluble normal subgroup A of Stab(x) whose conjugates in H generate H...
For PSL and PSp, they act on one dimensional subspaces of V...
for An, we cannot choose {1...n} and H= An, because Stab(n) is isomorphic to A(n-1), which is simple for large n.
(Should be not hard (i.e. as hard as classification itself) to show from classification if true, but idk?)
Can you analyze the soluble subgroups of A6?
Actually the stabilizer of a point is A5*
hmm, what do you mean A5*?
Not sure why we want to analyse soluble subgroups of A6?
I don't think it is likely to work for cyclic groups of prime order, since that means G acts transitively on X, and there's essentially only one transitive action from C_p. Is my intuition correct here?
The star indicates that I am correcting a mistake.
Well, my intuition was no soluble subgroup of A5 (the stabilizer of a point, if we let A6 act naturally) can generate the whole of A6, so your statement is false.
but that is if we let A6 act naturally. Is there a less natural action that would work?
I think so. If we have a transitive action of G on X, that's the same as an action of G on the coset space G/H for some subgroup H.
And there is a soluble (but not normal) subgroup of A5, just take any subgroup generated by a 3-cycle. Then conjugates of it generate A6.
If I remember correctly, a primitive action with stabilizer of a point = H allows us to write A6 = H U HgH for some g not in H.
Oh, right. The question isn't useful anyway because A5 is simple.
idk probably worthy of a post on mathematics stackexchange to see if that community has some ideas?
But wait. A6 can act transitively on at most 60 sets (number of divisors of A5).
And primitively on even less.
It could be fun to try doing it by hand.
hmm maybe, but idk how to do it by hand
that's like checking all homomorphisms from A6 to A60 !?
If G acts transitively on X, then it's primitive iff the stabilizer of every point is a maximal subgroup of G.
@fading wagon nevermind this
So A6 can act primitively only on the coset spaces A6/M where M is a maximal subgroup of A6.
Taking M = A5 yields {1, 2, ..., 6} .
According to groupprops, the maximal subgroups of A6 have orders 24, 36 and 60. Consequently, the possible sizes of sets on which A6 acts primitively are 6, 10, 15.
It's not clear we want a maximal subgroup of A6. We just need A6=H/N, and we need a maximal subgroup of H instead.
I have been assuming that the action is faithful, so always taking H = our group and N = 1. Also, if G acts on X transitively, that's the same action as that of G on G/H for some subgroup H. If G acts primitively, then H must be maximal.
We can see what the maximal subgroups of A6 are (given in groupprops), which are potential stabilizers-of-a-point, and see whether they have a normal soluble subgroup which generators A6.
I think I got it. Take the action of A6 on the cosets of (some embedding of) S4 (a set of size 15).
S4 has the normal soluble subgroup A4, whose conjugates certainly generate A6. So your conjecture actually holds in this case.
whoa cool
shall I credit you in the math stackexchange post?
hmm, not sure if I can construct the action though
I think we should try A9, say.
It's just left multiplication. The action is guaranteed to be primitive because S4 is maximal (again, according to groupprops).
Oh, coset spaces. I see
https://groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/Subgroup_structure_of_alternating_group:A6
Is it the "standard twisted S4 in A6" or "exceptional twisted S4 in A6"?
(is the exceptional twisted S4 obtained from the standard twisted S4 by one of the outer automorphisms?)
@fading wagon The smallest index of a proper subgroup of A6 is 6, so there are no subgroups of index 3 or 5. Now a subgroup strictly containing a subgroup of order 24 must have one of these indices, which is impossible. So we don't even need a particular isomorphism class (much less a particular embedding).
Ah, okay.
It seems so
I think we lucked out in this particular case because S4 has a normal sol..etc..
yeah, possibly... A7 might not look so good lol
I had no idea the maximal subgroups of A_n were so complicated. Honestly I thought they were just the smaller alternating groups.
@fading wagon I might have made a mistake. I assumed that A4 was a subgroup of S4, but actually this was the twisted A4. We still need to check that its conjugates generate A6, which is no longer evident.
Actually I think the twisted A4 has no 3-cycles at all!
oh no
Twisted A4 as I written there has (1,2,3) in it
It has (123)(456)
Exactly.
I included the inclusion map?
that shouldn't be an issue since (1,2,3) seems to be an element of twisted A4 with the inclusion "σ↦σ if σ is even and σ(5,6) otherwise"
A4 in twisted S4 is just A4
But there's a mysterious subgroup of order 36 which does have a 3-cycle, so maybe we wil have more luck with that.
Ohh, I see
do you think it's worth it to include the proof of iwasawa?
That makes perfect sense but I can't convince myself that (123) is indeed in that weird looking thing.
Well, (123) in S4 maps to (123) in A6 via that map
I see
The maximal subgroups of A7 have orders 72, 120, 168, or 360.
The groups themselves aren't given in groupprops, unfortunately.
I suspect the last three occur as S5, PSL(2, 7) and A6, respectively.
But I have no idea why a group of order 72 (index 35) has to be a maximal subgroup of A7.
hmm, but just as well the group of order 72 is solvable. Hmm, idk what that group is
is it something along (even of S4)(even of S3) with (odd of S4)(odd of S3)?
that would give a subgroup of 72 elements
and (123) is in it.
but idk if this subgroup is maximal
I don't follow. Do you mean it's generated by something like (12)(34)(567) and (1234)(12)?
Yeah, both of them are in the subgroup
but idk if those generate it
it's generated by (123), (567), (234), (12)(56) I think...
I am not sure why they generate a subgroup of order 72 (honestly I suspect they don't).
That's it, I will run GAP
Consider in S7. Then all permutations that do not cross 1234 and 567, there are 144 of them.
Then take those even permutations, there are 72 of them
cool, the question is "is it maximal"?
anyone know whats a good book to learn advanced calculus
ohh wheres the other channel lol
Again, using GAP,< (1, 2, 3)> is normal.
Well, it can only be contained in a subgroup of index 5 or 7.
hmm, so subgroup of index 5 cannot exist, and subgroup of index 7 is isomorphic to A6??
But A7 has no subgroup of index 5, and since this group doesn't fix 1, 2,.., 7 it isn't a subgroup of any of the conjugates of A6 contained in A7. However, these are precisely the subgroups of index 7.
alright so we are done with A7 lol
Yes, I think.
time for A8?
ConjugacyClassesMaximalSubgroups(AlternatingGroup( [ 1 .. 8 ] ));?
AlternatingGroup( [ 1 .. 7 ] )^G, Group( [ (1,3)(2,4), (2,3,4), (5,7)(6,8), (1,2,3,4)(5,8,7,6), (1,2,3,4)(5,6),
(1,5)(2,6)(3,7)(4,8) ] )^G, Group( [ (5,7)(6,8), (2,3,5)(4,7,6), (1,2)(3,4)(5,6)(7,8) ] )^G,
Group( [ (5,7)(6,8), (1,3,5)(4,7,6), (1,2)(3,4)(5,6)(7,8) ] )^G ]```
hmm... not sure what we are looking at
maybe I should get their orders
I just used MaximalSubgroups
There's the "StructureDescription" function.
And got 157
eh, should mod out by conjugacy
Yeah
there seems to be just 6
Yeah but for some reason I can't use StructureDescription
Let's analyse by hand...
Group( [ (1,2,3,4,5), (3,4,5), (6,7,8), (1,2)(7,8) ] )^G, (seems to be even on a 5-3 split)
Group( [ (1,2,3,4,5), (4,5,6), (1,2)(7,8) ] )^G, (even on 6-2 split, i.e. S6)
A7,
Group( [ (1,3)(2,4), (2,3,4), (5,7)(6,8), (1,2,3,4)(5,8,7,6), (1,2,3,4)(5,6), (1,5)(2,6)(3,7)(4,8) ] )^G, (order 576)
Group( [ (5,7)(6,8), (2,3,5)(4,7,6), (1,2)(3,4)(5,6)(7,8) ] )^G, (order 1344)
Group( [ (5,7)(6,8), (1,3,5)(4,7,6), (1,2)(3,4)(5,6)(7,8) ] )^G (order 1344)
hmm maybe I can get their orders
I thinj it's because it's a conjugacy class, not a group per se.
C3:S5??
Of order 360 (!)
Direct product of C3 and S5?
ah I see
Precisely what we need.
never seen this notation before
So we're done with A8.
eh, there should be an easier way to knock out cases
I checked with GAP and it turned out it doesn't have a 3-cycle.
maybe we haven't spotted the pattern yet
what doesn't have a 3-cycle?
The twisted A4
Ohhh, my bad. Sorry.
(123)(456),....
looks like the exceptional twisted?
That makes sense, but I don't think the maximal subgroups of An are easy to find.
A9 time, if you are up for it
ConjugacyClassesMaximalSubgroups(AlternatingGroup( [ 1 .. 9 ] ));
Group( [ (1,2,3,4,5), (3,4,5), (6,7,8), (7,8,9), (1,2)(8,9) ] ) [5-4 split]
Group( [ (1,2,3,4,5), (4,5,6), (7,8,9), (1,2)(8,9) ] ) [6-3 split]
Group( [ (1,2,3,4,5,6,7), (5,6,7), (1,2)(8,9) ] ) [7-2 split]
A8
Group( [ (1,2,3), (4,5,6), (1,2)(4,5), (7,8,9), (1,2)(7,8), (1,4,7)(2,5,8)(3,6,9), (1,5,2,4)(3,6) ] )
Group( [ (2,7,6)(3,4,8), (1,2,3)(4,5,6)(7,8,9), (2,4,9)(3,7,5) ] ) PGammaL(2, 8) ???
Group( [ (1,3,4,5,6,7,2), (1,3,5)(4,7,6), (1,4)(2,8)(3,7)(5,6), (1,7)(3,6)(4,5)(8,9) ] )```
so we get the expected 5-4 6-3 and 7-2 splits
It has only nine maximal subgroups.
is the 6-3 split a semidirect product of S6 and C3?
Eight*
No idea
We can just use StructureDescription.
Looks like it, hmm...
Maybe the n-3 3 splits work in general
for the S5-C3 semidirect product, which was the normal subgroup?
The one that appears first, I think.
hmm, what command did you use in GAP to find that?
I am not sure what that means, but if we have a normal group of order 3 then we're done.
StructureDescription.
ah okay
Well, not exactly. We need both factors to be solvable.
yeah it's the first one
oh yeah whoops
but S5 isn't exactly solvable??
hmm looks like we don't need that?
yeah it's C3:S6
Ah looks like a pattern we can try to prove
Yeah. So A9 acts primitively on 84 points in a way so that the hypothesis to Iwasawa's theorem are satisfied. This is so cool.
Yeah
Take G = <(123), (45...n)>
???
But it isn't always in An..
Ohh and it is usually not maximal either, being so small.
Maybe we should try embedding C3 : S_(n - 3)..
An can act on left cosets of (permutations of n-3)(permutations of 3) by left multiplication.
It suffices to show
- An=An' (trivial)
- This subgroup is maximal
- This subgroup is isomorphic to C3:S(n-3), having C3 normal subgroup
- The normal subgroup is conjugate to (1,2,3)
4 is also trivial
well, if you come up with the isomorphism then 4 is trivial.
Wait! What's the centralizer of (123)?
basically everything that commutes with (123)? in An?
Nevermind. It's isomorphic to C3 x S_(n - 3)
That's in Sn, though
So the centralizer is C3 x A_(n - 3).. Not what we're looking for.
But the normalizer of <(123)> in A8 is isomorphic to A6.
Which is maximal.
hmm, let me see if we can prove this, and what we need
Well, it seems like the normalizer is an alternating group usually
I think we should try embedding C3 : S_(n - 3). Let's call this group G_n.
Its index in A_n is n(n - 1)(n - 2)/6, which is not promising at all.
I mean we can't apply the index trick.
Okay, it is trivial that (n-2, n-1, n) is normal in that subgroup.
Yes.
I think we should investigate Gn first then see how we embed it. We haven't shown (although it's intuitively obvious) that we can embed it in An.
Gn = {(s, f) : s = 0, 1, 2, f in S_(n - 3)}
G_n?
.
hmm... I see
but I defined it as the subgroup preserving {1...n-3}
I managed to intuit <(n-2,n-1,n)> is a normal subgroup
I'm left with showing that it is maximal...
But that's S_(n - 3)
so {sigma(1)....sigma(n-3)}={1...n-3}
no it's not
remember it can mess around with n-2, n-1 and n
Yeah, it doesn't work for A_6 for some reason
So Gn contains the normalizer of a 3-cycle.
yeah looks like with works with A_7
It's contained in one*
The normalizer if (123) in A7 is isomorphic to (C3 x A4) : C2
And G7 has order 36
hmm, what's with the normaliser?
!
Oh nevermind
Let me see
ConjugacyClassesMaximalSubgroups(AlternatingGroup( [ 1 .. 6 ] ));
looks like that subgroup is not maximal
oh wait
we can swap over 1,2,3 and 4,5,6, no wonder it's not maximal
Probably the quirks of the outer automorphism
nah, just 6=3+3
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3959002/possible-converse-to-iwasawa-lemma
omg we have an answer
Gn in GAP? idk I don't really define it, but I just type it out with the generators
lol shall we finish up this argument with alternating groups? idk
I just checked that the normalizer of (123) is maximal for n > 6
Actually I assumed that n < 10 as well.
I think we should try to show that this normalizer is always maximal, and we will be done.
What do you think?
would be cool
I posted what we have so far, but we just need to show that subgroup is maximal I guess?
Yeah. I think it's better to work with the normalizer, rather than Gn.
Well, the groups are the same for n>6 I think...?
No. In the cases I checked, Gn seems to be of index 2 in the normalizer.
It's 5:23 AM here.. I must go. Good day/night!
gd/n!
pardon noob question but I am doing algebra and reading knapp and there is this statement
what the fuck is the inductive argument being made here for showing that the set is spanning
it's unclear to me what he is trying to say
If you know x^n=g(x) for some g(made up of monomials of degree <n) ,you can say x^(n+1)=ax^n +h(x) where h(x) is made up of monomials of degree less than n
So x^n+1=a g(x) + h(x) and the rhs is made of monomials of degree <n
okay that makes significantly more sense
I'm a bit confused why the fuck he writes theta^n+m instead of just doing the case of m=1 to make the induction obvious
whatever, thank you anyway lol
hello I am stuck
Let $A$ be a valuation ring of $K$ with valuation group $\Gamma$, and let $v : K \to \Gamma \cup {\infty}$ be the valuation. Suppose $\Delta$ is a subgroup of $\Gamma$ such that whenever $g\geq h \geq 0$ and $g\in \Delta$ then $h\in \Delta$. Then the set $\mathfrak{p} = {a\in A : v(a) \notin \Delta}$ is a prime ideal of $A$
shamifold
So I'm good with all of that so far
But I'm supposed to show the valuation group of $A/\mathfrak{p}$ is $\Delta$
shamifold
And I am completely out of ideas
So one thing I know is that $v^{-1}(\Delta) = A_p^\times$
shamifold
But I don't see how to turn that into like a map $(A_p/pA_p)^\times \to \Delta$
shamifold
the rough idea is that Δ is a isolated subgroup and we have the bijection Δ = <v(A-p)>
oh wait we dont need to theres a more direct argument
We have $\mfk p=A-v^{-1}(\Delta)$ then go by contradiction, suppose $xy\in\mfk p$ which implies $v(xy)\notin\Delta$ and wlog suppose $v(x)\geq v(y)$ then using the fact $\Delta$ is isolated show if $v(y)\in\Delta$ then $v(x)\in\Delta$
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
I know how to do that
oops busy completing my 40 hours
ye this is proving p is prime
hey, any recommendations for a good introductory alegbra textbook for self-study
my prof next sem is supposed to be bad so im prepping early
artin
jacobson
dummit and foote
ok, ty ill check those out
np!
although I'm not the biggest fan of it at times
gallian is also good for self study
so you could check it out
ya, I think so
it's a very easy textbook
my issue with it is that it doesn't cover all the content I'd like it to
i dislike that group homomorphisms are on page 200.
ok, well the course is only up to ring theory i believe
but you could use it as an easy intro, and learn the rest in your course
yeah thanks for the advice
So does anyone have any thoughts on the valuation rings thing I posted earlier?
this
so like, you have to show that for every nonzero class, the valuation on it is constant and in Delta ?
I don't think so, that seems false
I'm supposed to show $\kappa(\mathfrak{p})^/(A/\mathfrak{p})^ \cong \Delta$
shamifold
Or equivalently find a surjective valuation $w : \kappa(\mathfrak{p}) \to \Delta\cup{\infty}$ such that $A/\mathfrak{p} = { x \in \kappa(\mathfrak{p}) : w(x) \geq 0}$
shamifold
I tried defining w in terms of v but I couldn't figure out how
tmw you're not sure if it's that you don't understand the concepts well enough or if the proof is written a little obtusely
@latent anvil Actually for $x,y \in A_p^\times$ such that $x - y \in pA_p$ we have $v(x)=v(y)$. Hence $v$ is well-defined on $(A_p/pA_p)\times$
radiateur-man
The reason for this is that if $v(x)\ne v(y)$ then $v(x-y)=\text{min}(v(x),v(y))\in \Delta$ but this is a contradiction as $x-y \in pA_p$
radiateur-man
(I use $p$ for $\mathfrak{p}$)
radiateur-man
ahh I think I see my confusion
So I got that but I thought there could be units of the fraction field which weren't units in A_p
But if xy = 1 mod pA_p then xy = 1 + z for z in pA_p, and as pA_p is the Jacobson radical of A_p, 1+z is a unit, so x is too
Omg I feel so dumb for not spotting that, ty!
Okay yeah an element of a local ring is either not in the maximal ideal (and so a unit in the quotient) or is in there, and so zero (not a unit) in the residue field
Blergh
Lol yes
All non-units are in the maximal ideal so are killed when passing to the quotient
Thanks again
Pleasure, that was a cool problem to do 
Nice
Say you have a sequence $X_1 \to X_2 \to \ldots$ of closed immersions of schemes. Does this have a colimit?
shamifold
I would ask in #point-set-topology but it's busy lol
No take a colimit that is a formal scheme
It’s true for affine schemes
And more generally it’s done in a paper by bhargav bhatt
I don't know anything about formal schemes and can't find that paper
Could you tell me how to construct the colimit in the affine case?
In the affine case I guess you just take the inverse limit of the corresponding rings
(the spectrum of this inverse limit)
Oh duh
Yeah
well be a little careful, the colimit of Spec (R_n) is the same as Spec(lim R_n)
the thing on the left is the "formal spectrum" of Spec(lim R_n)
for example, Spec(Z_p) has 2 points but colim Spec(Z/p^nZ) has one point
Wait buncho I'm confused
Do you mean not the same?
because it seems like you said they're the same and then gave a counterexample
oh yeah okay my concern was while Spec of the limit is the colimit in Aff it might not be the colimit in Sch
thinking of doing some self study on this course during my semester off. Anyone having any book reccomendations?
what do you want to learn about
just like an introduction to the course would be nice
course?
elements of modern algebra is a good intro book
did they say a course on algebra?
dummit and foote + aluffi is also good
rn im looking at Beachy and Blair
I have not heard of it, so I can't comment
moderne algebra
would you say abstract alg is more proof heavy than analysis?
they're the same
cool
almost everything goes: definition, proposition, proof
@latent anvil sorry!! yes, I meant not the same
if R is a complete local ring wrt some ideal I then there's Spec(R) which is what you expect and there's also Spf(R) (Spf = "formal spectrum") which is defined as the colimit of Spec(R/I^n)
Spf(Z_p) is like the infinite order tangent space of the point (p) in Spec Z
hmm okay
So I'm trying to construct a k-scheme X which is covered by closed subsets X_n (for each integer n), each isomorphic to A^1, and such that X_n and X_{n+1} each intersect at one point
For finitely many n in [-N, N] I can construct a space like this as a closed subset of A^2N
And each will embed into the next as a closed subscheme of the next
So if I can take colimits of a sequence of closed immersions of (affine) subschemes I thought that would give me the X I wanted
(i first tried constructing X as a subset of A^infty but it wasn't locally closed and so I didn't know how to show it was a scheme)
@latent anvil Can't you just take infinitely many copies of Spec k[x,y]/(xy) and glue the y-axis of the i'th copy with the x-axis of the (i+1)^th copy?
hey
can i get some intuition on the first isomorphism theorem?
i understand how modding out by the kernel makes it injective, but where does the surjectivity come from
also merry christmas
G/ker(T) is iso to im(T)
Because, You can think of each element of G/ker(T) as a preimage of an element in im(T)
wait slow down
if G is homomorphic to H
then the first isomorphism theorem says
G/ker(T) is iso to H
(I am using T to denote a map)
oh fuck
mb
i'm sorry it's 6am
but yeah
wait hold on
G/ker(T) is isomorphic to im(T)
right
If T is surjective,im(T) is the codomain
hold on i had it for a second
why is G/ker(T) iso to im(T)
T maps G->H
and then modding out in one
yeah
doesn't that assume
oh fuck
nah that's dumb
why the fuck is T surjective
Because im(T) is image of map T?
no i mean
i guess i'm still stuck on
why G/ker(T) is surjectively mapped to im(T)
fuck it i'll do it tmrw
thanks for your help
good night man
You know how the map T from G to im(T) is surjective?
G/ker(T) is G,but you are grouping together all elements which give the same image
What do you mean by gluing here? The only theorem I know about gluing schemes in general is about gluing along open subschemes, and the ones you're talking about are closed
@carmine fossil it makes perfect sense
i thought the theorem said somehting different
not that G/ker(T) is iso to im(T)
but that like
G/ker(T) is iso to H
If T is surjective,im(T) will be H
t isn't necessarily surjective
which fucked me up for a sec
on the website i was reading it assumed it was surjective ig and said im(T) = H
Well actually take the axes minus a point
That's open
Hum wait no that won't work immediatly
It should work by removing two points though I think
Say we glue the y-axis of the first copy minus (0,0) and (0,1) with the x-axis of the second copy minus (0,-1) and (0,0), with the identification (0,y)<--->(y-1,0)
Something like that, glue the pink part with the green part
Just do that infinitely many times
anyone done quaternions?
Oh that sounds totally plausible radiateur
k, if anyone has done quaternions, i made this simple program in python for using quaternions to rotate 3d coordinates. It is pretty simple:
import math
class Quaternion:
def __init__(self, vector, angle):
self.rad_angle = math.radians(angle)
self.w = round(math.cos(self.rad_angle / 2), 10)
self.x = vector[0] * math.sin(self.rad_angle / 2)
self.y = vector[1] * math.sin(self.rad_angle / 2)
self.z = vector[2] * math.sin(self.rad_angle / 2)
self.quaternion = ["Rotation: " + str(self.w), "Vector: " + str(self.x) + ", " + str(self.y) + ", " + str(self.z)]
def log(self):
print(self.quaternion)
quaternion_one = Quaternion((1, 0, 0), 90)
quaternion_one.log()
quaternion_two = Quaternion((0, 1, 0), 90)
quaternion_two.log()
Any suggestions
?
What do you want suggestions for?
any improvements, or if im doing something wrong which there is a high chance of.. would you say that this quaternion rotation is correct?
are you sure?
yes
since they give you high accuracy tho
from ur suggestion i can tell they gave you a hard time didn;t they
quaternions are useful for rotations cuz you can in some cases represent as rationals
and screw storing sin and cos values
ouch
ur suggestion seems to have messed up my program tho
@golden pasture sorry but imma have to say no to your suggestion
T_T
cus this suppposed to be the correct output
but instead i was getting 0, 0, 0
as the output for the vector part
did you just just replace the floats with ints?
Also this isn't really relevant to this channel imo
yes
oh sorry
Lol
tolaria what's the thing in your pfp

Dessin d'enfants
Help
for non-isomorphism of the two given groups, look at cyclicity 
for order 4 you could probably even brute force multiplication tables
probably, it's only 32 entries in total
Hint: Since the group has order 4 only can have subgroups of order 1, 2 and 4
See Problem 11a, my reasoning was to take the least common multiple and since is Z, the ideal has to be of the form aZ, then, the Annihilator is 600Z, right?
I mean, since is an Ideal and 600 belongs to the annihilator, then 600 Z is a subset of the Annihilator. And if x belong to the annihilator, then, in particular x(1, 1, 1) = (0,0,0), that means 24 divides x , 15 divides x and 50 divides x, hence 600 divides x. Is my reasoning ok?
🤔
So i used the fact that it can only be isomorphic to z4 if and only if it cyclic
Otherwise its multiplication table is the same as z * z or the Klein - Four Group
Thus making it isomorphic
Let me see the oroof
Proof
@molten silo
But, the idea is ok, but I want to know how you get that
Chinese remainder theorem is very useful here.
identity obvious, need to show operation is closed, inverse exists and operation is associative
but what is the inverse
use the bezout's lemma
But i cant put the pieces together
for closure I think you will need crt
(Hint:||Look at the Hint given||)
i hate my life
we are talking about mod not gcd. While gcd=1, mod is varying
If gcd(mn,a)=1 then gcd(mn (mod a),a)=1
yes
So, That's sufficient
Identity = 1
Can we say if a belongs to G then n-a is it's inverse
yes, if a is coprime to n then n-a is still a coprime.
i see
nvm
ok
what? no.
why?
ok
multiplicative??
Multiplicative inverse of a(mod n) is b(mod n) such that ab+nm=1
the multiplicative inverse of 3 mod 7 is not 4.
the multiplicative inverse of 1 mod 3 is 1 not 2
thank you
multiplicative inverses can be found using bezout's identity.
smh, I am an idiot.
I don't see how crt can be useful here
crt?
This
oh that
thank you boys
yeah so inverses are covered by the word 'coprime'
rings are annoying. i like groups. don't say rings are groups, ok?
they're just groups with more stuff on top
if S is a subset of affine n-space over an algebraicly closed field k, then if I is a prime ideal then Z(I) is irreducible
i'm having trouble finding a counterexample to I is an ideal, if Z(I) is irreducible then I is a prime ideal
Take for example n=1, I=(x^2)
Then Z(I) is just a point so is irreducible
More generally as Z(I)=Z(Rad(I)) take any non-prime ideal whose radical is prime, such as P^2 for any prime P
After taking the radical though I think you get an iff, for I radical Z(I) is irreducible iff I is prime
Show that if X is a closed algebraic set of A^n and Y of A^m then X x Y is a closed set of A^{n+m}
I think that X x Y = Z(I' + J') where X = Z(I) and Y = Z(J)
I' is the ideal generated by I in A[x1,...,x{n+m}] and J' is defined similarly
Is this correct?
Yup
Thanks
I'm new to groups and fields. Why are f(x)=x and f(a+sqrt(2)b)=a-sqrt(2)b the only field automorphisms of Q[sqrt(2)]? How about f(x)=-x?
try to show it's not a field automorphism
it doesn't even fix Q
it's better if you try to play around on your own with these kinds of things to see, like does f(ab)=f(a)f(b) and f(a+b)=f(a)+f(b)
if $a,b$ are elements of a group, is $a^n = b^n = e \implies (ab)^n = e$ always true?
xdres
No,Take a=(1 2 3),b=(2 3 4), ab=(1 2) (3 4) in group S_5
ty 😃
'rings are groups' isn't as bad as 'groups are sets' because the first operation is a massive gamechanger; the second thingy is more of the same
that said they're both correct, more or less
thonk?
rings are very very very different from groups
it is as bad as groups are sets
the things you care in rings is different from the things you care in groups
also different from what you care in sets
meh
groups and rings both have structure, at least
both have operations and symbol-shuffling
But having 2 operations is an important difference
yes ofc
Also the additive group of a ring must be abelian while general groups are usually not abelian, abelian group theory is actually pretty boring
but not as different as groups and sets imo
It's a theorem that for any distinct m, n, r there is a group with an element x of order m, y of order n, and |xy| = r
in general, it's very false
i feel like
ah, finally, found a counterexample
wait
yeah
consider GL2(R), i think that's the notation
[0, 1; 1, 0] has order 2
[1, 0; 0, -1] has order 2
their product is [0 -1; 1, 0] i believe, which has order 4
in general i think it's only true for abelian groups
Sometimes a weaker law holds, like $(ab)^n = a^n b^n [a, b]^{\frac{n(n+1)}{2}}.$
benedictusnoctis
ah, i've never heard of that one
It should be (n-1)
Rings are essentially monoids acting on abelian groups, right?
Is there a way to formalize this notion?
If we have an abelian group A, we can also regard it as a monoid, as we can End A. Then if f : A -> End A is a monoid homomorphism, we can define an operation * that distributes over addition by a * b = f(a)(b).
But A is equipped with a different monoid structure...
@stoic rose thanks, so basically if I is an ideal, we have rad(I) is prime iff Z(I) is irreducible
also i was not aware Z(I)=Z(rad(I)) but yeah i get why it's true
i prefer this because given any subset of polynomials T we can figure out whether Z(T) is irreducible by just taking the ideal generated by it, and then it's radical
Yep exactly
And the Nullstellensatz states that there is actually a perfect one-to-one correspondence between varieties in A^n and radical ideals, so for example two ideals with different radicals will yield different varieties
i can't believe i missed this tysm
should be algebraic sets and radical ideals but yeah
or actually there is one between varieties and prime ideals
If your definition of varieties requires irreducible then yes
There are varying definitions for varieties 
A British mathematician was giving a talk in Grothendieck's seminar in Paris. He started "Let X be a variety...". This caused some talking among the students sitting in the back, who were asking each other "What's a variety?". J.-P. Serre, sitting in the front row, turns around a bit annoyed and says "Integral scheme of finite type over a field".
I think we also assumed separated in my class
Right looking at wikipedia it seems like most definitions of variety include irreducible
yeah I've never seen the integral assumption dropped
which book?
Milne's Algebraic groups
Probably because you can often have nonconnected algebraic groups
ig you only need reduced to make all the algebraic groups theorems work
More precisely he asks for geometrically reduced
hmm
also by "all the algebraic groups theorems" I meant Cartier's thm on smoothness 
that's the only one I really know
I think stacks project, hartshorne and mumford do
I don't know much either, I just started to read that
cool
I will probably learn Lie stuff before I try to learn algebraic groups
I made a mistake not taking the lie groups course last year 😦
I am personnaly more of an algebraist than an analyst so I prefer to dive directly into algebraic groups 
that's fair
it's just that I've been told a lot of the ideas are motivated by Lie theory 🤷
Yeah, they are pretty similar I think
Most Lie groups are also algebraic groups
And you can associate a Lie algebra to an algebraic group in a similar fashion as for a Lie group
And I think you can use this to classify semisimple algebraic groups from the classification of semisimple Lie algebras, similarly to what is done with Lie groups
There are some complications in char p but yeah you can do some stuff there too
Which is pretty cool
this is a dumb question but can someone please explain this concept to me:
for example, in the polynomial ring F_3[x] where F_3 is the finite field containing 3 elements 0, 1, and 2, we have that the polynomial x(x-1)(x-2) is = 0 regardless of what element in F_3 you plug in for x. but it is not the 0 polynomial
how is that even possible? i don’t know why that’s messing with my head so much
@broken vale They induce the same polynomial function from F_3 to F_3, but they are not the same polynomials. Remember that the definition of a polynomial is a finite formal sum of the form a_nx_n + ... + a_0
And the notion of equality in the set of formal sums of this form is that the coefficients are equal in for each power of x
that makes sense but it’s still a mind fuck
I actually had a related question which I was about to ask
Isn't F_3 a counterexample to this
what is k^n? direct sum of n copies of a field k?
what does it mean for a subset to be irreducible
wait wdym
I(Z(0)) contains the polynomial x(x-1)(x-2), but this would contradict the fact that I(Z(0)) would have to be prime using the theorem
i have a lot of questions before i can try to help
It's okay. There are others here
i want to try though.
are we considering these questions in polynomial ring k^n[x]?
wait why does I(Z(0)) contain x(x-1)(x-2)
Because Z(0) = F_3 and that polynomial disappears on all elements of F_3
this is confusing but polynomials are not defined by their values at each point
uhhh
so here we only look at F3[x]
you can have a nonzero polynomial whose value at every point are all 0
but still be nonzero
bizarre but yeah i understand
oops this analogy doesnt quite work lol
but the idea is you cant just look at the values of polynomial at every point to figure what it is
kinda not what you are used to
wait is this related to my question or his?
mine i think
Okay cool
this also I(Z(0)) is just 0
does this apply to Z[x]?
Why is I(Z(0)) = 0?
Isn't it defined as all polynomials disappearing on the set Z(0) = F_3?
it doesnt cuz you can figure out what the polynomial is from the values on integers with classical methods
oh hm
lemme uh
open up sage for a moment
if two polynomial in Z_n[x] are equal (meaning equivalent mod n), then are all of their coefficients equivalent mod n?
nope
Why do you need sage for it lol?
x^2+1 has no roots
construct the polynomial product (x-i) over all i in the ring
you found a polynomial that is everywhere 0 and nonzero itself
yes but
I don't think we need to assume that
Here is the proof of this theorem
and it doesn't use algebraically closed
i’m saying that if the polynomials p(x) and q(x) are “equivalent mod n” does that just mean that “all their coefficients are equivalent mod n”? or does it mean something else
^ that’s last question then i stop interrupting i promise
i feel it needs algebraic closure🤔
coefficients equivalent
This confused me
Because it treats A_{F_3} as an affine space
Which it isn't because F_3 is reducible
Related to the fact the centralizer of a product of group subsets is the intersection of the respective centralizers, looking at those products which are the entire group-- as well as the fact that the centralizer of a subset is the centralizer of the subgroup generated by that subset-- we can reduce the problem of computing the center of any given group to taking the intersection of centralizers of convenient choices of subgroups on the "lower end" of the lattice of subgroups
Why does this concept smell very much like that of algebraic sets? Like why are the properties all basically the same except we work with zero-locii and ideals?
Hello my people. I have a particular issue I can't seem to find a lot of resources for, since this seems to be pretty specific. If anyone can help me that's be greatly appreciated!
So this is about the approach used by Rotman's book regarding the extension problem on groups. My question is the following:
Given data $(Q,K,\theta)$ and a group $G$ which is a semidirect product, if $G$ satisfies the data, is it necessarily a semidirect product of $K$ by $Q$?
bennycunha97
I am pretty confident it is (since there's a homework question I'm trying to solve now which I think implies that)
If I can prove that I have a proof for the HW question but that step is eluding me. If possible I'd prefer hints or observations instead of a straight proof because I don't think it'd be fair if anyone does my homework 😂
@bronze trench What do you mean by "G is a semidirect product" and "G satisifies the data"
ok I think this is quite specific which is also giving me trouble. The first part means that there are a normal subgroup A of G and a subgroup B of G such that
$G= A \rtimes B$
bennycunha97
I think he means Q is normal in G and Q inter K={e},G=QK and thetha is a homomorphism of K into Aut(Q)
Every group is a semidirect product of the trivial group by itself
So this condition is vacuous
hm, something's going on because I'm pretty sure the last part is false in general without some assumption then
either he means G is a non trivial semidirect product or he means that it's already a semidirect product of K by Q and I don't need to prove that part. It's a bit ambiguous, I think I'll ask the prof
Can you show me the exact question?
if I can assume that the thing just feels wrong, that makes the rest of the problem pretty easy and my prof is not one to make easy HW questions lol
yep just a sec
I'll get the needed definitions if you want me to. I'm still in (i)
Yeah what does it mean to realize the data?
but point is, any 2 semidirect products of K by Q realising the theta are equivalent and that's no hard so I don't think I can assume already that the thing is indeed a semidirect product of K by Q right from the start. I'll get those definitions, 1 sec
I would guess it just means that G is a semidirect product of Q by K with conjugation given by theta 
well not quite, then group cohomology comes in and the thing being a semidirect product means it's in the 0 class of the cohomology group
satisfying data is a bit more general and in general this is used to somehow classify group extensions
one of which is the semidirect product and is the "simplest" one
Hum I got to go I'll look at that later if I have time
ok thanks 🙂
update: my question is pointless, I'm dumb at interpreting things. We are in the particular case I mentioned, where the group is a semidirect product of K by Q
I just read the def and yeah that's what I was thinking
we had a definition for a semidirect product satisfying theta and this is still that, but saying it satisfies the data is the same
implicit in that "a semidirect product" is indeed K by Q 😛
yeah my prof just cleared that up for me
also I'm happy because his homework is usually really hard but he gave us a xmas gift this time and like half of it is kinda strightforward
I mean the other half is probably still near impossible but at least it's not all of it lol
he is really cool in giving marks tho, he makes things really hard but then is very lenient while giving the grades so it kinda evens out
and tbh I prefer that to easy assignments where he profs are nitpicking every detail
does every infinite group have to have a nontrivial subgroup?
it should, right?
because in order for an element not to generate a subgroup it has to generate the entire group
so every element is a generator? which just feels wrong, idk why
If an element has infinite order, you have a 'Z' in there
a more interesting problem is show that a group with only finitely many subgroups must be finite
What do you mean brofibration, those two things you said are the same thing :^)
well yeah, because it's true?
they're equivalent
perhaps I should've worded it better
If G has only finitely many subgroups, then G is a finite group
Oh wait were you making an ‘all groups are finite’ joke
Ok,Field Theory fun fact: Every field has a copy of Q(if infinite)or Z/pZ,(where p is the char of Field,if char is finite) as a subfield
Nah, I was just joking that the key in proving finitely many subgroups => finite is to realize that infinite order element means copy of Z
pretty much
you also need to look at the case where every element has finite order
just cover the group using cyclic subgroups
Nice. Is there a "topological" way to think about this result?
Topology lol
?
I mean it says that an infinite degree cover has an intermediate (in sufficiently nice circumstances) right?
Unfortunately I am unfamiliar with covering spaces.
If we partition the group G into equivalence classes, where two elements are equivalent iff they generate the same cyclic subgroup, then we get a set G/~ which we can naturally preorder by saying a <= b iff the cyclic group generated by a is contained in that gen. by b.
We can then endow G/~ with Alexandrov topology (open sets are upper sets) to see what happens..
Since G has finitely many subgroups, G/~ must be finite, and as Chmonkey said every element must then have a finite order, so we get nothing from making G/~ into a topological space at all.
Isn't G/~ just the set of cyclic subgroups?
Yeah!
A polynomial in Z[x] can be reducible mod p for every prime p, but not in Z. The minimal degree for a counterexample is 4. Any idea why?
I think it should be obvious (for example because reducibility = having a root for deg < 4)
For a quadratic to be counterexample, it must have no root, so the discriminant D is not a square, and we can find a prime p for which D is not a quadratic residue.
Let f be a nonconstant integer polynomial. Then lim n to infinity f(n) = ±infinity, so for some sufficiently large N we have |f(N)| > 1. In particular f(N) has a prime factor p. Then f(x) has a root mod p, namely N. This proves that any nonconstant integer polynomial has a root mod some prime
polynomials of degree 2 or 3 over a field are reducible iff they have a root
(you don't really need nonconstant here, f just needs to not be constantly ±1)
It really is obvious!
Err wait I think I flipped around your question in my head
You wanted to see why there's no irreducible polynomial over Z which is reducible mod all primes
I should know better than to do number theory 😓
Same here.
This is a galois theory explanation but you can consider an irreducible polynomial f(x) in Z[x] which has galois group Z/2Z x Z/2Z over Q
the galois group of f(x) mod p must be 1) a subgroup of Z/2Z x Z/2Z and 2) cyclic
so therefore for every prime p it must have size smaller than 4 and therefore the polynomial is reducible mod p
@cyan marten
also @latent anvil if you're curious
sorry if I misinterpreted the problem
We want to show if a polynomial f is at most cubic, and is reducible mod every prime, then it is reducible in Z. I can't follow your example.
oh sorry my example was giving an infinite class of examples of polynomials of degree 4 which are irreducible over Z but reducible mod every prime
which isn't what you wanted
Interesting!


