#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Β· Page 536 of 407
you should give an example instead of doing this complicated symbol pushing lol
you know
two actual matrices from those groups
rings without unity π€’
lol, ya, you can often just construct matrices with 0s and 1s (which are in every field)
to show that it doesn't work
i think that the GL(2, Z_2) is really trying to push that point lmao
no, use pi_1(RP^2)
:chad:
Prove that if $H$ is an abelian subgroup of a group $G$ then $\langle H, Z(G)\rangle$ is abelian.
PorosInMyAshe
why am I so hardstuck on this
what do < > mean?
subgroup generated by the stuff inside
i.e. smallest subgroup containing H and Z(G)
Let x be an element of the group, the homomorphism f_x (y)=xyx^-1 is identity on the generators hence is identity on the whole group
@chilly ocean what's wrong?
wait, why is it identity on the generators, if x is in the group, but is neither in Z(G) or H, then is xyx^{-1} still guaranteed to be y
it's easier if you give an explicit description of the group
I mean ya
as finite products of elements in any of the groups
it already intuitively feels right, because I checked with some test groups, but I just can't prove it
elements in H commute with elements in H and elements in Z(G)
elements in Z(G) commute with everything
ya, but if x is an element that's in the group, but not in H or Z(G), then it's not guaranteed to commute with elements of H
that's where I'm stuck
why's that matter
it can be written as a product of elements in H and Z(G)
permute one element in the product at a time
ah I see, thanks
Is $(R_1 \times R_2)/I \cong I$ ? note $I= {(0_R, r): r \in R_{2} }$ and $R_1 \times R_2$ is the product of two rings
For a more rigorous proof, you can just look at the center of <H, C(G)>, prove that it contains H and C(G), and since it's a group it must be the whole <H,C(G)>
Zophike1
Shouldn't it be R_1?
Take the homomorphism pi(x,y)=x from R1 x R2 to R1
Your I is the kernel
ahhh makes sense thanks
apply the first isomorphism theorem
Why did grothendiek all Serre a bastard for including computations? π’
bc grothendieck sucks at computations and it was an friendly "bastard"
@old lava i mean literally all your elements in <H, Z(G)> are made up of things that commute with each other
the parts in H commute with each other, and the parts in Z commute with everything
that's not how it works, you can have elements in <H, Z(G)> that are not part of H or Z(G)
you have to prove those rest commute too
which was easy enough, I was just brainfarting for a while
I mean that is kind of how it works lol
anything in <H, Z(G)> is built up of pieces which all commute with each other
so take two such things, and they together are also built up of pieces which all commute with each other
ya, that's what I used at the end
I was referring to
the parts in H commute with each other, and the parts in Z commute with everything
which doesn't account for every element in <H, Z(G)>
I think by "parts" he meant "parts of every element"
oh I guess ya then it makes sense
I took it to mean the part of the subgroup that is in H, and the part of the subgroup that is in Z(G)
no
your elements of <H, Z> are products of things in H and Z, and all those things commute with each other
that's what i meant
ya, that's what I ended up using
π
i read that if every element of a group has order 2, then it's a direct sum of copies Z/2Z
which is the same as the direct product if the group is finite, but not the same when it's infinite
my question is why is an infinite group of that form necessarily isomorphic to the direct sum rather than the direct product?
the direct product of infinitely many copies of Z/2Z does satisfy that property
but it also happens to be isomorphic to a direct sum of (even more) copies of Z/2Z
every direct product of some number of (possibly infinitely) many copies of Z/2Z is isomorphic to some direct sum of (possibly more) copies of Z/2Z
but the reverse isn't true
so "direct sum" is more general
Wait what? How is that true?
Iβm not sure what youβd map to the elements in a direct product which have infinitely many non-zero stuff
Thinking
Thinking
why do your basis elements have to have only finitely many nonzero entries?
I meant what do you map to those from a direct sum
assuming AoC all vector spaces over all fields have a basis
π₯΄
I'm not sure what your point is, I'm not saying that a countable direct product of Z/2Z is isomorphic to a countable direct sum of Z/2Z
I don't get your question then
I just thought maybe there was some explicit construction of an isomorphism
And I couldnβt see how tf youβd make that
no
Whack
yh im finding it hard to intuitively picture e.g. how an uncountable direct sum is isomorphic to a countable direct product
so basic question
a^n = e for any group
i get the concept but not so sure of the proof
there must be a k <= n such that a^n = e otherwise too many elements in G
n is?
then im a bit lost from there
the order of the group?
yes
yes
yes
Im ok with the proof for that
ive done it, but dunno why this is weird
ah
a subgroup must divide n
yes
so we have a group {a,a^2,....a^n}
but its not a group unless it has an e
and if you add the e then the order is n+1
so some a^k = e
i dunno does this make sense
yea im not sure
hint: the order of a subgroup divides n, and as you mentioned, for some k, a^k = e
that is it pretty much
if you can justify from the first fact that k divides n
thats your proof
since that means kb = n for some integer b, so we can just write a^k * a^k * a^k * ... * a^k, b times
which is e * e * e * ... * e
and is also a^n
so you already know that there exists a k <= n with a^k = e, so now prove that k divides n
hint: note that {a, a^2, a^3, ... a^k} is a subgroup
(do you see why?)
then observe that this subgroup has k elements and apply lagrange's.
ok i see
it doesnt matter which element in the subgroup a^k = e holds for
i mean
i'm taking k to be the least element such that a^k = e
you justified that there must be some such k
since otherwise {e, a^1, a^2, ... a^n} are all distinct and our group has "too many elements"
so let k be the smallest number (1 <= k <= n) with a^k = e
then we can consider the subset {a, a^2, a^3, ... a^k}
can you see why this is a subgroup?
what would the identity be? what would inverses be? how do we know associativity holds?
no, we don't necessarily know k = n
we picked k to be some element that might be smaller than n
i dont know what examples of groups you've seen before but
yes
if you're familiar with the dihedral group of the triangle
it has 6 elements, but the element corresponding to one rotation (call it r) has order 3
that is to say, r^3 = e
im not sure what the inverses would be , but the identity must be a^k and by normal integer multiplication associativity holds
wdym "normal integer multiplication"?
the elements of the group might not be integers
the answer is that it inherits associativity from the parent group
yeah i guess i mean the exponentiation
ah ok right
and every a^x, a^y is from the parent group
anyway, as for inverses
note that our identity is a^k
so for example, the inverse of a^2 would be
a^(k-2)
since a^2 * a^(k-2) = a^k = e
yeah
well, you're proving this for an arbitrary group, so it could be any group
[well, any finite group]
the point is that, no matter what group you take, if a^k = e
then {a^1, a^2, a^3, ... a^k} is a subgroup
by our above justifications
uh
thats what i dont understand really
okay lets say k = 7
true i should just spend some time on this and come back
then a^k = a^7, right?
and a^(k-2) = a^5
now we know this must be in the parent group
since if a^5 isnt in the parent group
that means we can multiply a by itself
over and over
lol ok
and eventually get something that ISNT in the group
which violates closure
a should be in the group, so a*a = a^2 is also in teh group
hence a^2 * a = a^3 is also in the group
and so on
all the way up till a^k (and beyond, in fact; this applies for ANY integer)
ah ok theres just inverses because a^k = e
so a^(k-2) is certainly in the group
so when you reach a^k then it is the identity
a
?
ok
so it just loops
alright
understanding the inverses helps a lot
ok
yes i havent encountered any other finite fields other than integers mod n
ok but then yes you show {e,a,a^2....a^k} is a subgroup
and so it divides G
yes right
yea i was thinking that
i guess they cancel each other out since a^k = e
by set theory laws
note that we're implicitly noting that {e, a, a^2, ..., a^(k-1)} has k elements
which is "obvious" but worth mentioning
since thats what tells us that k divides n (combined with lagrange's theorem)
ah
yes that is also a missing link
mind readers!
im not sure
so yeah a^k = a^ka^m
so a^m must be a^k s inverse
and so a^k = e?
is it not equal to (a^k)(a^m)
ok yes
anyway, we know a^n = a^km = (a^k)^m = a^k * a^k * a^k * ... * a^k
yeah i see that
lol yes sorry
remember that we started this argument by letting a^k = e
so a^n = a^k * a^k * ... * a^k = e * e * ... * e
and of course if we multiply the identity by itself a bunch of times
its still the identity
so a^n = e
so then a^n = eee m times which is = e
and that concludes the proof
soz weird * thing there
ok thank you sorry for the long procedure
but yeah it makes complete sense, it isnt just a method, so tis great thank you
Is it just me but this question doesnβt make sense
seems to make sense to me since it's just modding integers
it's a homomorphism, since addition and multiplication are mapped onto just fine, but it's not bijective so it's not an isomorphism
I'm probably being too lenient in my interpretation since multiplication of elements will mix Z with Z_6 so I'm figuring they're both meant to be in Z_6
that, or it's just not a homomorphism then lol
I think it's clear that it should just say "for all a + bi in Z[i]"
Do the usual thing(f(a)=f(b) should imply a=b)
would it be like be f (a + b i) = f(c +di) ?
Yes
Can anyone help me? All I know is that an order is the lcm of lenghts of the cycles
Like, do u need to find all the elements of s17...? or what π
so, cycles can have length 2 through 17
oh wait would it be 72 then?
wait
uh would i take the prime factorization of the answer choices?
cause if so 65/72 have factorizations using 2-17 π
but you have only 17 letters
well, let me ask u this, knowing that the order is the lcm of the length of cycles, how would you construct an element of order 72 for instance
wouldn't the lcm of those lengths be 6 then?
ohhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
i was multiplying them π
wait would it be 65? like a 5 cycle and 13 cycle
the lcm of 5 and 13 is 65, yes
Do ||1-8cycle and 1-9 cycle|| for 72
you have to make sure the cycles you find can be taken to be disjoint tho too
the order of a product of disjoint cycles is the lcm of their lengths, not just any cycles
wait this might be a dumb question but s17 has 17 elements right? so then could it be 5 and 13 since they add up to 18?
im going to think about the disjoin part a bit more πͺ
nono S17 has 17! elements
okay okay thats what it thot but just double checking :D hehe
but cycles are made by choosing elements from {1,2,...,17}
so, for example (1 2 3)(3 4 5) are not disjoint cycles while (1 2 3)(4 8 7) are
hm okay so if u have a 5 cycle and 13 cycle since they would have 18 nums total and theres only 17 nums to choose from (1-17), they wouldnt be disjoint?
right, they can't be disjoint
ooo interesting so then that means it cant be 65 right since the lcm isnt the order? so the answer would be none of these options?
No
wiat what 
Consider (1 2 3...8)(9 10 11... 17)
the lengths of the cycles are 8 and 9 OH
and the lcm is 72
and they are disjoin
ohhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
In general if you can write n=lcm(m1,m2...mk) such that m1+m2+...mk<=a then there is an element of order n is S_a
i shall write that in my notes tysm @carmine fossil @thorn delta π₯Ί π
npnp
Do you understand why that works?
yes i think so cause the lcm is the order and if the sum <= # elements then they are disjoint?
Yes
π
oops have another question π
What I've got so far is:
(a) if u have 1-cycle, 2-cycle, 3-cycle, 5-cycle then you can get order 30
(b) order of u70 = phi 70 = 24
(c) 26
So so far a is the biggest, but idk how to check (d)?
cycles with even length are odd and cycles with odd length are even
wdym by that? all i know is that a is the alternating group by idk hwo to check order
ehh so, there might be an easier way, but you know that a permutation is in the alternating group if it is even, i.e. a product of an even number of transpositions.
take a permutation like (1 2 3). This is an even permutation since (1 2 3) = (1 3)(1 2). Now, starting from (1 2 3), you can make a permutation like (1 2 3 4) by applying the transposition (1 4) on the left: (1 2 3 4) = (1 4)(1 2 3). So (1 2 3 4) must be an odd permutation. It follows from induction that cycles of even length are odd while cycles of odd length are even
So the point of this suggestion is to have a way to determine which products of disjoint cycles belong to A_12, so u can compute orders easily
ah okay that makes sense, so basically the alternating group can only use cycles with an odd number of values? so having a 1-cycle, 2-cycle, 3-cycle, 5-cycle like in (a) won't work, but having a 1-cycle,3-cycle,7-cycle would work? which in that case the answer would be (a)?
the alternating group can only use cycles with an odd number of values?
cycles of odd length are even, yes, but you also have that the product of two odd permutations is even. For example, (1 2 3 4)(5 6 7 8) is even, even though its cycle components are odd permutations
idk if its clear but that's true because (1 2 3 4) is a product of a number of odd number of transpositions and (5 6 7 8) is a product of an odd number of transpositions, and odd + odd = even.
hm so having 2 6-cycles would fall under a_12? and yeah i think it makes sense ty for the explanation :D
hm so having 2 6-cycles would fall under a_12?
ye, but to be clear, two disjoint 6 cycles wouldn't have order 36
ye since they're not relativley prime correct?
okay great tysm you've been so helpful π₯Ί π
npnp
this should be a typo right? There's only 16 elements in D16, and so there possibly can't be 16 such elements
@old lava
watch out
there's two different conventions for Dn
some ppl use Dn to mean the dihedral group with n elements
and some ppl use Dn to mean the dihedral group of an n-gon
lmaoo, maybe
The answer is (b) but I'm not exactly sure how/why? I see that the factorization of 385=5711 so i assume it has something to do with sharing common factors but not exaclty sure
also idk how to check (a) (c) and (e)
order arguments cut through half of these
do you know lagrange's?
being explicit, consider the subgroup of the numbers of the form 5i in Z385
like if u have a finite group , the size of a subgroup divides the size of the group?
yeah
wdym by this? sorry π
wait just to back up for two groups to be isomorphic the size of the groups have to be the same correct?
isnt the size of s6 , 6! or is that the formula for another group
im so sorry can u pls explain why bc like it says u can take any subgroup of z385 no?
yeah
but all the subgroups of z385 are gonna be smaller than 720
so it's not gonna work
s6 does not fit in z385
been there done that
okay i def see how that is gone
anyway c is the one that's a little interesting bc 35 does divide 385
but now considering the orders of the elements not the orders of the groups it does not work
if you see why cool, if not ask
im sorry but i don't see why, im not v clear on that last half?
ok so for things to be isomorphic all the orders of the elements have to be equal
like taking any element in one there's an element in the other with the same order
because intuitively like isomorphism means all the elements behave the same in both groups
okay so for isomoprhism it has to 1. have same number elements and 2. those elemnts have to have the same order?
yes i think so, like surjective and bijection?
haha π
okay but like in a homomorphism it's like
so call the homomorphism f: (G, *) -> (H, #)
then for any a, b in G, f(a*b) = f(a)#f(b)
Dumb question is the units of z mod n its multiplicative inverse?
this is the definition of a homomorphism, it basically says that elements act the same way whether mapped or not mapped
so it's like they act the same way in both groups
and then the bijectivity says the two groups are equal sizes
so they're basically actually the same group
@astral galleon what is "its" here?
ah okay that makes more sense i just wrote that down in my notes haha π ty
so anyway yeah
it's pretty easy to show from all of that vagueness that if you have an element with order n in G, then when you map it it has to have order n in H
and in particular if you have an element with order m in H and no elements with order m in G then G and H cannot be isomorphic
@scarlet estuary to be clear I'm asking that if the units of z mod n are the multiplicative inverse of the group
and then you just have like
so what do you notice about orders in z35
and in u35
how does a group have a multiplicative inverse?
Its elements cancel out and equal 1
@viscid pewter just give me a few min to comprehend pls haha
one of us is confused by definitions here
groups themselves dont have inverses
elements of a group do
Ahh okay
moreover, multiplicative inverses are unique; each element will be the inverse of precisely one element
(sometimes elements are inverses of themselves, such as the identity being its own inverse)
Ahh okay
anyway, in the multiplicative group of integers modulo n, the inverse of an element a is an element b such that ab = 1 (mod n)
Oh so you just solve it like a linear equation
well its a modular congruence
Ok makes sense so would the solutions be the same as the units of z mod n ?
as an example, $(\bZ/8\bZ)^\times = {1, 3, 5, 7}$ under $\cdot$
Chillin' with Quillen
so the inverse of $3$ is the number (from this set) such that $3 \cdot x = 1\pmod{8}$
Chillin' with Quillen
Ahhh ok so my earlier question was correct
and in fact every element of this group is its own inverse
wait do you mean z15?
ah yes i skipped a step there
so z15 can't be in z385 bc it doesn't divide
we're considering c rn
u35
[but this doesnt necessarily hold for every (Z/nZ)*]
if it's isomorphic to subgroup of z385
[consider, say, (Z/9Z)*]
[it's good practice to determine its elements and the inverses thereof]
then it's isomorphic to z35 in z385, bc all the subgroups of a cyclic group are cyclic intuitively and rigorously, and isomorphism means the orders have to be the same
wait are you saying u35 is cyclic? bc i thot it wasn't? or am i like way off base
they can't?
@scarlet estuary that makes sense
i'm saying if it were isomorphic to a subgroup of z385 it would be isomorphic to a cyclic subgroup, as all subgroups of z385 are cyclic, and specifically z35 because the sizes have to be the same
ah okay that makse sense! and u121 isnt cyclic as well correct? which leaves only b
@scarlet estuary you didnt answer my earlier question
sure, that's one way to do it
so what i did was i considered the orders of the elements explicitly
so in z35 all the elements have order 34, right? apart from 0
but in u35, very easily like 34^2 == (-1)^2 == 1
so order 2
contradiction, right?
yes since the orders have to match up for it to be homomorphic right?
yes
that makes way more sense now, tysm!!!
np
If you have an alternating group, such as a_23, and you have a 2 cycle, 4 cycle, and 17 cycle, what would the order be? would it be 4*17? idk since theyre not all relatively prime
wdym? like if u have (1,2)(3,4,5,6)(7,...23)
Oh you meant the product of them sure
But if they arenβt disjoint then youβre boned
Anyway if you have disjoint cycles the order is the lcm of lengths of the cycles
Since they commute
So like in this case(abc)^n = a^nb^nc^n
So you need the smallest n for which all of them are e which is just the lcm of their orders = length of cycles
This is kind of unique to symmetric groups this kind of thing isnβt true in a general group
that makes sense ty for the info!!!
Idk what n it would be? The answer is true?
I checked all cyclic groups up to u19 and their orders
but i cant find two ajdacent numberes that have the same size
Do you know what the size of U_n is in general?
Donβt quote me, but I feel like it should be impossible
But im@not a number theory guy
I just feel like the sizes literally couldnβt line up
But idk
I have tried to do it by an argument about size of Un, and not that my number theory is great, but it doesn't seem obvious
Idk it just seems really odd...
That's what I thought and like i even looked at the table of euler totients and i cant find one that works
But my teacher sent me the answer key (since these are practice exams) and he said it was true
but he also said that there might be an error π
Okay so apparently totient(15) = totient(16)
dont the groups have to be cyclic?
Totient(3) = totient(4) yeah?
yeah but that doesn't mean they are isomorphic
But also I think U15 is cyclic and U16 is not, or maybe the other way around
i dont think either of them are cyclic
Sure
Oh
16 is
I think U_p and U_(2p) are isomorphic
wait isnt it 2,4,p^a,2p^a are cyclic
Thereβs a classification for when you have a primitive root
so then how is 16 cyclic
16 is not cyclic
Ah I got them confused, I thought it is 2^n that is cyclic
wait do the groups hvae to be cyclic in order for them to be isomorphic?
Isnβt 16 = 2^4
Yeah but remember it's number theory and 2 is weird
Oh shit right
But is it weird in which direction? This is hard for me to memorize
If I remember correctly $U(2^p)=C_2\times C_{2^{p-2}}$
There are infinitely many for which they agree
Whoever
oh wait and theyre both cyclic right
Oh nice
oopsie π
Also
thank you
Like I said
also is this true or false: do groups have to be cyclic in order for them to be isomorphic?
Yeah whoever
Ah I'm so sorry
I feel like there's no good way to check the others
since sadly 3,4 are the only "1 away" primes
I mean
wait
kill me
4 is the first non-prime prime
Wait
am I Grothendieck 
Lol.
i don't think so
(Z/104Z)*
β
(Z/8Z)* Γ (Z/13Z)*
β
(Z/3Z)* Γ (Z/3Z)* Γ (Z/13Z)*
β
Z/2Z Γ Z/2Z Γ Z/12Z
β
Z/2Z Γ Z/2Z Γ Z/3Z Γ Z/4Z
(Z/105Z)*
β
(Z/3Z)* Γ (Z/5Z)* Γ (Z/7Z)*
β
Z/2Z Γ Z/4Z Γ Z/6Z
β
Z/2Z Γ Z/2Z Γ Z/3Z Γ Z/4Z
It looks like just applying Chinese Remainder Theorem
Or really, the fact that the group of units of G x H is the products of the group of units in both factors
I donβt see how you go from (Z/8Z)^* to (Z/3Z)^* x (Z/3Z)^* though
phi(8) = phi(3)*phi(3), and both are isomorphic to the klein group
probably like narrow it down to phi(n)=phi(n+1)
so we can write some decently efficient code (ofc can improve computing phi(n) but wtv:
sage: for i in range(1,1000):
....: if euler_phi(i)==euler_phi(i+1):
....: #print(i)
....: if Zmod(i).unit_group().is_isomorphic(Zmod(i+1).unit_group()):
....: print(i)
....:
1
3
15
104
495
975
the first instance that the first condition is satisfied but not the second is 164
the centralizer of g in G in is the set of elements in G that commute with g
that's the thing.
@thorn delta what you just defined is the Center of a group
which is different than a Centralizer
nope. the center is the set of elements of G which commute with every other element of the group. not just g
and it conflicts with what u told me
no, it doesn't
the centraliser of A in G is the set of all elements g in G that commute with every element a in A
the center would be C_G(G)
No it doesnβt, A is just {g} here
for example
the center is the centraliser of G in G
right
we good?
but centralizer doesn't talk about commutativity
it's equivalent
it talks about conjugates
Um this shouldnβt be a surprise if youβve discussed normal subgroups
if the conjugate of a with g is a again, g commutes with a
woah
if the conjugate of a with g is a again, g commutes with a
woah
no one told me that
ok
why do you think we care about normal subgroups 
Are you learning on your own
:P
yea
i love jumping in head-first as much as anyone
but it really is worth going through all the theorems related to normal subgroups
ya
ok
I'm learning abstract algebra on my own as well right now, but even if it seems really boring, I did all the intro chapters
list me theorems about normal subgroups
where they throw a million definitions
there we go
for normal subgroups
that's some
ok any more theorems
there's the homomorphism thing
there's a million theorems lol
ik that 1 too
lol itsa joke!!!! a pun
I do be agreeing with nami here
IT''S CONJUGATION!!! OF COURSE DUH
in abstract algebra when gag^-1 = a
but then i made it into a pun
DO I REALLY HAVE TO EXPLAIN THE JOKE 4 U
yea mathbath gets it he thinks it's funny β€οΈ

I still don't get why it's funny

How do you go about showing a group of order n is simple or not
when it's possible to do so
for n!=4 it is. The proof is not simple though
lol
what is A_n?
alternating
avocado's number
lel
So for example, I have a group of order 1722 and a question says it's not simple. I think it has to do with the prime factors 1722 = 2 * 3 * 7 * 41, but idk what exactly it is
not simple is often easier
You use Sylow
QED
It has a normal Sylow 41
This is basically how you approach a lot of these
At least those which will be assigned
Or I guess theoretically it could have 42 Sylow 41βs
Lol probably not
You have nothing you could do
alright, thanks I'll look it up
With a ton of effort you could probably prove the stuff that Sylow would imply
Why do you ask?
Is this assigned in a class?
I find it unbelievable youβd be assigned something that large without knowing Sylow
And if youβre just doing random problems you should just learn enough group theory to naturally get to Sylow
yea it's part of a class
it's a homework that we were assigned but maybe we haven't got to that point yet
yeah these types of problems are like
the most stereotypical and computational questions in a group theory course
in that they are very rote and basically always rely on the sylow theorems
LHC2012, do you go to UCLA by any chance
yea can we please not write anymore hints on the 1722 thing
I apologize for this. Our professor did not write that we cannot ask others online, but I should not have asked before consulting him.
understandable; i dont think the help you got here would be much different from what you'd get with a quick google search honestly
so its probably not a big deal
but for the time being, yeah, let's drop this questioning
bdobba
Struggling with this one
bdobba
You can try to prove that G has a normal subgroup of index 2. Consider the group as permutation group over the elements (Cayley). Let there be an element a of order 2 (pair elements and their inverse, then identity pairs itself, but total number of elements is even OR cauchy), then a corresponds to an odd permutation because a has 3*7*41 transpositions. Hence, consider the set of elements that correspond to even permutations. Clearly, it's a subgroup of index 2.
Can anyone help explain what I've got to do to answer this question. "Describe the classification of all irreducible unitary finite dimensional representations of the simple lie algebra su(3) of the lie group SU(3)". I understand and know the irreducible representations and classification theorems (Dynkin diagrams etc) but not sure what exactly this question is asking me to do
Lmao it took like 2 pages of proofs to prove sylow stuff, and it wasnt just computationally hard, would be impressive to independently prove sylow stuff
<@&286206848099549185>
This is true in any abelian category
Not sure how categorical the stuff you know is, but you could show they preserve limits and colimits respectively
determine if the polynomial is irreducible $x^4 +2x^2+1$ in $Q$
SUNSHINE
No
You could try making a substitution and then applying t but I donβt imagine it will work
should i do rational root test?
that won't be enough either
it could have no rational roots but factor into two irreducible quadratics
notice it's a quadratic in y=x^2 and think about that
@leaden finch
aight
ty ty
Limits are next on my list
I was wondering if there was a simple way to show that left adjoints preserve cokernels but perhaps not
Guess you can't really avoid category theory in homological algebra
I think
You can probably do it manually
But I imagine the proof is actually just doing a special case of preserving limits and colimits
I think?
So i feel like itβs more fruitful to just prove the general result
I'm stuck on this
so I know by trichotomy that either 0 <= 1 or 1 <= 0
I proved that if 1 <= 0 then we have a trivial ring
so now I'm stuck on this other case
how do we know that there is such an element
that infinity element is the supremum right?
yes
how do we know it's in the ring?
Cause I had an original proof that assumed that
but we can't assume that
is that not what they're saying, every subset has a supremum?
R is a subset of R
yes
im pretty sure they're saying the supremum is in the ring, otherwise the statement doesnt really make sense (unless R is a sub-thing of something else)
I don't think they're saying that
okay, then what does 'has a supremum' mean?
or really, what is your definition of supremum
with all quantifiers
A supremum of a set A is an object s such that s >= a for all a in A
it may or may not be in A
what is this object s?
right, over here b lives in P
im pretty sure that's what they mean, unless the ring sits inside something else (and if the something else is just a set, then it is wrong)
is there any more context to this?
if not, then yes the supremum is in R
there is no more outside context
then the supremum is an element of R
Also your definition of supremum is wrong
Thatβs an upper bound
The supremum as they defined is also <= any other upper bound
oh I see
hi
im completing a hw problem if i post it here can someone please check if i am on the right track?
i completed as much as i know
if anyone can kindly check my work
ill make a donation if someone can please check my work
can someone please help me
something something financial transactions are looked down upon
i mean, idc about donations or wtv
for the nonempty part, just observe that $0 \in S$
LochverstΓ€rker
ahuh
Yo SUNSHINE what's up with the donation thing, did you always offer donations?
well i appreciate people's time i thought it would be kind to do that.
it's just kinda weird as it is finals season ya know
other than that is fine, just 'sloppy'
you don't state where your x's and y's and n's and w's are from
and then you need to show that the product of nonzero elements is nonzero
take two elements 3n, 3w from your set S
multiply them
then show that if the product is 0, one of the factors must be 0 as well
let me check
Yes for 39. The empty set doesn't belong to X*
yup, the empty sequence is the only invertible element in the free monoid on a set
what book is this? @barren sierra
thanks
do you want the rest of the notes?
no
it's an intro to proofs course
@main quiver
I'm not gonna send notes 1 cause it's just "this is what the for all symbol is. This is what => and <=> means" etc etc
this one does ;-;
from intro set theory to the construction of the reals
nice progression but it was hard
I have my final tomorrow evening ;-;
Would it not be easier to prove b and then use b to prove a?
If anyone here has a sec and wouldnt mind lending me a hand I would appreciate it. I know the formula is xNx^-1 for a normal subgroup but im not sure how to apply it.
all subgroups of ZxZ are normal as ZxZ is abelian
I think for this example my prof wants us to use the formula xNx^-1 cause we havent learned that all subgroups of abelian groups are normal
(a, b) is some arbitrary element in Z x Z, (a, b)^{-1} is (-a, -b)
(a, b)(2nx, 3my)(-a, -b) = (2nx, 3my)
since any arbitrary element acts on any element of the subgroup trivially
it's a normal subgroup
so for any subgroup N of an abelian group, for all x, xN = Nx, as for all n in N xn = nx
it's very short
thank you very much @old lava @viscid pewter
yeah you can view being normal as kind of being "locally abelian"
since xax^-1 = a is the same thing as saying xa = ax
obviously the catch is the quantifiers (ie where x, a are coming from)
but still
How can I compute the ideal in C[x,y] that is generated by x^{3}-y^{2} and x^{5}-y^{2}. C are the complex numbers
I want to know which polynomials are in the ideal and which are not.
Need to figure out dim C[x,y]/(x^{3}-y^{2},x^{5}-y^{2})
I guess every monomial is of the form x^a y^b, where a=0,1,2,3,4, and b=0,1, although more than this I cannot say
So, no more than dimension 10, and I guess it divides 10
I agree with that
I am not that good at algebra to know how to show if it is smaller than 10 though
I thought there is something about grobner bases, although tbh I don't know if they are relevant here
I think it should be exactly 10, but I'm not sure what the best way to show it is. Maybe you can argue that any polynomial in I cap C[x] has degree >= 5, so all of the x^i y^0 are linearly independent
I mean those two statements are equivalent
And similarly if you have a polynomial involving as its own term in I then the y degree should be >= 2
that's not exactly precise lol
solution: think hard about the degrees of elements of your ideal
Wouldnt that be center/ centralizer rather, because normal is like a weaker condition than being locally abelian
Uh
Usually all the texts I've seen just are more informal and just refer to it as S, the operation is either implied or stated somewhere, and not written again as (S, *)
Well if you know literally nothing about * itβs called a βmagmaβ
How would you describe to somebody what a ring/group/field is in English, rather than mathematically?
ya, using the dihedral and symmetric groups as examples lends itself nicely to explaining groups as symmetries
for rings and fields, I feel like you kinda have to go a bit into some math-y stuff
like polynomials at least
tbh it took me a long long time to buy the whole "groups are symmetries of stuff" thing
and dihedral groups did not help at all
I feel like dihedral groups are the second most basic symmetries possible (geometrically)
sure, but they just felt stupid when I started learning about them
reading about applications of groups helped me ig, and eventually I started to enjoy learning group theory for it's own sake
reading about stuff like this helped:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Particle_physics_and_representation_theory
i think the most natural perspective to approach groups/rings/fields from is as generalizations of Z
or Z/nZ
i had the exact opposite experience brof
It can also help to abstract from groups as elements sometimes
the symmetry thing really really helped
i mean maybe im weird, i hate working with like
specific groups
like i enjoyed reasoning about groups abstractly
but despised things like finding the sylow subgroups of blahblah
or determining the centre of bleurgh
fair enough
this was fun for me too, but just the same amount of fun as solving a super-contrived puzzle
i think i've said this on this server before
but when i finished group theory i knew 2 things:
- i wanted to spend the rest of my life doing algebra
- i absolutely did NOT want to spend it doing group theory
I wouldn't mind doing group theory
admittedly the theory of lie groups was a bit more compelling than finite groups
but still
I also remember reading an article on the SO(4) symmetry of the hydrogen atom, which was also super cool
I love groups
literally never have I been motivated by "groups are symmetries"
At a certain point I started thinking of groups far more in terms of how they act on things, which I guess you can say is some sort of symmetry but...
idk it doesn't feel very motivating to me
ye i found it as well by accident when trying to get lrl vector to qm xd
cool stuff
oh my god that's so annoying
the only time I liked those questions was when I had to use lattices to basically easily just look it up
this looks like a #linear-algebra question, depends on what beta is
oh yes linear algebra
is there a nice book to read on the development of abstract algebra?
kind of the story of axiomatic systems, why they were made, by whom, and how it developed etc.
my understanding is that the development of algebra happened mostly separately from the development of the axiomatic systems used to define things like groups, rings, etc... The latter is more a result of work done by the Bourbaki group
I don't know if there's a good book on algebra, but Dieudonne wrote a pretty good article on the history of algebraic geometry
Also, the introduction section of Kleiman's article on Picard schemes has ~15 pages of history, going from Bernoulli to Grothendieck
I guess some (a lot?) of group theory was developed for galois theory, although I think the formalization came after
Or more generally for the study of roots
Eg I think I recall that Lagrange came up with his theorem about order of subgroup divides order of groups while studying roots
the orginal form of Lagrange's theorem was something like if you had a polynomial in n-variables, say p(x_1, ..., x_n), then the number of different polynomials you can get by permuting the variables divides n!
the permutations which fix p is a subgroup of Sn
Might be a silly question but are the left-invariant vector fields of a Lie group precisely the generators of that group? I would think yes since they are both said to be the elements of the Lie algebra, but I can't figure out how to reconcile the two. Take for example U(1), it has a single left-invariant vector field β/βΞΈ but its generator is the imaginary unit i. How are these two the same (or how are they connected)?
I can't help but feel I'm getting a little bit ahead of myself when it comes to this stuff
It depends on how you represent your Lie group and the generators, but yeah, the left-invariant vector fields are in 1:1-correspondence with the generators, or the Lie algebra, if that is a familiar term to you
One way to see that is by noticing that a left-invariant vector field on a Lie group is fully determined by its value at the identity, since if you have the value at the identity, you can just extend the vector field to every other point by the left action. That's exactly what left-invariance means. So left-invariant vector fields are in 1:1-correspondence to the elements of the tangent space of the Lie group at the identity. But that's how people often define the Lie algebra of a Lie group. That's the space where the generators live
The generator of U(1) is equal to i if you think of U(1) as the circle in the complex plane. But of course, you could also view it as the circle in R^2, and then the vector i from the complex plane is precisely mapped to the vector (0,1), which is exactly β/βΞΈ at the identity
@rain tulip bepis
Ahhh brilliant. So it's just the vector field evaluated at the identity, and that characterises the whole vector field. That makes a lot of sense, thanks!
It is exactly that: group G is symmetries of space M <=> M is a representation of G
So you care very much about symmetries π
Yeah, I just donβt really see representations as symmetries at the moment lol
My AA introduction Exam ended >.<
Idk why they were obsessed with functions not easily irreducible
Let F be a field and F' be an algebraically closed field containing F. Take polynomials p(x),q(x) in F(x). If p(x) divides q(x) when both are seen as elements of F'[x] ,is it true p(x) divides q(x) in F[x]?
yes
there are several ways to prove it
one is is to work with q = pf and prove it term by term
another way is embed everything into F(t) and F'(t) and work over there
another way is that p divides q is the same thing as gcd(q,p) = p, and the gcd is computed by the euclidean algorithm, which never leaves F
isnt it direct cuz
p divides q -> exists k in F[x] q=pk
since k in F[x], k oso in F'[x]
I meant to ask if k exists in F'[x] is k in F[x],so it's not that direct
maybe I've made some kind of terrible mistake or not idk. We know q(x)=p(x)r(x) in F'(x) and we have q(x), p(x) in F(x) and let's suppose r(x) is not in F(x). But r(x) = q(x)/p(x) is in F(x). So we're pretty much done.
actually maybe I just said what a cute cat just said but more long winded lol
no, a cute cat assumed p divides q over F
you did this
oh she went backwards
there's a lot of these neat field extension results
if two matrices over F are similar of F', then they are similar over F
the nicest proof of that I know uses RCF
ig another way to do it is using the fact the field extensions are faithfully flat
random question, but when we have a group with a presentation G = <X | R>, we know that G is the image of the free group on X with kernel equal to the normal subgroup generated by R. About that normal subgroup: is the subgroup generated by R always normal, or do you generally have to take the normal closure to get the kernel of this map?
let G = < x, y | y>
the subgroup generated by 'y' of the free group on x and y is not normal
in particular, xyx^-1 is not in the subgroup generated by y
ah yea, okay. thanks
Please forgive for the crosspost (in the algebra and geometry channel), but I think itβs justified. A lot of people here have heard about the moduli and stacks course that Alper is running this winter. Here is a link to the course website, in particular note at the bottom heβs included a way to contact him if you would like to informally join. Many people have asked me about this, so hereβs the info: https://sites.math.washington.edu/~jarod/math582C.html
In particular I believe @sturdy marsh (I hope thatβs brofibration) and @fierce perch have asked me about this so hereβs that
Thanks!
Wow the notes look extremely down to earth
Do you know if he recommends any prereqs?
I think theyβre mainly just a general first course in scheme theory, and he says knowing resolution of singularities is important
Thereβs some stuff at the end about like recommended texts
One thing I forgot to mention: he said that he will record lectures and post them to the website as well. I donβt believe thatβs stated on the course page.
for me, the ramification index is, when you consider number fields extensions K subset L, A and B their number rings and if p is a prime ideal in A and P a prime ideal in B, the P-ramification index of p is the exponent of P in the decomposition of pB
and de f_P is the inertia degree, it's the dimension of the vector space B/P over A/p
ok quick maybe dumb question I should really know the answer to
if for a group G and a prime p there's a single sylow p-subgroup P of G then P is normal in G right?
Yes
oh yeah nvm it's direct, the only conjugates of a sylow p-subgroup is another sylow p-subgroup and since there's only one, every element conjugates P to itself hence normal
is that it?
Yes
ok yeah dumb moment thanks. even just writing the question helped π
Generally if there is a unique subgroup of a given order, then it's characteristic and hence normal.
hm, interesting. That's because automorphisms send subgroups to isomorphic subgroups?
Yes
ok nice, never even thought of that, but it's simple (pun intended)
thanks for giving me one more tool for my GT efforts π
An exercise given in D&F is to prove that Z[i] / (a) has order N(a), where N is the norm (x^2 + y^2). How does this generalize? (I know almost no algebraic number theory).
Do you know if a and b are non associate irreducibles a^n and b^m are coprime?
Yes.
So,you can use crt to reduce it to the case where alpha is p^n,p is irreducible
True, that's also the method given in D&F.
Which follows if you prove it for when alpha is a irreducible (by the previous part of question)
And that's literally the preceding exercise
Thanks. So the fact that Z[i] is a PID is irrelevant.
You use Z[i] is a Euclidean domain to show |Z[i]/(pi^n)|=|Z(i)/(pi)|^n(Ok,You can't,I made a mistake here)
I showed it by using the first lemma and applying
[R : J] = [R:I] [I:J]
repeatedly.
The first part*
My question was about the integer ring of Q[sqrt(-n)] and its norm N(...) = x^2 + n y^2. Do we always have the same result?
I know that it isn't usually a PID.
You can generalize this to arbitrary orders in number fields: for a field extension $K$ of $\mathbf Q$ of finite degree $n$ and $x\in K$, define the map $\mu_x\colon K\to K$ by $\mu_x(a) = xa$. This map is $\mathbf Q$-linear, and we call its determinant the norm of $x$ (you can check that for $K=\mathbf Q(\sqrt{-n})$ this agrees with your definition of the norm). An order in $K$ is a ring $R\subset K$ that is a free abelian group of rank $n$. Now, if $R$ is an order and $x\in R$, then the index of the ideal $xR$ in $R$ is exactly the norm of $x$.
NielsK
Yes,It is irrelevant
I think the norm is defined differently depending on n mod 4..
Neat, thanks!
It is easy to find all the orders explicitly, right?
ok more dumb "I should really know this" questions
what's Gl(2,p) like? is there an easy description?
more specific. Are there elements of order q for a prime q less than p? If q=2 there are, it's just picking a basis for our vector space and permuting the bases elements. Are these the only ones? And if q is an odd prime? My intuition tells me there aren't any but tbh I don't know how to develop this



