#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 535 of 407
(assuming you meant a + bx + cx^2 + (x^3))
because x isn't an element of R
so you can't have an x in your expression for the image of p(x)
but isnt the a + bx + cx^2 part in Z[x]?
yes
what I'm suggesting is just literally write down phi(a + bx + cx^2 + ...)
it's equal to a + b*phi(x) + c*phi(x^2) + d*phi(x^3) + ...
what do you know about phi(x)
@chilly ocean https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schur–Zassenhaus_theorem is the theorem I was talking aboiut in general
I know that if phi(x)^n where n >= 3 it's going to equal zero because phi(x)^3 = 0 and phi(x)^n = phi(x)^n-3*phi(x)^3 = 0
great
so
what do you know about a + b*phi(x) + c*phi(x^2) + d*phi(x^3) + e*phi(x^4) + ...
well phi(x^2) = phi(x)phi(x) = phi(x)^2
so a + bphi(x) + cphi(x^2) + dphi(x^3) + ephi(x^4) + ... = a + bphi(x) + cphi(x^2)
why did the c go away
sorry just mistyped
okay so no wyou're done
ah ok then that makes perfect sense, do I have to go into specific detail in regards to uniqueness?
if a + bn + cn^2 = a' + b'n + c'n^2
then their difference is 0
i.e. it came from an element of (x^3)
i.e. it's a multiple of x^3
what does that tell you about it
(also gotta go now sry)
np thanks for the help! I was gonna say you can write a + bn + cn^2 = a' + b'n + c'n^2 + rx^3 or something
but ill work on it, im sure its not too hard to figure out
if anyone is still around in this channel im trying to figure out why we're able to take the constants outside of the ring hom in the equation: phi(a + bx + cx^2 + ...) = a + bphi(x) + cphi(x^2) + dphi(x^3) + ...
because a,b,c,d etc are also elements of Z[x] so surely I would have phi(a) + phi(b)phi(x) + ...
unless phi(a) = a somehow if a is an integer
but phi(a) has to be in Z[x]/(x^3)
Since b is in Z
Just do phi(bx)=phi(x)+phi(x)+...phi(x) b times=bphi(x)(similarity for c,d..)
oh god of course, thank you
thanks lol @chilly ocean
Wassup my people! I have a question about modules and I'd love some help 🙂
Ok so here F is a field and E an extension, I have to show R is artinian as a left module over itself with its length being 2
ok so I can ignore the artinian part since a module has finite lenght iff it's artinian and noetherian so I only need to show a composition series of length 2 right?
Issue is, I think I found one of length 3...
It might be that you're forgetting how length is defined?
One of the terms is considered index 0
so if you have 3 things that's length 2
It should me like 0 = M_0 < M_1 < M_2 = M
this is a length 2 composition series
Hello. Could you help me solve this problem? ""Find a ∈ R so that the list v=[v1, v2, v3] ^t is a base of R^3, where v1 = (a, 1, 1), v2= (1,a,1), v3 = (1,1,a)""
I initially thought a should be 1, but that can't be right, no?
t means transpose
a = 1 wouldn't give you a set of linearly independent vectors or a spanning set
also this belongs in #linear-algebra
cannot span a space of dim=3
smh just twist the definitions a little and it works
I mean linear algebra is abstract algebra

did I post in the wrong channel?:)) Sorry if I did
ya, #linear-algebra is for the linear algebra questions
this channel is more for group/ring/module/field/galois
stuff
okay, I'm moving there. Sorry! I thought we were being taught only abstract algebra this year
linear algebra is part of abstract algebra
it's just so big, and such a commonly asked about topic
it needs its own channel
thanks. I understand now:D
and since calculus is just derivatives and integrals which are linear operators, calculus is part of abstract algebra
😮
dont take that seriously
lol
inb4 algebraic tangent space
all math are words in some free group
what you're talking about is actually a monoid, of which a free group is but a small area
Yes, I have a thing with 4 things... lol
O_o
I mean maybe I got it wrong
If the answer is 2 then... yes
consider these
0 E
0 F
and
0 E
0 0
pretend the matrices have the delimiters lol
so these are both left R modules, unless I messed the calculations up
I don't believe the first one is a submodule
but calling them A and B this makes
0<A<B<R
what you're thinking of is a subgroupoid, of which a monoid is but a small area
how do you multiply an element of E with one of F on the bottom right part of that matrix? won't it exit F
Right
fuck me
the submodules are exactly ideals
thanks
of that ring
yes yes I know
yee
I knew something was up because I've seen this before
which was confusing me even more lol
anyway thanks, this means F is irrelevant for this exercise, the following ones are the ones which will depend on F being a subfield
Also dumb question, if I quotient
E E
0 F
by
0 E
0 0
will I get
E 0
0 F
or is this too simple and dumb of me? xD
wait I'm confused again
E E
0 0 is a left ideal
even in the normal matrix ring
and
0 E
0 0 is too, so those 2 make a composition series of length 3?
what the hell is happening?
Oh wait sht
This isn't being considered as an E-module it's being considered as an R-module
so you act via matrix multiplication
gross
yes my point
yeah i dont think it's length 2
found the analyst
well I can't compute stuff so this may be wrong lol
but I'm pretty sure it's even a bilateral ideal, not just a left one
because I have to find all the ideals of that ring for the next exercise 😂
can permutations be defined on infinite sets?
yes
it's just a bijection of the set
to itself
This is what the symmetric group on a set is defined to be with the product given by composition
@drowsy oasis what's x_1
math SOS
damn galois reincarnated?
How on earth can i find the gcd between 11 + 7i and 18 - i in Z[i] heeelp ive been HOURS on this
Maikel Galois is my name hehe
are you also a simp?
@tawny pine in this book it is just the first element of S^n or A(S)
idk what you meant @sturdy marsh
look at their norms
@drowsy oasis english?
what's 18^2 + 1
325
okay
Yee ive looking their norms for quite a bit
and 121 + 49 = 170
Just cant conclude anything yet
@tawny pine ye its herstein
Indeed
i mean translate what you said to english
Yeye thats exactly what i was gonna do ty
A(S) it says are the positive integer elemnt functions which map 1-1 onto itself and x_1 is same as what 1 will map to
actually it says S can have any amount of elements i am just considering when S is that case above
can you eli5 A(S)?
i was thinking you would have osme issue if what maps to the first element but i realized it doesnt matter you just scramble all N
Seeking for the last non zero remainder?
Ok i'll give it a try too, ty. I think i got it with the other method though
DANG YES I KNEW THEY WERE COPRIMES
@tawny pine i think A(S) is called the cyclic permutation
nah. also ELI5
isn't A( . ) for alternating group
could be, i am just starting to learn about about this stuff
in some books A(S) is used to denote the symmetric group on S
groups with A_n or A([set]) are usually the alternating group
I see
I did not know that
because if you have something like a set S, then S_S would look weird i guess
ya ig, I thought the S notation was universal
for symmetric group
but anyways, you can in fact have an infinite symmetric group
which would be the symmetric group on all the natural numbers
how do you make sense of an infinite alternating group
if you're looking at permutations with finite support you could
but I don't see how it works in general
Schreier-Ulam Theorem makes some assertions about normal subgroups of the infinite symmetric group
although, I cannot say I have much experience with infinite groups
for the infinite alternating group, I have no idea
I don't know how you would really talk about even permutations
of an infinite group
i am thinking if you have say N just scramble N
that would be the infinite symmetric group yes
i guess you could even have uncountable permutation
if f is in S_n is f^(k.n) = i always ? where k is in N
Hey just curious, at which stage of your math career are people in here in general?
I am a freshman in college rn. I'm not taking abstract algebra yet but some questions in my intro to proofs class are algebra so I ask them here
junior in college
Nice nice
Chmonkey i wanted you to know that i put an observation in my algebra notes with your nickname since you made me notice that lmao
wait wut
Remember the thing about formal series being invertible and polynomials not?
oh right
Ok now i took note of that and referenced your nickname in my notes
I see. I'm glad I could help haha
Thanks again 😂
can anyone help me go through this question?
I'm lagging behind the course so IDK what L_{BA} and L_{A} means
Also this problem I'm confused with:
Like what does it mean to be a special matrix
@fading wadi hmm I suspect it might be a matrix where only diagonal entries are nonzero where $a_{ii}$ divides $a_{(i+1)(i+1)}$?
Element118
oh, what about $L_{BA} and L_{A}$
LHC2012
find all elements of order of 6 in Z6xZ6
whats the easiest way to do problems like these
ik i can just list out the cases
but with groups with alot of elements its isnt very practical
Order of a element (a,b) is lcm(order(a), order (b))
yea i know
but thats still just listing out cases
is there a better way for the general case
List more efficiently
hey guys ive been jumping in and out of this question for some time now and I still find it really difficult to understand whats going on in the quotient ring. Im currently trying to find the units and zero divisors
so if a + bn + cn^2 is a unit then (a + bn + cn^2)(d + en + fn^2) = 1 for some d + en + fn^2 in R
but in the last part I showed that (a + bn + cn^2)(d + en + fn^2) = ad + (ae+bd)n + (af + be + cd)n^2 [Im not sure I proved this correctly I just figured I could multiply everything as usual]
so I have ad + (ae+bd)n + (af + be + cd)n^2 = 1
so ad = 1 and ae+bd = 0 and af+be+cd = 0?
but then I have infinite solutions
which feels wrong
so if anyone could point me in the right direction id really appreciate it
a,b,c are given, so you have a unique solution
You realized, that (a+n * stuff) * (d + n * stuff) = 1 is the condition for (a+n * stuff) to be a unit
this implies ad = 1, so a is a unit
and in fact (a+n * stuff) is a unit iff a is a unit in Z
n is nilpotent, i.e. there is some expontent - in this case 3 - such that n^3 = 0
this means you can invert elements of the form 1 + n * stuff by a geometric series
(1 + n * t)^{-1} = 1 - n * t + (n * t)^2 and here the series ends since n^3 = 0
If you have a + n * stuff, and a is invertible, then a + n * stuff = a * (1 + n + t), so its inverse is
[a * (1 + n + t)] ^{-1}= a^{-1} * (1 - n * t + (n * t)^2)
we havent done anything with nilpotent elements so this argument isnt very familiar to me :/
You don't need the term "nilpotent", just for background. It's the condition that n³ = 0
The geometric series enables you to do a tidy computation of the inverse
I guess the geometric series thing is the only thing tripping me up, so im trying to find the inverse element for (a + bn + cn^2) right? so where does this 1 + n*t term come from? I know that a = 1 or -1 but beyond that im not sure why I can drop the n^2 term when finding the inverse
You have, that (a + bn + cn^2) invertible implies, a is a unit, that is +1 or -1, right?
right
For the converse assume, that a is +1 or -1
Then (a + bn + cn^2) = a(1+ba^{-1}n+ca^{-1}n²)
The second factor is of the form 1+nt for t = ba^{-1}+ca^{-1}n
ah ha, gotcha that makes sense
so then how does this translate to a geometric series exactly?
Take a general geometric series in say s
1 + s + s² + s³ + ... = 1/(1-s)
So (1-s)(1 + s + s² + s³ + ...) = 1
Now s = -nt
The s³ term and higher vanish
giving (1+nt) (1 - nt + n²t²) = 1
ahhh ok that makes a lot of sense too, thank you! so my units will be 1 - nt + (nt)^2 and -1 + nt - (nt)^2?
No, what we've just proven is that (a + bn + cn^2) is a unit if and only if a is a unit
So the units are 1 + bn + cn^2 and -1 + bn + cn^2 for all b,c
is this because the inverse we found a^{-1} * (1 - n * t + (n * t)^2) only depends on a?
The inverse depends on all coefficients
We have just proven the following theorem: Let a+bx+cx² be an arbitrary element of Z[x]/(x³), that is a,b,c are in Z. The following are equivalent:
(1) a is a unit in Z, i.e. a = +1 or -1
(2) a+bx+cx² is a unit in Z[x]/(x³)
ahhhh I get it now, thanks so much for the help. that makes a lot more sense than the method I was running with 🥴 thanks again
You are welcome
i was already typing something for the zero divisors, maybe i'll just past it
*paste
For the zero divisors: There are only two cases for an element a + bn + cn²: Either a = 0 or a != 0. In the second case it cant be a zero divisor, since (a + bn + cn²)(d+en+fn²) = 0 implies, that ad = 0, which implies, that a is zero in Z, unless d=0. But then aen + ... = 0, which implies that a is zero unless e=0. But then afn²=0, which implies that a is zero unless f=0. So a zero divisor must have a=0.
This implies, that any zero divisor is a multiple of n. Hence it is contained in the ideal generated by n.
Conversely every element of (n) is a zero divisor
(n) here is the ideal generated by phi(x) ?
yeah we did
awesome, thats really interesting actually thanks so much
this quotient ring has been kicking my ass
yes this ring is funny. i just worked with a similar ring today 😄
How does a two sided inverse show that a mapping is bijective?
Do you know that existence of a left inverse implies injectivity and right inverse implies surjectivity?
From those facts,your statement follows naturally
Why does the left inverse imply injectivity? (and same for right inverse with surjectivity)
Can you show me how
Let the function f:A->B have a well defined left inverse g:B->A
Then g(f(x))=x,If f(a)=f(b)=c for a!=b,this would imply g(f(a))=a,g(f(b))=b,i.e., g(c)=a and g(c)=b and a!=b which implies g is not well defined,but by assumption g is well defined
So,f has to be injective
Ok, so that works for injectivity. What about surjectivity?
Let f:A->B and right inverse be g:B->A,then f(g(x))=x if f wasn't surjective some values in B would be missed(i.e.,not in image of f) and fog wouldn't be identity on B for those values missed
yes, fog:B->B is surjective
Thank you drake, you can now @ me if you ever want to.
This isn’t even algebra tho this is just for any function 😞
Shutup.
Dan
chmonkey spitting facts though
ya go to like #prealg-and-algebra or smt i actly dk what channel is appropriate 
what even is the diff between #prealg-and-algebra and #precalculus 
I think #proofs-and-logic is the right place for stuff like that
This came up while studying group actions.
Okay sure but it’s just a property of functions
I’m just saying you don’t need it to be a group homomorphism
Continuous function
Etc
This is true for anything that’s a function
ya, in my abstract algebra textbook, I think it was part of chapter 0, as prerequisite knowledge
before you start any abstract algebra
best intro tbh
Finally someone with taste
I haven't read it because my brain is too small
really eliminates anyone who isnt a true meme
wait actly looking at Aluffi: Chapter 0
it doesnt seem that meme
The ideal is principal so the ideal being prime is equivalent to the generator being prime
check irreducibility
C[x] is a UFD so it suffices to check that it’s irreducible
Hint, C is algebraically closed so it 100% isn’t
You can see this directly too. Think of non-zero elements in the quotient whose product is 0
Yee
can someone elaborate on what this means
is gradiation like additional structure on the ring?
in some way?
Do you know what a graded ring is?
Lol
If not just look it up. The prototypical example is a polynomial with the grading given by the degree of the polynomial
i know what it is
im just confused as to how two graded rings can be isomorphic as rings but not as graded rings?
or is this something about tensors that makes it non-isomorphic : ?
actually this https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3706834/definition-of-isomorphism-of-graded-rings
can someone help me figure out how to approach this instead of just aimlessly slapping elements together in an attempt to show set containment?
i have a hard time figuring out how to slap purposefully in situations like these
yes officer, this message right here
i mean the strategies that come to mind are to insert the identity into places to make it work... or to rewrite/rearrange/solve for elements, but I feel like i dont know how to do it in a way where im actually making progress.
it's just a matter of doing it
assume you have ab from the set on the right
a is in H and K'
so it is in H' and K'
so it is in the intersection
similarly the same is true for b
the intersection is a subgroup
no kinkshaming
pty
perfect its time for gabe to explain to me
how can two rings be isomorphic as rings but not as graded rings
what does that even mean
so like
A = bigoplus A_i and B = bigoplus B_i
A is iso to B but A_i isnt iso to B_i?
hurb this has to be
up to permutation right
of the A_i

you get all the line bundles on projective space by simply playing around with the grading
topologists care a lot about graded stuff
I think just do it on the vector space with that element as a basis
I think all he's saying is that alpha lives in degree 2n
for the cohomology ring case
but alpha lives in degree 1 for the exterior algebra
with the usual grading
z[a]/a^2 is the cohomology ring of S^2n
H^i(S^2n) is 0 for all i \neq 0 or 2n
alpha is the generator of H^2n
yeah and we're just taking the direct sum of all the H^i
which gives us a graded module
and then the cup product gives us a ring
which is iso to z[a]/a^2
as all higher cohomology groups vanish
the the usual ring iso induced by a mapsto a is not an iso of graded rings
it's not even a map of graded rings
the 'he' referred to hatcher
the grading stuff is weird
i guess wedge[alpha] = wedge^0(alpha) oplus wedge^1(alpha)
umm
idk wedge^0(alpha) is spanned by just 1 right?
oh wedge^0 is the underlying field right
yes
the exterior algebra is just the tensor algebra mod relations
if V is an F vect, then the tensor algebra is F + V + V^2 + V^3 + ....
those powers are tensor powers
and that is the grading
okay i think i see it
alpha lives in the grade 1 part
alpha lives in the grade 2n part
Oh right i see
it generates H^2n
yeah they need to preserve grading
I was super confused by graded stuff too
i think its weird because im used to thinking of oplus as like
the order doesnt matter
but it does here
cuz of the graded structure
right.
but the grading can be over a lot of things
not just Z
so 'order' is perhaps not the right way to look at it
mhm other indexes though i havent seen them at all yet
are there any like relatively simple examples of when you dont want to index over Z
(or N)
yes
there's a cohomology theory which is graded over the representation ring of a group
the category we're looking at is nice top spaces with a nice group action
the word to look up is RO(G)-graded cohomology if you're interested
slimvesus
There's the theorem [A:B][B:C] = [A:C] for extensions. Also, remember the definition is in terms of the degree of the minimal polynomial
slimvesus
Yes because over the obvious degree 3 extension it doesn't
yes, the real cube root of 10
say we embed everything into C
yes
yes, both are S3-extensions
because the Galois group is determined by its action on a generator
yes
3
why should it be 2?
X³-10 is irreducible over Q(sqrt(-3))
so the degree is 3
The point is rather, why isn't it 6?
In general, when you adjoin the root of an irreducible polynomial of degree 3 it might just have one root in the extension
but the point is, that Q(sqrt(-3)) already contains all three cube roots of unity
because they can be weirdly built from sqrt(-3) 😄
The splitting field L has degree 6 over Q(sqrt(2)), ok?
So the Galois group has 6 elements
Ok, then you should learn the following fact: Any group of order 6 is either isomorphic to Z/6Z or S3
So we only have these two possibilities
exactly
G acts on the roots of X³-10 and this defines an injection G -> S3, which must be a bijection
That's the standard argument
If you have a splitting field of a polynomial, then you always get an injection into a symmetric group because of that argument
In the other example adjoining cube root of 10 splits the polynomial completely, so we have an injection G -> S3 and G is isomorphic to Z/3Z
If zeta is an n-th root of unity then you get an extension Q(zeta)/Q of degree phi(n)
yes
(Z/nZ)*
yes
Gal(Q(zeta)/Q) -> S_phi(n)
but that doesn't really matter in this case, because S_phi(n) is really large
If E/F is a primitive extension yes
E/F is primitive, if there is some a in E, such that E = F(a)
So a has a minimal polynomial and its degree is the degree of the extension
and Gal(E/F) permutes the roots of this thing
You just have to make sure that the extension is primitive
And maybe one should mention that this works almost always
Because of the Primitive element theorem, it says every finite separable extension is primitive
and every finite extension of a perfect field is separable. And perfect fields include all fields of characteristic zero and all finite fields
😄
you are welcome
that is silly
or finite group
you should sit in time out until you figure it out
lol
it's just too dead easy, how would you try to prove yourself wrong?
what's the easiest group you could think to construct that's even? try making a group of order 2
write down a multiplication table and try to fill it out
yeah 1 and -1 with +
i guess i had the assumption that identity elements were unique in groups
but that is true 
integers with addition modulo n
1 and -1 with + isn't a group
i maybe am being silly it is late
please dont use that term
also what do you mean why
why would you expect there to not be groups of even order

1+(-1)=0 which means you have made an element out of the set
1 and -1 with * is a group though
yeah sorry i mean with *
also like take S_n for n >= 2
do you know what Sn is
it's the group of permutations on {1, ..., n}
@vital quail he doesn't even know what the identity element is
that is, bijections from that set to itself
lol true
anyways so how many permutations are there of {1, ..., n}
basically you have n choices for the first slot, n-1 choices for the 2nd slot, and etc
so n!
what do you mean
that means for n >= 2 |S_n| is even
you just said a minute ago you had counter examples and said something weird about identity elements being unique
do you think -1 is an identity element in the group {1, -1} with *?
no
can you show me why it isn't an identity element
write down a counter argument showing how it can't be
yeah looks good
can you show some of these now
yes the modulos were one
seems like we should fix your misconceptions you have
like Z/7Z
ok good, show where the counterexample happens
its of size 6
ah you have to be careful
this is of size 7, it's by default we assume +
otherwise (Z/7Z)* means multiplication
Z/nZ has n elements, (Z/nZ)* has phi(n) elements
but yea so i just thought the inverses for each element were unique, and if it was an inverse of itself then it is the identity element which is unique
and so you just have the identity element and a bunch of pairs
can you show me an element that has multiple inverses
and what they are
just one example I mean
yep no idea
i think i should just do this
not thinking properly
yes no
i am convinced they dont
I thought you said you had examples though, what were they
or did you just work them out and find your mistake or something
I don't think he ever claimed that, that's why he was asking to begin with I think
yeah
erm
it is a group
all things hold
ok yes so you can have something that has itself as an inverse
and its not the identity element
so that was my confuzzle
you can have groups where everything is its own inverse actually haha
arbitrarily large even, take nxn matrices with only 1 and -1 on the diagonal
x = x^-1 holds for order 2 elements not just the identity @marsh fractal
yip thats what i mean
so i just had a wrong assumption
and yes the idea sounded whack but now i dont have that as an assumption
great stuff ty
cool cool
yeah I just was cutting through to the problem as directly as possible while trying to be clear
there's some kinda misconception somewhere so just had to say stuff kind of plainly, just how it goes
not patronizing haha
no i get that lol
was just the one comment about me not knowing what the identity element is
but i really dont mind im not taken back or anything
i apprieciate the help and i understand where you are coming from
no that was me telling archsys to stop overcomplicating it, he was bringing in a bunch of extra stuff with S_n when your question was if even order groups even exist
it was just totally off the mark for him to start bringing in these groups of order n! lol
wdym 🤔 another good example is 2p is a factor of |PSL(n, p)| for certain n
what would you say is the simplest proof of lagranges theorem
yeah lets say you can only use order, and the group axioms
is it possible
cardinality
yeah i guess thats what one might have to do lol
@chilly ocean 
I don't understand this statement, can someone explain?
the H at the bottom is the system of representation of mod H
but tbh i don't know what that means
Might depend on the text, but that means "join" for me
here's the context
wtf mantra
I love it
V either means join (subgroup generated by union of sets) or disjoint union i think
is it supposed to mean G is the union of all cosets
I would understand it as disjoint union, I guess?
I see, so what does the bottom H make the union do?
like the "left transversal" thing
nothing, it's just saying it goes through distinct cosets
of H
fancy notation
for example if x and y are in the same coset of H, it will not use both of them
I see, and i guess "index" denoted |H| just means how many cosets?
that's the size of the set
oh no i mean |H| where H is the left transversal
oh ya
also denoted [G:H]
that's how many cosets are in G
ok nice
another thing I'm wondering is why don't they use a normal union
why disjoint?
like why V but not U
you could write U. They are just making the point that the set of distinct cosets partitions the group
ya, in the tb I use, they just used two statements
- the union of cosets is G
- intersection of distinct cosets is empty set
I guess here, they combine the two
Also here, K, H,G are groups, I'm confused to argue for case when G is infinite
because i think haven't understand the concept good enough
K and H are subgroup of G
show that the cardinalities are the same.
probably by establishing a bijection.
or something.
if G is infinite and K isn't infinite, then it's obvious ([G:K] is infinite, and at least one of [G:H] or [H:K] must be infinite)
if G and K are infinite, then it's a little fucky wucky
why is it obviou if k isn't infinite?
but Poros we still need to prove that the infinite equate though
ah ya, if you want the "correct" infinite, then you'd have to resort to cardinalities or something
I wouldn't be able to give a good enough answer for that
which I have no idea what to do, never constructed a group homomorphism without a hint before XD
you can search up the third isomorphism theorem
(I think it's called)
which establishes that result
but it's only for K and H being normal subgroups
yea this is not normal 😦
So here's the question again, would like help from anyone who knows how to deal with when G is infinite
K, H are both subgroups of G
Let $A$ be the set of cosets of $K$ in $G$, let $B$ be the set of cosets of $H$ in $G$, and let $C$ be the set of cosets of $K$ in $H$. This is equivalent to finding a bijection from $A$ to $B \times C$.
kxrider
For simplicity, assume A,B,C are indexed by representatives corresponding to distinct cosets. You have for example that $\bigvee_{x \in C} xK = H$, and something similar to this for all the others.
kxrider
as a hint, the goal is to show that all products of representatives from B and C make up the representatives from A.
(i may have worded a few things confusingly. i can clarify anything i u want)
yep thanks, im thinking about constructing a bijection
what you mean by representatives is for example {aK| a in G} is a member of A, so a representative would simply be a right?
or it could be ak, k in K
if aK is a coset, 'a' would be a representative. What I don't want is two representatives for the same coset. Only distinct ones. This is just to clarify that when we take the disjoint union V_{x in A} xK = G, we are assuming that we've removed any repeated terms of this union. Another way of thinking of [G : K] is the number of distinct representatives for the partition induced by the set of cosets of K in G.
@thorn delta sorry I still don't know how to construct this bijection, and i think I'm missing something
when I'm thinking about it all I can do is write down the definitions of A B and C, and i know what a representative means
ur good. Basically, by the definitions of $A,B,C$, you can write $\bigvee_{x \in A} xK = G$ and $\bigvee_{y \in B} yH = G$ and $\bigvee_{z \in C} zK = H$.
kxrider
yea i did that
i could only intuitively think about making sense of it
and it's only vaguely, so i realized because {aH|a in G} is a coset in B then i could see a is a representative but then for this exact coset there's [h:k] more cosets in A, because ah1 and ah2 could be distinct representatives in A if h1 and h2 are not in the same coset of K, but since h1 and h2 are both in H, ah1 and ah2 are repeated/same representative in B
but 1. i don't know if this thinking is correct and 2. I cannot think of how to formally write this
yea, ur kind of on the right track. its kind of hard to do this if you haven't seen it before. Lets say you have zK a coset of K in H. If y is in B, then yzK is a coset of K in G.
This isn't really super obvious though unless you see that you can do this $$G = \bigvee_{y \in B} yH = \bigvee_{y \in B} y\left(\bigvee_{z \in C} zK\right) = \bigcup_{(y,z) \in B\times C} yz K $$
kxrider
and since you have a union of cosets of K whose union is G, there are at least as many elements in BxC as there are in A
true, this makes alot of sense, thanks
you have to show that you have a disjoint union on the right hand side. That would complete the proof. Do u see why?
ok so my understanding is: To prove the disjoint union is to prove that there's same number of elements in A and in BxC
But then
I still need to create a function and prove injective or something
wait nevermind
if there is same no. of elements, then the mapping is naturally created
@thorn delta RHS is disjoint union because suppose x in G s.t. x in case 1: z1K and z2K or case 2: y1H or y2H where z1≠z2 and y1≠y2, then by definition of y1 and y2/z1 and z2 being representative, they belong to disjoint cosets
so x can't be in both of these cosets, so the intersection of any of these cosets are empty
and then I guess since V__{x in A}xK and V_{(y,z) in BxC}yzK share the same coset K, then the same number of element naturally produce a bijective mapping from A to BxC.
correct me if I'm wrong
ur argument sounds a bit terse, so im not 100 percent sure I understand it. Another way to it would be to assume that $y_1 z_1 K = y_2 z_2 K$. Then $y_1 z_1 K \subset y_1 H$ and $y_1 z_1 K = y_2 z_2 K \subset y_2 H$. Since $y_1 H$ and $y_2 H$ must be equal or disjoint, we conclude that $y_1 H = y_2 H$ so $y_1 = y_2$ (we are assuming $y_1$ and $y_2$ represent distinct representatives here ofc). And then now I think you can apply a similar argument to show that $z_1 = z_2$.
kxrider
oh
um hmm there might be a subtle point here
yea it is. the idea is kind of simple, but there are a lot of details and stuff
and np
@thorn delta sorry to bother again but man i cannot apply a similar argument to show z1 = z2 because it's on the inside..
its not actually a "similar" argument, but its a simpler argument. Basically, use the fact that you now know that y1 = y2
like why does z1yK = z2yK imply z1 = z2
i know z1K = z2K imply z1 = z2 because that's how each z is defined as representative of a coset of K in H, but with the yK I'm not sure anymore
so ur struggling with y1 = y2?
no, I understand y1 = y2 part
I'm just confused that why (z1)yK = (z2)yK imply z1 = z2
what is y?
some element in G i guess
no, but how else do you know z1 = z2 after knowing y1 = y2
I think he means z1K=z2K or smt
y1 z1 K = y2 z2 K implies that z1 K = y1^-1 y2 z2 K = z2 K
No, It doesn't. z1K=z2K implies (z1)^-1(z2) is in K
what is going on -_-
nah drake, u need context lol
yea i understand now i can't believe my brain is so stuck rn
re drake: z1, z2 represent distinct representatives for the cosets of K in H
So the process is: assume y1z1K = y2z2K, then from the tex you wrote up there y1 = y2 can be concluded
then using inverse of y1 you get z1K = z2K, and since z1 and z2 are representatives, z1 = z2 must hold
in order for the equality to be true
yes. and this proves the map from (y,z) in BxC to yz in A is injective.
what about surjective then, when is that proven
since the union of the yzK over (y,z) in B x C is all of G, that means for each x in A, the coset xK is covered by one of the yzK
npnp
ye, good. You could even just provide a counterexample like (2/1)/2 is not equal to 2/(1/2)
f(a) * f(b) = f(a*b)
oh whys that
uh
cuz like rings we usually define them with units
so it is funny if the unit doesnt map to a unit
yes
is the group of units in an integral domain always abelian?
the set of units in a ring forms a group but I was wondering if i can prove/disprove the above statement too
yes. this is just because the multiplication in an integral domain is commutative
the same is true for the group of units in a commutative ring
I guess the question is only interesting for integral domains defined in noncommutative rings
Which seems a rare usage but wikipedia says it's allowed
But quaternions are a noncommutative integral domain, and every nonzero element in there is invertible, but, well, it's not commutative
uh dont we usually use
integral domain -> commutative domain
yeah that is what i thought... units in an integral domain should be commutative
but i took the ring of integers as an example
couldn't formulate a proof so there could be a counterexample
Integral domains are defined as commutative domains so this is immediate from the definition
oh yeah makes sense... Thank you!!
I have just started revising rings and modules for an exam that I have in 2 days. Really appreciate you guys helping 🙂
Hi, I'm going through the abstract algebra book by Dan Saracino and he uses this notation to denote a special kind of equivalence relation
anyone know how to say it in words?
oh okay ty!
How can a polynomial over a matrix ring be created?
Like i have the matrix, I am not sure about the process
you take the matrix ring R
then do
R[x]
a polynomial ring!
sage: R = MatrixSpace(GF(5),2,2)
sage: R[x]
Univariate Polynomial Ring in x over Full MatrixSpace of 2 by 2 dense matrices over Finite Field of size 5
It's correct
oh okay
tell us if any non-diagonal matrices are in the image of f
hmm is it because we dont have the ending result for M2(R)?
ok think about it right
surjective means for any element in M2(R), we can find a pre-image
so for the general element $\begin{pmatrix}a&b\c&d\end{pmatrix}$
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
discord killed ur backslashes
ouch
the only time i am lazy
discord stabs me
thanks
can you find an element $x\in R$ such that $f(x)=\begin{pmatrix}a&b\c&d\end{pmatrix}$
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
hmm ohh i dont think we can
okie
try it out for a transpose
if you know semi direct products, you can show normalizer of a cyclic subgroup generated by a permutation in $S_n$ is isomorphic to $Z_n \rtimes \text{Aut}(Z_n)$
PorosInMyAshe
Okay. Lemme get this straight. Does a coset have to be under a subgroup?
For a group G, can i have gG?
you can take the coset of any set
because cosets are usually defined in terms of a subgroup H
most used in like normal subgroups tho
you can take coset of any subgroup pretty sure, not any set, but only normal subgroups allow for quotient groups to be formed
I thought it was for subgroups only
thats what i thought
oh bugger
yeah wikipedia says subgroup nvm
so they HAVE to be of the form Hg instead of Gg (with H being a subgroup and G being a group)??
and ya, G is a subgroup of G, so why not
THATS RIGHT
it just results in the trivial quotient group, G/G isomorphic to 1
gG is just G forever lol
:PPPPP
so it's meaningless to do
like for all g
i mean it's not meaningless, it works
it just isn't too useful usually
meaningless as in they're usually not under consideration
1 and G are always normal subgroups of G
they're just almost never considered
for a lot of purposes
it gives no more information
Thanks
ah then just ignore what I said before lol
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1218392/normalizer-of-the-cyclic-group-in-s-n this post might be useful
I'm not sure what you know, so you can look at the top answer, and it has some good information
use what you can from it, to help you do it more intelligently than brute force
ah, last two points are related. Since $N_{S_n}(\langle (1, 2, ... n) \rangle) \cong Z_n \rtimes \text{Aut}(Z_n)$, and it's another fact that $\text{Aut}(Z_n)$ has order equal to the euler totient function of n
PorosInMyAshe
is how they got there, I would assume
if you don't know semidirect products, I'd ignore those 2
treemelia
||hahahah commutative ring more like c-ring more like cringe
||
(b) is a matter of just doing it
assume ab is in the intersection
what does the fact that Q is a prime ideal tell you?
we assumed that
An ideal I of R is prime if for all a and b in R, ab in I implies a or b in I
where did we assume that?
we assumed ab in Q \cap R so ab in Q and ab in R. Q prime makes a or b in Q, but we only have ab in R, how are we guaranteed a or b in R?
I did not write it down
a and b are in R
again, read the definition of prime ideal
R is a subring of S, not a prime ideal
and think about what you're trying to prove
yes R is a subring
we're trying to prove some ideal of R is prime
yeah idk man. still not seeing why we can say a and b are in R from ab being in R
ab in R doesnt imply and and b are in R
but we're looking at a and b in R to begin with
unless im having a stroke, we're looking at the product ab in Q \cap R
and you also legit typed "a and b are in R" 8 mins ago
if ab in the ideal, nts that a or b in the ideal
what are a and b
elements of S
I is a prime ideal of A if it is an ideal of A and if it satisfies the property i typed
yes
Question to double check a proof I did. In the group $\mathbb{F}^{\times}_{p}$, $p-1$ is the only element of order 2, correct?
Riemann-Zeta1
Not always! If p = 2 there are no elements of order 2
Well, for p>2, that is
but in the case p ≠ 2 this is correct, since the equation x^2 = 1 has two solutions, and one of them is 1
Great, thanks, just wanted to make sure that was right
That's simply orbit counting
There are 6 conjugates of a=(1234) but in the group {gag^-1,ga^2g^-1,ga^3g^-1,1} there are 2 conjugates of a
Take {(1423),(12)(34),(1324),1} as an example, if (1234) maps to (1423) you get the same set as when (1234) maps to (1324)
So, There will be 6/2 unique sets
In the language of orbits and stabilisers,you are considering the action of G/(C(a)) on <a>(g.<a>=g<a>g^-1)(The number of elements in kernel of this is exactly the number of elements of same cycle type in <a>)
@chilly ocean
im being asked to find the minimal polynomial for sqrt(3)+sqrt(5) over fields Q(sqrt5) Q(sqrt15) Q(sqrt10) and it make me confusion
so i need to find the monic polynomial of smallest possible degree where sqrt(3)+sqrt(5) is the root
i dont' get what the difference between the fields are
like how does that affect the way i find my min poly
For example, p(x)=(x-√5-√3)(x-√5+√3) is in Q(√5) but not in Q(√10)
p(x) is minimal in Q(√5) btw
im confused how you arrived at your p(x)
so do i just like come across these
can someone help me with latex 😦
Try #discussion
Could someone explain me what is the rule for one permutation inducing the other permutation of partitions? I am completely lost
@pliant raptor for starters what does A become after (1 2 3 4)
basically the induced permutation is what happens when you apply the permutation on the inner parts of A, B, C
so A goes to {{2, 3}, {4, 1}} right
now can you tell me what happens to the rest
sorry, i tried to answer but i did it in another channel because I didn't know how to access this channel earlier
im trying to do this problem now actually now lol and it's kind of scary that i can barely remember any of the math i did at uni before i dropped out, i had to pull out old notes and remind myself what a homomorphism was
nah, that's just normal brain stuff
the point is that once you learn it and store it away, you don't have to actually relearn it the next time, just refresh
year 1 or 2 for europe or year 3ish for U.S.
US math major curriculum would on average be like real analysis 2nd year, and algebra 3rd or something
i feel like this is the kind of problem i might have got maybe 2-4 weeks into the maths course
of year 1
i mean certainly they could introduce this topic as part of an intro course and not via an entire algebra course
as part of group theory
i see
this is like one of those things where it's really intuitive, like you just know it's true but im struggling to think of how to prove it
prove what?
that it's a homomorphism
I see, thank you very much to all of you!
Actually can I just say that since every permutation can be written as a product of transpositions, I only need to check that theta {(1,2) (1,3)} and {(1,2) (3,4)} = theta (1,2) theta (1,3) and theta (1,2) theta (3,4) respectively
by symmetry I don't have to check everything
Hey people!
I need a little help
one of the questions is: consider E=F an infinite field. Show R has an infinite amount of left minimal ideals
tbh I don't know where to start, maybe I just need a little push
$\begin{pmatrix}a & b \ 0 & c \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}x & y \ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}ax & ay \ 0 & 0\end{pmatrix}$
Looks like an extra degree of freedom there
Apopheniac
@bronze trench $I_y = R\cdot \begin{pmatrix} 1 & y \ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix} $
Apopheniac
oh that makes sense, I was looking at it the wrong way. In class we did an example like
Q Q
0 Z
and the ideals had to do with that Z and I was trying to make it work with fields
thanks for the help!
yeppers 🙂
oh you just got me out of the hole I was digging myself into, I was totally on the wrong path
thanks 😄
oh okay, so for all subgroups we just prove for closure, inverse and identity?
Yes
okie ty
End sentences with a period.
If you're proving a claim, state the claim clearly, state that you're then proving the claim
Be consistent on notation at the last line
e.g. 2(n) and 2w on the last line
Either both have parantheses or neither do
Other than that syntactical/structure stuff the proof looks fine to me
Also the s needs an apostrophe
(Last line should end in a period, too)
@leaden finch
oh okay thank you
yA I know it's a real pain in the rear doing all these grammar things
I hate it, but it's been drilled into me
yeah same lool
oooo nicee
To prove a subset is a sungroup you can in fact just prove that a subset
- Is not empty
- If x and y are in the subset, so is xy^{-1}
It's usually much faster do just just this check (1 is almost always trivially obvious since identity is usually in the subset) than to check all three properties separately
does these actly matter in papers
does grammar matter in papers? ye
does grammar matter in papers? ye
being clear in your communication always matters, if I spelled out every word phonetically in english, it would still be readable, but extremely unclear. like you can get away with worse grammer informally (because people will probably understand you, and you want to be fast), but if you have time, you should always have the best grammar you can
spent embarrassingly long on this; would be nice if someone could push me towards the right direction- i don't necessarily want the answer, thanks :)
thanks 👍
Does this look legal?
Is the quotient ring isomorphic to its ideal ?
@light tusk what book is that form
Hall's "Lie Groups, Lie Algebras, and Representations", exercises 9-10 of chapter 1
Ahh I see @light tusk care to answer my question
In general $R/I$ is not isomorphic to $I$. Take $R=k[x,y,z], I=(x)$. $R/I = k[y,z]$
Apopheniac
Ideals are rngs
an iso I would assume implies module iso in this case
can someone check my work if im on the right track
