#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 534 of 407
well what is it defined as?
so <a^d> is defined as the subgroup generated by a^d where a is some element in D2n such that it fulfils the presentation of D2n (that D2n = <a, x | a^n = x^2 = e, xax^-1 = a^-1 >) and d|n where n is |D2n|
what's d?
oh
d|n means d divides n
d is a factor of n
i don't actually see where a is used differently
like a is defined as an element with the properties given in the presentation
and then used that way consistently
no problems
in the "special cases" under it, they talk about how (or at least i think) a is used differently
no they don't
it's just that a fulfils all the properties of the dihedral group and then some other stuff also
that's what i figured yeah
i mean symbols can mean different things based on the context
exactly what it is
in the presentation
an element such that x^2 = e and xax-1 = a-1
a flip, essentially
aah gotcha
@stone fulcrum "The polynomial that is 0 for all x is the zero vector in the space" As an aside, evaluating to zero everywhere is not the same thing as being the zero polynomial in a general polynomial ring. See, for example https://math.stackexchange.com/a/64053
Okay, neat haha. I'll have to give this a slow read
unless im misunderstanding, Z^2/Z is an abuse of notation. What (im guessing?) you really mean is Z x Z/Z x {0} or Z x Z/{0} x Z. WLOG lets work with the first one. Then elements look like (c_1, c_2) + (Z, 0). In other words, two elements of Z x Z are "the same" in ZxZ/Zx{e} if they differ by an integer in the first coordinate and differ by 0 in the second coordinate.
you can only quotient out by subgroups of a group
it doesn't make any sense otherwise
again, when you use "Z" in the quotient, you should really be using a normal subgroup of Z^2. You could have a subgroup isomorphic to Z but its quotient with Z^2 is not iso to Z
you can just map (c_1 + a_1, c_2 + 0) to (c_1 + a_1)?
the other way around
i mean it's an isomorphism, is the point
i was saying that's why it's isomorphic to Z
oh that way round
yeah
by equal i mean in the same equivalence class
same coset, sure
the equivalence classes look like {(x_1, x_2) | x_1 in Z}
so yes, you are right
yes, that is kinda confusing
you have to make sure n >= m
and "fill up" Z^m with x {0} sufficiently often
you have to, to make sense of that
otherwise it's not a subgroup of Z^n
(technically, you can place the 0s anywhere but it makes no difference modulo isomorphism)
hints for going about:
Which abelian groups are isomorphic to subgroups of S6?
I'm watching a series of lectures on linear algebra and the is lecturer making an "analogy" about semirings and how the boolean algebra of semi-rings is analogous to the algebra of matrix multiplication (as viewed as matrices having their own proper vector space structure).....
I'm looking for a crash course on the boolean algebra of semi-rings.....cuz i wanna keep it pertinent to linear algebra.....any youtube videos this chat might recommend?
^that's what i know
These are what i know of the ring axioms (they're like a group with extra steps)
wikipedia and a cursory youtube search assures me this is what a semi-ring is (aka a semirig)
did you... make a table in google docs
yes
the government of france wants to know your location
??
french math pedagogy is similar in the sense that they are quite thorough and linear in the process of teaching students algebraic structures
can they provide me an explanation on semi ring, cuz i can whistle the marseillaise
starting with magmas, then semigroups, etc
in any case a semiring is just a rig
a ring without (n)egatives
e.g. N
so its a semirig, got it
no, it's a rig
thonk
monoid under addition, semigroup under multipilcation
people actually learn about magmas and shit
@thorn delta no, multiplicative monoid
so, when do the ones and zeroes come in to play? how does this relate to bool?
it's literally just a ring except the additive group is now a monoid
their def doesn't have 1 
are my charts wrong?
@misty wind wdym
1 is overrated
well your charts should reflect that a semiring is literally a ring except the additive group is a monoid
that is, you don't require additive inverses
0 and 1 is just like "smallest" and "biggest" element

i deleted the inverses
ik jacobson gives a decent intro to boolean alg
but idk about why semirings
ig in some sense it is a semiring?
yes this lecturer assures me it is.
very garbage to think of it as a semiring tbh
thinking of it as some sort of lattice is better
boolean algebra and matrices are semirings or somefing
idk what monoids or lattices are.....
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boolean_algebra_(structure)
have very nice diagram
In abstract algebra, a Boolean algebra or Boolean lattice is a complemented distributive lattice. This type of algebraic structure captures essential properties of both set operations and logic operations. A Boolean algebra can be seen as a generalization of a power set algebra or a field of sets, or its elements can be viewed as generalized tru...
im lazy to type so here is a copypasted example
The power set (set of all subsets) of any given nonempty set S forms a Boolean algebra, an algebra of sets, with the two operations ∨ := ∪ (union) and ∧ := ∩ (intersection). The smallest element 0 is the empty set and the largest element 1 is the set S itself.
If $S$ is a subset of a group, does $\langle S\rangle$ refer to the union of sets generated by each element in $S$?
Ted
no, it refers to the intersection of all subgroups containing S
Uh, I actually need to prove that.
Here's the problem statement: Let $S$ be a subset of a group, and let $H$ be the intersection of all subgroups of $G$ that contain $S$. Prove that $\langle S\rangle=H$.
Ted
I guess I am not sure what you mean "union of sets generated by S"
instead of guessing about what <S> means, can't u just look at how ur prof defines it? Its probably something like <S> = {all products of elements of S and their inverses}
Each element in S may or may not have finite order. I was guessing <S> then is just the set containing all elements in S, their multiples and products.
I'm self-studying and only have access to textbooks. This appears before the chapter on cyclic groups, I may get more insights after I go through that chapter.
oh then the book should have defined it somewhere. Anyhow, the definition you gave here
I was guessing <S> then is just the set containing all elements in S, their multiples and products.
is pretty safe
Ah, okay.
Why can't the intersection possibly contain more elements than in <S>?
I can show <S> is a subset of H, but how do I go other way round?
if x is in H, x belongs to every subgroup of G containing S....
Oh nice lol. Thanks for the help!
npnp
Okay, so I think I'm a bit confused for two reasons:
- The proposition <S>=H seems to fail when S is empty, since <S> would be empty as well while H would be the trivial subgroup.
- I think <S> may not necessarily contain identity, especially when the order of elements is infinite. H being the intersection of subgroups does contain the identity.
If <S> does indeed contain the identity, the issues can be resolved.
yes, <S> always contains the identity. In particular, the subgroup generated by the empty set is the trivial subgroup
Oh, I didn't know about either. Thank you!
npnp
Is <S> a subgroup as well?(or could you provide a reference where I can look up for a precise definition of <S>?)
If I'm getting it right, $$\langle S\rangle=\bigcup\langle a\rangle$$for all $a\in S$?
Naah that doesn't work
<S> is a subgroup, yes. <S> is usually defined to be the intersection of all subgroups containing S, although i guess your book defines it differently. In general, the intersection of subgroups is a subgroup, so <S> is a subgroup
Owww nice! Thanks a bunch.
I really appreciate helping me out so many times haha, I wish Gallian did a bit more of teaching.
npnp, happy to help
as a remark, if x is an element of G, then <x> = <{x}>, so <S> coincides with the notation we usually use to denote cyclic subgroups
I see. That makes sense.
you just have to show that E is nonempty, closed under addition and taking inverses
right
Looks good.
why is n in E?
is E known as even or it just a random letter?
Yeah, Even integers may be a sensible interpretation, although I've seen 2Z as more standard notation.
You basically choose two arbitrary elements $p$ and $q$ from the given set $E$, and then show that $pq\in E$. Since $p,q\in E$, it follows that for some $a,b\in\bZ$, $p=2a$ and $q=2b$. Hence, $$pq=2a+2b=2(a+b)=2m$$for some $m\in\bZ$. Since $2m\in E$, this proves closure.
Ted
Ted's got it. Personally, i would not mix these * and + operations together. I know the definition of group picks a symbol for the binary operation, but when ur proving things, you don't have to say things like "a*b = a+b." If you know your operation is addition, just write things with +.
Hehehe, I was just trying to keep up with Sunshine's notation.
also, if you're being nit-picky, on the last part, you would say "2m for m = a+b \in Z"
but everyone gets the point
just by putting math in dollar signs. You don't need tick marks or whatever you added to make the code block. There is nothing really to prove for associativity. You don't have a subgroup test or anything? In general, you just have to show 3 things for a subset of a group to be a subgroup:
- nonempty
- closed under the operations (addition in this case)
- closed under taking inverses
is closure the same as nonemty?
nope. a set S is nonempty if there is x such that x is in S.
i.e. S contains a positive (nonzero) number of elements
for example, a proof that the set {1, 2, 3} is nonempty could be "since 3 is in {1,2,3}, the set {1,2,3} is nonempty."
Does it make sense to define $\langle S\rangle$ as the smallest subgroup containing $S$? Because in that case proving $\langle S\rangle=H$ is trivial.
Ted
yes
How was <S> defined in your text book?
It isn't defined at all, smh at Gallian.
The smallest subgroup definition is what I am familiar with
Nice, thanks!
Oww I kinda made it up on the basis of what kx has told me so far.
in previous convos, we used <S> to mean intersection of all subgroups containing S and set of all products of elements of S and their inverses
err, H was taken to be the intersection of all subgroups containing S, while <S> was the subgroup corresponding to the latter def
Correct.
Uh oh.
Okay but this should work. Once I prove <S> is a subset of H, <S> being one of the constituents of the intersection would force H=<S> I guess?
yea pretty much
Nice. There's a part (b) to this proposition. I need to prove that $$\langle S\rangle={s_{1}^{n_1}s_{2}^{n_2}\cdots s_m^{n_m}\mid m\geq 1, s_i\in S, n_i\in\bZ}$$
Ted
This again seems to be synonymous with the definition itself.
I don't know what there is to prove.
yea, that was the definition for <S> we agreed on 

maybe Gallian uses <S> to mean "smallest subgroup containing S?"
Proof: The proposition is true by definition
I'll look into the subsequent chapters if he defines it at all.
anyway, no need to dwell on it. to show that the intersection of all subgroups containing S equals the set of all possible products of elements of S is probably the most difficult thing you can prove about <S>, and since we took that to be the def earlier, you've already done this
lmao what, is this a real book
<S> is just the image of the unique homomorphism from the free group on S into G
Hehehe, Gallian is actually a good book but I guess he leaves a bit too much to exercises.
i looked up gallian and checked the notation index at the beginning of the book. The page corresponding to <S> is the page with your exercise and there is indeed no definition 

wait i actually found it!!! page 66
this is still kinda bad
in the sense that it is not a rigorous definition
what does "smallest" mean?
it just means minimial in the set of all subgroups containing S?
minimal with respect to what?
you need to show one exists and is unique
the answer is set inclusion
but that's not clear from the definition given (for a beginner)
uniqueness should be pretty clear, but ig existence is not really clear under this def.
the direct construction makes it clear
not too sure how to see existence and uniqueness without constructing it ngl
you intersect all the groups that have S as a subset
well, you use that the intersection of all subgroups containing S is a lower bound
show it's a group still
ah right
it's unique by def
and then by that point you might as well have taken it to be the def 
"intersect all subgroups containing S" sounds cuter
indeed
Can I say <S> is a subgroup and it is minimal in the sense that of all the subgroups containing S, <S> has the smallest cardinality(I just realised it wouldn't make sense if the subgroups or S itself were to be infinite).
yes, that's what i meant
a beginner would maybe think it's smallest with respect to cardinality, but that breaks once you have infinitely many elements in it
hence it's minimal with respect to $\subseteq$
Lochverstärker
True.
So the sensible definition is to think of it as the intersection of subgroups containing S?
imo yes
or the explicit one that you did above
with the explicit one, you will need a lemma for uniqueness
with the intersection one you will need to show that the explicit one is actually that
Ohh, I see.
thinking about it i actually like this definition now
simple idea
take a set
its a natural question to want to turn this into a group
thats the free group
How exactly do we turn it into a group in the absence of an operation?
we define one
well, the general idea is
for every element in x in the set
x^(-1) also has to be in the set
and all the finite product of all the elements
wait isnt that the construction
and some of them can be made shorter
ye
you can also define it categorically
and dont worry about its existence

but the construction gives a good idea
ye
anyways, you can shorten some formal strings, like xx^-1
and in the end you get a set of "formal strings"
and thats your group
tbh thats one of the good things in aluffi
that he does free group pretty early
free constructions in general are nice
free modules are very important
Hmmm, so if I have some finite set, say of cardinality n, then can I just create a free group from that set using a group of order n by relabelling the elements?
@sharp sonnet
nah, you will get infinitely many elements in the group
if you care, you should first think about a free group on a single element
lets say {x}
how do you turn this into a group?
well, x^(-1) has to be in it
and arbitrary finite products
so x^n
and (x^(-1))^n
for arbitrary n
and ofc arbitrary products that include both of those
so things like x^42(x^(-1))^3
but even if you know nothing about those elements, you can simplify those
and always arrive at an element of the form x^n or x^(-n)
so the free group on a single element is the cyclic group on 1 element
or in other words, its (Z, +)
other free groups will only be bigger
(except the free group on the empty set, which is the trivial group)
for more details, i think https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Free_group#Construction is quite understandable
Owww nice, will take a look.
tbh if you care about free constructions
Also, can I turn any given set into a group with a suitable choice of operation, i.e., can I create groups of arbitrary orders?
Hmmm I actually can, nvm
there are groups of arbitrary orders
so you can map them any set to a group of the same order
but the thing here is
this assumes relations between the elements
i.e., sure you can map the set {x} to the trivial group
but this assumes x is the identity
with the free construction you don't assume anything
ye, there is weird stuff
the free group on 3 elements is subgroup of the free group on 2 elements
Owwwwww
like if i give you an element of a group, say x
and you don't know what group its from
you only know that you can compose it finitely many times with itself
and do the same with the inverse
(and any other group element)
but you don't know about any "simplifications" inherent to the group
that's what a free construction is
Makes sense.
It'll take me a while to get to this free group stuff, Gallian covers it under special topics under "Generators and Relations".
it's kinda important in algebraic topology
That stuff is scary. 
they're like... almost almost vector spaces. super familiar, almost almost
this is why jacobson gud he intro free group early
dummit and foote: "free groups? what are those?"
just read aluffi
Wait, is the free group generated by a single element isomorphic to (Z,+)?
ya
Interesting.
It has one generator with no relations!
But the free group on two is not just Z (+) Z, since you have relations
Or is it...
Wait I need to think now Jesus
Is a free abelian group not free?(because ab=ba is a relation)
But that exists in the free group on 1 generator
its free in the sense that its free in in AbGrp
What's the difference between a free abelian group of rank≥2 and the free group of rank 1? Aren't they isomorphic?
free groups on more than 2 generators arent abelian
^
or on 2
take two symbols x,y then xy ≠ yx
The free abelian group is the abelianization of the free group
Or you can define it directly
just quotient by the commutator
That’s what the abelianization is...
my point was "define it directly" is probably easier to understand
I'm certainly lacking the background to understand Abelianisation, I did understand the idea of free groups though.
Abelianization is just G/G’
You quotient by the commutator and by the universal property of quotients it has the property that every map G -> A for A abelian factors through G/G’ uniquely
It’s just the “most general” way to get an approximation of G which is abelian
And you make it by saying gh = hg, aka ghg^-1h^-1 = e for all g,h
Idk how important this is for a first pass all things considered
This is the only bit I actually understood here, other stuff is Monka for me.
If you like thinking via universal properties it can be nice, else it’s something you can just come back to
Do you know what a quotient is?
Of groups
Nope
Still swimming in subgroups and cyclicity before Lagrange lmao, I'm too slow.
Learn about them and their universal property and you shall be able to understand haha
F you loch
Okay, so if a free group is perceived as concatenation of letters, than Abelianisation is to do away with permutations, i.e., only the order of elements in the expression matters?

fair
Lmao I couldn't read XD
No abelianization says that the order doesn’t matter
All that matters is the number of each element present
I meant order as in the number of occurences. Confusing times haha.
Oh lol
Basically all strings are unique upto rearrangement?(I still don't understand if I'm using "unique up to" correctly)
Yeah the idea is you use the same symbols but you’ve added in relations to say that things commute
And somehow this works by quotient magic
I don’t really understand your sentence
Neither what you mean, nor the usage of unique up to
Mmmmm
Once I say a free group is Abelianised, $$abca=bca^2=acab$$or whatever if I'm getting it right?
Ted
Sure, but I don’t see how that has to do with uniqueness
I guess
Actually
What you’re saying does make sense
My choice of words is poor, forget it lol.
you could think of it as two strings x,y are the same if xy^-1 is a commutator ghg^-1h^-1 for some strings g, h
But your word choice doesn’t reflect it
Ted where have you seen unique up to... being used before?
I suspect maybe you’ve seen it in the context of free groups
Well, I actually have to do stuff, but I’ll just explain what it means in this case lol
The free group in your head might be this specific group which you made via taking symbols and words and yadda yadda
And maybe you’ve seen the phrase that “free groups are unique up to unique isomorphisms” or something
Haha, no worries Chmonkey. I'm just fiddling with these ideas anyway, I'll learn them on a more serious scale when I reach the unit on generators and relations in Gallian.
We’ll ignore the unique isomorphism bit
Likely, yes.
So you want to change what you view the free group as
You’ve seen that free groups have this property that given a set function into a group, there’s a unique map from the free group so some diagram commutes yeah?
My entirety of knowledge about free groups currently stems from its Wikipedia article lmao.
So a free group is something you want to view as ANYTHING which has that property
So a free group for a set S is a group F with a map S -> F
i should've never started memeing about free groups
Such that for any group G and a map S -> G there’s a unique map F -> G which makes the triangle commute
free groups is image of adjoint to forgetful functor from grp->set
So these things “unique up to isomorphism” are just things which satisfy that property
Uhhh...not really, I'm clinging on to the string of letters analogy used by Wikipedia. It's alright though, I'll learn this stuff on a serious level when I can appreciate what you're explaining. 😛

😦
I still didn't read what Loch said.
it's ok
it's ok just need to read jacobson section on free monoids and groups
it wasn't relevant to anything mathematics
will learn one
i don't know if chmonkey is telling me to f myself because he read it or because he did not read it lol
referring to book 1 here
w
monka intensifies
Hurb durb Seifert Van Kampen
i learned what free groups are from a meme
"you can't add apples and oranges, sure you can in the free vector space on apples and oranges"
just let the poor guy read his algebra book
let him experience the millions of sylow exercises before doing anything interesting
i literally skipped sylow until rep theory haha
then like
ah trivial
time to skip applications
sylow 🤢
all my homies hate sylov
Where will you be when you need Sylow to solve your problems
I know.
And when you come begging at your knees for my help I will scoff
its the second most important theorem in finite group theory
well, its 3 theorems
wtv
did they release sylow 4
I mean...
What are you thinking of?
Existence, conjugation, the thing about being 1 mod p, and dividing the order of the group
existence, conjugation and the restrictions on number
Hurb
Okay what about the following
Any p-group is contained in some Sylow
That’s non-trivial
😎
wait what is most important then
Existence
lagrange
I think
ah
i mean importance of theorems in finite group theory
1st Iso
classification of finite groups 
lagrange, sylow, something
1st iso > anything else
3rd iso
how is that specific to finite groups
same as lagrange theorem isnt specific to finite tbh
but it's not really useful
i was talking about lagrange
my point is lagrange is not really useful for infinite groups
so it is the most important theorem for specifically finite groups
true
there is a sylow for infinite groups as well
but i dont think that is useful either
haha yea
which makes sylow #2 for finite groups specifically
How does that work?
i think i remember my professor saying there is a basically complete sylow theory for locally finite groups
what's your favorite locally finite group that is not finite
pfff, the only infinite locally finite group i can think of off the top of my head is something like an infinite direct sum of copies of Z/nZ
my prof is a geometric group theorist, so i got to hear all about this stuff xd
Hey guys, for the question "Which abelian groups are isomorphic to subgroups of S6?"
I could use the fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups to find all abelian groups up to order 720 (|S| = 6!)
But then, find the subgroups of S6 that are possibly isomorphic to that.. is there a good way to do this?
My intuition says not many subgroups of S6 are abelian
at least among those which are decently large
Maybe try to make an upper bound on the size of an abelian subgroup of S6, it's very easy to have non commuting permutations so I think this is maybe tractable
I think cycles commute iff they're disjoint?
err, that can't be right, maybe disjoint or the same?
Idk
upper bound on the size?
as a hint, <(1 2)(3 4)> x <(5 6)> is klein four
disjoint cycles commute
But I don't think its iff
anyway, what I mean is maybe you can say if the subgroup of S6 has size > n
it can't be abelian
or maybe you can do cases or something
I'm just suggesting you might be able to rule out large abelian groups being a subgroup
true
hmm
so you the only need to look at small ones which makes it easier
And my intuition is that S6 is VERY not abelian
so it should be hard to have a subgroup which is abelian
yeah wait if you compose a permutation with itself that'll definitely commute lol
have i made a stupid statement?
are S_n the groups with least abelian subgroups for their cardinality and lower in the sense of #{abelian subgroups}/#{subgroups}
i would write a sage script now
but im too tired to
intuit
and I think their commutator subgroup is equal to them
hiw about A_n🤔
Probably
maybe A_n beats S_n
These are two ways to sort of measure abelianness
Also I think their inner automorphism group is big
I mean
it's S_n hurb
heub
thanks for the hints guys!
S6?
No
Only for a specific one
Inner automorphisms are always gonna be S_n for n >= 4 or so I think
thinking
but only for S_6 I believe you get nontrivial outer automorphisms
something like that
yeah
You act on some fucked up weird S_5

wikipedia says it has one particular outer automorphism
yes
and you construct it by doing some non-standard embedding of S_5 into S_6 then doing more bullshit magic
It's annoying lol
S_3 isn't abelian either tho 
thono
hells, it's abelian for s_3?
thonk
yeah
S_3 is D_6 and D_6 is def not abelian
(12) and (23) do not commute
Basically, you will want to use the fact that abelian subgroups are the direct products of cyclic subgroups.
oh
and using cycle decomposition stuff, you can count all of these
man I wish we covered that better
smh Z(G) bad measure of abelianness
@obsidian path as an example, lets try finding a subgroup iso to Z_3 x Z_2.
oh yeah that's the way to do it kx, yeah
you need subgroups in S6 that "looks like" Z_3 and Z_2. Can u think of anything like that?
I guess if you embed the direct product then you have the factors as well
i just have not done fundamental theorem of abelian groups yet
I'm really bad with isomorphisms so its a bit difficult for me, been thinking about it this whole time lol
I know Z6 is isomorphic to Z3xZ2, and its abelian obviously
its not iso S3
oh yea, oops kind of a dumb example
nono ur good
Can someone tell me how this is read?
If N is a proper normal subgroup of D2n then D2n/N is a dihedral group.
Because surely it cant be "then D2n divided by N"
❤️
but this is an opportunity for an analogy, (123) and (45) are disjoint cycles; the first has order 3, and the second has order 2. In this case, <(123)> x <(45)> = <(123)(45)>, the same way Z2 x Z3 is iso to Z6 (the takeaway is that subgroups iso to Z6 don't have to be 6 cycles). So, try something like Z3 x Z3 w/ the same technique
like.. <(045)> x <(123)> ?
um the 0 in (045)? Do u take S6 to be bijections of {0,1,2,3,4,5} or something?
other than that, yes
i think it's bc they were considering Zn
yeah he's right that's why
aight fair enough. Now i guess you just have to repeat the process for any abelian subgroup you can possibly embed in S6
I'm not sure I understand, does this mean Z3xZ3 is iso to S6 because of that?
oh ok
hey, another reading question. Anyone know how to read this?
"since A has order n, n | |G|."
comes from this
This is Lagrange’s theorem
n divides the order of G
The | means divides
| G | = "order of G"
thnx
last question, and im done with this subject forever (i hope) what does "index" mean in this?
okay so d | n so n = ad
a is the index of a subgroup with order d in a group with order n?
wait no
more general
it's the number of distinct cosets of H in G where H is a subgroup of G
ok i think i get that
does every element of every galois group have finite order?
is your galois group a finite group?
I mean aren't Galois Groups necessarily finite? unless you go to absolute galois groups for infinite extension BS
which I don't know anything about other than it's the automorphism thingy of the like separable closure or something
Yeah I was including absolute galois groups
For finite groups its trivial
I was curious about infinite galois groups
then no, I can give an example if you like
$\bQ(\zeta_p, \zeta_{p^2}, \zeta_{p^3}, ...)$
merowo (◡‿◡✿)
I should explain a little what the automorphisms look like now
where you send the roots will necessarily affect other roots, so let's say you have
$\sigma(\zeta_p)=\zeta_p^2$
merowo (◡‿◡✿)
then because $\zeta_p^2 = \sigma(\zeta_p)=\sigma(\zeta_{p^2}^p)= \sigma(\zeta_{p^2})^p = (\zeta_{p^2}^a)^p$
merowo (◡‿◡✿)
we have a condition on the higher roots here
a = 2 mod p
and this travels up the chain
and so we end up with the galois group being the units of the ring of p-adic integers $\bZ_p^\times$
merowo (◡‿◡✿)
this has elements that are not of finite order so there you go
another example is the absolute galois group over a finite field
the galois group ends up being the profinite completion of Z iirc
so no element has finite order
inverse limit of Z/nZ
Aren't those the same?
no
inverse limit of Z/nZ ends up being the product of all the Zp s
free to ask a question in here?
for part c.), im not seeing how to show the forward direction of \varphi being an isomorphism implying (ad-bc)^2 = 1. i feel like im missing something obvious
mine's more like the inverse limit of Z/p^nZ haha
As the hint says
it's a matrix
so for it to be an iso the matrix must be invertible
aka the determinant is an invertible element of Z aka is -1 or 1
thats the obvious thing... so used to working elsewhere where det just has to not be zero :p
thx much

can someone help me where to start for this
the group operation should be (a,b)*(c,d)= (a+c,b+d)
yeah it should be that
can someone help me with this one
Z2 x Z4 determine if it had mult. identity, units, any zero divisors, idempotents
ik our cartesian products would be (0,0) , (0,1), (0,2), (0,3) , (1,0) , (1,1) , (1,2), (1,3)
the multip. identity would be (1,1) ?
yes
I is a maximal ideal, implies I is a prime ideal?
@obsidian path can you prove it?
can someone help me
if you want to be sure, try to prove it, begin by writing out the definitions maybe
post ur q
@obsidian path so, again, just look at definitionss
another way that you can think about this in a more 'high level' way in some sense is, do you know what R/I is for I maximal, prime respectively?
why dont i tell you, and you prove it
if I is prime, R/I is an integral domain
try proving this now
(and this is actually iff)
this my question : Z2 x Z4 determine if it had mult. identity, units, any zero divisors, idempotents
ik our cartesian products would be (0,0) , (0,1), (0,2), (0,3) , (1,0) , (1,1) , (1,2), (1,3)
the multip. identity would be (1,1) ?
units would be (1,1)
hmm zero divisors would be (0,0) , (0,1) , (0,2) (0,3) (1,0) , (1,1) (1,2) (1,3)?
why do you think (1, 1) is the mult id?
also is (1, 3) invertible?
@leaden finch remember that the mult id is characterized by acting as a neutral element in multiplication with all elements
oh thats right, would it be wrong if i wrote (1,1)?
that's what im asking you
can i create a table for this?
is (1, 1) * (a, b) = (a, b) for every a, b
Is there a theorem which says that any intermediate extension F ≠ C in a tower C(x)/F/C is isomorphic to C(x)?
I think I saw a talk about this but I can't remember the name...
I think this is Luroth's theorem
That's it! Thank you
it has a pretty neat proof using the hurwitz formula
I think it was something like
yeah
look at a curve with function field F
the inclusion F into C(x) induces a finite map P1 --> X
where X is the curve
which implies that X is iso to P1
as the hurwitz formula implies genus(X) = 0
I think that's the proof in the talk I saw
Except they called it a riemann surface instead of a curve :P
I remember seeing a pretty low-tech proof of it in a galois theory course
don't remember the argument tho 😦
I was thinking about how galois theory uses groups to study field automorphisms and I was wondering if there was something analogous for other algebraic structures
For example, studying automorphisms of a group that act as the identity on a given subgroup
Does anyone know of anything of this sort?
It shows up in topology
If you have some covering map E -> B, the group of all homeomorphism E -> E which permute the fibers of this map is called the deck transform group
There's a lot of analogies between galois theory and covering space theory
this is the same thing as fixed points of some group action on another (abelian) group, group cohomology studies such things to some extent
a lot of things in galois theory/NT are expressed in terms of galois cohomology groups, group cohomology generalizes the mechanism in a particular direction
but galois cohomology can also be thought of as a special case of etale cohomology
so you have a generalization in a different direction too
Do you see one of the inclusions?
Mmmmm I think I do see <a^k> being a subset of <a^(gcd(n,k))>. Not the other way round.
right, so now you want to show the other inclusion
and to do that it is sufficient to prove that a^gcd is in the other set
For that bit, I guess I could just say that for $a^m\in\langle a^k\rangle$, I have $a^m=a^{pk}$ for some $p\in\bZ$, and consequently $a^{pk}=a^{pq\gcd(n,k)}$ for some other integer $q$, hence implying $a^m\in\langle a^{\gcd(n,k)}\rangle$?
Ted
Will try that 👍
Does the first bit of inclusion look okay?
yup
For $a^m\in\langle a^{\gcd(n,k)}\rangle$, $a^m=a^{p\gcd(n,k)}$ for some integer $p$. I do not know how this would translate into something of the form $a^{kq}$.
Ted
Aahhhh Bezout...
Thank you! 
So $a^{p\gcd(n,k)}=a^{p(nx+ky)}$ for some integers $x,y$ by Bezout's Lemma, and further $a^{pnx+pky}=(a^n)^{px}(a^{pky})=ea^{ck}=a^{ck}$ for some integer $c$. Hence, a^{p\gcd(n,k)}\in\langle a^k\rangle$.
Ted
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
yup
Nice. Thank you.
Is every finite cyclic group isomorphic to Z_n?(Also, is every infinite cyclic group isomorphic to Z?)
yes
(this is, in fact, an alternate way to define cyclic groups used by some authors)
Nice, thanks.
Can a group of infinite order have a subgroup of finite order?
Is this from Dn'F?
Yes
I see. Will try it.
Okay, I found some interesting examples of non-trivial, finite subgroups of infinite groups.
Can't believe I missed out {1,-1} under multiplication lmao.
yo DD
Yo godel
Need help. :3
Since all elements in H are of the form a^(some integer), can I simply assert it is generated by the smallest positive integer?
hmm...
Assume a^k is the smallest element in the subgroup and consider the case when there is a element a^r such that r is not a multiple of k
Yeah, then |r|=qk+m and m<k. contradiction
How does one show the irreducibility of higher degree polynomials in a finite field?
e.g.
well you could always enumerate all smaller degree polynomials and check that they don't divide it
hmm
This doesn't seem like a good solution for larger polynomials tho
originally I wanted to check for roots but that only works for degree 2 and 3
or you can compute the gcd of the polynomial with the product of all the smaller degree polynomials
in this case you want to check for degree 1 factors and for degree 2 factors
you could try to compute its gcd with x^16-x
must the polynomials be elements of the field?
wouldn't that be the same thing?
a polynomial isn't an element of the field
you could use what's proved here (an irreducible poly. over an integral domain has a root iff it's linear) https://math.stackexchange.com/a/222251 and then simply check whether any of the 4 elements are a root
are you stuck on part a?
yeah
okay, you have H < H1 < HK and H n K \subset H, so its at least clear that H n K is a subset of HK.
the intersection of subgroups is always a subgroup, so i guess you don't have that result? Basically, if x,y in H n K, x,y is in H (so apply subgroup stuff) and x,y is in K (apply more subgroup stuff) and conclude x+y is in H n K. And similarly for the other subgroup conditions.
H < H1 < HK ?
right, so 1 is in K and h = h*1 is in HK for all h in H
hey all, im kind of confused about how this phi(x) ring hom is working here
the natural projection brings r --> r + I
so phi(x) = x + (x^3)
so phi^2(x) = x + (x^3) + (x^3)?
so everything in the ideal (x^3) is added twice right?
you get like {r+2i | i is an element of (x^3)}
then I dont get how phi^3(x) = 0
you need to compute (x + (x^3))^3
ohhh of course, im not applying the map 3 times that wouldnt make sense since x + (x^3) isnt in Z[x] 🥴
ye, slightly confusing
also not sure how to go about (x+(x^3))^3 because isnt this a set cubed?
so am I cubing the elements of the set? or can I treat this as a binomial
remember the definition of the ring operations in a quotient ring: if R is a ring and I is an ideal, then addition and multiplication in R/I look like
(r+I)(s+I) = rs + I and (r+I)+(s+I) = (r+s) + I
actually, you don't really have to think of it this way either
don't they just mean eta^3 = phi(x)^3 = [x]^3 = [x^3] = [0] in Z[x]/(x^3) ?
oh god, yeah no that makes perfect sense just like that
$\phi$ is a homomorphism so $\eta^3 = (\phi(x))^3 = \cdots $ applying homomorphism properties....
kxrider
what about b now?
think of it like this: you have H n K < H and H is abelian, so what can you say about H n K?
you cay something stronger than that. H n K is abelian
Would appreciate someone checking this now
Check if this polynomial is irreducible
My Solution:
(X^2 + X + alpha) * (X^2 + X + alpha + 1) = X^4 + X +1
polynomial is irreducible
I'm unsure if I'm allowed to use alpha as a constant
or If I'm just allowed to use the elements of F2 as coefficients here
Since H n K is abelian joshua, the elements of H n K commute with the elements of G, and therefore commute with the elements of HK.
ye. Its also just true in general that abelian groups are normal, and therefore normal in every subgroup that contains them.
HK is abelian?
does any1 kno
what a triangle pointing to the left means
.
i have to prove that ker ϕ / ker ψϕ
ok i just put it in here & its that
so is that just a fancy way of showing the elements in ker 1st bla bla bla
idk why the triangle was put in the question xd
you mean H < G but with a line at the end of <?
yes
it means H is a a normal subgroup of G.
yea, ker phi is a normal subgroup of ker psi phi
npnp
has anyone written any papers in Latex?
@leaden finch just use some templates in overleaf its super easy usually
Ive written a bit if u have questions ask, but not sure if I will be able to answer since I just google most of that stuff
when one speaks of a "canonical isomorphism" is that the same meaning as "naturally isomorphic"?
^just a small language and usage question (soft question):
So like... usually
it also can mean "the obvious map" but like... that's probably also natural
I think it's a bit loosely used but it's probably some sort of categorical universal map
i forgot exactly how, but ik that the canonical isomorphism from a vector space to its double dual can be thought of as a categorical natural isomorphism
so imma interpret that as an answer: "Yes, for all purposes where one could reasonably care."
It is
it's literally a natural isomorphism kxrider
from the identity functor to the hom(hom(-,k),k) functor
aka the double dual functor
this is actually the context i was asking about, but i didn't know if the usage would differ from one discipline to the next.
TYVM FOLKS!

i googled one but im having trouble with the font format
words are too big @chilly ocean
Anyone know of a structure the real projective line would fall under , when R U {infinity} and infinity is 0^-1
with + and multiplication
is it just a wheel if I keep giving things definitions
im trying to find which abelian groups are isomorphic to the subgroups of S6
could someone help
@chilly ocean does
only 1455, very doable
@fervent tulip did u ask this yesterday?
no
ah, someone asked this exact question yesterday haha
use classification of abelian groups. i.e. if you have something like Z3 x Z3, you want to find some internal direct product of subgroups of S6 isomorphic to Z3 x Z3.
a good starting point could probably be cyclic subgroups


i had something in mind
but my monkey brain does not convert thoughts into words well
ok maybe what i said was fine but i'm not gonna repost it because i don't feel like being obligated to follow up on the things i say
Hello! What would be a good resource to learn groups (abelian groups, cyclic groups, subgroups), rings, and vectorial spaces (and subspaces and bases)?
With solved problems as well, if possible:D
A algebra book
haha, sure. Do you have any that you would recommend?
Check the pins in #book-recommendations
I use dummit and foote,but you may not like it
Just go for Gallian. 
@chilly ocean if you do olympiad math you can try Infinitely Large Napkin
thank you! I will look into it
I'm a undergraduate student and I mainly need it for my abstract algebra class, but I might also participate in math student competitions, so I'm going to check out Large Napkin
thank you!
napkin sucks tbh
read like jacobson or check out the pinned message in #book-recommendations
idk it has a wide range of topics, it's not too bad I guess
napkin has bad vibes
that is all I will contribute to this discussion
DD what did I just say
mb
thanks! I've looked at Jacobson's book and it also has lattices, so that's nice
jacobson's part 1&2 combined has like
a lot of info
really once you read till galois
you can start jumping around
okay, thank you. Do you know if there is also a book of solutions to the exercises?
no
you dont need it lol
solution books are fake news
conspiracy by high school teachers
h a v e
f a i t h
and 6 months later realize your solution is fake
Matsumura's comm alg book has solutions in the back
I was taken aback when I found out
It's so weird lol
It's been useful though!
oo
if you're paranoid use some proof checking program or something

imagine writing all the details
cant be me
I mean
I do both of those things lol
main issue with proof checking programs for me is that their libraries don't have enough math
So I need to build up a bunch of background
i havent actly used a proof checking program before lol
mainly cuz this
yes, if you define a function Z_6 -> Z_2 x Z_3 and show it is a bijective homomorphism, that suffices
the reason for this is that "bijective" and "invertible" are the same thing
so if you can define an isomorphism f: Z_6 -> Z_2 x Z_3
you can also define an inverse f^-1: Z_2 x Z_3 -> Z_6
this is why we can just say "these are isomorphic"
rather than "isomorphic in one direction" or whatever
You need to show that the map is well defined too
they wrote down the map, ofc it is well defined
Because you define it in terms of representative of the class [x]_6
Ah right
(although you could treat this more generally)
do i need well define?
this essentially shows it is well defined but only works cuz the domain is small
could try showing more generally Z_m x Z_n is isomorphic to Z_{mn} when m,n is coprime if you're interested
oh okay i see
@leaden finch yo nice handwriting
actually I found a mistake in your pics
you wrote 'Homorphism' instead of 'Homomorphism'
Gallian is too ultra slow and long innit
proof english is bad
I find it good for self-study, although I think Pinter is even lighter and concise.
I see, I found gallian to not cover enough content, and the stuff it did cover, it did so not that well (personally)
Makes sense, I think Gallian tries to touch the tips of several icebergs, i.e., just give a light introduction to a lot of things within AA.
jacobson does a good job in that
and doesn’t just touch very lightly and go
also very suitable for self study
i think
i mean everything i read have been self studied modulo differing amount of suffering
hey guys ive been trying to figure out how part (b) of this works for some time now. I know that a + b(eta) + c(eta)^2 should be a + b(x + (x^3)) + c(x^2 + (x^3))
can I combine everything to be a + bx + cx^2 + (x^3)
like it makes sense for it to be that way but I dont know if I need to go into more detail as to why
slimvesus
@languid meteor maybe start with the fact that phi is surjective, so every element of R is the image of something in Z[x]. everything in Z[x] is of the form a + bx + cx^2 + dx^3 + ... -- what happens under the quotient map?
@chilly ocean no, S_3 is a counterexample. the element of order p need not generate a normal subgroup. (12) is order p = 2 and (123) is order m = 3 and they both generate S_3 which has order 6, but (12) doesn't generate a normal subgroup
it will be if p > m
and yes it's true but I can't remember the name of the theorem
turns out you can just do it directly, toohttps://math.stackexchange.com/questions/600271/showing-an-exact-sequence-of-groups-is-split
