#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 494 of 407
I've been thinking about nonassosciative stuff a lot this summer
But it's associative up to a big system of natural isomorphisms so it's still okay
finally finds something easy to understand in Atiyah MacDonald (primary decomposition)
The book: "In the modern treatment, [primary decomposition] is no longer a central tool in the theory"

Interesting, I thought it was much easier to understand than chapters 2 and 3
Ch 3 still kicking my ass
I feel ya
Though Chapter 2 was imo by far the most difficult
just because it introduced tensor products, exact sequences, and flatness
maybe this is a silly question. if C is an affine curve, then you can take the projective closure of C by homogenizing to get a projective curve that C embeds into
so in other words, you get a map $\iota : C \rightarrow \overline{C}$ given by something like $\iota(X_1,\ldots, X_n) = (X_1,\ldots,X_n,1)$
Auvera:
now if you have a morphism of affine varieties $f : C_1 \rightarrow C_2$, my intuition says there should be a "closure" of f which takes the closure of $C_1$ to the closure of $C_2$ in a way that agrees with f
so in other words I would think that there exists an $\overline{f} : \overline{C}_1 \rightarrow \overline{C}_2$ such that you get a commutative diagram $\iota_2 f = \overline{f} \iota_1$
but to get \overline{f} do you just homogenize its components?
because that doesn't seem like it will give you a morphism
any non constant morphism of irreducible curves gives an inclusion of their function fields, which then gives you a map on the nicest version of the curves.
(because the function field is associated with the normalization of the curve, so it gets rid of all the singularities)
hmm. if i understand you're referring to this functor giving an equivalence of categories between curves with morphisms and fields with inclusions. and you're saying if i take my affine map, look at its corresponding map on function fields, and then look at the map of curves corresponding to that, the result is the projective version of the morphism that i'm looking for?
i thought that functor only applied to projective curves
@olive mirage why is the projective closure the same as the normalization?
If I close y^2 = x^2(x+1) to zy^2 = x^3 that's still singular at [0 : 0 : 1], right?
Also I don't think projective closure is functorial. I might be wrong though
i'm not sure how normalization works. i'm guessing it smooths out the curve somehow
Actually iirc it's not an even an isomorphism invariant
Z(y - x^2) ≈ Z(y - x^3) ≈ A^1 but their projective closures Z(zy - x^2) and Z(z^2 y - x^3) in P^2 aren't isomorphic. I'm not entirely sure why but that's what the internet says....
it's not the same. But at least for my purposes, I don't want ugly signularities, which is what you get when you projectivize
so going curve --> function field --> nice curve is a process that works better for most applications. Most curves don't have nice models in P^2
but you're right that this does not preserve isomorphism, because if you do this process to your favorite nodal cubic, you'll get P^1
(also note that this fails miserably for higher dimensions)
(but the question was about curves specifically)
but to @elder valley normal varieties are smooth in codimension 1, which for curves just means smooth.
ok, good to know
here's an example from this paper i'm looking at. it's looking at the twisted edwards curve $ax^2 + y^2 = 1 + dx^2y^2$ over some field F
Auvera:
they give this doubling formula in affine coordinates. how do you projectivize it?
Is $\bR[e^{\frac{2i}{5}}]=\frac{\bR[x]}{\brk{x^5-1}}$?
Whoever:
fuck lmfao
also presumably you mean 2*pi*i/5
yea yea mb
haha it wasn't you who typed 2i/5
nah i think he meant the root
Yes that's pretty much correct mo
but my bad for not noticing the poly was reducible haha
That's 99% of cases you'd use it for
i cant remember why the pooly must be irreducible
is it because the idieal to be maximal?
hahaha yea kaynex
you're allowed to quotient by non-irreducible polys
but you just won't get a field
Ah yes
I meant 2πi/5
And yeah I see
Ah a polynomial with real coefficients and of degree >2 is never irreducible
Yaya all real polys can be factored into quadratics or lower
Book showing a proof for that?
That's a cool one haha
the proof is the fundamental theorem of algebra
You can factor any real polynomial over C to get a product of linear terms
complex conjugate pairs have to match up so you're left with a product of real linear terms or real quadratics
I would like a proof that doesn't reference C, but I don't know one.
I would be surprised if you could give one
It immediately implies the fundamental theorem of algebra, right?
Well it immediately implies it for polynomials with real coefficients and that means C is an algebraic closure of R, from which it follows that C is algebraically closed
sorry for the probably stupid question but my prof told us that 2Z/6Z=Z/3Z, but i can't seem to figure out why
quotient groups where just introduced
i don't really understand what 2Z/6Z is to begin with
how do the elements in 2Z/6Z look like
that's what i mean i'm not sure
If G is a group and H is its normal subgroup then how do elements of G/H look
set of cosets
yes like gH right
oh hmm so 2Z is {2n:n\in Z}
hmm i'm not sure
yes like gH right
so in additive notation they will look like {2n+6Z : n \in Z} wont they?
think about this for some time
yes ok i got that
now you know what equivalence classes are right
yes
i would suggest reread section on quotient groups and maybe revisit equivalence classes
then come back
ok thanks i'll do that ty
Are the number of terms in a minimal primary decomposition fixed?
I would assume so because the prime components are fixed and each prime component must associate with exactly one primary ideal in a minimal decomposition
if H and K are subgroups of G, and exactly 1 of them is a normal subgroup, how do i prove H(H U K) is a subgroup of G
Commander Vimes:
Commander Vimes:
since H and K are both subgroups and exactly one of them is normal
HK = KH
and HH is obviously subgroup
ok HH is obv a subgroup regardless of it being normal
but is HK always a subgroup if one of them is normal
there is theorem that if H is subgroup of normalizer of K then HK is subgroup
and is K is normal its normalizer is the whole of G
so like then H obviously satisfies
I am looking for people to self-study with for a 2nd semester Abstract Algebra course
Is this the right place to ask that sort of thing
yea
Dummit and Foote
I have finished the first 7 chapters
Well not every problem but a good selection
It's online so I am open to other books
I am also studying Pfaffenberger for Analysis I/II
And am looking for a topology book
see the #books-old and #book-recommendations
Well I am trying to find a "study buddy"
My last one was only interested in algebra 1 essentially
Does anyone see any issues with this
one sec i'm finding my proof
Given R commutative, noetherian, the zariski topology is discrete iff R is artinian. FOr the forward direction I have this: I currently have this chain of implications: Spec R discrete->Spec R Hausdorff->dim R=0->R artinian. I just wanted to ask if I am on the right track or did I go wrong somewhere.
Like is this how I "should" be thinking about it
I was thinking about this and I came up with a different proof, because I wasn't sure how you got dim 0 => artinian. Spec R is (quasi)compact and discrete so it's finite, so R has finitely many primes. The points are all affine open subsets and they form a disconnection of Spec R, so R is isomorphic to a product of rings R_p for each prime p of R. It suffices to show that if A is a commutative noetherian ring with a unique prime p, then A is artinian.
Clearly p is the nilradical, and p = (f1,...,fn) for some fi in A by noetherianness. Because the fi are in the nilradical, they're nilpotent, and so p^N = 0 for large enough N. We could finish by the structure theorem, but here's an explicit proof:
Consider the SES's of A-modules
0 -> P -> A -> A/p -> 0
0 -> p^2 -> p -> p/p^2 -> 0
...
0 -> p^N -> p^(N-1) -> p^(N-1)/p^N.
Since p^N = 0 is an artinian A-module, it suffices to show each p^i/p^(i+1) is. A-submodules of these are the same as A/p-subspaces, so it suffices to show that they're artinian (i.e. finite dimensional) as A/p vector spaces. But p^i is a finitely generated ideal since A is noetherian, and those same generators give a finite spanning set of p^i/p^(i+1) as an A/p vector space
I like this a little better (ignoring the structure theorem stuff) because there's some geometry to it: the assumptions imply that your space is really just finitely many points, each of which is "easy" to show is artinian
Can anyone give me an example of an integral domain which is not an example of a atomic/factorization domain?
What's a factorization domain?
Every element can be written as a product of irreducibles but no uniqueness guarantee?
This is implied by noetherianness so your ring will look pretty bad
Maybe the subring of k(x, y) generated by k, x, and y/x^n for all n > 1?
It's not clear to me that y/x can be written as a product of irreducibles
yeah haha mb
I edited to swap the variables at some point
This is the example I know of a non noetherian ring sitting inside a noetherian one
Lactually same question but for y/x, why wouldn’t that just make it an irreducible
Sorry I have not studied too much algebra
There are much simpler examples of integral domains which aren't unique factorization domains, btw
Oh yes this is much easier for me to conceive of
For example k[x, y]/(y^2 - x^3) or Z[sqrt(-5)]
Without uniqueness though I had a naive thought that if you chose any element in an integral domain and it could not be written as the product of irreducibles, then that would imply it is itself an irreducible and so any integral domain should be trivially a factorization domain without uniqueness, but I think I see where I was going wrong now
I need to bone up on my algebra
haha yeah, "not a product of irreducibles" doesn't imply "irreducible"
This almost works though, I think
Well not really
But you should look at the proof of noetherian => factorizations exist
Algebra good
I like it a lot
I realized that it’s a lot of impenetrable jargon to talk about times tables and it made it a little easier to think about
But I did notice your proof, need to go through it still (it’s late) but I found it a funny coincidence because noetherian rings came up a lot when I was trying to wrap my head around it
I'm not really sure what you mean about times tables
It’s just a bad joke
miwazaki koname chan
Can someone explain to me how we get the statements there (that I underlined in red)?
(i.e. how do we know such x_i exist?)
@kindred mist looks like n applications of the inductive hypothesis
for $1 \leq i \leq n$ define $I_i = \lbrace 1,2,\ldots,n \rbrace - \lbrace i \rbrace$. apply inductive hypothesis on the ideals $\lbrace p_j : j \in I_i \rbrace$
Auvera:
wouldn't that be to say that $a \subseteq U_{j \in I_i} p_j$ implies that $a \subseteq p_r$ for some r in $I_j$? but if a is contained in $U_{j \in I_i} p_j$ then how do we get an $x_i$ that's in a but not that union which a is contained in?
𝓒𝓸𝓾𝓷𝓽𝓪𝓫𝓵𝓮:
they're using the contrapositive statement they write in line 2 of the proof
Ok I get it now, tysm!
Ask away
How do i solve these type of questions?
am thinking that to prove that F is a field, i need to first prove that its commutative and all elements except 0 is unit
to prove that its commutative
Fx + gx = gx + Fx but how can i prove it
if i dont exactly know what f and g are
when you are in vertex form and have an certain value as a? how do you graph it
@round igloo wrong channel
function addition is commutative
the real question is : is this closed
if i have two continuous functions
is their sum continuous
what about their product
thats what one would think of ig
what do you think
you mean, if two cont. functions are closed under closure property of multiplication
what
i dont understand
my question is
if i have two continuous functions say f and g
is f+g contiinuous
is fg continuous
this is closure
closed under the operations
then check the other axioms
and i think there is a typo
when defining the other operation
does it mean f(x)*g(x)?
it says F(g)*g(x)
what does f(g) mean if g is a function
yea ig
it prob means composite
so the operationw ould be f(g(x))*g(x)
is this closed
if f and g are continuous
is f(g(x))*g(x) continuous
once ur done with closure
check other axioms
does there exist an identity
is it commutative
is every element invertible
zero divisors?
one quick question, y=1 is continuous?
yes
i'll get back to u in a minute
cool
@solemn rain F under operator + is Albenian group
but i am struggling to check if its elements are divisor of zero
how can i proceed with that?
albenian group 
its cool
to the claim that this is an integral domain
this is what i know about divisors of zero
ahhh that makes sense
what if
fx = x-2
gx = x
so f(g) is still x-2
does that prove the zero divisor?
if x = 2
since x belongs to [1,2]
@solemn rain
so when fx = x-2
and gx = x
f(g(x)).g(x) = 0
at x=2
but fx is 0 here, i dont understand
what
f is a zero element here
yea
so that doesnt not prove divisor of zero case
yea yea lmfao
m b
i came across this problem once and i couldnt find the counterexample
the zero function is the function h(x) such that h(x) = 0 for all x
not what you said
if ur still confused
define your function piece-wisedd
maybe htis makes more sense
@grave leaf get me?
the zero function is the function h(x) such that h(x) = 0 for all x
@solemn rain if x != 0 ryt?
H is 0 but x gotta be non 0
that is piece-wis'ly' 0 on an interval
and a nonzero on the rest of the interval
f(x) = { x+2 if x is in [1,1.5]
{ 0 if x is in [1.5,2 }
g(x) = 0 if x is in [1,1.5]
-x+2 if x is in [1.5,2]
i htink this should work
got it? @grave leaf
i am afraid that i am confused as hell
your f(x) is continuous?
same as with g(x)
i dont feel it
check
it isnt man, i ploted it roughly
its not continuous
i dont think that F has zero divisors
also i think F failes under unity w.r.t +
really
i think answer is
https://media.discordapp.net/attachments/496784958430380033/730500408715378898/unknown.png
@solemn rain 2
since its not unity then clearly not field, but also does not have zero divisors
correct me if i wrong, because am really new
(f+g)(x) . (f+g)(x)^-1 = I
=> (f(x) + g(x)) . (f(x) +g(x))^-1
=> (f(x) + g(x)). (f(x)-1 + g(x)-1) am omitting ^
=>(f(x) + g(x)). (1/f(x) + 1/g(x))
this give (f(x) + g(x))^2 / f(x).g(x) which is not unity
please correct me
@solemn rain
idk
im kinda busy now
unity is the existence of an identity
f(x) + I = f(x) for all f(x)
where here is 0
unity means a.b = b.a = 1
what
this is invertibility
this is not necessarily true
only in a field
invertibility means for every a there exists b such that ab=ba=1
if f(x) is continujous
1/f(x) is continuous
^ prove it first
okay fine idc about naming shit
it doesnt matter
if f(x) is continujous
[10:03 PM]
1/f(x) is continuous
for that i need to prove that it doesnt not have any zero divisors
which is the actual bottle neck
yea generally
almost certainly that multiplication is supposed to be defined as (f * g)(x) = f(x) * g(x). it's a typo
otherwise the left hand side is a number and right hand side is a function
i am new to this topic and i am literally blown by this question
i feel if i am able to solve this, then i will be understnding rings topic
i think it will give you a good sense of what a ring is, yes
problem is, this question is way too complex to get a google search of
and i dont have any mentor for this topic
which part are you confused about
how to prove that functions f,g does not have any zero divisors
if two functions are continuous how can their product be 0
under x = [1,2]
zero divisors in this ring would be two continuous functions f and g defined on [1,2] such that f*g=0 as functions
i dont think its possible but idk how to prove it
so meaning f(x)*g(x)=0 for all x in [1,2]
how can you go about proving that
if both f and g of x are 1-x?
but that makes f,g =0 at x=1
wait, aren't there examples of that?
well those are real numbers, so the only thing you can really say based on that statement is that f(x) = 0 or g(x)=0 for each x
the function 0 is not a zero divisor because zero divisors need to be nonzero
if you're having trouble proving something it may be a sign that it's not true
what about this
@dawn kiln if u think about it,
say red is f, blue is g
i cant take values of f(x) and g(x) when it is at x axis
what do you mean "can't take values"
and when they are not at x-axis, their product is not 0
at every point along the interval [1, 2], their product is 0
because they are 0 at x axis,
those are functions that take in an x value
to prove that f,g are zero divisors they must be non zero
f(1.2) = 0, g(1.2) = -0.6
to prove that f,g are zero divisors they must be non zero
@grave leaf this
look carefully at what the definition of 0 is here
it's not saying that the function is 0 for some portion of its interval
the function has to be the "0 function", meaning f(x) = 0 for all points in [1, 2]
there's only one of those
zero divisors
there exist some ring R for which
ab = 0, where a,b belongs to R and a,b is not 0
here, 0 is the (unique) function h(x) = 0
my examples for red/blue (or f and g) are non-zero
because there is at least one point in [1, 2] for which f(x) and g(x) =/= 0
what about this
@dawn kiln my point is at any given point of x belonging to [1,2]
either f or g is 0
which doesnt holds the theorem
yes it does
we don't care about the value of f and g at various points, we care about what function they actually are
it doesn't matter that f happens to be 0 for a bit of it, that's irrelevant
f has to be zero for the whole interval for it to be the zero element
i am having hard time understanding u, because of the zero divisor theorem
f=g if and only if f(x)=g(x) for all x
so because f is nonzero for some x, the function f is different from the 0 function
ok, so the definition of a zero divisor is: an element a in my ring, such that for some element b in the ring, ab = 0, but neither a nor b are 0
here, 0 is a function, not a number
sorry i forgot to crop
your argument is like saying that A and B aren't zero divisors, because in all four positions in each matrix, there is a 0 in one or the other (which is not the definition)
yep
but in your graph
f,g are 0 at any point of interval
and in the same way, the blue/red functions i posted have a couple of zeros, but neither of them are the 0 function
theorem says
both a and b shouldnt be 0
neither f nor g are zero though...
the red function is only 0 on [1,1.5]
neither f nor g are zero though...
@dawn kiln pick any x
either f is zero or g is zero
or both is zero at x=1.5
ok, you're getting confused here
between definitions of 0
you're thinking of values of the function
yes
values of functions are not elements in our ring
so they don't concern us
when i say 0, i mean the function, which i'll write as 0(x) = 0
the 0 on the left is a function, the 0 on the right is a value
now, im saying because neither f nor g are 0(x), the definition of a zero-divisor applies
forget about the values
they satisfy f(x)g(x) = 0(x) (forall x in [1, 2])
if that is true sir then why does value of elements in that matrix example matters?
they don't
just like the individual elements in the matrix aren't important, the individual values of the function aren't either
am having hard time digesting this
forget about the values
@dawn kiln
i dont understand why 😦
ok, let me put it this way one final time - if our ring contains two elements (ie. functions) f(x) and g(x), such that f(x)g(x) = 0(x), but f(x) isn't 0(x) and g(x) isn't 0(x)
then it contains zero divisors
do you agree that f and g in the example i gave are not equal to 0(x)
why are you writing it as 0(x) instead of 0? i read ur above mesg as well thats why am asking
im writing 0(x) to emphasise that it's a function
a function that takes in an x value and returns 0
(i appreciate for anyone reading this that im playing a bit fast and loose with f vs f(x) btw lol)
there are two kinds of 0. there is the real number 0, and there is the function zero defined to be zero(x)=0 for all x. we write zero as 0 also
^
if a zero function returns 0 all the time, i am afraid to ask this, why bother mentioning it as a function
because the ring elements are functions, not numbers
because it still counts as a function, even if it's boring
i am trying to make sense in my brain, i dont mean to bother you guys
yeh it's alright
the number 0 is not an element of your ring F. but the function zero:[1,2] -> R is
i am getting it now
so if F is set of functions and f belongs to F
f is also an element of F ryt
so does 0
isnt it
yes, if you mean 0 as a function, not a number
what i understand from u guys is, that 0 is an element but not a function so it doesnt matter for our F set
it's exactly the same as 0 as a number versus the zero matrix
^
this makes it more confusing, dont you think?
it's best to distinguish them with different symbols, otherwise you'll get confused
say "0" is the number and "zero" is the function
thing is, is abstract algebra tends to relax with notation
yes, but when you first learn it it's best to be careful with these things
yep
you'll get used to the idea of 0 and 1 representing different ideas depending on the group/ring/field you're working with
so our set F hase zero divisors
yes
unfortunately not
F is not commutative
because of multiplier operator
this makes it a non commutative ring
D is the answer isnt it
why did i waste my time if F is not even commutative
A,B,C filters out right away
you see (f o g)(x) != (g o f)(x)
why not
f(g(x)).g(x) != g(f(x)).f(x)
its given that (f o g)(x) = f(g).g(x)
yes
thats why, f(g) != g(f)
it's certainly a typo
i dont think it is
is it from a book?
no its not
suppose its a type, then this is indeed commutative
and answer would be C in that case
yeah
where should i study abstract algebra
do you guys have any source
i need to study ideals and subrings
thats left
depends what methods of learning are effective for you i suppose
could try youtube or just reading. i'd definitely suggest doing lots of practice problems and discussing them as we did above
personally don't rate youtube
http://abstract.pugetsound.edu/download/aata-20170805.pdf this is a decent textbook that i used
but i would suggest you spend a decent chunk of time on the basics
since rings get complex very quickly
its pretty depressing because group theory is a vast topic but i need to prepare other topics as well
because in my exam atmost 2 questions will come from group theory
i personally hate courses that shoehorn in rings and fields before giving groups a really solid treatment
this makes studying depressing because i wont enjoy the subject
i gotta read a whole textbook for 4% of questions that will appear in my exam
the textbook i linked gives a solid 180 pages dedicated to nothing but groups
i hate education system
you wont believe how abstract it is
lemme show u
i study basic Group theory then comes question from premutation groups
permutations and symmetry is not even a big area of group theory, it's pretty much the biggest area
am gonna read that book of yours, not sure if i will be making notes because i dont have much time
this is a set of lecture notes from warwick
covers much less stuff, but might be more suitable for how much your course covers
and is written in a much more appetising way
thanks man, i'll read it ^
idk how your year is structured, but definitely worth looking at some more groups stuff
all of this is nothing but generalized form of maths which is kinda hard to read
that's the point of abstract algebra ;)
idk how your year is structured, but definitely worth looking at some more groups stuff
@dawn kiln this is an enterance test not semester exam
the second link is a more gentle introduction to the area
this is why syllabus is huge
yes
which one, if you don't mind me asking?
i'll tell u in personal message
let H and K be subgroups of G and suppose that HK = KH. I know we have that HK is a subgroup, but we also always have that H and K are normal in HK, right?
K(HK) = K(KH) = KH = HK = (HK)K
and similarly for H. I'm not missing anything, am I?
@thorn delta looks good to me. I'd never thought of this before
yea, lang seems to be using it here. He never really mentioned why we can form HK/K, so just making sure lol
@thorn delta it's 2 pages before that
dang, i forgot about that. wait but he doesn't say that K is normal in KH there. Since KH = HK, doesn't it just follow from symmetry tho?
he just swapped the roles of H and K
ik that.... I am claiming further that both subgroups should be normal in KH. Lang doesn't mention it, so i feel like I am missing something.
i.e. H is normal in KH since H(KH) = H(HK) = HK = KH = (KH)H.
I don't see any reason why you can't repeat the exact same proof with K instead of H.
K is a subgroup of N_H iff H is a subgroup of N_K iff HK = KH right?
wait a second... showing K(KH) = (KH)K is not the same as showing K is normal in HK 🤦♂️ . The correct reasoning is:
Suppose K is contained in the normalizer of H. Then kH = Hk (K is normal in H) so it follows that KH = HK. Now, H is normal in KH because (kh)H = k(hH) = k(Hh) = (kH)h = (Hk)h = H(kh).
Now, you can't repeat this proof to show that K is normal in HK because H is not necessarily (afaik) normal in K.
you're right, I'm sorry for not pointing it out earlier. You get k h k^(-1) = h k' k^(-1) but maybe k = k' so you don't end up in H
And the thing I said about normalizers is wrong, take any semidirect product I think
Alright fuckers
Time for SL_2(Z)
Specifically I never showed the map SL_2(Z)->SL_2(Z/NZ) is onto so let's do that
what about SL_2(Z)
Specifically I never showed the map SL_2(Z)->SL_2(Z/NZ) is onto so let's do that
@bleak abyss this
Daminark:
dami why isn't that obvious
oh I see, because the determinant is only one mod n
Carry on
how is this map defined
Reduce the entries of the matrix
ok
Does that always map into SL2(Z/NZ)?
yes
Yeah determinant is a polynomial
Gotchya yes okay I see it
Here's the problem
If you just try to do the naive thing
Pick a representative of a,b,c,d
ad-bc is 1................................. mod N
Doesn't mean it's 1
To be in SL_2(Z) you gotta be 1
Okay so Keith Conrad here is saying something and I'm not too sure
So I'll talk it out
what happens if you just expand (a + pN)(d + qN) - (b + rN)(c + sN)?
yea maybe something cool happens
Daminark:
🤷
You want xa + y(b + kN) = 1 right? Maybe you choose use the equation saying your matrix is determinant 1 to find x, y, k?
or maybe it's simpler than that idk
Okay yeah I see it
let ad - bc = 1 + kN
nvm I'm being dumb
oof
yeah I don't see the CRT thing, sorry
you want something which is b mod N and 1 mod a I guess?
Not necessarily 1 mod a, just a unit really
yeah that's true
I guess okay when a = 0 we're fucked already and have to do something else
Okay here are some problems let's do these
Exercise 1 is lol but
So obv gcd(c,d,N)=1 because 1 = ad - bc - kN
right
ty I couldn't open that pdf for some reason
Daminark:
If N was 0 mod p then p\mid gcd(c,d,N). And obviously t only involves primes that d excludes
So gg
So yeah d' is coprime with c
And this kind of thing works with Conrad's argument too
And his computation just settles it
So a=0 now
Okay back and uh a = 0 actually is bothersome
Daminark:
Oh wait right we can choose a to be a multiple of N
I was like wait do b and c have to be \pm 1?!
But a needn't be 0 in Z
Well I guess either a isn't 0 or c isn't 0
So if a is 0, choose d' coprime to c which isn't 0. Then cx + d'y = 1. Then a' = a + y(1-(ad' - bc)) and b' = b + x(1-(ad'-bc))
Daminark:
Okay woo
And okay I should compute the size of SL(2,Z/NZ) but I'll do that later for now I'd rather make some progress in the book
Let S be a graded, commutative ring
shamrock:
Is $S_0 \oplus \bigoplus_{d > k} S_d$ a subring for any k?
shamrock:
I think it is but I've never seen anyone talk about it so I'm a little suspicious...
In fact you should be able to get a subring by summing over any subset of N closed under addition and containing 0 (i.e. any submonoid), right?
Can I skip the exercises of chapter 4 (primary decomposition) of Atiyah-MacDonald?
you can ofc
The text says that primary decomposition isn't a central tool in the modern theory
what you want to know is should you
Yeah my bad
was just messing
@chilly ocean do you still have all hw problems that you were assigned from that book?
I would really appreciate if you could share it with me
I'm thinking of doing those when I first read through the text, and doing the rest after
Thanks much
I'll probably be done by it by then
I'm trying to get it done by the end of summer
For sure
@vestal snow I had a similar goal in winter and asked my prof about this
Whether I could just skip that chapter
He said it would be fine, primary decomposition is worth learning about at some point but not critical on a first pass
Stuff about integral extensions is way more important
I've heard that Atiyah-Macdonald's treatment of the stuff is apparently outdated
And that "associated primes" are more a thing nowadays
I've plugged it before and I'll plug it again: undergraduate commutative algebra by reid is great and treats associated primes (iirc)
I have never found commutative algebra especially useful without the accompanying geometry.
[So as a result, I find Eisenbud the most enlightening to read. I only use Atiyah Macdonald when I actively don't want to learn commutative algebra, and just want to see that the theorem I want is true.]
[But boy is it great for taht]
Alright lemme just compute the order of SL(2,Z/NZ)
Does CRT apply here? To split into prime powers?
Oh wait a sec
Nvm for a sec I thought that was a dox lol
This came up earlier in this chat
I'm not super public with my identity, but it is no well kept secret 😛
haha yeah, I was gonna say, or like, the world's easiest googling, or...
That is also true. Yeah on my end... anyone who knows me immediately recognizes the username
Because D(Amin)ark
Alright back so now let's compute the order of SL(2,Z/p^nZ)
This might be induction. Like if n=1 we can just say it's |GL(2,Z/pZ)|/(p-1)
And the order of GL(2,Z/pZ) is (p^2 - 1)(p^2 - p)
So the order of SL(2,Z/pZ) is p(p+1)(p-1) = p^3 - p = p^3(1-1/p^2)
And we know SL(2,Z/p^nZ) surjects onto SL(2,Z/p^{n-1}Z)
Because we already proved that even SL(2,Z) does so lol
Just gotta compute the kernel of that map
is there anything that i can say about an element in a matrix group from the determinant
Woo
any book recommendations for a first group theory book?
A general algebra book is probably what you want. Artin, Jacobson, or D&F
I am filled with joy by the popularity of my algebra books guide
which one do you like
How's your linear algebra?
sick
(And he does it more theoretically which is useful)
is there a free pdf online?
I think the best copy is probably on library genesis
https://www.amazon.ca/Algebra-2nd-Michael-Artin/dp/0132413779 i this the book?
Yup
thx mate
i like that $1000 new copy
what's the reasoning for Lang being "king"? i've never looked at it, just wondering what makes it so good
I think it has to do with the sheer amount of information in the book. Kind of like the Rudin trilogy, I think it is sort of canonized as the "gold standard" for literature on algebra.
yeah its coverage is immense and very clean
not the best pedagogically perhaps
but a fantastic reference text and definitely "the old standard"
it's also one of the first textbooks that frames undergraduate algebra in a truly "modern" way
and, well, it's written by fucking lang himself
so it makes sense that it became the standard
Is Lang a research hotshot? Or do you just mean like, because he's a bigshot author?
Later in his life, Lang was an HIV/AIDS denialist. He claimed that HIV had not been proven to cause AIDS and protested Yale's research into HIV/AIDS.
the more you know!
I was just looking at his Wikipedia page
Since I feel like only his Algebra book is as big as it is
His number theory book is big I think
Maybe Algebraic Number Theory
Sniped
Also I guess mayyyyyyybe complex analysis is like, in the running
Though it seems strictly less common than like, S&S and Ahlfors
i never understood hiv/aids denialism
i know this isnt really #groups-rings-fields but like
whats the motivation
is it just some form of homophobia that i'm too straight to understand the context of
i can understand homophobes downplaying AIDS, but just saying its not caused by HIV at all seems... like a really weird angle
i know that some of them use it to promote alternative medicine (i.e. grift people) but i can't imagine lang having that motivation
Guys this is a typo right?
I'm not just horrendously stupid or something right?
which part
The matrix multiplication
[2x1][1x3][3x2]?
What
,w {{1},{2}}{{1, 0, 1}}{{2,0},{1,1},{0,1}}
Yeahhh
I stated the dimensions of the matrix
Yeah it's uhh not correct right
I assumed your problem was with the dimensions
Guess not
Ok
(AB)C = A(BC) for matrices
Thx
wait why is this true?
I see that we get that (x+1)^2 = x^2 + 1
but why does that mean that it's not prime?
Because you can factor it?
yes
Ah
So any time that you have a polynomial and it's factorable in a ring, that tells you that that polynomial is not prime in that ring?
Is that not irreducible?
whenever you have a factorable element
we call p "prime" if p|ab implies p|a or p|b; but if you write ab = (x+1)^2 then p doesnt necessarily divide a or b
we could have a = b = x+1
which p does not divide
in UFDs, primes and irreducibles coincide
Uhhh I don't think we're there yet, we just introduced what a prime ideal is
Ah right, and Z2[x] is a PID and UFD
theres an equivalent definition from prime ideals
but basically the idea of prime elements of a ring is to behave "similarly" to prime numbers in the integers
(there's an argumetn that irreducible elements do this better but thats a side-tangent)
if you can factor something, and factorization is unique, that means it's not really behaving like a prime number, is it?
since it can be factored
Alright lemme find the index of the subgroup of SL(2,Z/NZ) consisting of upper triangular matrices
Well we can find the size
Because it's just
Top left corner is a unit in Z/NZ

And then top right is anything in Z/NZ
Bottom row is then determined lmao
Y u thonk me shamrock
Yup
Could be but I just need the size atm
yee sorry for interrupting
Uh oh
Why is g^|G| = 1 (mod n)
I mean
The multiplicative group of integers mod n, g is a generator/primitive root of n
ah
I see
So this isn't really something about the multiplicative group of the integers mod n
I mean it's known as fermat's little theorem in elementary number theory
But it's really a statement in group theory
I looked up a proof of fermat's little theorem and lagrange's theorem was mentioned, but idk how lagranges theorem relates to exponentiation
Oh you know Lagrange's theorem?
Given an element g, consider the cyclic subgroup generated by g
Isn't lagrange's theorem like the order of h divides the order of g
And h is generated by an element in g
If g is an element of some group G, define <g> = {1,g,g^(-1), g^2, g^(-2),...}
This is a subgroup of G
Does that make sense?
Yeah
Is Z a maximal ideal of itself?
No liria, maximal ideals have to proper (i.e. not the whole thing)
Isn't lagrange's theorem like the order of h divides the order of g
@old hollow yep
okay so @old hollow, the order of <g> divides the order of G
that order of any subgroup of G divides |G|
what's the order of <g>?
The number of elements in the group generated by g
yeah, how many is that
If <g> = G then G is cyclic
how many elements are in the subgroup generated by g I mean
Sure, but we might not have <g> = G
that's a good point, it depends on G and g
But we can say something about it in terms of g
If G is finite, the elements of that subgroup are like {1, g, g^2,...,g^n} up to some finite n, right?
Yes
If it kept going forever then G would be infinite
What's the largest n such that g,g^2,...,g^n are all distinct?
$Z^+$ is example of infinite cyclic group
Commander Vimes:
and $Z_n$ is finite cyclic group
Commander Vimes:
Yeah the set of positive integers are generated by using the group operation repeatedly on 1
Ok I think I understand lagrange's theorem, I don't understand though how it relates to the fact that g^phi(n) = 1 (mod n)
well I'm trying to get at that lol
Oh sorry lol
What's the largest n such that g,g^2,...,g^n are all distinct?
g^n won't always equal 1
I mean I'm not sure what n is when you say that
in the multiplicative group of Z/nZ? Because it's not true that g^n = 1 there
@scenic sage doesn't really help when you have people giving linearly independent explanations, probably best to just let Category Disliker do his thing and if he's failing maybe then jump in
sure, sloth
I meant why is g^|<g>| = 1 (mod n)
Since phi(n) gives the order of <g>, then rephrased my question is
Why does g^phi(n) = 1 (mod n) always?
so what I'm saying is that g might not be a generator of G
But you can say something about |<g>| anyways
Forget about (Z/nZ)^* for a sec
Ok
I'm just talking about groups in general
Another example that's not multiplicative:
Consider Z/6Z with +
[3] generates only [0] and [3] so <3> = {[0], [3]}
Where [n] is the congruence class
Yeah I'm stupid, i edited again lol
The order is 2, right
And the order of Z/6Z with + is gonna be 6 right
What is it about [3] that makes <[3]> have order 2?
I can explain why 3 generates 0 and 3, but I don't know why it magically always divides n
sure
Maybe we can try some more examples
What about <[2]>?
See if you can spot a pattern
0, 2, 4. So the order is 3
Sorry I'm on mobile, doing the brackets and stuff is a bit difficult lol
no worries
This is true, but not exactly what I was thinking
But yeah you can fit exactly 3 multiples of 2 in {0, 1,2,3,4,5} so 6/2 = 3
okay I feel like I should give you a hint
Ok
What's the order of [3]? What about [2]?
So there's some weirdness in how we use the term order
If I have some arbitrary set X, it's not meaningful to say "the order of X is blah blah blah"
In particular, if I'm thinking of [3] as {0, 3, -3, 9, -9,...} I won't use the word order
I might say "size" or "cardinality"
But [3] is an element of the group Z/6Z, and I can ask about the order of an element of a group
Does that make sense?
What is the order of an element though
oh
I thought order was for sets
The order of g is the smallest nonnegative number n such that g^n = 1, or infinity if there's no such n
Hold up huh
I thought order just related to any arbitrary group or set. Its definition relies on exponentiation?
order means two things, both involving a group
If G is a group, the order of G means the cardinality (i.e. size) of G, just as a set
If g is an element of some group G, then the order of g means what I posted above
and its not really exponentiation
exponentiation here means multiplication in the group G
What if the group doesn't have multiplication as its binary operation, what if it's like addition
Would it be multiplication if the group was additive
by itself
when we say multiplication in group theory, we just mean the group operation
for example in Z/3Z the order of [2] would be 3
I might write the statement that every group has inverses as "for any g in G, there's some h in G such that gh = 1", even though the operation on a particular group G is addition and not multiplication
So the order of a congruence class [k] in (Z/nZ, +) is actually the smallest number a such that a[n] = 0
exponentiation (i.e. repeated multiplication) is interpreted as multiplication by an integer (i.e. repeated addition)
So in Z/6Z, the order of [2] would be 3
Because [2] isn't the identity, and it's still not the identity if you add it to itself, but if you add it to itself three times you get the identity
Hm, is it correct that if cyclic group G acts on some set A then it is enough to define action for any generator of G on A, say x, and then just repeat induced permutation?
Yeah
More generally, a G action on A is the same as a homomorphism G->Sym(A)
And once you know what a homomorphism does to generators you're good
Ohhh thank you @latent anvil, I think I understand it a bit, using the group operation repeatedly on an element to reach the identity is what defines the generator's order
Oh god what is a homomorphism
For example, exp(a + b) = exp(a) * exp(b) has something to do with a homomorphism right?
do you know what a group is @old hollow
Uhhh I think so, isn't it a set with a binary operation that has closure, associativity, identity, and inverse
yeah so
the real numbers form a group under addition (this is easy to see)
and the positive reals form a group under multiplication
now, a homomorphism is a structure-preserving map
the idea is that it "preserves" the operation from one group to the next
so if * is the binary operation in one group, and % is the operation in another
a group homomorphism from the first group to the second is a function that satisfies exp(a * b) = exp(a) % exp(b)
note that the group operations in this context make sense; exp is a function from the first group to the second, a*b is a member of teh first group, and exp(a) and exp(b) are members of the second group (so exp(a) % exp(b) makes sense)
anyway, the idea is that the structure is, well, preserved
the operation * is "preserved" by the operation
now let's take the examples i gave earlier
of the reals under + and the positive reals under *
exp is a homomorphism between these groups
from the first to the second
since it satisfies exp(a+b) = exp(a) * exp(b)
- is the operation of the first group (teh reals under addition), * is the operation of the second group (the positive reals under multiplication)
and this map preserves structure between the groups
Ohhhhhhh my god
now, you probably know that exp with this domain/codomain is invertible - i.e. a bijection
so we can actually make a stronger statement
its not just a homomorphism
it's an isomorphism
Wait so a "homomorphism" is really a function that maps one group to another sort of
it's a function from one group to another that preserves structure
if you have a two-way (invertible) homomorphism (an "isomorphism")
Is a map another word for function?
this is just a way of saying your groups are "basically the same"
labels might be changed
Is an isomorphism one-to-one or bijective
but the structure itself is the same
the relation between things is the same
an isomorphism is bijective
Ok I see
and yes, map is another term for function
(though it often refers specifically to functions between different structures)
anyway that was a major crash-course explanation
this is an important topic so its worth reading about and doing exercises in
it just represents that an isomorphism exists between two structures
i.e. they are isomorphic
or "essentially the same but with labels changed"
like an obvious example is
the integers form a group under +, right?
Yeah
...-3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, ...
well, so do the multiples of 10
...-30, -20, -10, 0, 10, 20, 30...
and if we do some sample computations:
4 + (-2) = 2
40 + (-20) = 20
you can see how these structures feel, well, the same
i mean, we relabelled the numbers, yes
but all the operations are the same
the structure of the groups are basically identical
Oh my god that makes so much sense
we say these are "isomorphic"
