#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 495 of 407
its easy to check that this is a homomorphism
f(a+b) = 10*(a+b) = 10*a + 10*b = f(a) + f(b)
and its also clearly bijective (the inverse is just dividing by 10)
hence its an isomorphism
Ok wow thank you
the isomorphism isnt always that simple
as previously mentioned, the isomorphism from (R, +) to (R>0, *) is exp
Is there a simple example of a homomorphism that isn't isomorphic
Well, I guess like a "good"example like an actual function I guess
f(x) = 0
I know mapping to 0 is a function but
there's still plenty of examples of those
for example
take the group of integers under +
and the group of integers mod 5 under +
then you can construct a homomorphism from the first group to the second
(just take every integer mod 5)
you can in general take any two groups with not equal order
but this homomorphism certainly isnt invertible
after all, would 3 map back to -2, 3, 8? something else?
then there is no possible isomorphism
yeah groups are isomorphic iff everything about them is the same
you can always construct homomorphisms betwene groups
usually multiple
but they're only isomorphic in special circumstances
Ah, yeah that's interesting that there's infinitely many numbers 3 would map back to
yeah, the map in that example is surjective but not injective
hence its not invertible
Surjective means every codomain value has 1 or less elements that map to it from domain?
1 or more
Oh shoot ok
injective would be 1 or less
Injective and surjective is bijective then
yeah essentially
well not "essentially"
literally
thats literally what bijective means
Lol
its where "bi" comes from
"two"
and this is equivalent to being invertible
(the proof of which is probably a good exercise if you're unfamiliar with it)
No, I'm not familiar
So the exercise would be to prove bijective mappings are invertible?
Oh ok
so for one direction, you can assume an arbitrary function f is both injective and surjective, and want to prove that it has an inverse
for the other direction, you can assume that an arbitrary function f has an inverse f^-1, and want to prove that f is both injective and surjective
its just definition-pushing
Ah
lol hello @old hollow
Oh hi lol
Yo what's up @old hollow
how does part b here work? what does the leading coefficient of f being a unit have to do with anything?
Like I get that R[x]/(f) is isomorphic to polynomials of degreee less than or equal to n
But what does the unit bit have to do with anything?
what you wrote isn't true
if the leading coefficient isn't a unit
that's the whole point of the problem
when the leading coefficient is a unit, what you wrote is true
yes
that's the definition
also to be clear, it's talking about the leading coefficient being a unit in the ring R
Wait so leading coefficinte, it's just like... if it takes on the from of a_nx^n + ... a_1x + a_0 it just wants a_n in R to be invertible wrt multiplication?
yes
hrm
I dont' thnik that I see what the unit bit has to do with this as this is supposed tob e isomorphic as a group right?
why don't you try to write down a proof
or just look at an example
Z[x] / (x-1) is isomorphic to Z
but Z[x] / (2x - 1) isn't
or maybe even better, Z[x] / x is isomorphic to Z but Z[x] / 2x isn't
can you see why?
I think that I have a problem with understanding quotients then 
Well I think I understand but I don't know how to formalize
For Z[x]/x it's because 1 is a unit in R, so call it sinverse a or such, and then we can write aZ[x], but 2 isn't a unit, so any element of Z[x] divided by 2 doesn't mean anything?
If that makes sense?
I think I understand what you're saying
and yes that sounds correct
see if you can see where that would come up in the proof
well to show that R[x] / (f) is congruent to R[x]^(n) we'd want a quotient function whose kernel is (f) right?
err sorry isomorphic
we're only asking for isomorphic as a group
but I guess yeah if you just think of R[x]/(f) as a group
then sure you can think of it that way
wait wdym? don't you have isomorphism theorems for both rings and groups?
ah ok
also I gotta go -- sry to step out on you but hope you can make some progress
oke
@shy bluff hey I am a junior and senior this school year and graduate HS this year and wanted someone to talk to if u want accept my friend request
I wanted to major in medical research btw
Ok...?
can a product of non-finitely generated ideals be finitely generated
That sounds plausible
Oh I think I have an example maybe
Let A = k[x1, x2, x3,...]
Let J = (x1, x2, x3,...)
Then J is a non finitely generated ideal of A/J² but J*J = 0
@molten pendant
Wait question, is 2x not in (x)?
Wait another question
Hrm
No nevermind I try this again first
Yea ok @oblique river I got nothing, I tried to write it out using the exmalpe of Z[x]/x and Z[x]/(2x) to compare them
but I'm not gettintg anywhere
Actually wait I can define f to be a function that takes a_nx^n + ... + a_0 and sums all the odd componets and discrads the evene ones?
I think that its kernel is (2x)
Like I think that this $$\phi(a_nx^n + \cdots a_1x + a_0) = \sum_{i = 0}^{n/2}a_{2i + 1}$$
Liria ^(;,;)^:
Is a function that goes from Z[x] to Z and has kernel (2x)?
... no it needs to sum up all the terms that have odd coefficients, not the ones that are odd-placed
Think of the proof for why Z[x]/x is isomprhic to Z
for any polynomial, you discard all of the higher power terms
because they're all multiples of x
but that same argument doesn't work with Z[x] / 2x
the polynomial x is nonzero in tehre
as is x^2
and x^3
and x^4
and those are all distinct
Let A be a ring which isn't a field
if I say "A-representation of G", would you assume I mean a linear action of G on an A-module or a homomorphism of G into GL(n, A)
Hrmmmm how do you write that thouch @oblique river
I can see that it's true but idk how to prove it?
@oblique river is it because if you have that the leading coefficient is a unit, we have that x^n is in the ideal generated by f, and so we can go and quotientmit out?
@shy bluff not exactly, x isn't in the ideal generated by x - 1 for example
@latent anvil those are nearly the same thing but the first is more general. that said I'd probably assume the second.
Hrmmm
We're talking about the second type of thing in my reu paper (specifically representations of the braid group) and I was feeling a little ick about it
I guess it's probably fine, it's what the papers/books I've been looking at say
is this correct guys?
@runic palm post this in #prealg-and-algebra
ah yeah sorry
@oblique river do you have any further hints 
one way to prove the statement is to use the division algorithm for polynomials
which only works if the thing yuou're dividing by has a leading coefficient as aunit
@shy bluff If the first element is a unit you can assume WLOG that the polynomial is monic by just multiplying by the inverse of the leading coefficient and if (f) = (g) if and only if f and g differ by a unit
Now assume for simplicity's sake that f is irreducible, and monic, and degree n, then do you think you can show R[x]/(f) is isomorphic to R^n?
If you can do that then you'll actually be done
(I think)
What does it mean for a polynomial to be monic?
leading coefficent is 1
This is maybe a situation you've seen before like Z[x]/(x^2 + 1)
If you can do that then the Chinese Remainder Theorem should give you the general result
Well I just checked in our notes, and we have this which I guess is what I'm trying to prove
We have'nt learnedthe chinese remaindetheroem yet at this point
Oh oof
Or at least I don't think that we can use it at this point
I mean you can always just prove it
But if you did have it you can just break f up into a product of irreducibles
So is this basically just proving the division algorithm? Like show that there's a function phi that is the quotient of (f) and that this is equal to just doing the division algorithm when f has leading coefficient being a unit?
I would say use first isomorphism theorem with that division algorithm. No need for irreducibility or monic
Yea I just need to find the function that works with for the first isomorphism theore m
And the function that works for that is the division algorithm right?
Depends what you mean by that. Division algorithm isn't a function itself
Well it would map from R[x] to R[x]^(n), meaning the input would be any polynomial and the output needs to be a polynomial of degree less than n
You mean the polynomial q in the theorem?
Isn't the theorem just this?
Yeah. Wasn't sure what you mean by quotient function. If you're using that then you need to define a phi
Yea, then I need to define a phi that sends polynomials in R[x] to R[x]^(n)
I would say "just truncate it"
but that doesn't seem right
That would give you a map, but it won't have the right kernel because the higher order terms don't matter in that case
Yeah. So suppose you want to define phi(g), which should be some polynomial of degree <n. And since the kernel should be (f) you should use f somehow to define phi(g)
phi should send the polynomial g to q(x)d(x) + (f) right?
Err sorry + some element in (f)
What are q and d?
um dunno that's the division algorithm though right
Division algorithm takes 2 polynomials as input. The theorem you linked up there started with f and g, and it states the existence of q and r
well we'd always have the same f as being one of the inputs to the division algorithm in our phi
So to be precise you should say what two polynomials you're applying the theorem to, and what the two polynomials you get from the theorem
hrm
Yeah that's right
Let phi(g) be the quotient? (is that the right word?) of the polynomial g by the polyonmial f for any g in R[x]?
Quotient is the q, remainder is the r
Close. You have f to begin with, and you're trying to define phi at some g. So use those as the inputs
You're looking for a polynomial of degree less than f. The theorem hints at that
phi(g) = q, q is a polynomial such that deg(qf) = deg(g), and such that qf + r = g for some r in (f)?
Well deg(q) will just be deg(g)-deg(f), or q=0. But that won't guarantee that it's degree is less then f's
Read the theorem again. It tells you something about the degree of the output
Yeah
g = qf + r, where deg(r) < deg(f)
oh wait no phi should send phi(g) to r, not q right?
Is there not a theorem that says that deg(qf) = deg(q) + deg(f)?
@shy bluff yes that's true if both polynomials are nonzero
oh wait no phi should send phi(g) to r, not q right?
@shy bluff yes that's it
oh
Well then that was disappointing on my end (as in I am disappointed that I didn't realize that sooner)
Yeah it's exactly the same idea. Sometimes people call this modding by f, just like modulo a number
Ah
This division algorithm is used all the time to prove tons of stuff with polynomials
But yeah. Given some g, there are q and r from division algorithm such that g=qf+r with either r=0 or deg(r)<deg(f). Then define phi(g)=r
Yea
I had uh difficulty with the word quotient/remainder a lot in elementary... it's showing up again now lol
By the way, your R[x]^(n) was defined as <= n but it should be <n for part b to be true
Because division algorithm gives strict inequality
How do you add to a cyclic subgroup
Like if G= Z/24Z and H=<3> how do you compute 1+<3>
Isn’t the generator 3^n for all integers n?
Well 3 generates only those elements, it doesn't generate the entire group
Wdym
What power of 3 gives 6
I’m confused on how that subgroup was generated, it looks more like 3n
Oh sorry
Ok so you meant G = (Z/24Z)*, the multiplicative group mod 24
Yes it would be 3^n, but <3> doesn't generate the entire group
Ok so
<3> = {3^n | n in Z }
And 3^n only generates the elements 3 and 9, no matter what n is
Try computing 3^n mod 24 and plug in any value of n, it only gives you 3 or 9
Never mind I'm dumb
Ignore all of that
Well I mean I checked it with n = 1,2,3,4 and you were right
Or were you saying ignore how you said the elements are generated
Well one issue
Actually don't ignore it
Idk why but I put 3^156 mod 24 and it gave me 8
But in wolfram alpha it gave 9
that’s pretty weird
But basically to generate the elements for H =<3> in G= Z/aZ, it’s 3^n (mod a)?
Well there is an important thing to notice
When you say Z/nZ you mean the additive or multiplicative group?
When you do 3^n it means it's the multiplicative, since you're multiplying 3 by itself a bunch of times
The paper doesn’t say, it literally just says Z/24Z
It doesn’t have an asterisk
Or any other symbol
So I’m going to assume multiplicative
Yeah
He makes typos sometimes so I checked my email to see if he addressed it
And he didn’t
So I’m just assuming multiplicative
people usually denote it (Z/nZ)^x or (Z/nZ)* or Z_n^*
but yeah you can assume the group operation is multiplication
Anyway, now that we have that the cyclic subgroup <3>= {3,9}, how do we perform 1+<3>? Add 1 to each element?
Also, thanks for clarifying that
well I think so
I'm not familiar with what 1 + <3> means but I assume yeah, you add 1 to each element
It’s odd because he doesn’t even address it in the videos
But I’m gonna go with adding to each element, thanks for helping me
Ok I found this in the textbook
So I think we were wrong to assume it was the multiplicative group
And we should have assumed it was the additive group
But I don’t understand how 0+H=3+H
And so on
Ok so new question: How does one generate the elements of the additive subgroup H=<3> in G=Z/24Z
Is it just 3n (mod 24)?
Something like Z/24Z is always additive, yes
H = <3> is the subgroup generated by 3. That is,
H = {3, 3+3, 3+3+3, 3+3+3+3...}
Or, using multiplicative notation
H = {3¹, 3², 3³, 3⁴...}
But remember I'm using 3² to mean 3 + 3 here
Okay, yeah that confused me for a second
I'd rather write H={3(1), 3(2),...,3n}
Does that work?
Or is that not good notation?
It works too haha
Okay, so the elements of <3> are {0,3,6,9,12,15,18,21}?
And to perform 1+<3> I just add 1 to every element?
My professor is asking us to compute 1+<3> and 7+<3> and then asking if they're the same
Okay, thank you for helping me :)
oh so it's just n?
Yes
Keep in mind for the multiplicative group this isn't the case
Cause the multiplicative group only has numbers coprime to n
lol why did you post this here
does the ged involve group theory?
anyways <@&268886789983436800> someone is asking for test answers
oop they deleted
they got banned
Damn feels bad
they were banned 👍
it's not a feels bad if someone blatantly breaks the rules
if I have G=S_42 and H=A_42, then the order of S_42=42! and the order of A_42=42!/2, and the number of cosets is |G/H|=2
So if one of the cosets is A_42 itself, how do I find the other coset?
Anything that's not in A_42 rofl
Since there's only 2, you've got "in" or "not in"
You can also pick some element you know that isn't in A_42, and multiply it by an element in A_42. This will generate an element in the other coset
oh lmao
If B is integral over A then B/b is integral over A/b^c
This doesn't make sense to me
A/b^c is not a subset of B/b
It's given that A is a subring of B
Can anyone answer this , I am not getting. Option 2 is incorrect.
Other ,from 1 ,3 ,4 ,. Which is correct
Yeah
Okkk
All elements are of order 1, 2, 4, or 8. There's always one element of order 1, there are no elements of order 8, and only 1 of order 2. Therefore the other 6 elements must be of order 4
It's easy to see that such a group can't be abelian. This is because if it was abelian it would be forced to be Z/4 x Z/2, (Z/2)^3, or Z/8. All of these options are impossible
This group must in fact be the quaternion group
if there were no possible group you would have to say that all of 1 2 3 and 4 would be right
Ohkkkk.got it.
Only identity element have order 1 in any group. No other element can have order 1 , right?
yeah
Can you prove it?
And suppose group have order n. So all its elements have order divisible by n.
Yes. That's Lagrange
A/b^c is not a subset of B/b
@vestal snow you can view it as a subring of B/b. Just send a + b^c to a + b, and you’ll find that this is injective
If you have a,a’ in A such that a - a’ in b, then actually a - a’ in b^c so the cosets were equal in A/b^c to begin with
You can either manually show it’s well-defined, or write this as the map induced by A -> B -> B/b induced by the universal property of the quotient A/b^c
And suppose group have order n. So all its elements have order divisible by n.
@limber haven this is wrong, they have order dividing n
Oh..yeah...I meaned that , but confused while writing. Thanks for correcting
@next obsidian Thanks
Group theory “show that a power of a cycle need not be a cycle”.
Just come up with some contrived example
If I find a power of a cycle results in disjoin permutations, is that correct?
Ah, okay. Just wanted to make sure that’s what it’s asking.
(1234)^2 = (13)(24) I think
Maybe in general you can make a statement about like divisibility
since that cycle has length 4 and you square it
So you’re saying if the powers aren’t coprime to the cycle length then that doesn’t hold?
Maybe?
I mean if the power is coprime to the length then the order is still going to be the length
I just don't know if that necessarily means it's still a cycle
Oh I see what you’re saying
what are the arrows
I guess k = red,green since that takes you from 1 to k
so start at k and follow red,green and see where you end up
Red arrows represent multiplication by i, green arrows by j.
start at k, now you need another k, so which arrow do you choose?
to get from 1 to k, you follow red, then green
so to multiply k by k, start at k
then follow the red arrow, then the green arrow
in the reverse case, so like i * -k = j, how do you do that? start at i (which is 1 red arrow from 1 to i) then how do you reverse k, to get j? k is red, green, so from i i'd assume you do green, then red and get the j that way? i.e.
so first let's try and figure out
what -k corresponds to
to get to -k from 1, we take a green arrow, then a red arrow
so -k is green, then red
so now let's start at i and apply -k
start at i, follow the green arrow, then follow the red arrow
and you end up at j
okay, awesome. that makes sense, thanks!
note that, if you came up with something different for -k, it'd still work
like we can go from 1 to -k by taking green -> red yes, and this is the fastest way
but we could also start from 1 and take red -> green -> red -> red
and indeed, if we start from i and take red -> green -> red -> red, we still end up at j
as long as it's a valid path from 1 to -k, you can use it to figure out multiplication by -k
okay, good point that makes sense
yes
its just a cayley graph
Mathemagician:
If we were looking at $A[x]$ the answer would be $B[x]$, but I don't think the answer in this case is $B(x)$
Mathemagician:
I mean I guess you localize $B$ at the image of $A\setminus{0}$ and then append an indeterminate
Mathemagician:
Just finished up a problem and it's pretty cute so I thought I'd share: show that the only finite-dimensional real vector spaces that are also fields are R and C. It's the kind of problem with an aha moment, very satisfying.
Can't you do this with Galois theory or something?
No need
I was just thinking about the Galois theory proof that C is algebraically closed
And I feel like you could jerryrig that into a proof of that
Although it seems overkill
I think I can
it's a finite extension of R
so it's algebraic over R
So it fits between R and C
so it's either R or C
Ah. If you use Galois for your proof of the FTA then sure, but the simplest proof I could come up with goes through that
I mean that's a terrible way to prove FTA
but it's the first thing that came to mind
Well, right instinct then
bc the intuitive leap for me was to move over to algebra and not think linear algebra
hang on
you're basically proving a finite extension of R is either R or C
So this is literally what I said
Just the fact that C is algebraically closed
And [C : R] = 2
Or that [C : R] is prime lol
yeah, there's nothing more to it than that
This counted as galois theory in my head
For some reason
So I was searching for a different proof
ah gotcha
simple question (just learned about quaternions), but this graph basically shows that you can generate every element in the quaternion group with just elements i,j -- so I can say these two elements are the generators, yeah?
I mean you can't say "the"
in good faith
since they aren't the only generators, but the two together do generate the group
the
can you say they 'are' generators?
yeah
okay, i see
"a generating set"
Okay, wtf is $k(s)\otimes_k k(t)$
Mathemagician:
So I thought you want to localize $k(s)$ and then adjoin t
Mathemagician:
but $k(s)$ is already a field so localizing does nothing
Mathemagician:
But there's no way that it's just $k(s)[t]$
Mathemagician:
You're not localizing k[t] over k to get k(t)
True
I was just realizing that
Because I'm supposed to describe Spec $k(s) \otimes_k k(t)$
Mathemagician:
And this seems... hard
Oof
because then Spec is 1-point
So?
This is for the problem that the point set of product is not product set
there's no way it would be 1-point if he's asking you to describe it
metaproof
Yeah, it's fubbed
I'm starting to think you actually can't say anything really nice
Like maybe $A\otimes_B B(x)$ isn't anything great
Mathemagician:
So this isn't to like
show the product set isn't the set
he wants you to "describe it"
so I think you can classify the primes somehow
but I don't even know what this set looks like lol
Yeah
okay so universal property memes
Use field of fractions+polynomial ring universal properties
Maps out of the tensor
It's the pushout in k alg
So what's a map out of it?
can you map to k by forgetting the variables
like reduce mod t
for k(t) and k(s)
what
Like send a polynomial to the constant
evaluate at t = 0
is what I mean
except maybe not
since like, fractions
Into?
I'm saying into an arbitrary target
Oh you mean to get maximal ideals?
Hmm I guess
idk
But no seems unlikely
Lol I meant what's the functor Hom(k(t) (×) k(t), —)
No I meant k algebra maps
hom(k(t) (×) k(s), A) = hom(k(t), A) × hom(k(s), A)
since (×) is the coproduct in k alg
sure
Wait so why are we doing this?
Is this enough to figure it out by Yoneda or whatever
I mean yoneda tells us this functor determines the tensor
I'm hoping it's easy to write down
Even though we're looking only at algebra homs?
wym?
I mean I was looking at general module homs right?
when I wrote my thingy
Oh nvm
I agree
so a map into A is a pair of maps from k(t) and k(s)
yeah
Which is the same as two injective maps from k[t] and k[s]
Which is the same as an element of A transcendental over k?
Sorry a pair of elements
Let K/k be some field
then Hom(k(s) (×) k(t), K) is the set of pairs of transcended elements over k
In K
And these are the same primes
Err not quite
wait but
Every prime comes from such a map
why are you only looking for field extensions of k
oh to classify the primes
sure
Yeah
Don't we need to look at integral domains then?
Or are all primes maximal you think?
Okay so now I understand the difference between this and k(s, t)
You can't map $\Q(s, t)$ to $\R$ by picking out $\pi$ and $\pi+1$
shamrock:
Maps out of k(s, t) are pairs of algebraically independent elements
oh
but maps out of this tensor are pairs of elements which are separately transcendental
So maps out of k(s,t)
But I think it really shows why they have to be different
Yeah and just to be clear I'm thinking about mapping into a field
yeah
is it okay to limit yourself to that case?
oh wrt to prime ideals
is all we're talking about
so it is actually okay'
Okay so let's consider maps into k(r) maybe?
When do two such maps have the same kernel
why into k(r)?
¯\_(ツ)_/¯
Maybe I can justify this uhhh
No I can't
Just felt like it
Seems simpler
We know there are maps for sure
Lots of them
maybe we could go in completely the other direction
we've described the functor of points of Spec k(s) ×_{Spec k} Spec k(t)
That's pretty based right
is this thing we've described f.g. over k?
Can we use that to show that our space can't have one point
Doubt
Yeah definitely not
It's infinite dimensional
over k
As a vector space
as an algebra
If you can it's a Jacobson ring
which in particular says all primes are intersections of maximal ideals
if it's integral you can also get the same result but I think f.g. is more possible
So we have an algebra inclusion k -> k(s)
yeah
is k(t) free?
Finitely generated doesn't imply subrings finitely generated
Yeah we're working over a field
huh okay
yeah
All the elements 1/(t-a) are linearly independent
and that's a linearly independent subset of size κ
oh yeah
anyways I strongly doubt it's finitely generated
You started with two really big things
you tensored them
yeah
man I like commutative algebra
I always like, say I dislike math
And then find out I'm wrong
bad vibes imo
This is hard 😦
you described the like
To work in general
Wait
That's describing Spec haha
probably those functors are iso or whatever
you described the prime ideals via the maps that produce them
Like if you took the functor which looks at maps from that tensor but only into fields
You didn't?
You still need to understand when different maps have the same kernel
oh
Doesn't that have to do with the relatiosn between the two trascedental elements you picked
Oh god are we doing the Spec(Z) question again?
Man, I think at some point I'll end up learning topoi or something idfk. If AG keeps going the direction it's been going
No
not Spec(Z)
Okay thank God
Wow your mother is tame
Also describing Spec Z is easy
My mom is a nice lady
Yes I'm sorry she didn't deserve that
I don't think tame and nice are mutually exclusive
2,3,5,7...
Jk sorry everybody
You forgot 0, -2, -3, -5, -7,...
(0),(2),(3),(5)
Lol
(57)
Okay so let p be a prime
Somehow in the fraction field of the quotient
We have some elements
Right?
Like uhhh
idk I like fields
okay
I'm just trying to understand these primes
Is it an integral domain?
the quotient?
Oh you mean the tensor
yeah
I think so actually
then for sure quotient by 0 isn't a field
Because tensoring over a field is nice
so maybe height 1 primes
Oh yeah lol
X
Seems weird for this to be noetherian
same tbh
I mean anything about this is weird
yeah
It's just a weird ring
I hate it
yeah idfk
this is so garbage
lol
I'm gonna see if $A (x)_k k(t)$ has some nice rule
Mathemagician:
In abstract algebra, the theory of fields lacks a direct product: the direct product of two fields, considered as a ring, is never itself a field. Nonetheless, it is often required to "join" two fields K and L, either in cases where K and L are given as subfields of a larger f...
what about it?
yeah lol I read through and didn't see anything
The composite thing is only in the finite case
Noice
Lmao
Example 7.9
Okay cool
This is sweet
So it is an integral domain
The elements b(x) d(y) are units right
Yes
Yeah so weird
Now understanding prime ideals there are still gonna be whack
Okay wait
Can you describe this as a localization if k[t,s]
Specifically you localize at all things of the form b(x)d(y)
Yeah right?
Like exactly that
I don't see why not
That's a multiplicatively closed set
Then the primes are primes of k[t,s] which avoid them right?
Is there a better way to describe those?
Are they generated by an element which can’t be factored that way and is irreducible,
k[t,s] is not a PID since it’s height 2
Err dim 2
And I don’t think it’s ideals are generated by at most 2 elements
I feel like we had that Final problem which showed some ideal can’t be generated by < 3 elements
But I don’t remember how many variables that was
You can find a complete classification of primes in that ring online I think
I've seen it before
And it's elementary
I remember there’s one for like Z
Yeah a polynomial ring over a PID
And it was fucky
Oh
I forget if Reid has something about this
Also just to be sure
If f(x,y) cannot be factored in that form
And is irreducible then nothing in the ideal generated by it can be right?
Where it gets weird is if you have two such things and look at (f(x,y),g(x,y))
Can they cancel them out
Probs
Also Brendan I think like UFD stuff implies it’s not possible
Like if gf(x,y) factored into that wouldn’t f have to be a subset of that factorization
What's not possible?
If f doesn’t factor that way
oh I think I see what you mean
That something in its ideal does
Yeah I sed what you mean
Being of this form means your irreducible factors are in k[x] or k[y]
Yeah
You want the other direction
I do?
Yee
But what happens when you introduce sums
I feel like things can get fucky
Like 1 - xy and 1 + xy?
Sounds likely
I think both are of that form
Actually that generates all of the ring
Oh lol
So trying to find a little less contrived of an example
Maybe like 1 + x + xy and 1 - xy?
Yeah
oof
So yeah things can get weird
I mean okay
I think I’m happy with primes of k[t,s] which avoid that set
hmm
Okay so like
There's a scheme map into Spec k[s, t]
Maybe we try to think geometrically
that's a "plane"
we're looking at a weird subset of the plane
is it closed? Probably not
X
Is it open? Probably not still
Open is more likely though
But still seems wrong
hey sorry I tried to read back to figure out what question you're talking about
but I still couldn't figure it out
can I interrupt and ask what the question/situatoin is?
Understand the fiber product of Spec k(s) and Spec k(t)
What is Spec k(s) \otimes_k k(t)
Sorry we've been going for a while lol
oh I see
OOF
*tall
It was just the edge
I didn't see it
Okay well my headphones got knocked onto the ground but aren't damaged
sorry are you just trying to understand the ring?
or like, what part of the structure do you want
The primes
I'm not even sure
isn't it just a point?
Nope
like, it's the pullback of a point over a point
yeah lol it sure is
We have determined that it's an integral domain which isn't a field
It’s the subring of k(s,t) where the denominators factor as the product of a d(s) and a r(t)
So there are at least 2 primes
Not as a sum
What's not as a sum?
Yeah so Sham you do have that scheme map
Right
But I don’t know what it does for you
But it's kind of shit yeah
I just want to draw a picture ig
It's an injection
But not a good one I think
I mean I was thinking properties of localizations
Not sure what you mean by ID
We know the primes are really primes of k[s, t] which don't intersect some open subset
That means that pulling back along k[s, t] -> k(s) (×) k(t) is injective
I mean the map of rings is injective so the induced map on specs is
sorry I'm still a little confused because I don't understand why fiber products of schemes don't agree with fiber products of topological spaces
yeah but you can see that on the topological space level
Wym?
because they map to different points of Spec Z
so the fiber product of them is definitely empty
*point
The example Hartshorne has you compute is A^1 x A^1
Over k
You get your copy of the product in the form of like (f(x),g(y)) right?
Wym?
Primes of k[x] are an irreducible f(x)
Sure
Likewise for k[y]
Yup
oh you're saying there's a map A^1 (fiber product over a point in top) A^1 -> A^2?
Yeah
And it's not surjective
Yeah
I'm not sure exactly what kind of example buncho wants though
hmm yeah I think that example might help me think about this
basically like I just wanted an example where the naive fiber product of topological spaces was wrong
Yeah so in variety land products aren't topological products
And the same kind of issue shows up with schemes
But the underlying point set is the same
But things can get even worse
Oh fair yeah, I was thinking topologically
Forgetting and then taking the (topological space) product isn't the same as taking the (variety) product and forgetting
Oh I emailed Sándor btw lol
Sure
Lmk what he says
I miss sandor :(
Won't have a class with him until spring
I mean me neither