#groups-rings-fields
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it sorta looks like F_2[x] almost is what I was thinking
except modulo some polynomial
indeed, F_8 is actually the field formed by the eight elements of Z_2[x] with degree at most 2
this generalizes
for all F_2^[maximal degree + 1]
and an analogous statement holds for different "base fields"
(ie F_3^p, F_5^p, etc)
Ok this is neat, I like how elegant that relationship works out
makes me want to study more Galois & finite fields tbh
i should clarify that im not stating this
exactly correctly
the "generalization" isnt as nice as im implying
It's still very friendly though
yeah, it's "properly" stated by taking about irreducible polynomials
Or you can think of $\mathbb{F}_{p^n}$ as the splitting field of the polynomial $X^{p^n}-X$ over $\mathbb{F}_p$ .
WhyamIsohot?:
this is not abstract algebra
try #prealg-and-algebra or a generic questions room
Ah like definitionally as that splitting field? neat
Going to think about why those are equivalent
ty for the info
Going that route is a bit more tricky I think, you have to talk about why all the roots of that polynomial are distinct and so have to talk about separability issues
hmm, one thing I wanted to ask about though btw
Is there somewhere in particular I can read about why "alg. closure is equivalent to not being an ordered field"? (I think I heard this is true from somewhere, it seems kinda subtle, but idk)
(I tried searching for some pdf/wiki/other documentation on this ^^^ but no avail)
from what I've read, to define F_p^n as a quotient it first needs to be shown that irreducible polynomials of degree n do exist
and that's shown indirectly by constructing degree n extensions via splitting fields
@kindred mist that doesn't sound right
Ordered field => char 0
but there are non-algebraically closed fields of positive characteristic
does alg closed imply not being ordered field
there is no algebraically closed ordered field.
yeah okay, maybe that's what they meant
suppose we have such a field and pick an a < 0
x^2 = a has a solution
but uh oh
that means x^2 = a < 0
๐ฆ
clearly this cant be true
since no matter whether x > 0, x = 0, x < 0 is true
we must have x^2 >= 0
this problem goes away if solutions to x^2 = a need not exist
(such as in the case of R)
(mod) 2 is quite an unusual way to write it
anyway, do you know what properties you need to verify to show something is a subgroup?
the subgroup criterion, which is just showing closure under multiplication and inversion
yep; have you tried showing those for E_n?
I'm confused on what the elements of E_n would be
some sigma is an element of E_n iff, for all i, sigma(i) = i (mod 2)
it might be best to do this with a concrete example
lets say we have S_4, so we take E_2
this is the set of permutations such that each i is mapped to something it's congruent to mod 2
so for example, if your permutation was the cycle (1 2)
it would not be an element of E_2
since sigma(1) = 2 which is not = 1 (mod 2)
however, the permutation (1 3) IS in E_2
since sigma(1) = 3 which is congruent to 1 (mod 2) and sigma(3) = 1 which is congruent to 3 (mod 2) [and obviously 2, 4 are unchanged, so sigma(2) is definitely congruent to 2 mod 2, as is sigma(4)]
similarly, (1 3)(2 4) is in E_2
basically, the idea is that elements of E_n only permute things "by even amounts"
3 wont be mapped to 2, 4, 6, 8, ...
but 3 might be mapped to 1, 3, 5, 7, ...
Okay, I think I'm starting to understand a little better
And so I can use the elements like (1 3) and (2 4) to prove using the subgroup criterion? But I would have to use variables to do it?
well a better thing to do is
suppose you have two elements (say sigma, tau) in E_n
show then that tau(sigma(i)) = i (mod 2)
i.e. $\tau \circ \sigma$ is also in $E_n$ (so it's closed under permutation multiplication/composition)
Namington:
you also have to show that, given any sigma in E_n, there exists an inverse sigma also in E_n
but this isnt too hard
since, if sigma(i) = i (mod 2), and if sigma(sigma^-1(i)) = i, then this means sigma^-1(i) = i (mod 2)
hold on let me write that with fancy latex
if $\sigma(i) = i\pmod{2}$, then since $\sigma(\sigma^{-1}(i)) = i$, we have [\sigma^{-1}(i) = i\pmod{2}]
Namington:
since we know $\sigma(i) = i\pmod{2}$ for all $\sigma$ and all $i$
Namington:
so since $\sigma^{-1}(i) = i\pmod{2}$, we know that $\sigma^{-1}(i) \in E_n$, and therefore $E_n$ is closed under taking inverses (taking $\sigma^{-1}$ for any $\sigma \in E_n$)
Namington:
combine this with a proof of closure under group multiplication (which is, in this case, permutation composition)
and you've proven E_n is a subgroup of S_2n
hint: congruence is an equivalence relation so $\tau(\sigma(i)) = \sigma(i) \pmod{2} = i \pmod{2}$
Namington:
hence $(\tau \circ \sigma)(i) = i\pmod{2}$
Namington:
but youll have to give a quick argument for why you can do this
[since right now im kinda abusing the = sign]
All those = signs are to be read as congruence signs right?
yeah
sorry
im just being lazy
well the $=$ in $\sigma(\sigma^{-1}(i)) = i$ is an actual $=$ sign
Namington:
I'm going to attempt the proof now, thank you so much for your help
i'm going to assume that this channel is also open for discussion on representation theory lol
so i was going through fulton and harris and there's this exercise:
Is algebra related to representation theory? ๐ค
(1) is there a proof of this that doesn't resort to finding a k[G]-module homomorphism? fulton and harris don't introduce the idea of representations as k[G]-modules until the next section, so there should be a way to do so without resorting to that, and
(2) is the remark actually useful for such a solution?
ahaha are any of the other channels more related to representation theory?
LOL alright
yeah i think that a claener proof of it goes throug frobenius reciprocity
Would it suffice to do it for irreps?
unfortunately f+h don't introduce it until like 2 pages down but honestly f+h's organization/ordering has been a little questionable so far so i think i'll just use it
um so far f+h has mainly just shown the defn of an induced representation as well as existence + uniqueness
Gotcha, I'll pull it up one sec
Okay yeah fwiw you can assume that U and W are irreducible
Since everything in sight distributes over direct sums
Eh doesn't feel like it helps
Welllll
i'm not really familiar with the description of representations of G as k[G]-modules, but could a proof using k[G]-modules like https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/66323/why-is-u-otimes-operatornameindw-operatornameind-operatornameres logically become a proof that doesn't involve the idea of k[g]-modules?
Tensor product distributes over the direct sum
So you can say U\otimes Ind(W) = \bigoplus_{\sigma \in G/H} U\otimes W^{\sigma}
Err wait
W^{\sigma} isn't a G-rep nvm
So you can't do this naively
oops that should not say egg' lol
dem eggs doe
lmfao ๐ฅ
Daminark:
This using FH notation, I think this is right
hm ok i see
There's a chance I'm wrong since this is off the top of my head but okay I think this is a bilinear map, descends to a map on the tensor product
Then the idea is to show that the induced map on tensor products is actually a morphism of G-reps
And either show injectivity (probably easier lmao) or surjectivity, then it's just dimension counting
That's I think your roadmap
I will have to go now but yeah good luck fam
lol thankss
Um, I'm peddling free Cayley tables. They are cool because they've been made colorful when your mouse over things (tested in Desktop Firefox). http://mathx.world/demo/ There are three tables total and refreshing picks a random one of the three. (If I cannot peddle here, I apologize and I will self delete.)
which browser?
yay
I can't open it on Chrome?
You can try Chrome but I'm sure Mac Firefox works.
๐ค
i opened
oh yeah I hadn't gotten around to https yet just http so I think Chrome might not like the security.
hmm ...
do u have an ssl liscence
yeah I only have http://mathx.world not https so if a browser automatically chooses https or if it bans http then there is an error. I hadn't gotten around to it.
But yeah it's a fun little thing. I take Cayley requests! I'm working on randomly jumbling the top and left bar to make it more interesting. Looking to highlight the center and other things I'm hoping I have the skills to code.
What is the resolution of your monitor?
yes, but the table itself must be a square.
are you just kidding? ๐ my sarcasm sensor hasn't been operating at full today. ๐
I might just make two tables or more. Same tables but displaying different info.
I have noted your observation but I really want to be minimalist text-wise.
anyway we'll see.
idk why would someone need a website specially for cayley tables ngl i would just write some script<or ask here for help on how to write a suitable script> to generate them myself
Well, the cool thing about the comp is it's easy to jumble the elements of the group. It's also theoretically faster for the computer to find inverses, the center, etc.
but I must go. Thank you all .
!!
Can someone show me what to do in v) => i) after taking M = A/a?\
why do we need the order of the group Aut(K/F) where K is an extension of F to be of order equal to the degree of the extension
can some1 illustrate with examples for me?
that's only if K is Galois
e.g. Q(cbrt(2)) is degree 3 but its automorphism group is trivial
yea ^ iam having trouble with the computations big time
how did u know that
is it because it's a root minimal polynoimal is of deg 3 --> x^3-2 ?
Yeah, the min poly is degree 3, so the extension is degree 3
Can someone show me what to do in v) => i) after taking M = A/a?
@vestal snow consider the map $M\rightarrow M_B$ defined by $A/\mathfrak{a} \mapsto B/\mathfrak{a}^e$?
octave:
Can somebody explain to me how, in part b, you're suppoes dot use f(x) -> (f(sqrt(c)), f(-sqrt(c))? Like c is independent of x, so how could you possibly cover all of R x R that way?
@shy bluff what problem?
Oh this is surjective
since you're ranging over all f(x)
this is a function which sends polynomials to points in R^2
Say for concreteness that c = 1
Then if you want to hit (0,0) just evaluate f(x) = 0
aaaaaaa this is harder than I thought oof
I want to tell you to just use the chinese remainder theorem
For (2,-1) you can use f(x) = 1.5x + 0.5
So in general if c > 0, let d = sqrt(c)
Then if you want to hit the point (a,b) I think you can do the following process
find the midpoint, so I'll just assume b > a since the other case is almost the same
you can do (b - a)/2 + a to find the midpoint of b and a
from there you want to sort of renormalize d so that it spans the distance from the midpoint to the two points, so let m = (b - a)/2d
Then f(x) = mx + (b - a)/2 will satisfy what you want
If you plug in d then you end up with (b-a)/2d * d + (b - a)/2 + a
= b
It's a map of R algebras, so it suffices to hit (1,0) and (0,1). I think you can write this down more simply
and if you plug in -d then you get -(b-a)/2d * d + (b - a)/2 + a = a
Fubb you brendan
lol
f(x) = (x-sqrt(c))/(-2sqrt(c))
g(x) = (x+sqrt(c))/(2sqrt(c))
ez
I think (a, b) = ฯ(ag + bf)
right?
you don't actually need to
It would give you the result pretty immediately but you can prove the result immediately
So you want to show that some quotient of R[x] is iso to RรR and you have a map R[x] -> RรR. How do you show quotient rings are isomorphic to something?
First isomorphism theorem
Find a homomorphism from R[x] to RxR with kernel equal to x^2 - c
Right?
Right
Obviously 1 should get mapped to (1, 1)
And they've given us f(x) -> (f(sqrt(c)), f(sqrt(-c))) right
Yea, that's oen of the conditions of it being a homomorphism
Yea but how is that map surjecitve?
So you have to verify that 1) this is a homomorphism 2) it is surjective
It's pretty easy to show it's surjective
Where does x get mapped to?
Like it satisfies the properties of being a homomorphism, I can see that off the bat
Also the way they wrote it is a bit wrong
Uh it gets mapped to (f(sqrt(c)), f(sqrt(-c))?
No -sqrt(c)
Okay the way I understand it is that we have to map 1 to (1, 1) and we want to map x to somewhere so that f(x^2-c) = 0
So we must have f(x)^2 = c
But we also want f(x) to be linearly independent of f(1)
Yea
So a good choice for f(x) would be (1, -1) (if c was 1)
And you can modify that if you get a different c
So you would map x to (sqrt(c), -sqrt(c))
Yes
But we map x to (sqrt(c), -sqrt(c))
Yes
Oh ok so you just special case the 1?
1 is the identity in R[x]
So it has to get mapped to the identity in RxR
Which is (1,1)
Like "If x not equal to identity, then map it to (sqrt(c), -sqrt(c)), else map it to identity"?
No x is an element of R[x]
Okay so we are working with R[x]
And R[x] is generated by 1 and x as an R algebra (ie every element of R[x] can be written as a linear combination of elements of {1, x, x^2, ...}
Yes
x here means the polynomial x
The element of R[x]
Okay so once we determine how our homomorphism f acts on 1 and x we will determine how it acts on the whole R[x]
We know that 1 gets mapped to (1, 1) in RxR and we want to map x to an element f(x) so that f(x)^2 = (1, 1)
This gives us exactly 2 choices which f(x) can be
Namely (sqrt(c), -sqrt(c)) and (-sqrt(c), sqrt(c))
We pick one of the choices
Ok
And that's our homomorphism
Now we want to show that this homomorphism is surjective
How would we do that?
(this is actually just linear algebra)
uhhh we see that it a(1, 1) + b(sqrt(c), -sqrt(c)) = 0 if and only if a = b = 0
Yeah we know that (1,1) and (sqrt(c), -sqrt(c)) are linearly independent, so they form a basis
By linear algebra facts
And that gives us surjectivity
Okay so we're done
I guess you should show that the kernel is exactly (x^2-c)
Actually
Oh right and we only care about 1 and x because it's R[x]/(x^2 - c)
No we only care about 1 and x for R[x] in general
Okay how do you show that (x^2-c) is exactly the kernel?
(hint: use the division algorithm)
Wait I dont' think that we learnt that
You haven't learned about expressing a polynomial uniquely in terms of another polynomial?
I dont' think so, not in the context of rings
Let me doeuble check, we may have but not called it such
This is just given 2 polynomials p and q being able to write p = qr+s uniquely where s has strictly lesser degree than q
Yea no I dont' think that we actually learned that?
Yes
oh ok
Have you never learned the Euclidean algorithm in other contexts?
I learnt it but not in the context of rings?
This is in the context of fields not rings
I just thougtt we couldn't use it here lol
What book are you using?
You should definitely read the section on the division algorithm in whatever book you're using
Dunnin and Foote, but the prof never refers to it
In mathematics, more specifically in ring theory, a Euclidean domain (also called a Euclidean ring) is an integral domain that can be endowed with a Euclidean function which allows a suitable generalization of the Euclidean division of the integers. This generalized Euclidean...
These are the rings where you have the division algorithm
The degree function on R[x] is a Euclidean function as defined in the article
It's not hard to prove the division algorithm for polynomial rings (in a single variable) over a field
Ok, but say that we can't use the division algortihm
Can't we say that because we have S = R[x]/(x^2 - c), that all its elements are generated by 1 and x?
What do you mean?
Well we have that S is a quotient ring right
I thinkt hat I'm ont understanding quotient rings then?
Now we want to show that it is the kernel
So another thing we can do is show that x^2-c is uniquely factorizable into (x-sqrt(c))(x+sqrt(c)) (up to units in R)
Why?
Why does it factor as that?
No, I seew hy it factors
But why does that help you show the kernel?
But also like I'm just trying to understand where my understanding is breaking down here
S is a polynomial quotient ring
Yes
We don't know that though
We don't know x^2-c generates the kernel
There are other possible generators
Namely x-sqrt(c) and x+sqrt(c)
No
We are defining S via our map
Actually you are right
We are starting with S defined that way
And we are constructing an isomorphism between S and RxR
We are doing that by defining a surjective map out of R[x]
And showing it has kernel exactly (x^2-c)
We defined our homomorphism and showed it is surjective
No we need to show the kernel of the homomorphism is exactly (x^2-c)
So here you already know the image and you're showing that where it's coming from is equal to S
Ok that makes sense
Alright so we know (x^2-c) is inside our kernel
And we know that every ideal is of the form (p(x)) for some polynomial p
Ok following
So if (p(x)) is an ideal that contains (x^2-c) which is not (x^2-c) then p(x) must properly divide x^2-c
So there are 2 choices you have to rule out
Namely f(x-sqrt(c))=0 and f(x+sqrt(c))=0
Why can we rule those out?
Because we have the restriction that c > 0
Yes
And we know the image of x and the image of 1 are linearly independent
Following so far
So neither of f(x) - f(sqrt(c)) = 0 or f(x) + f(sqrt(c)) = 0 are true
yea
So therefore the kernel must be (x^2-c)
I'd never thought about it but it's super easy to prove nilradical = intersection of all primes with a little bit of scheme theory
f is in all primes iff D(f) empty iff Spec A_f empty iff A_f is the zero ring iff f is nilpotent
@next obsidian you may appreciate this/have already thought of it
I think all this uses is that D(f) and Spec A_f are isomorphic
I guess you really just need to know they're in bijection, which is what the usual proof uses
@frank solar I tried that but I wasn't able to justify how the "obvious" map between these two is also the same as the map obtained by considering the exact sequence 0 -> a (x) B -> A (x) B -> A/a (x) B -> 0
using which we get that (A (x) B)/(a (x) B) is isomorphic to A/a (x) B
Yeah Sham I did that one
I was like oh huh
I know exactly what problem initiated it too haha
Nevermind, I just realized that I defined one of the maps incorrectly
Tbh sham, the fact that the nilradical is the intersection of all primes feels sooooo fucking fake to me Iโm sorry
Doesn't that rely on Zorn's Lemma?
... fuck
@latent anvil maybe you're interested in this, but I looked it up and apparently you can prove it using the compactness theorem from logic
I would be interested in that
I thought you said you skipped the Proj question?
You can see where I came up with this live on Twitter :P
@next obsidian
I did skip the proj question, I'm now curious as to why you were thinking of that haha
But uh, look at II.2.18 a) haha
That's what I thought you were looking at when thinking about nilpotence and schemes lmao
Look at II.2.14(a)
I have a solution on Twitter
It comes down to showing that if a positive degree homogenous element is in all homogenous primes, it's nilpotent
Look at II.2.14(a)
?
from which book?
Hartshorne
ohk
@next obsidian
and you can prove that the same way as the nilradical thing I posted above
just for Proj and not Spec
Let K be a field, then are K[X][[Y]] and K[[Y]][X] isomorphic? Where K[[Y]] is the set of all formal power series with coefficients in K.
My guess is that they are not isomorphic, but doesn't seem obvious to me to prove
they look isomorphic to me
hm
maybe not
cuz like you could get some degen f_n(x)y^n where degree of f explodes with n
$$K[X][[Y]]\cong \oplus _{\mathbb Z} K[X] \cong \oplus _{\mathbb Z} \oplus _{\mathbb N} K $$
bertwit:
I would've thought they were iso but maybe not
so they are isomorphic
No bertwit
Isomorphic as rings
uh i think you are thinking of laurent series
You might not want that whoever
Also idk what \oplus_\bZ mean
here is formal power series
Isomorphic as k algebras could be more tractable
idk k algebra xD
cuz like you could get some degen f_n(x)y^n where degree of f explodes with n, but x must have finite degree in the other ring
oh a ring map is a map of k algebras if it's k linear
Both of these rings are k vector spaces, right?
Yeah
Also what bertwit wrote isn't even right
For k vector spaces
Power series isn't a direct sum
ok ive convinced myself they arent cuz K[X][[Y]] can have a unbounded degree in X
okay more general question
How is $A \otimes_k k[[t]]$ related to $A[[t]]$ if $A$ is a $k$-algebra?
shamrock:
I think there's a map one way
Um are they isomorphic as rings?
Ok
so we have a map $\varphi : A \otimes_k k[[t]] \to A[[t]]$ given by $\varphi(a \otimes f(t)) = a f(t)$
shamrock:
My current question is whether this is an iso
If it is, the rings you started with are isomorphic
Since $k[[y]][x] \cong k[[y]] \otimes_k k[x]$
shamrock:
ahh yeah I think I see the issue
Why this will fail to be surjective
anything in the image of this map will eventually have all coefficients in k
It's probably injective but I don't want to prove that lol
hmm I have no idea how to actually prove these rings are different. It sounds super hard
Hmm what does Spec k[x][[y]] look like
This might not work but is there a universal property of k[[x]]?
Probably
I don't know it though
Maps out are awkward though
and I can't imagine maps in are better really
If there is, maybe you can kind of combine the universal property of polynomial ring and formal power series to get a universal property of k[[y]] (x) in terms of k
Doesn't k[[t]] only have one prime or something
It's a local ring
@next obsidian do you remember how this works?
I'm pretty sure it has more than one prime
it has one prime up to units
Oh I was talking about prime ideals
Aren't 0 and the set of series with constant term 0 both prime?
Oh yeah, but I think that (t) is the only nonzero prime?
this would mean dim k[[y]] = 1
and in fact k[[y]] is noetherian because all prime ideals are finitely generated
so dim k[[y]][x] = 2
and the same is true for k[x][[y]], so this wasn't very helpful...
so my thinking is that k[x][[y]] is bigger than k[[y]][x], but I'm not sure how to quantify this
clearly not by dimension lol
Yeah what am I talking about, isn't k[[t]] a dvr???
hmm that makes me feel like I should be able to describe all the primes of k[[y]][x] explicitly
I'm trying if taking both of them to their field of fractions and showing those aren't isomorphic works
hmm weird
k[x][[y]] is a local ring i think and k[[y]][x] isnt right?
It's not
A local ring
m + (y) will be maximal for any maximal ideal m of k[x] I think
oops right
@vestal snow the fof of k[x][[y]] extends that of k[[y]][x]
Maybe you could understand that extension?
Idk the field of fractions seem pretty scary
Yeah that got nowhere
For vii), how do I show $V(a+Ann(M)) \subseteq Supp(M/aM)$?
Have a Banana Bitch:
I feel like I did this in Matsumura. Try using Nakayamaโs lemma maybe?
I tried doing contradiction by saying that suppose $p$ is in $V(a+Ann(M))$. Then $a+Ann(M) \subseteq p$. Assume that $M/aM)_p=0$. Then for every $m$ there exists a $u \in A-p$ such that $um\in aM$. For each generator, take the $u_i$ and multiply it together to get a $u$. Then $um\in aM$ for all $m \in M$
Have a Banana Bitch:
I need to somehow show that $u$ is in $a+Ann(M)$ to get a contradiction
Have a Banana Bitch:
I donโt see how this could work. The only assumption you started with is that a + Ann(M) is a subset of p and I donโt see how that could possibly relate to how you constructed u since this would just hold true for any prime such that (M/aM)_p = 0
Like maybe thereโs something really really subtle but I really donโt see it
Mathemagician:
then if $(M/aM)_p = 0$ then you know that $M_p = a_pM_p$
Mathemagician:
Then since this is a local ring this says that $M_p = 0$ right?
Mathemagician:
I think
Maybe I'm just being stupid because it's 3 am lol
but if $p \in V(a + Ann(M))$ and what I said is true that's something you can try and leverage I guess
Mathemagician:
Alright I'll try
I don't actually see how that would be useful tho tbh
Now that I think about it more
perhaps we need to use the earlier parts
I mean $(M/aM)_p \neq 0$ says that $M_p \neq a_pM_p$
Mathemagician:
I guess yeah
Idk, I feel like there's some cooler way to see this with some exact sequence or some bs idk
Wait but how does what you said prove the claim
Oh wait
Use parts v) and vi) I think
From v) you know that Supp(M) = V(Ann(M)) and from vi) you know that Supp(M/aM = M (x)_A A/a) = Supp(M) \cap Supp(A/a) = V(Ann(M)) \cap V(a) = V(a + Ann(M))
Lol
@vestal snow
Assuming you've already done the other parts haha
I did
I have a bad habit of forgetting the previous exercise/part when I move on the the next one
Oof. For a multi part one like this that usually ends up being key
Are you an undergraduate or graduate student?
Undergrad
Just a small thing that's bothering me about that solution
Oh wait nvm
yeah I'm probably just tired af
Cool! I'm an undergraduate too
Rising sophomore
Oh yeah Iโm a rising junior
If S is a simple R-module (R not necessarily commutative), and $n>k$, how do I show that there's no surjective R-module map $S^k -> S^n$?
If f: A -> B is a homomorphism and every prime ideal of A is a contracted ideal, then f*: Spec(B) -> Spec(A) is surjective?
How would I prove this?
any prime ideal p of A can be written as q^c, but we don't know if there is a way to write it where q itself is also prime
The book claims that it is obvious, but I don't see how
Yeah I don't see how this is true in general
You need some sort of going up type theorem I feel
I don't know any way to like fatten up any ideal into a minimal prime ideal containing it, you can get a minimal prime but the fact you have choices would lead me to believe there's no reason it would pullback to the same ideal as the original
is the set ${\sin(q)|q\in (0,\pi)\cap \mathbb{Q}}$ linearly independent over $\mathbb{Q}$?
Liquid:
the question is much easier if you replace ${\sin(q)|q\in (0,\pi)\cap \mathbb{Q}}$ with ${\sin(q)|q\in (0,\pi)} \cap \mathbb{Q}$
Buncho Bananas:
lmao
:^)
Am I correct that if we take a noncommutative unital domain D, then Frac(D) will just be a noncommutative (unital) DVR?
๐๐ธ๐พ๐ท๐ฝ๐ช๐ซ๐ต๐ฎ:
I'm not sure that Frac makes sense here
Like, won't you need a left vs right division?
hmm ok yeah idk I suppose so
I also have no idea what a noncommutative DVR is
I would've assumed Frac(R) would be a division ring
ack... rip my notes >_<
There does exist noncommutative division rings I think, I guess we just might not be able to form them with Frac, I was having trouble finding an example with google though
(I thought matrices but GL isn't a ring, and M_n isnt a division ring)
there are noncommutative division rings, but I don't think there's a good notion of frac for a noncommutative domain
Or maybe there is, but it's significantly uglier
maybe quaterion-valued rational functions (for noncommutative division ring)?
What do you mean?
Do you just want an example of a division ring which isn't a field?
๐๐ธ๐พ๐ท๐ฝ๐ช๐ซ๐ต๐ฎ:
sorry about that, thanks
someone gave me homework on Twitter so I'm going to try and work it out here
I am a little confused but hopefully I can work it out on my own
Let A be a k algebra. I'm being told to prove that a Z grading on A is the same thing as an action of G_m = Spec k[x, xยฏยน] on Spec A
Note that G_m ร_k Spec A = Spec(k[x, xยฏยน] (ร)_k A) = Spec(A[x, xยฏยน]), so the action map G_m ร_k Spec A -> Spec A is the same as a k-algebra map A -> A[x, xยฏยน] satisfying some conditions
Okay so what are those conditions?
Let's let ฯ : G_m ร_k Spec A -> Spec A be the action map and ฯ : A -> A[x, xยฏยน] the corresponding k-algebra map
Hmm I think it'll be pretty nice to write down. I'm gonna have some diagrams in k-Sch expressing that ฯ is a group action, defined in terms of the fiber product and the unit Spec k, but everything's affine so those diagrams are exactly dual to something in k-Alg
so one thing I want to understand is the counit and comultiplication maps in k[x, xยฏยน]
I think the counit just sends x to 1
On schemes the unit map should send the single point of Spec k to the point (x-1) in G_m, right???
I have elected not to do this problem because thinking about group schemes is making my brain unhappy
If two disjoint cycles sigma and tau have order r, then does (sigma x tau)^r=e (identity)
just making sure
yep
@next obsidian Is this problem incorrect then? Any idea how to fix it? We haven't done integral extensions yet so I think there might some other additional condition you can add to make it work
I mean it might be correct?
I just have no idea how you would show it
Perhaps somehow the fact that every prime is a contracted ideal implies some sort of going up type thing?
I think actually it must be equivalent since Iโm pretty sure f* surjective is the same as the going up property, but I might be mixing some stuff up
I guess you need to figure out some way to figure out thereโs some sort of prime. Try Zornโs I guess?
Oh wait I think I see how to do this actually
Let P be a prime of A, and let S be A\P, then S is a multiplicative system. It follows that T = f(S) is a multiplicative system, so consider the poset of ideals disjoint from f(S). This is nonempty since there is an ideal I of B such that f^-1(I) = P, but if I intersected T then f^-1(I) would intersect S, a contradiction. By Zornโs thereโs a maximal ideal in this Poset, and you should know that maximal ideals which are disjoint from multiplicative systems are prime
I think you have to prove it in order to complete the proof that nilradical = intersection of all primes
@vestal snow
So apparently this is equivalent to the going up condition @dapper nebula you might be interested in this too
Since going up is equivalent to the map on Specs being surjective Iโm pretty sure, I know it implies it, and Iโm pretty sure the other direction holds as well
@next obsidian Here by maximal ideals you mean the maximal element of the poset, right?
Yeah maximal wrt the poset
Why are maximal ideals disjoint from multiplicative systems prime?
Nevermind I figured it out
Is this a commonly known result?
Or did you come up with it while doing this problem?
So for this question, where K is a field, how do I start it? I'm looking at the definition of a field and it seems to be the set of units of K?
(ab) must be a maximal ideal
So that gets rid of the possibility of both a and b being units
Wait we haven't learnt about maximal ideals yet
I guess you can still do it using quotient rings instead of maximal ideals, but its a bit of a pain
Yea I feel like taht's how they want us to solve it
Hint: fields don't have zero divisors
oh wait this is true
wait
If both of them are units, then there exist c, d such that ac = 1, bd = 1
Then every element k in K[x]/(ab) takes on the form of k + ab right, where k is an element of K[x]?
wait actually, another question, if K[x]/(ab) is a field, then it must satisfy this right?
In this case R^x is K[x]/(ab) \ {0}?
No
Oh
Yes
wait what
Oh so every element of a fiield is a unit
and we can't have 0 elements in it?
No I said every nonzero element
Oh wait no
Is a unit
Units can't be zero divisors
Anyway if a and b are both units
Ok so we have to have that every k in there is a unit
Then ab is also a unit, right?
yea
I don't know, I dont' really see how that affects K[x] is the thing? Like all that I really understand is that
- elements of K[x]/(ab) take on the form of k + ab
- ab is a unit, and so is k?
What is the ideal generated by a unit?
hrm
If we have a unit i, then the ideal generated by it must contain all ir, ri for all r in R, and so the identity is included and it ends up generating the entire ring?
Okay so what is R/R?
I... don't know
Think about it
Yeah
Part of the requirements for a field is 1 \neq 0
So the 0 ring is not a field
Yea
oooh ok
So if we have that both a and b are unit,s then we have that the ideal generated by ab is the entire ring
And thus we have that K[x]/(ab) becomes the 0 ring, which it can't be because we've said tha t it has to be a field
oh
If we have that just one is a unit, then their product is not a unit, thus it does not generate the entire ring, and thus it can be a field?
This doesn't quite give us what we want
Yeah their product won't be a unit
ok thank god that was a guess 
Do you know about irreducible elements?
oh wait that makes sense, we have a group of units
Yeah
No, we have'nt learnt about irreducible elements
Sure
well, if it's a field then we need that everything in it is a unit, and also that 1 is not 0 in it?
And if it's a unit then there has to be an inverse element
Yes
hrm but ab isn't a unit though right?
In k[x]/(ab) we have ab=0
Aureva gave a hint earlier re zero divisors
They said that fields can't have zero divisors
wait why do we have ab = 0
oh right
Yea it gets sent to the equivalence class of 0 right?
None, because it's a field right?
What would your 0 divisors be?
wouldn't it be any multiple of ab?
Oh
In other words you want c+(ab) and d+(ab) with cd\in (ab)
ok, but why does both a and b not being units amke that happen?
so it's, for all r in R, rab, abr in (ab)
About k[x] being the polynomial ring over k
Where k is a field
To show that a and b cannot be in (ab)
Namely you have to use the degree function
Yes
but it's not a unit so its degree can't be 0?
oh right, because neither a nor b are units, their degrees are both non-zero, and thus the degree of deg(ab) must be 0?
deg(ab) must be strictly greater than deg(a) and deg(b)
So that tells us a and b can't be in (ab)
Because (ab) is the set pab where p is an element of k[x]
And so the degree of every nonzero element in (ab) is greater than or equal to deg(ab)
The degree of every nonzero element in (ab) is greater than or equal to degree (ab).... I'm a bit lost, can you come up with an example of a concrete ring and values of a and b?
Liquid:
sure
Let $a=x^2+1$ and $b=x^3+3$
Liquid:
sure
Those are both irreducible polynomials over R, which means that they are not units
Right?
Then the leading term of ab is x^5
yes
And any nonzero element of (ab) must have degree at least 5
ok sure
So then what does (ab) look like?
Is it just all polynomials with degree greater than 5?
It looks like $p(x) (x^5+x^3+3x^2+3)$
Liquid:
Where p(x) is any polynomial
Oh so it's just the product of any polynomial and that
Yeah
You can use this idea of degree to show that a and b are not in (ab)
And then you can use that to show that $a+(ab)$ and $b+(ab)$ are zero divisors in $k[x]/(ab)$
Liquid:
And I think that you should be able to work out things from here
hrmmm I'll sleep on it... I think that it's just too late lol
That's fair
Wait question, why is cd in (ab)? We have that if it's an ideal then we have that cdab is in(ab) isnt' it? Not just cd?
Wait how can we have a, b in K[x] but not in (ab)? by definition, we have to have that a(ab) in (ab) right? As (ab) is an ideal?
and a is an element of K[x]?
like in order for it to be an ideal, it must have that for all r in R, i in I, ri, ir in I right?
And here we have that our ideal is (ab), and our ring K[x], so we have to have that for all k in K[x] that kab in (ab)
so we have to have aab in (ab) no?
let S be an abelian subgroup of the pauli group on n qubits such that S does not contain -1. let G be a set of generators for S. let g be an element of G. show that there exists an element p of the pauli group such that p anticommutes with g but commutes with every other element of G
whys this true/is it obvious?
they just included this fact casually as part of a proof but i dont see why it's true immediately
Wait how can we have a, b in K[x] but not in (ab)? by definition, we have to have that a(ab) in (ab) right? As (ab) is an ideal?
@shy bluff yes that's correct. aab and bab are in (ab), but these aren't necessarily equal to a and b
Oh right because a and b are a + (ab) and b + (ab)?
Those are their images in the quotient yeah
I'm not sure what you're trying to prove, I didn't follow the whole conversation
And by "show that a + (ab) and b + (ab) are zero divisors", what does that mean?
(a+(ab))c for some nonzero c is 0
thats what it means for a+(ab) to be a zero divisor
It means they're nonzero in the quotient and their product is 0
Show that if K[x]/(ab) is a field, exactly one of a or b is a unit
This was the neither is a unit case
Ok so and that's just ac + (ab) right?
Oh if c is just b, then it just goes to ab + (ab) which is 0 in this?
Yeah, but it's b+(ab), not b
Err yea
And so if neither a nor b is a unit, we see that (a + (ab))(b + (ab)) = ab + (ab), which is just equal to 0 in this quotient ring?
That's true regardless if they're units or not
Oh
Hrm so I want to find c, d not equal to a or b such that (a + (ab))c = (b + (ab))d = 0?
Or rather, show that such a c and d exist?
No, you just want to show the quotient has zero divisors, which you've almost done above
Isn't that showing that the quotient has zero divisors?
That would do it but you don't need them different from a and b
Wait I'm confused, you said that that's true regardless of if they're units or not
Right?
The condition of neither are units?
Yeah
If neither of units, than we know that ab will never be identity right?
Sure
And there can't be c such that ac = 1 or bc = 1
Yeah
Is this headde in the right direction lol
if ab =1 ab+(ab) is not 0
( if 1 is in (ab),(ab) is the whole ring )
so i think u used
Hmm not really. You need to show zero divisors. You got half of it up there by showing their product is 0
the condition?
@solemn rain that's for the both are units case
ab+(ab) is always 0 because ab is in (ab)
Yea
What if I multiply this by some c and we get that neither a nor b nor c are 0 but their product is 0?
You don't need to. a+(ab) and b+(ab) will be your two zero divisors, you just need to show it
To show that the product is 0 I want to show that the product is equal to some multiple of ab right?
brain bad
Pause for a sec. If I is an ideal of R and x,y are in R, what's the condition that x+I is equal to y+I?
If they're sent to the same equivalence classes?
And how do you know whether the equivalence class will be the same?
x+I=y+I if and only if x-y is in I
Ok
That's why ab+(ab) = 0+(ab), because ab-0 is in (ab)
Ok but what does it mean to show that a + (ab) is a zero divisor?
It means to show that there exists c such that (a + (ab))c = 0 right
It means it's nonzero and that you can multiply it with another nonzero element to get zero
Ok, so we want to show that there exists non zero c in K[x]/(ab) such that (a + (ab))c = 0
You've shown that (a+(ab))(b+(ab))=0+(ab), so if you show that a+(ab) and b+(ab) are nonzero you're done
Then they will be zero divisors
Oh wait what
Oh so that first bit already proved that they
Oh
I just needed to show that a, b are nonzero
You need that a+(ab) is nonzero not that a is nonzero. Same for b
Well a + (ab) nonzero means that a not in (ab)?
Yeah
Then I want to show that ai not in (ab) for some i in (ab)?
I would do a contradiction. Suppose a is in (ab)
If a is in (ab) then we have that for all k in K[x], ak, ka in (ab)
That's not right. What does the set (ab) look like
Yeah, so a must be one of those elements if it's in there
(ab) = {abk for all k in K[x]}
Suppose a is in (ab), then we have that aab, aba in (ab)?
No, it's that a=kab for some k
Because things in (ab) have the form kab and a is one of them
Or abk, doesn't matter
So then a = kab for some k in K[x], but this is a contradiction as we'd need k = b^-1 but b is not a unit so it doesn't have an inverse?
You can give a better argument. Rearrange the equation
a = kab <=> a - kab = 0, but a is not zero?
Factor
Oh I can factor that?
a(1 - kb) = 0, which implies that either a is 0 or that k in an inverse of b, which is a contradiction?
Yep. You assumed b wasn't a unit so that case is a clear contradiction. Why is a=0 bad though
Well we have that a is nonzero in the first place don't we
Was that assumed in the problem?
Yes, why is that bad
I've gotten slightly lost in our proof method. We assumed a and b weren't units and trying to show the quotient isn't a field
Yes
To do that we show a+(ab) and b+(ab) are zero divisors of each other
So if a=0, we get that (ab)=(0), so that means K[x]/(ab) is isomorphic to K[x] because quotienting by 0 does nothing
Yeah I was just trying to keep track of where we were
Oh wait
Quotienting by 0 does nothing?
Well I guess that makes sense
But also wourd bc dividing by 0?
No it's quotient ring, not actual division
Yea
Yea ok because the quotient is basicaly everything thaat gets sent to 0
And if your quotinet is just 0 then only 0 is sent to 0
Ok
Kernel you mean*
Well you can think of it as collapsing the ideal to 0, but that's the same as the kernel of the projection map K[x]-->K[x]/(ab)
Oh right it has to be K[x]^x that's a field
What
This proof was very messy
I wouldn't have done contrapositive in the first place
Oh uh K[x] isn't a field bc x doesn't have an inverse right
Right
Oke
Thank you for the help, sorry for being obtuse :x
I'm having a hard time understanding the material, to the point where idk what I can even ask unforhunately
you're getting better with quotients i think ๐
I kind of get what it is, that it's just the ring with everything sent to equivalence classes and that everything that's in your ideal is basically a thing to send to 0
Like I don't know what I can and can't do in them though
Liike factoring
That was a surprise to me
yeah basically. the important things to remember in getting started in my opinion are:
- elements look like r+I for any r in R
- operations work as r+I + s+I = r+s+I, and (r+I)(s+I) = rs + I
- r+I=s+I if and only if r-s in I
you can factor in any ring, and we factored in K[x], not in the quotient
Err yea but like "You can factor in a ring?????" Was my thought when you said factor
Which makes sense as it's commutative
oh
that's one of the defining properties of a ring
x*(y+z) = xy + xz for all x,y,z in R
Oh right
But like factor out from the middle
As we had a - kab
But I guess same thing
oh you need commutativity for that
how does this work? so if it's an ideal it's closed under subtraction, so I see that the first one, the sum, is an ideal
but what about the other two?O
Obviously first and second holds good and the 3rd doesn't hold
Just multiply f(x) by 2 and conclude that 3 doesn't hold
what do you mean by multiply it by 2?
Ideals are closed under multiplication, and 2 is an element of Z[x]
One of the many stipulations for an ideal is its elements are closed under addition.
Notice: f(0) = odd means f(0) = 3 and g(0) = 5 are in the third set.
Notice also: Their sum f(0) + g(0) = 8 is not in the set.
I'm assuming the operations are the "normal" sum of polynomials and the "normal" product of polynomials.
Just to make sure I understand the intuition here
Say M is an R-module. Then Ann(M) is the set of all ring coefficients that when multiplied by M give zero?
So for example if you look at Z/6Z as a Z-module, then Ann(Z/6Z) = 6Z?
Ann(M) is a subset of R, yes
I found this beautiful stackexchange answer
If I were an integral domain I would simply be a PID
if I were an integral domain I would simply be a field
If I were an integral domain my multiplication wouldn't be associative
Exponentiation
Cross product isn't even the right operation. The wedge product is associative.
Exponentiation isn't a real operation, it's just using exp and products and your favorite branch of log.
No one cares about the octonions.
Therefore, non-associative operations aren't interesting
Also, a-(b-c)=(a-b)-c, right?
I guess subtraction and division also aren't real operations since they're just addition and multiplication with inverses
What do you mean "not an operation"?
Also, a-(b-c)=(a-b)-c, right?
@glad juniper
An operation is just a function S^n->S, and a binary operation is when n=2
That's why I said "aren't real operations" rather than "aren't operations". I mean morally, the things worth elevating to the status of "operation" that aren't easily definable in terms of other important stuff, tend to be associative. Other things we call "operations" technically satisfy Whoever's broad definition, but I'm arguing, tongue half in cheek, that they aren't deserving of the name
Lol "morally"
I don't agree with that statement at all
Also lie algebras have operations which aren't associative
The cross product being an example
To be clear to anyone reading, I was using "morally" in the weird mathematician sense (see http://eugeniacheng.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/02/cheng-morality.pdf) not the usual English sense.
In the study of Lie algebras, the fact that they call it a "bracket" and write it with brackets instead of some operation symbol like ร or โ seems like evidence it's not like a usual "operation".
The cross product is like, an accident because we happen to live in 3D. If we lived in 4D no one would name that as an operation
I know, I hate the use of the word morally
fair
And it gets called an operation

