#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 401 of 1
it was just a joke lol
a proper response is that
Replacing the Riemann sphere CP^1 with RP^2 breaks the possibility of coherent field-like arithmetic in a fundamental way: the one-point compactification C ∪ {∞} works precisely because all directions to infinity are identified into a single element, giving a uniform absorbing behavior compatible with Möbius transformations and complex structure, whereas in RP^2 infinity is an entire projective line, so limits and products depend on direction and cannot be made globally well-defined or associative in any extension of the usual operations; this reflects a deeper obstruction—CP^1 arises from projectivizing a field and inherits symmetry from PSL(2,C), while RP^2 is non-orientable, admits no complex structure, and is not tied to any division algebra, so there is no way to extend multiplication/division consistently even with tricks like adding bottom elements (as in wheel theory), meaning you can at best build a weakened, direction-sensitive “arithmetic” (closer to projective or valuation-theoretic behavior) but nothing resembling the coherent algebra of the complex numbers.
!noai
Please do not trust ChatGPT or similar AI tools for mathematical tasks, as they often generate output which "sounds correct" but has numerous factual or logical errors. Use of these AI tools to answer other people's help questions is strictly against server rules (see #rules).
i see the em dash
as my structure was mad
also this is not relvant to op's question
Given your posting history I don't believe you know what PSL_2 or RP^2 are
Go on, please do
you think about it from the linear algebra side the differnce is pretty clear. CP^1 comes from lines in C^2 so you can write everything in homogenous coordinates like [z0:z1], and mobius transformations are basically just linear maps acting projectively, which is why the extended complex plane still behaves nicely with multiplication and division. But for RP^2 your working with lines in R^3, and even though you still have projective linear maps theres no real way to define multiplication on R^2 that extends to the whole thing. The problem is infinity isnt just one point anymore its a whole line of directions, so what happens depends on how you go to infinity, and that kinda breaks any consistent arithmetic. At that point its really more geometric then algebraic.
this was my original piece
So you wrote this? You didn't copy it from anywhere?
I’m not sure that addition can be well defined on RP^2, but multiplication can be defined reasonably well
Because the product of two lines through the origin of C is a line through the origin
yeah I get the inition but its kinda missleading
in C it work cause multiplication is already built in, so lines behave nicely. in RP^2 your just in R^3 up to scaling, and theres no natural multiplication there that survives projectivising, so it wont be well defined
plus infinity being a whole line means everything depends on direction anyway, so it breaks pretty fast
A point at infinity of RP^2 can be defined as a line in C
But I’m not going to talk to an ai through you
how am i ai
Yeah I don’t think there’s a continuous extension of addition
Because morally the sum of the lines in the z and w directions should be the limit of any sum of something that lies on the w line (and goes to infinity) and something that lies on the z line (and goes to infinity)
And that’s very not well defined
that doesnt really make sense tho, your kinda mixing structures there
a point at infinity in RP2 is a line in R3, not in C, so that step already breaks
like yeah you can force an identification but it wont respeict anything you want
idk it just feels like your handwaving the hard part tbh
Then points at infinity are lines in a specific plane in R3
RP^2 = RP^1 \cup_{z -> z^2} D^2
Then identify RP^1 with the space of lines through the origin of C
If you can’t see that, think a bit (and think about leaving a conversation about RP^2 if you don’t know the very basics about it)
What is the difference between an algebraic set and an algebraic variety?
Usually if you’re making a distinction, the latter is assumed to be irreducible (although I’ve seen places that don’t make said distinction)
This is what im trying to understand, do you have an idea what it means? The book doesn't say
What’s the problem?
I got it, it was like you said, irreducible. thanks
i think ive seen a couple where it could also be an open subset of an irreducible algebraic set?
but that makes me uncomfortable so dont do that
Algebraic set means you are doing classical AG
Lol
idk what that means haha
there's the original classical AG (italians studying solutions to polynomial systems) and then there's what developed afterwards
which one might affectionately call abstract nonsense
An open subset of an irreducible algebraic set should be an irreducible variety though.
Like V(I) n D(f) = V(I + (1 - yf))
thats a distinguished open subset
Easy enough to do unions of algebraic sets
arbitrary ones too?
You only need finite unions, because the polynomial ring is Noetherian
But you I guess it's not V of something on the nose.
You have to make some choices for how to write the open as a union of distinguished etc
Still up to homeomorphisms / isomorphism of sheaves / whatever
It's often very concrete nonsense, acrually
I don't understand why is it better
In general the localization of a finitely generated k-algebra neednt be finitely generated
ah I see, thanks
How much ring theory do you know?
So suppose we have a ring R and a subset S
Where S is closed under multiplication (ie, ss’ \in S for s, s’ \in S)
We say the localisation of R at S is the ring you get by “adjoining inverses for every element of S”
Formally, it’s the ring (R x S)/~ where (r, s) ~ (r’, s’) if there is t \in S such that t(rs’ - r’s) = 0
With addition given by (r, s) + (r’, s’) = (rs’ + r’s, ss’) and multiplication by (r, s)(r’, s’) = (rr’, ss’)
You can check this is all well defined
It’s essentially inspired by how you construct the rationals from the integers
what is it used for? does it have something to do with AG?
yes
its like half of a field of fractions
you only divide by some of the elements
If R is an integral domain, and S = R \ {0}, then S^{-1} R is the field of fractions
lexi
Yes
Things get very cursed if S contains zero-divisors
not really cursed
the way the algebra works out you just end up quotienting out by them first
(By which I mean “S^-1 R is not necessarily as big as you expect”)
quotient $a \sim 0$ if $a$ is a zero divisor?
lexi
If a is a zero divisor in S, yeah
oh in S
first consider C^n as an affine variety.
because C is algebraically complete, the only rational function in C(x1,..,xn) that is well-defined C^n are the polynomials C[x1,...,xn].
however now consider some proper affine variety inside C^n given by prime ideal p
then notice that we now have more rational functions available to work with: as long as the poles of a rational function avoids the affine variety then it is well-defined on it
oh "well defined" here means no poles?
yes
yes
👍
but then that means if the function is not well-defined, then the denominator has to "be in" the prime ideal
because it has to go to 0 in the variety
not necessarily 0 everywhere
I think a nicer motivation is perhaps localising at 1 function, that means that the zero set of this new algebra will only contain points that f doesn't vanish on (as those are poles)
yeah that's correct, this still works but im not going into the details this is just an informal description
So the set defined by tje localisation is exactly D(f) = {x: f(x)\ne 0}
ok ill read about this formally
anyways in other words we are allowed to divide by a polynomial if and only if it is found outside of the prime ideal, i.e. the regular ring on this affine variety is exactly C[x1,...,xn] localized at the complement of the prime ideal p
reminds me of dyadic rationals
ig those are a localization of the integers
hmm ok
not quite, i think you might be confusing a vector field defined on $S^2$ with an operator acting on $\mathbb{R}^3$
Canvas123
Note though that this isn't affine anymore in general (so the localisation isn't f.g.)
as a k-alg
Yes
is this a "local ring"
ah and then $\mathfrak p$ being prime is what lets $R - \mathfrak p$ be a multiplicative set
lexi
Localising at 1 element doesn't give a local ring
Localising away from a prime does
ok thats what im looking at
a "local ring" is one for which there is a unique maximal ideal
Wait nvm I'm wrong, it is affine, you just need more variables
so many rings are not, like integers or polynomials
which is why we want to localize things 
You mean the ring of functions on C^n regular on V(p) right? This certainly isn't the coordinate ring C[x1,..,xn]/p
Yeah there are many properties that are easier to check for local rings and that are true for R iff they're true for all localizations of R at prime ideals.
...so what do we get out of local rings
exactly
something about rational functions but thats not clear to me
One thing that's nice is that if R is a local ring with maximal ideal m and M is a finitely generated module, then
x1, ..., xn in M generate M iff their image generates M/mM.
And M/mM is a R/m vector space, so you can reduce some module theory to linear algebra
What trajectories equivariant to rotation are there besides radial ones? This feels impossible to me because of holonomy
oh neat
wait
germs
i know this
idk how this is applied to AG tho
so if i localize around the maximal ideal at a point
something happens
In AG you have a local ring at each point where ring theoretic properties correspond to geometric properties.
For example a variety is smooth at a point of the local ring there is regular
There’s such an unbelievable number of theorems about local rings
I basically think of every ring as being local, because localization usually lets me do so, or properties are stated in terms of “at every prime…”
let's take $\mathbb C^1$ and localize at 0
lexi
what do we get here
as in $\mathbb C[x]$
lexi
localized at $(x)$
? Lol
You get rational functions
Don't write C^1 for that
lexi
i understood what was meant
You get rational functions where the denominator has a nonzero constant
I mean even if you understand u probably shouldn't lol
oh ok
And localising a scheme at a point feels off vocabulary wise
it's actually frank
ok i see sorry i just got introduced to this terminology
/lies
like 5 minutes ago
Could do something like
||y^2 = x^3 at the origin||
||The coordinate ring in question would be k[x, y]/(y^2 - x^3), then we localize at the maximal ideal (x, y)||
||We have that m/m^2 is 2d (generated by both x and y for example), but we can only make a regular sequence of length 1, so not regular.||
||Hence the curve isn't smooth||
Dw im not like annoyed lol
I am.
Well only thing I was annoyed at was random comment from Keith jk

Joking.
ok the first one
wait i can't tell if ur joking about being annoyed by my comment now
are these all over C?
Nah it was fine im not annoyed lol
World’s strongest over thinker
I'm also annoyed by my existence
The only thing that does annoy me is working over C for no reason
If you like.
Works over most fields
well ok lemme explain. the fact lexi said to localize at "0" made it sound like 0 was a point and not an ideal. also nobody says C^1 unless they mean the space not the ring
Here’s a general principle. Working over C is the exact same as working over any field whatsoever :^)
I mean no one says C^1
ok are u annoyed now
yeah thats what i meant
Unless maybe you are doing classical AG and the set is literally k^1
This is called the Lefschetz principle
did you want me to write $\mathbb A_{\mathbb C}^1$
lexi
Yes
anyway i think the point 0 would be the ideal (x) here just fyi
True.
yay
What about with the étale site
i saw (0) at some point and got confused
When you have a scheme and a point you call the process of going to a local ring “taking the local ring at that point0
what about non-algebraically closed fields?
so taking the local ring of A^1 at 0
All depends what ur doing
This is a shitpost
ah
Different fields behave differently
yeah
The real statement is that working over C is exactly the same as all alg closed fields of char 0
im not going to try doing AG over Q
But often actually you can drop alg closed for a lot of stuff
Take a huge non-perfect field of characteristic 2 and life is pain
This is fun eventually lol
Well this is one of the beautiful things about "modern" AG
First order logic enjoyer
That we can do stuff
oh is this a model theory moment
tbh the issue is that it takes more effort to write / say qbar than C
so C is more convenient notationally
Dude that’s a lot of pressure you’re exerting dude. So if things aren’t perfect it’s not enough for you? You’re like my dad
Jk that’s my dad slander
ok ik people care about the topology but idc about the topology so this is why i say C
You can phrase it that way but I don’t even mean it in a way that’s that fancy. There’s a process where you use faithfully flat descent to turn basically any problem over an alg closed field of char 0 to being over C
$\bar{\mathbb{Q}}$
keith
$\overline{\mathbb Q}$
lexi
\overline
ok localizing y^2 = x^3 at point 0
im going to work over R so i can visualize this
Bad idea
Work over C and just visualize it over R anyway
That’s how real alg geometers roll
pretend its R?
ok im going to have the picture of R in my head
and on desmos
so we're quotienting $\mathbb C[x, y]/(x^3 - y^2)$ to get the coordinate ring for the variety
lexi
this reminds me of a problem someone posed to me that i absolutely failed to solve
someone once asked me to prove that the coordinate ring of the unit circle over C is isomorphic to C^× as a group
like x^2 + y^2 = 1
yea
and it's a group scheme
so it gets a group structure automatically
explicitly, (x, y) * (z, w) = (xz - yw, xw + yz)
can you rephrase algebraic group stuff in terms of ring homomorphisms
one can check this defines a ring hom
Yes
like let the multiplication be $\mu: X \to X \times X$ somehow
lexi
You get what’s called a “comultiplication”
im explaining it shit cuz i know a lot less than im letting on
It should be $X \to X \otimes X$
micoi the group objects (she/it)
and then inversion is $\xi: X \to X$
lexi
lexi
But yes, and then you have “coassociativity” and a “coidentity” and a “coinverse”
Yes
Not quite actually
The coproduct in K-algebra is tensoring over K
From Humphrey’s algebraic groups book
ok it's actually not that complicated the way i think about it
Hopf algebra is the name for the type of structure we get which is an algebra with a “compatible” comultiplication/coidentity/coinverse structure
for any ring R, define S := {x, y ∈ R^2 | x^2 + y^2 = 1}. the way i think about it, there is a polynomially definable map S^2 -> S, that satisfies group axioms
Yes
It’s an algebra A with some extra information (namely, a co[insert the relevant words) which allow us to make Hom_k(A, B) into a group, for all algebras B
This relates quite closely to the “functor of points” point of view of algebraic geometry
why do we need this to build a group
ok
A such that Hom(-, A) is a group for all -
if u think about it this is true for groups as you know them in Set
i.e. for any set n there's a group G^n
but arent cogroups and groups the same??
nah they're hella different
we want a group that is also an affine variety / algebraic set, i.e. a group object in the category of algebraic sets
this dualizes exactly to have a commutative hopf algebra, where the underlying algebra is fg reduced
this is essentially what mico said tbf
i see
S is Hom(coordinate ring of the circle, R)
maybe i need to draw this out
omgomgomgomg quantum groups
cogroups are weird structures
No, this is cogroup stuff
a quantum group is a cogroup of algebras
Cogroups are natural
^ girl who has been studying homotopy theory for the last couple weeks
(S^n is a homotopy-cogroup)
not mutually exclusive
whats the coidentity
I agree they are very natural to consider
^ NB who has been studying knot theory for the last couple weeks
(braided monoidal categories with duals yield knot invariants)
they arise when you have a group structure in a setting that has a natural dual (like geometry or cohomology)
ok so there is a concrete description of cogroups (also as mico posted) and so coidentity is a map to the initial object
as opposed to a map from the final object
in CRing this is a map to Z, i.e. a Z-point in the scheme if we view it geometrically
for the specific example i gave it's the point (1, 0)
to be clear a cogroup in CRing is a group in AffScheme
🔥
which is why it's called a group scheme i assume
as opposed to a cogroup ring

A map from A to k
I think cogroups are usually called Hopf algebras
nuh uh
if they're cogroups of algebras
it's all the same stuff
I learned about cogroups first during the pandemic it seems
( \DeclareMathOperator{\Spec}{Spec} \DeclareMathOperator{\C}{\mathbb{C}} \DeclareMathOperator{\Z}{\mathbb{Z}} \DeclareMathOperator{\Hom}{Hom} \DeclareMathOperator{\Mod}{Mod} )
Introduction I was watching Richard E. Borchards lecture series on schemes where he talked about groups in the category of schemes. Thinking about this I stumbled upon t...
instead of multiplication you have comultiplication
instead of inverse you have coinverse
Cogroups in the category of k-algebras
and instead of identity you have the augmentation map
U_q(sl(2))
yeah I only know of them from algebraic geometry where you assume they live over k
so that's why I thought this was the usual terminology
as an algebraic group?
or just a group
I’m a little surprised you haven’t seen them in an algtop context
But fair
what is the coordinate ring of a group
I have seen them but everyone calls them Hopf algebras lol
because you always assume some ambient structure
ok this made me realize i was too vague
well C^* is naturally an algebraic variety
like in Peter May's book as well he talks about hopf algebras
Even like say S^n?
i should say Z[x, y]/(x^2 + y^2 - 1)
Z, even?
that's what i meant by coordinate ring of the unit circle
I know
and then by "over C" i mean C-points
yea fair just saying it again in case it was ambiguous
but are we considering both groups has having an algebraic variety structure
Le Gm
is what I want to know
S^n being steenrod squares?
I mean I've seen hopf algebras in the context of like how higher cohomology operations behave on spectra
S^n being the n-sphere
(It’s a cogroup up to homotopy)
S^n -> S^n v S^n being given by contracting a diameter to a point
oh
Idt I've seen this before lol
does this actually give you any interesting structure?
It gives you homotopy groups
Like, [S^n, X] is pi_n(X), and the operation is induced by this cogroup structure
So the algebraic variety { (z, w) | z^2 + w^2 = 1 }
oh okay I've seen this but I've never seen it called a cogroup haha
me when hom(-, X) dualizes
okay yeah I had a feeling this is what you were thinking of but yeah
I've seen this yeah but I haven't heard anyone talk about it as a cogroup
that's pretty cool tho I didn't know that
another gap in my knowledge has been filled
cuz idt neither hatcher nor whitehead explain it algebraically like that
tho both of those are sort of old fashioned anyways LOL
does algebraic variety mean a variety that is a group
then sure
algebraic variety means that its an irreducible closed subset of the Zariski topology
usually
Is the isomorphism between the groups meant to be an isomorphism of algebraic sets?
no it means a variety of finite type
usually
but finite type is already assumed in variety
so algebraic variety and variety mean the same thing
an algebraic variety that's a group is called a group variety
an algebraic group from what I've seen
or a scheme of finite type over a field that has a group structure is called an algebraic group
or that
it's important to make that distinction
because a priori algebraic groups aren't smooth
while group varieties are smooth
uh
😭
well they're controlled by a maximal etale algebra in the coordinate ring of the scheme
but this is sort of a mess to work with
oh lol
are you assuming it's linear?
Maybe
like any sane person
cuz here I'm talking like in max generality
Ewwwww
Schemes don’t exist :3
then you're just asking for problems, really
I’m talking Borel style 😎😎😎
I feel like it's a richer theory
Humphreys style 😎😎😎
I don't like that they assume things are simple because like that isn't the full story and it hasn't been for 70 years
schemes don't exist but hopefully a nice noncommutative geometry does
like they all assume nilpotent don't exist
but them how do you explain that mu_3 has a nilpotent coordinate ring over any field of characteristic 3
The answer is only look at char 0
separably closed fields 🤢
Idk i didnt actually read borel i just use it as reference
But anyway all my assumptions are reductive connected over C something something
Why use a field
is it the usual identity diagram with arrows reversed
im getting used to this
Jk fair for alg groups ig
please mr. potato
this has smth to do with elliptic curves right
define to me what the identity element of a group over an arbitrary scheme is
and not just the map
the actual element in S-rational points
let's hear it
jk
but okay genuinely
I haven't yet found a book on algebraic groups that truly does it in full generality
Milne has notes right?
yes but he only does it over a field
and he doesn't talk about finite flat group schemes at all
This is because no one cares about non-linear algebraic groups
and these are usually talked about in the context of like
G/S with the base scheme being arbitrary
like stuff like Fontaine's theorem and Tate's theorem
these are about algebraic groups over Spec Z for example
For an ordinary group yeah
identity is moreso the morphism rather than the object itself isn’t it
very nicely spotted
Idk what you want lol
Lol no I mean like what do you want if I'm not allowed to define it in terms of a map lol
Or do functor of points innit
I was thinking about this a bit ago while reading Milne and ran into this issue
essentially when you're over a field you have a canonical map spec k -> G
and the image is a single point
so G(k) has a natural group structure where the image of this canonical identity map is the identity element of G(k) as a group
but when you have say an arbtirary scheme whose identity component is S -> G
how do you define what the identity element is in G(S) for example
Idk what you mean
You have already given the point
it literally clicked just now
I was imagining G(S) as a literally set of points on G with S-rational points
Ah lol
I'm too tired for this shit anymore
Dw
Tbh my habit is never to think of them that way which is sometimes also disadvantageous lol
it's a bit tricky to like juggle between the two because depending on what you're doing they might literally be that or they might not
like I've been doing a lot of rational points stuff recently
and there they always make u literally imagine them as points with Q-rational coordinates
so this has clouded my judgement
I landed a bachelor's thesis doing quadratic chabauty computations 💀
fire
top arrow should be going the other way
ok tru
but yes
ok time to draw cogroups
hmm wait we can simplify this then
since one of the arrows was just equality
Yeah lol valid
Scary
technically it's not even p-adic integral
it's like rigid analytic integrals or something
they're called like Coleman integrals?
they're barely integrals it's some special thing idk
I'm also aching to learn the stuff ya know tho
I've read a lot about A^1-homotopy theory stuff
😔
planning to write that paper about it
one day....
when A^2 homotopy
🤢
you're making me vomit please
🤮
I couldn't control myself sorry
What?
Pog...
Idk anything
co-associativity
nooo twin
you're amazing
here's a little star sticker for u
⭐
Same
how does this make sense
I've read a shitton of HTT to read some Marc Hoyois papers and I hope I get around to that one day 💀
my Set intuition is flailing
Thank
I don’t think there should be any cogroups in set
(Well, no non-trivial ones)
that’s probably why im having trouble
heres the new and improved identity diagram
Promoting X to a cogroup is equivalent to lifting Hom(X, -) : Set -> Set to a functor valued in groups. But this is impossible by plugging in the empty set, unless X is empty, because there is no empty group
Probably my go-to examples would be something like:
k[x] with x -> 1 (x) x + x (x) 1
k[x, x^{-1}] with x -> x (x) x
S^n with S^n -> S^n v S^n by collapsing a diameter
And they have to be empty for sets lol
(These are called G_a, G_m and “the basis for homotopy groups existing”)
Another fun example is GL_n, but that’s slightly harder to notate
I would also advertise this perspective if you have done any cat theory. It is often easiest / most intuitive to produce cogroups this way
i see
i havent really done enough pure cat theory i think for this to make sense to me
Like for example the fjnctor Hom(k[x], -) from rings to sets just takes the underlying set. You can make this valued in groups by using the underlying group of each ring, and that gives you Micot's first example (called G_a)
Valid
i can try
orbital and precessing trajectories. i think holonomy is a feature
so Hom(X, -) is the homset functor
why does - need to be a set here?
ok a cogroup really isn’t an algebraic structure
at all
Cogroups in Grp are exactly the free groups, but that’s a bit harder to see
(As in, I had to spend a few minutes locating the right results to make sure again)
hmm
well coproducts are free groups arent they
this may be related
wait I don't think orbits work because if you rotate the initial point back to where it started, the orbit should pick up a new orientation by equivariance, but there's no way to have multiple orbits with different orientations going through the same point
am I misunderstanding your question?
not exactly... i think the issue here IS that we aren't saying there "are" multiple trajectories passing through one point
okay let me ask a more concrete question so that I understand what you're looking for, say your time evolution operator applied to the north pole makes a trajectory moving east; then you rotate it 90 degrees east to the "east pole" and it should be moving south; on the other hand you could start at the north pole, rotate 90 degrees south, and then rotate 90 degrees east, in which case your trajectory starting at the east pole should be moving east—so which direction should your time evolution operator send a trajectory starting at the east pole if you want an equivariant SO2 action?
you're confusing path-dependent holonomy with group actions on fields. equivariance isn't about how you travel between points via rotation but ensuring the operator obeys $f(Rx) = Rf$ for every element in $\text{SO}(3)$ regardless of any "path" taken.
Canvas123
i mean you are rotating coordiante, but in equivariant system being rotated means every part of initial state
including directionality or velocity vector at starting point
it's transformed by $(R\cdot x,, R \text{\textbf v})$ simultaneously
Canvas123
I thought your function f was just a function of position, is it also a function of some initial velocity?
if f is just a function mapping position to position, it seems clear to me that f can't have any nontrivial angular component if it's supposed to be equivariant under SO3 action
Can I ask metric space doubt here?
No
why are the automorphisms of S5 the inner automorphisms?
Because there are no others? I don't think you'll find any particularly satisfying and abstract answer, since S6 does have a nontrivial outer automorphism.
You look at where conjugacy classes are sent under automorphism
i am asking about an evolution operator $\Phi_s(\mathbf{\hat q}, \dot{}! {\bf\tt x})$
Canvas123
Why does the fact that the two commute imply that \pi(g)v \in ker(M - λ1)?
Oh wait
I misread this completely
Never mind, I'm still confused
what are you confused on?
It's the very last sentence but I think I might be overthinking it, give me a quick minute, sorry.
I got it, it was because of the commutativity.
I can apply L = M - λ1 to \pi(g)v and then switch the order to \pi(g)L(v) = \pi(g)(0) which means that \pi(g) is in the kernel
is this part neccessary? even if r could have any degree, we still have f(a) = 0+r = 0 so r=0 right?
nvm
its cause f(a) = 0+r(a) right? and we show r is a constant so we can write r(a) as r = constant which is 0?
Yep
If I am asked to find all the possible results when taking the product of every element in S3, do I just end up with the elements of S3, for a total of six different products?
I should be able to get back to any element of S3 with some ordering of the product, right?
Its not entirely clear to me what you mean, but if you take all possible products you in particular take the products x*e for all x, so you certainly get everything in S_3
I mean the product of every element one time, only changing the order.
()(12)(13)(23)(123)(132) vs (12)(13)(123)()(132)(23)
youd get a total of 6! different expressions
whether every element of S3 is obtained this way i dont actually know
probably not
Less in principal since like the 3-cycles are inverse, but more importantly that one of the elements is the identity
5! since it doesn't matter where the identity is placed.
Thinking about it more I think the answer is three since it's the product of three odd elements and three even elements, so the product has to be odd.
Like 5! is an easier upper bound
But yeah like I dont think this gives you everything just by parity
Well doesn't the product need to be in S3?
So if it has to be in S3, and it has to be odd, then there are at most three elements in S3 that can be the product?
Yeah that makes sense to me
You probably do get all of those, but you’d probably have to think about that
thinking sucks
I got all three by hand, so ¯_(ツ)_/¯
If you get one 3-cycle by hand, you get the other by symmetry 
e(123)(132)(12)(13)(23) = (12)(13)(23)
the 3 swaps in S_3 definitely don't form a subgroup, so they aren't closed under multiplication
so we must be able to find two swaps whose product isn't the third swap
then we product those 3 to get a non-identity element which must be a 3-cycle
There we go no computation 
I fell asleep.
##math standard answer, i like it.
i thought i was going to commute to campus and then get back online. i keeled over onto my pallet instead.
re. modules, though the free module is interesting. in particular, an R-module has a basis iff it's the direct sum of some copies of R.
and by direct sum, i almost always think about the external direct sum. perhaps this is a failing.
i guess i asked b/c i genuinely didn't know whether to ask here or in #advanced-algebra (modules not being included in the channel title)
Basic stuff about modules would probably live here but the lines are blurry and no one really cares, ask away in whichever is free (but probably here if you have a choice)
The people who are likely to answer you are typically very active in both
The people mostly being Jagr lol
no one really cares
in a good way, i take it.
thanks!
actually, the statement about the free module is unsurprising, except perhaps when the index set in the direct sum is uncountable (if that ever happens?)
If i understand your question correctly, yeah in general the infinite “direct sum” of modules need not be free, see here https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Baer–Specker_group
I also say “direct sum” because we need finitely may nonzero terms for a direct sum, for arbitrary things we talk about products
well the direct sum is always free, that's the direct product
Yeah ofc, it’s just important to take care because I don’t know how often that distinction is made clear since like finite products and coproducts of modules are the same
yeah fair
Which is why I presume if someone says infinite direct sum they really just mean infinite product, but it’s just kinda unfortunate terminology and (co)product is probably better 
Do u mean direct product
I don’t think so?
Yeah this is kinda what I’m getting at, I suspect that possibly they do because I think a lot of courses (understandably) don’t do a great job of distinguishing between them
<@&268886789983436800>
WTH is :thumpy:
thumpy
is the order of the galois group of an irreducible polynomial (over the rationals) with a complex root always even
:thumpy:
i think it is bc conjugation should be in your group, so it has a subgroup of order 2
Yes
yay!
Hi
I am unable to understand why every complete ordered field must have Q as its subfield
is there a complete ordered field without Q as a subfield?
I understand that the ordering is dense, but should Q be there?
I got this doubt after going through the proof of Real numbers being the only complete ordered field up to isomorphism
this is true for ordered fields, you don't even need completeness. any field either contains Q as a subfield or contains F_p as a subfield for some prime p. it will be F_p if and only if 1 + 1 + ... + 1 (p times) = 0 for some prime p, and Q otherwise. so its enough to show that. you can show that 1 > 0 must be true, and then the rest comes along for free: 1 > 0 so 1 + 1 > 1 + 0 = 1 > 0, so on and so forth
so 1 + ... + 1 is never 0
and so the set {1 + ... + 1 (n times); n a natural number} gives you the natural numbers sitting inside your field F
subtraction also follows just by taking the union with {(1 + ... + n); n a natural number}
so now you have Z sitting inside F. and F is a field so it contains quotients, so you have Q
checking that this subset of F defined here is isomorphic to Q not just as a field but as an ordered field is just formal by applying the definitions
for example: you need to prove that if x > 0, then -x < 0. given this, if 1 < 0, then -1 > 0, but then 1 = (-1)^2 > 0
Can you just elaborate on the part "F is a field so it contains quotients, so you have Q"
I think that solved my problem
everything else is clear to me
So I thought of it as (a,b) where a and b are in F
then I introduce rational number structure on these touples
sure, so the part before showed that you can find a set inside F that is in bijection with Z
and associate (a,b) with ab^(-1)
will that work ?
yes, there is a subset isomorphic to Z
so if x = 1 + ... + 1 (n times, n can be negative) and y = 1 + ... + 1 (m times, m can be negative), then you are allowed to divide x/y as long as m is not 0
and that will act as n/m in your field, in the same way that x acts as n and y acts as m
yeah this is basically what youre doing yeah
Tenksssssss
yeah since you bring up rings its worth noting that these 1 + ... + 1's that are in bijection with Z are in fact isomorphic to Z as a ordered ring
ya np!
is there something categorical here? it smells like a functor to me for some reason bur i cant put my finger on it
maybe from the poset category of finite extensions of k to the multiplicative homomorphisms or whatever
oh yeah sure, you can phrase it categorically
if you look at the poset category of k, then the norm and trace functions define a contravariant isomorphism of this category where you replace the inclusion maps with the reversed functions
What’s the difference between left and right actions?
if you have a left action you need g(hx) = (gh)x, whereas for right you need (xh)g = x(hg)
notice that in both cases you are applying h and then g
but for a left action, applying h then g is the same as applying gh
but for a right action, applying h then g is the same as applying hg
That doesn’t seem all different
Is the difference not just the order it’s written in…
no there is a real difference
Oh wait I see I think
It seems kind of silly, though
they are closely related though, as every left action can be converted into a right action and vice versa
if you have a left action, you can define a right action by xg := g^{-1}x
then $(xh)g = g^{-1}(xh) = g^{-1}(h^{-1}x) = (g^{-1}h^{-1})x = (hg)^{-1}x = x(hg)$
Blake
WIAT NO THATS AN EXERCISE IN THE BOOK I ALMODT GOT SPOILERED😭😭
(I’m like avoiding looking at it)
oops sorry
one example is the action of S_n on the set of nxn matrices
left multiplication is permuting the rows
right multiplication is permuting the columns
Is it possible to prove that a finite group G of order 2m, where m is odd, has a subgroup of index 2 using Sylow's theory?
Depends a little on what qualifies as sylow theory, but this is a corollary of burnsides complement theorem
In this theorem, we need a normal Sylow-p by hypothesis. Rigth? So, we need to prove at least that G isn't simple?
or prove that exists that Sylow-p
to claim that corollary
No, there's no such hypothesis.
In group theory, a branch of mathematics, a normal p-complement of a finite group for a prime p is a normal subgroup of order coprime to p and index a power of p. In other words the group is a semidirect product of the normal p-complement and any Sylow p-subgroup. A group is called p-nilpotent if it has a normal p-complement.
I guess the weakest result needed here is that if the sylow 2-subgroup is cyclic, then it has a normal complement
This seems to me an equivalent, interesting result. I wasn't familiar with this theory about complements.
i'll see, ty
when i say direct sum, i do not mean the same thing as the direct product. i mean those elements of the direct product with finitely many non-identity terms.
the Baer-Specker group is similar but not the same thing. i meant something like $\mathbb{Z}^{\mathbb{R}}$ viewed as a module.
ransom
The internal and external direct sum are always isomorphic. The external direct sum is just a way to construct an internal direct sum when what you started with wasn't given as submodules of a common module
ok i read up in chat and apparently some people think of direct sum as possibly meaning direct product
i was confused what internal and external direct sum meant then i remembered its in the sense of semidirects
In several cases (abelian groups, vector spaces, ...) a direct sum and a direct product is the same thing as long as there are only finitely many things, but they become different when there are infinitely many operands.
well, from my perspective, the definition of a basis is meant to encode the notion of freeness more explicitly/concretely
yea. but like, i usually say direct product only in the context of infinite products for this reason
(in these contexts. in general i say direct product a lot for finite products)
actually there is a fun fact for people who like universal algebra, there is a general construction that recovers both direct sums and direct products and also is more general
(they are boolean products)
I think I would say direct sum or direct product depending on whether I want to think of it as a product or a sum.
But if it doesn't matter I guess I would default to sum (because it's usually the most relevant anyway)
Is that like a commutative coproduct?
I guess what I have in mind only make sense when all factors are the same
the definition of a basis can be viewed as "every element of this group is equal to a unique weighted sum of basis elements" and this is precisely how we usually define free structures, as sets of formulas over some set of variables
i haven't heard if that so now im curious
Just like the coequilizer of all the permuations of a coproduct with itself
It weighs a lot for me intuitively that a product of general groups looks almost exactly the same as the direct product/sum of abelian groups, whereas the sum (coproduct) of general groups is ... wild.
the abstract nonsense for this is that forgetfuls (right adjoints) preserve limits
i dont understand
So for example for groups, the coproduct of G with itself is
G*G, then you have a map
G*G -> G*G
given by
g*h |-> h*g
Taking the coequilizer of this with the identity recovers the direct sum of groups.
oh i was thinking about it wrong, i see what you mean better now
wait no
where are g and h sent
g*1 is sendt to 1*g
(they are not equal in the free product)
But I should probably use better notation
Yeah, the product notation looks confusing here.
a map G*G -> G*G is given by two maps G -> G*G, right?
I would say send G+G -> G+G by the rule Left(g) mapsto Right(g) and Right(g) maps to Left(g).
Yes, and you just swap the order of the two cannonical maps
ah alr
but if left(g) is sent to right(g)
the coequaliser says left(g) = right(g)
so we just get G
Hm, true. So this is not the map I wanted.
on the other hand, the issue with what i said about boolean products, is that i forget the actual definition
i only remember the special case for powers
Just to be clear of the context, we're working in Grp, and we want a uniform construction such that if we have two groups that happen to be abelian, it takes their Grp-coproduct to their Ab-coproduct -- is that correctly understood?
Well, not their Ab-coproduct per say, since they need not be abelian. But the direct sum
You mean their product?
It coincides in the finite case.
But the direct sum is a subgroup of the direct product
Where you have finite support
I'm not sure how "direct sum" applies to non-abelian groups.
Ah, so your "direct sum" is the subgroup of the product generated by all the {1}×...×{1}×G×{1}×...×{1}.
The universal property would be that whenever you have maps
Gi -> H
Such that the image of Gi and Gj commute you get a map from the direct sum
Hmm, makes sense.
It seems to be tricky to speak about things commuting at the category level ... we'd need to have something like a tensor product for general groups. No, I'm probably confused.
Hmm, so for
A*B you should have a map
A*B -> A*B
That just takes
a*b to b*a
But what is the general way of describing this map...
I think you want something like a coequalizer of two maps G×H -> G+H ... except the natural maps to think of there are not group homomorphisms!
a G×H-action is a G-action and H-action that are equivariant for each other, is this anything?
Maybe that's it.
You want the image of
G+H in GxH
That works for groups at least.
But it's not really what you want for rings
I could have sworn I had some general method for this at some point
Yeah, I think that would work.
I think coimage is what you want
@rocky cloak this is the construction i had in mind if you're wondering, the special case i remembered was when you take the constant sheaf construction, i.e. continuous maps from a boolean space B to an algebra A, with A treated as discrete
context being this
What's boolean space?
totally disconnected compact hausdorff space
equivalently, projective limit of finite discrete spaces
Right, and that's uniquely determined by cardinality?
nah
So there's a choice to be made?
wait wdym by "that"
I guess it says "a boolean product"
yea
the relevant spaces are, for coproduct, you think about the 1 point compactification of discrete spaces
Well I know there's a unique countable such space
and for product, you think of the free compactification of discrete spaces
without isolated points yea
but that's untrue for higher cardinalities
Right, that wasn't part of the definition
ok i will admit
this stuff is mostly arcane and only comprehensible / interesting if you like the specific things i do
Hmm, I'm a bit rusty here: In Grp, image and coimage are the same object (up to isomorphism) but they're accompanied by different morphisms. How generally is that true?
yea coproduct falls out this way, although it's a slight lie
In general you should have a canonical map from coimage to image (which is an isomorphism in Grp, but shouldn't have any restrictions in general)
this construction creates the algebra of tuples that have a cofinite set that is constant
IC.
it ends up being isomorphic to coproduct in the powers case at least
cuz you split the "eventually" part off as its own factor
but yea tbh
this was probably not worth bringing up
😭
in modern language, a boolean product is an algebra of global sections of a sheaf over a profinite space
they're apparently pretty useful but I've not read enough about them to tell you how
lol
legendary enpeace summon
i just think they're pretty
although admittedly im definitely saving them in my back pocket for if i ever need them
something that is funny is that an ultraproduct is precisely a germ of this construction (on compactification of discrete space)
germ?
that's interesting
the stalks are the A_x I'm pretty sure
oh i meant stalks
i confused the two words
im sad cuz like. you probably thought it was interesting cuz i was wrong
😭
i could be wrong too lol
nah i swear i was essentially thinking stalks in my head
i should start reading in sheaves of algebras over boolean spaces again
given an index set I, we can view Prod X_i as a sheaf F over the space beta I. a point U ∈ beta I is an ultrafilter on I, and the ultraproduct is F_U
very pleasing
and i figure that cuz. a germ in F_U is, essentially, a subset S ⊆ I such that S ∈ U, and an element of Prod X_i for i ∈ S, modulo passing to T ⊆ S such that T ∈ U
i say S ⊆ I because we have a basis of clopens for beta I in correspondence with subsets of I, and i believe they're given by the set of ultrafilters that contain S
i.e. the distinguished sets D(f) in the Zariski topology
except you take ultrafilters instead of prime ideals
holy shit, i wasn't even thinking on that level
you're already on the geometric angle
what's the difference
yeah, taking that basis is for example how you can actually compute the stalks of an affine scheme
yea i assume u can always compute sheaf stuff on a basis
yeah thats why the whole gluing and separation thing is needed
basically means you can either just look at the stalks or just look at a particularly well-behaved basis
ooo
That is usually called a profinite space.
Interesting. What is this sheaf?
ah, is this a much more common name? i was aware of it
i mean, it is what it is. but the idea is that you send {i} to X_i
hm im realizing i might understand it much less than i thought
i would think on this but i have something i really need to do that's much more important, oops
Eh, I’ve seen the other one too
hi chair monkey
i may or may not have put off my analysis homework until 3 hours before the deadline
Hi Keith
i might make it out alive tho
and then i can think about sheaves (moral good)
update: like jagr, i think i was just wrong
sorry yall. tbh ignore everything i said today in this channel if you want to be safe
Okay I’ll start by ignoring this message
i forgot that i can't use boolean product stuff to do general products because they always have finite image as a restriction
i feel like the "ultraproducts as stalks" perspective has to work somehow but definitely not how i said it
and my entire "fun fact" originally is totally wrong
the good news is that i put almost no effort into being comprehensible in the first place so my best hope is that nobody bothered to actually read what i wrote
Chmonkey lazy win
You didn't define it actually. At least I couldn't understand it.
OK but actually please finish your homework and rest as needed first.
Let $X$ be a finite set, and $\sigma : X \to X$ be a permutation. How do people prefer to define the sign/parity of $\sigma$?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I prefer parity of number of transpositions (possibly with some flavourtext that doesn't really change the definition).
It’s less cumbersome to actually use, but I think in proofs the other definition where you like act on the product of the differences is quite nice
Much the same though (well, they are the equivalent lol)
How do you prefer to show this is well-defined?
And I think you need to do a little effort to show this is well-defined
There is a nice proof I had seen on MSE using a polynomial similar to a discriminant
I don’t think so lol
It’s clear that it becomes itself or its negative
Well X might not come with a total ordering
Choosing a different total ordering corresponds to conjugating everything with some permutation.
Once we've seen that parity defined by some fixed arbitrary ordering is a group homomorphism into Z/2Z which is abelian, it follows generally that conjugate elements have the same image.
Nope's thing is a good way.
These days I'm too root-system pilled, so I don't think I'll give an objective answer.
Determinant of the permutation representation
hm, the way i've seen determinants define usually require knowledge of the sign of a permutation
yea to be clear i was wrong
it isn't true
We take the boolean ring R = P(I), along with the topological space Spec(R) thought of as ultrafilters of I. Then, for a subset S ⊆ I, the distinguished open set D(S) is the set of prime ideals not containing S, i.e. the set of ultrafilters containing S. Assign this the algebra 𝐹(S) = ∏_i∈S A_i.
If D(S) ⊆ D(T), then for any x ∈ S, the principal ultrafilter of x contains T, i.e. x ∈ T. Thus S ⊆ T. Conversely, if S ⊆ T, then clearly any ultrafilter containing S also contains T. The assignment S → D(S) is exactly stone duality for powersets. Anyways.
For the inclusion D(S) ⊆ D(T) we assign the canonical projection 𝐹(T) → 𝐹(S) sending (xi)_i∈T ↦ (xi)_i∈S. This is obviously a presheaf.
By compactness, a covering D(S) = ⋃_λ∈Λ D(S_λ) can always be taken to be for Λ finite. Stone duality then tells use S = ⋃_λ∈Λ S_λ. The separation and gluing axioms now follow immediately, so we indeed have a sheaf.
whao maybe enpeace can be right and recover my feelings
Take an ultrafilter U, and consider the stalk. A neighborhood basis of U is given by D(S) where S ∈ U, so the stalk is the union { (xi)_i∈S | S ∈ U, xi ∈ Ai } / ~, with (xi)_i∈S ~ (yi)_i∈S' iff they agree on S ∩ S'
Since every restriction is surjective, this will be a quotient of 𝐹(I) = ∏_i∈I A_i.
Then:
(xi)_i∈I ~ (yi)_i∈I <=> there is some S ∈ U with xi = yi for all i ∈ S
But then the equaliser of these two sequences contains S, so must also be in U, hence we get
(xi)_i∈I ~ (yi)_i∈I iff the equaliser of the sequences is in U
and this is exactly the ultraproduct
I see. Indeed the stalks are ultraproducts, assuming all sets A_i are non-empty which we are (actually this colimit is a better definition of ultraproduct if there might be empty sets).
yippee
Ah, and the internal logic of the topos of Spec R will indeed satisfy LEM if R is Boolean, which is why ultraproducts satisfy LEM.
I think.
I don't know enough topos theory to confirm that lol
yeah i was malding at myself cuz i was thinking about a specific construction (the constant sheaf) and forgot that we can just be more clever than throwing the default thing at an algebra
but smt smt basis of clopen sets
It should mean that for any sentence, the largest set on which it is true is a clopen set.
lmao
Whatever I'll figure out if that's meaningful later
just to make sure i understand, consider the non-closed open consistenting of all coordinate projections of P(I), is this section identical to the global section
actually. i wonder if it would be interesting to actually use the constant sheaf after all, and just accept that the global section will be different than this section. but on the other hand, it's good to know you can actually make the global section into a standard direct product
coordinate projections
?
oh i mean, P(I) -> P(1) for all 1 -> I
sorry i should have been less weird about my words
the algebra of sections will again just be ∏_i∈I A_i
by the sheaf property
oh yea i could have just said that
🥀
i am NOT on my clarity arc today
yay
In fact you can do this for Spec S for any R-algebra S (and probably for any R-scheme). Essentially, a morphism from a scheme S to Spec R is the same as (S being charactristic 2 and) partitions of S into disjoint unions of open subschemes in a way indexed by R (more formally, a clopen subscheme for each r in R, which is a Boolean algebra homomorphism of r). (For example, if R is the free Boolean algebra on a set A, i.e., (⨯)_{a in A} {0, a, 1-a, 1}, then a morphism from S to Spec R is the same as a partition into two pieces of S for each a in A. R can also be described as the sub-Boolean algebra of P(P(A)) generated by "a" = {S - a ∈ S} for a in A - a collection of subsets in the ambient P(A) that together divide up P(A) as perfectly possible. R = P(I) at least in the case I = P(A) is a "completed" version of this, i.e., you require some clopens to be present as "infinite intersections" etc.)
Well what do I mean by "do this"
I suppose given quasi-coherent modules over the preimages of the points of Spec R in S, you can successfully get their product as a quasi-coherent module over S.
that is cool asf
Eh I don't feel like checking the details actually
It would be cool if this showed QCoh(S) = ∏_{U ultrafilter of R} QCoh(S_U); I was sure that only held for finite partitions.
Also characteristic 2 must not really be important. For a single clopen we just need to replace {0, a, 1-a, 1} = ℤ/2ℤ ⨯ ℤ/2ℤ with Spec ℤ ⨯ ℤ. Probably for any Boolean algebra R, we take a presentation and turn it into a presentation without the a+a=0's?
Yeah I think we just avoid claiming that + corresponds to xor but keep claiming that ⋅ represents intersection and 1- represents complement.
I have a lie group G with a R valued 2 cocycle on its lie algebra g. Does the coadjoint representation of this group always extend to an action of the integrating central extension on the dual of the g?
Not sure if this is the right channel tho
R is a field, and R^n is also a field right? Is C^n also a field?
No, and no.
The only R^n that can be given a field structure (with the usual vector addition, and a subfield that scales vectors like R does) are R^1 (the reals) and R^2 (the complex numbers).
If you allow non-commutative fields (aka skew fields or division rings), then you also have R^4 which can become quaternions. But that's where it ends.
This is the Frobenius theorem.
R^2 is isomorphic to C? I should have thought of that...
Icic
also R^n as a ring has zero divisors so it cant be a field
worse, it has
gasp
idempotents
there's a way to prove that A_5 hasn't a subgroup with order 15 or 30 without using that A_5 is simple?
For order 30:
Said subgroup has to be normal, and hence must contain every odd order element
Count that there are more than 30 such elements
For 15:
It isn’t that hard to prove the only group of order 15 is cyclic, and there is no cyclic subgroup of A_5 of order 15 (alternatively: note that it would have to contain an order 3 element and an order 5 element, and bash out cases)
thank u
What does "Orbit of the action of a finite group on A" mean here? Orbits have only been defined for elements, as O_g(a) = {ga | g \in G}
(prop 9.9 for context)
It says "an orbit", and they mean any orbit O_g(a), where a ∈ A
oh, that is very subtle
thanks!
any hint for this one?
chain just means totally ordered
here is the definition of an algebraic lattice
b1 \prec b2 means that b2 covers b1, in the sense that if b1 \preceq c \preceq b2, then c = b1 or c = b2 i.e., there aren't any elements between b1 and b2
coming up with interesting examples of totally ordered algebraic lattices is hard. i had a thought to try and freely generate one but i haven't fleshed it out all the way
For one direction, fix a compact b2 and consider the sup of all compacts < b2.
is every object in L compact if L is algebraic in this case? like, if a is the directed join of x1 \leq x2 \leq ... \leq xn of compact xi, then xn is the join of all of the xi's and is equal to a.
now i can find finitely many compact objects between a1 and a2
let me try your suggestion tho
You can have for example Z union infinity. Then infinity is not compact.
For the other direction note that in (b2 covers b1) it must be that b2 is compact
I guess ordinals give good examples maybe
i think we want N union infinity. Z union infinity isn't complete (there is no least element). but okay, yea, i agree with you then
I mean you can add in negative infinity as well, but yeah
But so you're not defining complete to mean things with upper/lower bound has sup/inf?
I.e. R is not complete?
I mean you can always just adjoin a max and min so doesn't really matter
complete was defined so that the join/meet of any subset exists
equivalently, every subset has a sup and inf in the poset
for b compact, are suggesting that b' = sup{c in L : c compact and c < b} \prec b?
okay, so the challenge is to (a) show that there is some compact object between a1 and a2, and (b), show that the supremum all compacts below this one is larger than a1
okay, so for this direction, if we have a cover of b2, and we assume for contradiction that all of the elements in the cover are strictly less than b2, then they have to all be at most b1, and so we would obtain a contradiction that b2 is strictly less than itself. so there is at least one element in the cover which is at least as large as b2, thus b2 is compact.
is the idea now that every object is just the sup of compacts less than or equal to it?
thanks
what was the intuition here?
this one stumped me
i guess one issue is that for some reason i thought that every object was a finite join of compact elements. this need not be the case
I guess an element is a sup of compacts iff it is the sup of all compacts <= than it.
The rest is just applying this idea
And this trick that a compact element always has a predecessor, by just taking the sup of < things
This second idea does come up in algebra as well. E.g. a finitely generated module has a maximal submodule.
Consider a complete chain L
Lemma: Let b be a non-bottom element. Then b is compact iff b covers an element b'
Proof: (=>) Suppose b is compact, and consider S = { x ∈ L | x < b }. This is nonempty as b is not the bottom element. Then b' = ∨S ≤ b, clearly. Suppose b' = b
=> exists finite subset S' with b = ∨S'.
=> b ∈ S' as L is a chain
contradiction, so b' < b. It is also easily seen that b covers b'.
(<=) Suppose now that b' is covered by b, and suppose b = ∨S for some S. If x < b for all x ∈ S, then x ≤ b', and hence ∨S ≤ b'. This is of course impossible, so b ∈ S, hence there is a vacuous finite subset of S that covers b.
Now for the proof.
(=>) Suppose L is algebraic, and let a1 < a2. Consider S = { b compact with a1 < b ≤ a2 }. By algebraicness, this is nonempty. Take any b ∈ S. By the above, there is a b' that is covered by b. Thus a1 ≤ b' ≺ b ≤ a2, as desired.
(<=) Conversely, suppose the property holds. By the above this can be restated as: For all a1 < a2, there is a compact element b with a1 ≤ b ≤ a2. Let a be a nonbottom element, and a' be the join of all compact elements ≤ a.
Suppose BWOC that a' < a. Then we cannot have a' ≺ a, as this would mean that a is compact. But this means there is some a' < x < a, which is also a contradiction as this would yield a compact element b with a' < b ≤ a. Therefore, a' = a and L is algebraic, as desired.
really fun problem
"BWOC" has two primary definitions: in engineering, it means "By Weight of Cement" (cement additives ratio), while in colloquial usage it means "Big Woman On Campus" (an influential woman).
Inassume you mwan by way of contradictiob?

big woman on campus

Thats very vauge, you should post your actual question if you want a response. Chances are the answer will be no though
yes you are rigth
lets say these topics
Mathematical Foundations of Modern Cryptography
Modular Arithmetic
Elementary Number Theory in Cryptography
Fundamental Theorem of Number Theory
Euclidean Algorithm
Extended Euclidean Algorithm
Euler's Phi Function
Fermat's Little Theorem/Euler's Theorem
this is a topic list, not a question. We can't help you with a topic list
This is just basic number theory, and youd see all of this in any introduction to number theory
If you have any specific questions try in #elementary-number-theory
okay thank you
i wantedto know if people know about the topic so i can speak with them in private because i don’t want to disturb the group
i think i wrote in the wrong chat though here
thanks, will go through this approach when i get some time today
yea, i have been going through burris and sankappanavar
peakest


