#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 365 of 1
ooo!!
it's for mathematicians and physicists
That’s pretty cool
The physics rep theory course at my UG was similar I think actually, but that shouldn’t have been the first time anyone in that saw groups
it's good that you're making sure everything flows nicely
oh this is definitely the first time some of my students are seeing groups
bleak
I’m going to need to spend my next like support class teaching how to write which is fun
wdym by check? an action of G on X is a homomorphism p from G to Sym(X), so p(e) = id
omg I have that next year it's going to be so funny
Of the 120 homework’s I marked last week, there was like maybe 5 people who made an actual mistake, but like 10 people who got full marks because the other 110 just submitted a pile of calculations without any words
Just to make sure I understand: when you define group actions as a map f : G -> Aut(A) you get f(e) = id "for free", but when defining it as a map f : G -> (A -> A) (that is G x A -> A) you need to specify f(e) = id. And the reason is basically that A -> A is just a monoid, so you need f(e) = id to ensure the image is actually Aut(A)?
Yeah like it was a very computational problem, so I get it, but you can’t just start pulling integrals out of thin air
You need to give me some explanation of what’s happening
right
yes yes
do you ever take a step back and look at the math notation and think "what the fuck am I even doing bro"
when you define a group action, you "naturally" define each element of G to become a function A -> A
Also a lot of people confused about the definition of a linear DE which is fair, it’s a slightly confusing definition
but these functions just form a monoid
it turns out that to show that it lands in Aut(A), you need to show the identity element gets sent to the identity map
otherwise, it could just get sent to some random idempotent
defining a group representation requries an extra step
you "naturally" define each element of G to become a function V -> V
you'd need to check these are linear maps
so now you're landing in End(V), the endomorphism monoid of V (whose elements are linear maps V -> V)
and then you need to check the identity gets sent to the identity map
but yeah, if i want to explain this to my students, it might be helpful for them to know what a monoid is
I think it’s a good thing to let them know about
Monoidal categories show up a lot, and when you come to define rings you can just say, slap on a compatible monoid and you’re good to go
One of my students is complaining that the notes never define what "well-defined" means, ironically
How would you go about explaining this
I think I'd want to go via the relation route, and talk about when relations define functions or not
I think it's also quite "natural" that the identity of the group act as the identity function, but it can probably be helpful to emphasize the reason we don't require this for homomorphism is because we have inverses, and functions don't always have inverses.
I think any more about monoids would probably be a detour, but if you have the time learning about monoids is useful anyway I suppose...
"means that, whenever two inputs are the same, the definition of the function also actually ouputs the same elements"
right so that's the relation route in my language
(e.g. when you descend a function down a projection map p : X -> X/~)
mm alr
by which i mean - the formula defines a relation from X / ~ to your codomain
and "well-definedness" amounts to showing this relation defines a function
I remeber finding that hard at first, I think the thing that solidified it for me was seeing an example of something that wasn’t actually well defined. I.e. imposing some relation and showing some computation depends on the representative of the equivalence class
I don’t know if that’s generally helpful, but I do know that helped me when i had the same confusion
You can probably get good counter-examples they are familiar with out of Q
I don’t remeber what I first saw but it shouldn’t be hard to come up with something that’s wrong, I do that by accident all the time
yeah just take the "function" that assigns to each rational number its numerator
how would you explain the significance of the first iso theorem
Significance in terms of usefulness or in some other way?
If it’s just usefulness I’d almost just say, just let them see. You use it constantly doing any form of algebra
It’s probably the main way you’ll end up showing isomorphisms
hm how about apart from usefulness
it tells u that homomorphisms = quotienting your domain and then putting the quotient inside something bigger
right, this is the "decomposition of homomorphisms" pov
so if u understand quotients well and extensions well, u can often understand homomorphisms well
I like to interpret it as basically saying that whenever you have a group extension, the structure of the smaller group is reflected in sort of a "fuzzy way" in the larger group
which is a bit vague but for example
you could imagine if you were looking at the general linear group but you had really shitty vision and could only see the scaling of volumes and the fchanging of orientations but couldn't make out the precise details
that the general linear group would "look" like the nonzero real numbers (or whatever field)
similarly if you were watching permutations but for whatever reason you could only see the parity, it would look like C2
so essentially the first iso theorem just says that when you take an extension of a group, the result is the same up to what makes them different, which when you say it that way sounds kinda stupid and obvious but
really the first iso theorem is actually obvious, but its one of those things that you only realize its obvious once you see it enough and internalize whats going on
(an extension of a group H by G is just a surjective map G -> H of course)
like the statement is crudely “if you get rid of the things that sent to zero, you’re left with the stuff that did get somewhere”. so spiritually it should feel believable. but now the interesting part is that there is any mathematically honesty to the statement; that something which was taught in terms of cosets is equal to honest elements in a different group. so the significance of it is really a statement about how homomorphisms behave. to me all of these identities are really equivalent to the fact that the one condition on homomorphisms makes them so well behaved
but if you understand homomorphisms, i agree with blake a good litmus test of understanding the first iso theorem is if it feels totally trivial/obvious
yeah the thing with first iso is that at some point it became like a ubiquitous law of nature for me lol
it's not always true ig
e.g. for topological spaces it's false
yes i was talking about algebraic structures :P shouldve mentioned that
(this goes for all isomorphism theorems, for that matter, the correspondence theorem perhaps the most)
famously it's not true for topological abelian groups
hence condensed math or smth
type shit
i suppose i dont think of those as purely algebraic structures
This was exactly how I had it described to me “wouldn’t it be nice if homalg worked for topological spaces?”
the derived category of Top 
are derived categories in any way related to derived groups
I will understand if all one day, I can give Barwick a more insightful response than, “yeah that sounds pretty cool”
idk i just know theyre hom alg
derived groups come from quotienting out by the commutator subgroup
it does sound really cool though
then no
or wait
im pretty sure
was it taking commutator subgroup
Not as far as I know but I don’t know much about derived categories beyond the vibe of what they are
it's probably taking commutator subgroup
the derived category is when category of chain complexes up to quasi isomorphism or smt
Something something derived functors for chain complexes
(quasi isomorphism is a homomorphism which induced an isomorphism on the homology groups)
yis cuz all injective / projective resolutions are isomorphic in the derived category
yeah so derived category is a quotient but derived group is a subgroup
so that basically gives an explicit construction rather than requiring a choice of resolution
do you get these between the singular chain complex and the simplicial complex for a triangulation, for example?
I think it's just overloaded terminology, there's no relation to my knowledge
well not exactly, because you start with an abelian category A, then construct its category of chain complexes, and then localise that category to make all quasi isomorphisms invertible
right right
this localisation exists because Grothendieck is a smart fella
better a smart fella than a fart smella
exactlyy
uhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
maybe in nice cases idk i dont know topology
well i haven't done algtop but i assumed this is how you show that singular and simplicial homology are the same
that there's a quasi-isomorphism between the associated complexes
but mb i'm wrong
ive got no clue how they do that even
well there must be a quasi morphism unless the isomorphism isnt given by a chain map at all
You use the natural map from the simplicial chain complex to the singular chain complex and induct on the dimension of the complex, using the 5 lemma and stuff
is that natural map a quasi-isomorphism?
Yes, that's what the argument shows
cool
thats super nice
This
Ig also like you can view singular homology of X as simplicial homology of Sing X (ok I am using simp sets instead of simplicial complexes but essentially the same) and if K is a simplicial set K have a map K -> Sing |K|. This induces a map from simplicial to singular
derived category comes from derived functors which are derived from left or right exact functors. i don’t actually know what derived subgroups are intended to be derived from when that terminology was introduced
And in fact that map is a weak homotopy equivalence
beyond just the group
It is sort of annoying terminology to me now lol
which
Like there are notions of derived algebraic group etc which give you annoying results from derived subgroup etc
lol
Commutator subgroup is nice ig
it is technically derived from the original group :P
Indeed
There's also derivations, derivatives and differentials, and the deRham complex.
Not sure if there's actually any link there or if it's just something derived from something else...
Do you know that elementary abelian p-groups are just isomorphic to (Z/p)^n?
this follows from classification of finite abelian groups + the fact that it has (p^n-1) elements of order p right
Yes
oh so basically
for any element a it lies in some Z/p
uniquely
and so it follows that if we take all the other Z/ps
and it has index p and doesnt contain a
its like normal
Well the various uses of normal are clearly unrelated. Here I'm less sure
Overloaded terminology? In algebra? Impossible
variety is funny because in dutch manifolds share the same name
Iirc this is just coincidence
Though I have heard this suggested before
math is so derivative smh
It simply couldn’t be the case! That would be completely out of the normal!
G is isomorphic to a subgroup of S_n, if it contains an odd permutation g then g must have even order (since we know if g^k = e, g^k is the product of even permutations).
im not sure about |G:<g>| being odd though
If a group G contains an odd permutation, half of its elements are odd and half are even I believe
Oh
We only have to look at the cases of S_5 or above
Sorry I am not following your argument, g^k = e, g^k is the product of even permutation?
do you know how to show that [G:<g>] is odd though
im considering the action of G on [G:<g>] but it doesn't seem very helpful
But here what is k?
im not doing good notation lol
my argument is that if g^2k+1 for any k in N is e
its a contradiction
so it must be even
So if h is odd permutation then h has order even, but if h is even permutation then it can be odd or even
If | G : < g > | is even and g has even order, can π_g odd permutation?
It can't
Wait
I think if | G : < g > | even means if you decompose π_g into disjoint cycles then the number of cycles is even.
Therefore if g has even order and | G : < g> | is even then π_g is even permutation
just a quick question. someone in here mentioned jordan-holder the other day. and called it an advanced topic. it just came up in my course. is jordan-holder and composition series and all that really considered an advanced algebra topic? maybe it depends on what program you're in?
Ig depends what advanced means. But this is the sort of thing you would see in, say, a second course mentioning group theory, so as such is not particularly advanced (but also is not smth you would see immediately)
I’ve never seen or used Jordan holder
it also depends how much you do with them
we certainly defined and discussed composition series in my intro algebra course but not much further
i don’t know the context in which it was called advanced
Do you know what a composition series is?
i think we have to use it to prove theorems about solvable groups.
No
Schreier refinement theorem is also useful then
i see a question on my pset i haven't gotten to yet that has a chain of subgroups in it and we have to show that something is solvable.
we also have to learn feit-thomson and phillip hall's theorem
it's all part of this unit we're doing about classification
that’s fun
because suppose your group has a subnormal series where each quotient is abelian (so its solvable), suppose A_1, ..., A_n. Then you can refine this to a maximal subnormal series (so a composition series) where the factor groups are the factor groups of composition series of all the A_i. These must be cyclic, so your group must be built out of cyclic groups. Conversely, if your group is built out of cyclic groups, then any decomposition series (by Jordan-Holder) will have those as factor groups, which are abelian, so it must be solvable
classifications are fun!!
a subnormal series of G is a series of subgroups
1 = A0 < A1 < A2 < ... < An = G
such that Ai is normal in Ai+1.
a composition series is a subnormal series which is maximal. Equivalently, it is a subnormal series such that each factor group (successive quotient) is simple.
just getting into, so i don't know too much yet. we are learning about the holder program as well
what’s that
it was an effort to classify all finite simple groups that was completed around 1980
part of it was using the feit-thompson theorem i guess
if G is a simple group of odd order, then G isomorphic to Z_p for some prime p
Idk if it is possible to learn precisely one of composition series and Jordan–Hölder
lol
no, jordan holder is built on composition series right?
I guess it's possible to learn only about composition series
I know Jordan-Holder but no composition series 
this is the way
Ye maybe if they are just mentioned offhand
the only time i’ve used jordan holder is to understand what th grothendieck group of a FDA is
but for congruences
I love how Jordan–Hölder is so much easier for modules than grps
rocking the UA world one step at a time
Lol
oh it comes up again for modules?
Me when normal subgroups
imaginebalatro but for congruences
Same result
yeah cuz you can just use modular lattice theory, duhh
Is it? Isn't the proof exactly the same?
Zassenhaus and stuff become almost a triviality I think right
No fiddling around worrying about normality
At least this is how i remember it
i’m assuming bc modules are abelian group
there’s something missing
Like the proof has the same structure, just the hardest bit is missing iirc
this is a very old definition of modular
i c
going back to Dedekind n 1894, apparently
sounds like there would be too many diagrams involved
(citation needed)
surprisingly not
Sheaves
does that even belong in algebra? i thought that was more related to topology or geometry or something
you've got algebraic geometry
yeah that's true
that uses the formalisation of sheaves
but true I will always stand by the idea that in some sense sheaves are the "correct" geometric objects
not topological spaces
I agree for much of this lol
Why are these useful
in my course it has to do with classification of finite groups
I guess the evidence for this is that, when wanting to do actual geometry, the topological space is often not much more than a "carrier" of sorts: eg in algebraic geometry we really only care about polynomial maps, which do happen to be continuous in the Zariski topology and that gives nice consequences, and for manifolds we require an atlas which has certain niceness properties like smoothness or continuity or wtv
certain definitions of groups can be stated using the existence of certain subnormal series
and in general subnormal series are pretty well-behaved wrt like subgroups or extensions
and, for example, it helps prove jordan-holder (which basically says that decomposing a finite group into simple groups, like reversing a sequence of extensions, always gives the same multiset of simple groups)
It's also like just generally a nice filtration you can always put on a group, with simple (lol) quotients
"simple"
the humble classification™:
holy grothendieck
maybe I am the
grothendieck
or actually i guess leray
Just say topoi atp
let me look that up rq to see if i agree
Ye sheaves of smooth functions
"He concealed his expertise on differential equations, fearing that its connections with applied mathematics could lead him to be asked to do war work."
this is crazy
topoi are scary
someone told me he came up w spectral sequences on the walls of the prison
and he just drew rectangles and arrows in them
Based
crazy man
I thought they were more logic though
Something about pictures of an elephant comes to mind
Depends on whether you use topoi for applications or not
Joking.
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/Sketches+of+an+Elephant
how am I ever gonna fucking learn all this 😭
why is there so much math
See I often find myself feeling that, yet I somehow keep knowing the stuff that seemed so far away before
But then I just realise that was still so much farther away from the frontier than I even knew
just work in a dead field
you'll be at the frontier in no time
🔥
guys my research will properly revive UA into the mainstream I swear!!!!
I will be the worlds best general topologist
Ignore the fact that metric spaces and general topology are by quite a considerable margin by worst results in uni
I think this is a common occurance for people who already know a lot because their mind is just elsewhere
this is because my only grade is a 6/10, for graph theory, because we didn't have enough time
and because it was too cs related, I'm not abt to learn the algorithm to calculate the max flow under a certain capacity 💔
Also you just wont get the same grades in uni as in school
Yeah my first couple graph theory homeworks were uber cooked and they only got easier and shorter because the tutors complained about the ammount of marking so I feel this lol
Tbf they werent that hard, but they were silly long
this is how the exam felt
not hard, just 3 questions and each had like 7 subquestions
linear algebra homework consisted of proving some stuff for general vector spaces, where each algebraic step we did we had to mention the specific axiom used
noooo enpeace changed pfp
By the axiom of foundation, ...
people kept confusing me with the guy in the pfp
By the axiom of UA
I am NOT The Caracal Project
Floppa
put an anime girl pfp
Can anybody help me understand proving isomorphisms?
I know the theory, 1. Show homomorphism, 2. Show bijection
But in practice I am just so confused.
Here's the first example:
Let $G = { \begin{pmatrix}
1+a & -a \
a & 1-a \
\end{pmatrix}, a\in Z}$. Prove that $(G, *)\cong (Z, +)$. I don't know how to do this at all.
HMD
Btw my lecture today was weird @thorn jay
G is that one matrix indeed 
we did sheafification, and then we defined a ringed space, and then co-limits and filtered co-limits😵💫
I swear there was an emoji called clopencry
maybe try writing out the general formula for the multiplication of two such matrices
what?
then, perhaps, a natural bijection will show itself
in that order?
yes
how are you defining sheafification without colimits or filtered colimits
sections of the etale space?
wait no thats direct limits
universal property
I know, the result is something like $ \begin{pmatrix}
1+a & -a \
a & 1-a \
\end{pmatrix} \cdot \begin{pmatrix}
1+b & -b \
b & 1-b \
\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}
1+a+b & -a-b \
a+b & 1-a-b \
\end{pmatrix}$
we did do a construction of regular functions on stalks
because the construction uses a limit over refinements of covers
to show existence
we also did the g++ construction
but geee, you may ask, why are there two +'s??
because the first one only makes the presheaf g into a mono-presheaf
HMD
well, now you can see there is an obvious mapping, right? You want the mapping to satisfy f(A * B) = f(A) + f(B)
is there an obvious way to get such a matrix and get an integer?
yes I see it's obvious as everything in abstract algebra but I dont know how to prove it with technical steps
determinant?
no
dw not everything is obvious in abstract algebra
the matrix (1 + a & -a \ a & 1 - a) gets sent to a
then you just have to prove that this is a homomorphism, and surjectivity and injectivity are kinda by definition
i know the definition but dont know to apply it that's my problem
well you just have to show that this mapping is a homomorphism
i.e. that, if you have two matrices A and B, then f(AB) = f(A) + f(B)
you have the formula for AB here, so you just have to match sides
Okay so $ f(A + B) = \begin{pmatrix}
1+a+b & -a-b \
a+b & 1-a-b \
\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}
1+a & -a \
a & 1-a \
\end{pmatrix} \cdot \begin{pmatrix}
1+b & -b \
b & 1-b \
\end{pmatrix} = f(A * B)$??
HMD
that's the only line I have to write regarding homomorphism?
well yeah
okay no
youve notated it wrong
f is applied to the matrices, not to the integers
or i guess you can go the other way but then you should end with f(A) * f(B), not f(A * B)
btw @thorn jay this co-cones thing kinda melted my mind
too much commutative diagrams
basically, think of it as a sink
everything goes to the cocone and its well defined
so no matter what path you take to the sink, its the same
bijection
if a = b then f(a) = f(b).
So we take a = b then $ \begin{pmatrix}
1+a & -a \
a & 1-a \
\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}
1+b & -b \
b & 1-b \
\end{pmatrix}$?
not sure how to show surjection though. Matrix consists of $a \in Z$ so clearly it should map to entire $\mathbb{Z}$
HMD
the map a --> (1 + a, -a, a, 1-a) is obviously surjective
I don't get it, can you show me the correct example?
so many things is obvious I know fr
i think you need to define a function between the g \in G (using the variable a in the matrix), to the elements z \in Z
then, show it's a homomorphism. then show it's a bijection.
yeah but I don't know how to think through that process, I've never done it before
it's a notation hell
did you define a map yet?
no
you need something that takes a g \in G and maps it to a z \in Z.
i'm assuming that Z is the integers? not the cyclic group?
Z are integers with addition, which makes it a cyclic group of infinite order
ah, duh
off the top of my head, could be wrong here, but just take the $a$ out of that matrix and send it to the corresponding integer $a \in Z$
proofman
ok, then compute f(a)f(b), should get f(ab)
cant be cyclic, { 2, 3 } is a minimal generating set and we all know that abelian groups have invariant basis property

im confused, Z is definitely cyclic
are you making ||23|| the new ||67||
its a joke
how do i do that tho?
rest assured, 99% of what i say is covered in layers of irony
f(g) = a, where a is the coefficient in the matrix
okay, then declare two matrices, g, h \in G with coefficients a, b \in Z. then show f(g)f(h) = f(gh)
i can't understand 99% of what you've said so far, so i guess that doesn't help me much 🙂
usually you have to build the map using the "stuff that's lying around" is how it was explained to me...
Yeah... I don't recall the last time I did it so I'm really really rusty
I only have the "useless" theory
How much Galois theory do you need to be able to follow Sharpe's steps into commutative algebra, or even Matsumura?
Will the Galois theory section in Herstein's Topics in Algebra field theory chapter suffice?
namely this
So I don't know these books at all, but typically the Galois theory needed for commutative algebra is like characterization of Galois extensions as seperable and normal, the correspondence theorem and basics of field extensions.
You probably won't need anything about transcendence of e, compass straight edge construction or solvability by radicals.
And I'm guessing 5.8 is about constructing specific groups as Galois groups over Q, which doesn't seem relevant to CA either.
I might even suggest just starting on CA and then going back to Galois as you need it
I have done a pretty reasonable ammount of CA and i am only just now learning galois theory (not because I needed it for CA)
Agreed lol
(I guess Galois is most pressingly needed in algebraic number theory things initially)
A few ideas popped up in my alggeo course but these were things that were either easy to look up, obvious, or some combination there in
If you care about groups acting on rings there are some things with primes lying over fixed primes etc that goes into Galois theory territory
When you say this characterisation, which definition is your preferred one, jagr?
I guess probably like L^{Aut(L/K)} = K
Well I'm saying you should be familiar with several and why they're equivalent.
But if I am to pick a favorite, then sure that one
Yee makes sense
I have honestly not found my galois course to be all that enlightening so far, I dont know if thats because ive done quite a bit of other algebra before now or if the course just doesnt cover much ground
That being said I have only read so far as to actually define the galois group so there could be more coming (though im about 80% of the way through the notes I think)
i think it is more enlightening when you actually use it for stuff like number theory tbh
though the fundamental theorem is v cute in itself
The fundamental theorem is the main reason im taking it lol, in my first algtop class the correspodence between covering spaces and (deck transformations? i dont actually remember) was pointed out to just be the galois correspondence and that seemed to make everyone else quite happy
So i guess thats something I should understand well
i wouldn't say "the" but rather "a" galois correspondence, like formally the same but yeah
(though there is more that can be made precise lol with étale maps in algebraic geometry)
Yeah sorry, something something Galois categories
Yee
What is the correspondence anyway? I feel like it was something to do with covering spaces and like subgroups of the deck transformation or something
I honestly didnt super follow the stuff on deck transformations, its something I should review
Covering spaces correspond to subgroups of the fundamental group, and then for normal covers the deck transformation group is the quotient of the fundamental group by the corresponding normal subgroup.
Ahh yeah that sounds right, I remember becoming quite lost around that part of the course lol
I need to learn more homotopy theory soon anyway so I guess thats a good time to review it
Ive discovered a book on Galois theorie_s_ which seems super cool
in the uni library
of course it was grothendieck who did a lot of work on the stuff covered there
the proof of young diagrams classifying irreps of S_n is quite pretty actually
hi groupers i've been directed here since not getting much of a reply in help channels
am doing some basic galois theory at uni, got given this question
as mentioned in the screenshot im currently stuck on the 4th one - finding the splitting field of Q for the polynomial X^3 - 3X + 1. We're told that 2cos(2pi/9) is a root, but I don't really see how that helps us there, since we have no idea if the other two roots are generated by that root as well.
I'm assuming that the answer is that those other two roots are in fact in Q(2cos(2pi/9)), but I am lost on how to show that
and this is annoying me greatly since the other 4 parts of this question are borderline trivial 😭
you don't have to prove that the other two roots are generated by it, it is enough to show that the polynomial is irreducible
because ||we are working over an extension of Q, so there are no concerns about separability||
and to that end it is enough to show that ||the polynomial has no roots in Q, because a cubic polynomial is not irreducible iff it has at least one linear factor||
So I'm assuming part of this hint lies in how you showed 2cos(2pi/9) is the root of this.
What comes to me is that if you let z be a primitive 9th root of unity, then Q(z) is a Galois extension with Galois group (Z/9)^* = Z/6, and 2cos(2pi/9) = z + z^-1.
So Q(2cos(2pi/9)) is a Galois extension with Galois group a quotient of Z/6
The exercise is to find the splitting field, so it's relevant what the other roots are.
For example x^3 - 2 has a splitting field of order 6, while in this example the order is 3
oh, find the splitting field ok
Another thing that's useful is the discriminant
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Discriminant
An irreducible cubic has splitting field of degree 3 iff it's discriminant has a square root, otherwise it's degree 6.
In mathematics, the discriminant of a polynomial is a quantity that depends on the coefficients and allows deducing some properties of the roots without computing them. More precisely, it is a polynomial function of the coefficients of the original polynomial. The discriminant is widely used in polynomial factoring, number theory, and algebraic ...
And in this case it's 81 = 9^2
Ooh ok
I remembered this much better once I learnt the formulation in terms of G-sets (the one part of May I really like).
Yeah it was exactly that.
Oh, noted, ill take a look there!
Don't go beyond the covering spaces part (i.e. chapter 4 or 5 I forget), unless you want to be... changed.
changed?
horrifying
I just looked at the contents page for the book because I’ve always heard it’s an experience
Good lord is the word “concise” ever doing some heavy lifting
The most ominous word that didn't seem inaccurate I could think of on short notice.
Actually maybe that's also inaccurate
Lol
Tbh I need to have a look again lol and I am curious what the opinion on it is nowadays
Oh, well.
Everything I’ve seen people say is that it’s good but learning from it yourself looks impossible, but honestly it looks like it could be a good thing for me to go through. I’ve worked through quite a lot of Hatcher now, but my knowledge is still pretty patchy and I’ve not seen much of the categorical stuff, because Hatcher, so it seems like a nice book for review
I wonder if I’ll feel the same way about that book as I do about Rudin
But yeah starting from defining homotopy and building all of Hatcher, and more category theory and an introduction to K theory in like 230 pages is just 
Hmm
Idk I think it is kinda different from Rudin
Ig yeah I think it is a nice resource but not to learn from
Like putting cofibrations and stuff so early seems a bit much – I like the way Hatcher does stuff with homology etc which has less machinery
Whereas idk how you would get someone to just care about cofibrations of topological spaces before more stuff
I found some of the "topics" bits near the end (e.g. with manifolds or K-theory) quite useful tho
(And lol this is coming from a homotopy theorist)
Yeah my first course kinda made a point about cofibrations when we did the HEP and also with mapping cylinders, but we didn’t expand on that, I know they’re useful and important but not how or why
I’m trying to understand how you can reconstruct a representation given its character
Would the following approach work:
Take the regular representation
Use the character to make a projector onto the component corresponding to an irrep
Then… I guess you need to block-diagonalise the matrices simultaneously
CG is semisimple so every module can be written as a direct sum of simple modules, i.e. the irreducible representations.
you then take the inner product with the irreducible characters, and these will be the amount of times the respective irreducible rep appears in the decomposition
Yes I’m aware, this isn’t quite what I’m asking though
If I have a known group G, and a character corresponding to an irrep, what’s the fastest way to create a representation that realises this character?
ah okay, I'm sorry
yeah take the regular representation, and then you can retrieve the irreducible representation by construction the corresponding projection from the regular rep onto it
i want to know how many group homomorphisms are there from S3 to Z6? i tried understanding from chatGPT but it uses commutator subgroups (???) quotient s3/A3 and whole lot very confusing things that i don't get. can someone tell me an easier and intuitive way
ChatGPT is just generally going to be a bad idea for maths you’re doing at this level.
One thing I would suggest you think about is the order of elements in S3 and those in Z6 and see where things could be sent
so S3 has 3 elements of order 2 and 2 elements of order 3. While Z6 has only one element of order 2 and two elements order 3. so these elements from s3 must go to their respective order elements in z6?
<@&268886789983436800>
Yeah that’s the idea! You need to refine it a little, one idea is to notice that Z/6Z is abelian and S3 isn’t, that should help you!
hmm i thought of abelian-ness too, but didn't get anywhere. what element would even go to order 6 element cuz s3 doesnt have any order 6 element. i feel like im almost there but missing smth
You can also think about the fact that the kernel of a homomorphism is a normal subgroup, and look at the different normal subgroups of S_3 but these ideas are pretty similar
Possibly this second idea I just mentioned will be more helpful to you then, because that is the right idea
Especially in the case of spambots, it would be useful to write something to that effect in your modping, or make it a reply to the spam.
When a spambot is banned, all its recent posts are automatically deleted so we don't need to hunt them down one by one -- but that means that there will be a lot of orphaned modpings in channels other than the one we first found it in, and the quicker we can ascertain "oh, this was just for the spambot I just banned" rather than some interpersonal problem that needs further action, the easier for us.
Noted, will do!
Well you get a big direct sum of the same irreducible
Hello! The smallest group making the fusion of two elements $x$ and $y$ of a group $G$ possible is indeed given by $H = \langle G, t \mid t x t^{-1} = y \rangle$, right?
UGOAT
It seems obvious, but I'm not familiar with categories.
if the order of Out(G) isn't coprime to 2, yes this is the smallest possible
you take the semidirect product of a C_2 < Out(G) with the obvious action on G and this group realises the fusion you're after
this group might not have that exact presentation though
if it isn't coprime to 2 then you just take the smallest prime dividing the order - not sure why I specified 2
Ok thx, I'd like a proof, do you have any link plz ?
ha, I just recently did this exercise from Pinter: finding all normal subgroups of S_3 and D_4. I think I missed two subgroups in D_4! Those Klein groups. Probably because I was too eager to call it a day 🙂
it was somewhat tedious, because I couldn't find any better way than just finding all subgroups first and then checking which ones are normal
Lagrange theorem certainly helps, and having the group operation table ready - to speed up the checks, but after all that tedium I quickly installed GAP computer algebra system 😄
hmm, now I wonder if the kernel(f) fully defines the homomorphism f: G - > H? probably no...
no, there are two different homomorphisms Z → Z/2 x Z/2 with kernel 2Z
then how @elfin wraith 's suggestion is going to work?
or just any automorphism :P
there might be two different homomorphisms with the same kernel
so @merry summit might miss one of them
Thats true, but having looked at the kernerls, you just have to think about what maps could give you that kernel
The point for S_3 being that it cant be trivial (because S3 isnt abelian and youd get an isomorphism in this case) so its either all of S_3 or its A_3, and you can reason these out easily
S_3 is also trivial, A_2 gets you most of the way there by looking at the size of S_3/A_3
ok
I don't know if I have the full context but it seems that you want to find all normal subgroups of S_3. Why don't you try Sylow?
haven't got to Sylow yet, it's in later chapters
I mean, it's not like I need to find them by any possible means in the quickest fashion!
Well listing out subgroups is nice way. Because there aren't much subgroups here.
And S_3 is very easy to calculate and work with.
for D_4 there were some, and there are 8 elements, so I managed to miss Klein's!
S_3 yes -- I know that one too well by now 🙂
You can start by finding normal subgroups generated by a single element by looking at the subgroup generated by an element and all it's conjugates.
Then the normal subgroups will just be products of these.
You can also think about what the order of a subgroup is and then find appropriate homomorphisms instead.
I don't quite like when authors use arbitrary letters for its elements, using cycle notation seems much better to me: (12), (123), etc.
but Herstein uses phi, psi, etc. And Pinter uses kappa 🙂
r for rotation and s for speilung (reflection) is sensible I guess
Basiert
ah, I meant that they use phi, psi, etc. for S_3 sub-elements
using s and r for D_4 generators is perfect (and the way it's done in D&F)
I use r for reflection and t for totation
I like "f" for flip
I'm not sure where I picked this up from
and "r" for rotate
is this like a graph of subgroups?
yeah it is and I've drawn squiggly lines for the conjugate ones
i.e. each vertex is a group and if there is an edge from A to B this means that A is a subgroup of B?
exactly yeah, it's the poset of subgroups under inclusion
fun exercise is to draw the one for S_3
I guess you could try to find all subgroups which might be normal in D_4 and try to argue that they are the only normal subgroups by looking at normal closures.
at this point just find the conjugacy classes and see which unions of them are closed under multiplication
hm, interesting
Bro got the crayons out
it's just a few automorphisms away from being the inner fusion system on D_8 but drawing them would be time loss 💔
Do it for S5, no balls
For the arguement, I would try to do it like this: If a normal subgroup contains a particular element, it will force the subgroup to be a particular one (basically trying to find the normal closure).
My galois class had that as a problem on the most recent problem sheet, and like, im good
(For S_4 and S_5)
the WHOLE lattice? not even up to conjugacy?
Thankfully, not assessed, no requirement for me to do it lol
for S_5 that would have well over 100 vertices
It was nice to find all of them.
Perhaps for some. Not the kinda thing I enjoy.
I have done S_4, and some of A_5 tho. Not S_5 wholly.
S_4 is reasonable
A_5 is also nice to work out (group of order 60).
I dont like to think about symmetric groups, cycle notation confuses me
I just got mansplained the order of A_5 💔
Bringing you back to earth after too many bifunctors
Real maths that real men do, not that woke nonsense
I didn't mean that. I meant that not too high of a number.
they're biset functors I only know of one biset bifunctor
I do appoligise, please forgive me
Perfect, make a family of them, you group theory types seem to enjoy that
I dont know wtf a biset is boss
bimodule but group actions instead of ring actions
(-, -) in Hom(-, -) looks like my face rn. /s
This I get
Feels nice, ive spent about 3 says failling to understand about 5 pages of hatcher
someone needs to write an alg top textbook that isn't A) as dense as Benson or B) dog water
Ive been saying this
and calling Benson II a "textbook" is like calling the ATLAS a representation theory textbook
How do you feel about Spanier?
haven't read it
what is a bifunctor even
I just dont get Hatcher, bro spend about 15 pages talking about subdivisions in 4 different ways, then gets to an example he says is really important for cohomology and just throws you in the deep end
I dont know whats going on bro
I feel that Hatcher talks too much. I can't handle too much of it.
He really does, but seemingly not in the right places
A functor with a very open sexuality
just a functor from a product category, at least in the sense I'm using it
oh Right
it can also mean a functor between bicategories if you are woke
it is quite funny how many things I study have the bi- prefix
The duality of wew
theyre so me fr
wew is a category of algebraic structures hence has an isbell duality
Ive been openly bi lol
Haven't read bifunctors so this might sound crazy. Can they have different variance simultaneously?
wdym by variance
Oh yeah...
in fact the ones people care about are usually out of an opposite category x a category
it's rather strange to see (co, co)-variant
(e.g. Hom)
Hom, internal hom
Thats nice.
monoidal stuff
they're called profunctors in general and they're a generalisation of BISETS to categories
or did you mean contravariant x contravariant
thats right buddies you can't escape that easily
nah I mean (contra, co)
yes yes
(contra, contra) is just (co, co) really
a (co, co)-functor immediately has some monoidal feeling tbh
yeah they're like monodial products but without any of the coherence conditions
cause it's morally just a binary product
andddd I think we've just reinvented single sorted Lawvere theories
BUUURRRRPPPPPPP
COHERENT??
CONDITION????
COHERENT CONDITION???????!!!?
what is your PROBLEM
Hush, you two.
brainrotted by my research
dont tell me what to do grrrrr
he's a senior mod his job is kinda to tell you what to do lol
oh? what coherence conditions do u work with
I guess we need to make an alge-unchill channel
Alge-ments
also I just meant the associator pentagon it's not that deep
or the unit traingles
a generalisation of prime spectra suitable for any variety of algebras, which happens to have cool ties to both universal algebraic geometry and logic

yes lol ik
this is the woke kind of spectra isn't it
(just recently published a paper abt it wink wink)
its nothing super complicated ngl
Valid
unless you mean like, Morava K-theories by "prime spectra" idk what else that could mean
potato what else could that mean
shushh let me have smt
published
this but unironically
I was joking tho dw
I've been thinking about how small of a result I can put on arxiv and get away with it
pt8 maybe pt7 id guess
we \footnotesize in this mf
As small as you want
a coherent condition assigns to every algebra a set of distinguished congruences such that the preimage of a distinguished congruence is distinguished, and the quotient of a distinguished congruence is distinguished
An entire paper in a footnote would be amusing
Start doing that rather than citations
like I have a really nice little combinatorial result that doesn't fit into my thesis but it really is just "apply this known formula" but the application of the formula is highly non-trivial
that sounds like it could be a nice little paper
I see, don't really know what a distingusished thingy is icl
like what would be a distinguished congurance for groups
the set of congruences are the distinguished congruences of that coherent condition
I need an example rather than more adjectives/nouns I don't know
so like there is a coherent condition for which the distinguished ideals (as those are equivalent to congruences for comm rings) are the prime ideals
can't believe potato "this" reacted me, admitting to their diabolical plan to scoop my result
I will scoop yours
ah ok
but theres also one where the distinguished ideals are radical ideals
Eepus peepus
so it just lets you pick out certain types of quotients by looking at what you're quotienting out by?
or perhaps you get the congruences from a specific condition on the quotient?
that sounds more right to me
yes, to both, in some sense
it turns out coherent conditions on a variety V correspond to subclasses of V closed under embeddings
Semishrimple modules
of course
what's your favorite definition of variety 
then you can take the radical of a coherent condition (which corresponds to taking all congruences which are some intersection of distinguished congruences), and those correspond to subclasses of V closed under products and embeddings
anyways, neat little thing
Maybe like separated and integral scheme of finite type over a field
Algebraically closed field if that is ur taste
category of representations of a clone in Set
Could also make it not quasicompact
the spice of life
so the normal subgroups could be {e}, A3 and S3. which means those are my options for the kernel. now if the kernel is {e} it would mean an isomorphism which aint possible so im left with 2 kernels, can i conclude from just that there are 2 homomorphisms? is knowing the possible no. of kernels enough for such questions?
the identity map from S_3 to itself has trivial kernel but I don't really know what you're doing
It isnt enough no, because as was mentioned somewhere above you could have different maps with the same kernel. You need to look at what maps could give you A3 and S3 as a kernel and then you can conclude
So uh
There are 2, but your reasoning isnt quite right
Ah Hom(S_3, C_6) ok
Yur
I’m taking a third year engineering quantum course and the prof this morning just casually tossed around the ideas of Lie algebras in full abstraction to a group of crayon eating engineering students
Catastrophic
I tried providing an idea here in the group chat for the course but we’re cooled
hmm i see, ok so how do i check if there are more maps when the kernel is A3 🤔
honestly why are we messing around with kernels? just see where the generators of S_3 can go
mfw yapping about (\mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{R})) representations
but S3 isnt cyclic how would it have generators
... all groups have generators
(123), (12) generate S_3
Cyclic is if it has one generator brother
There can be many generators. Typically the number of generators is the size of the smallest family of generators
Which isn’t unique
they might not be always finitely generated or generated by one element(cyclic) however we can always take a generator for groups
I had also mentioned this as an idea to start with, along with looking at the order of elements, but the kernel thing is another way to go
Technically the whole group is a set of generators.
A set of generators is basically where the smallest subgroup containing that set is the whole group
this is confusing im sure I've seen cyclic groups with multiple generators...
(The generated subgroup of a set is the smallest subgroup containing the set)
and not one
A group is cyclic if it has 1 generator, so those dont exist
You’re fighting ghosts
the cyclic group of order n has phi(n) generators where phi is the euler totient function
Every group looks like <g_1,...g_n|r_1,...,r_m> for some set of generators g and relations r, but this is probably going to come up a little later in your course
but the entire group is generated by any SINGLE one of them
Euler toilet function
doesnt Z8 has generators {1, 3, 5,7}
yes!
but you said one 😭
murderer
There are phi(n) choices of generators, but you only need one to generate the group
yes
i mean there can be different set of generators
i assume you should have taken linear algebra, and as you know there can be different basis for them
and a cyclic group is a group where there exists a generating set with one element.
A generator is described as a part of a generating set which generates the group. The minimum number of generators is the size of the smallest generating set(s), which are not unique (there is often a fuckload).
A group is cyclic if the minimal generating sets are singletons, so the group can be generated by one of many “lone” generstors
i think i dont know what a generator of the form <a,b> means, or how it works. do i multiply ab repeatedly?
well in my experience a minimal generating set is "locally" minimal in the sense that removing any element makes it not a generating set
so for example { 2, 3 } is a minimal generating set of Z
Well that’s just minimality of a family of sets.
Subgroup generated by a,b
<a,b> is all words you can make out of {a, b, a^-1, b^-1}, like a^2, aba, ab^-1, aba^2ba^3ba^4b...
Or in other words, the smallest subgroup containing {a,b} which you can show is the group of words
yes, a minimal generating set wrt inclusion
minimal overall is minimal wrt cardinality
<S> is just left adjoint of the forgetful functor F:Grp\to Set 
when write write, for example <a, b | a^2 = 1, b^2 = 1> we're setting a^2 = 1 , b^2 = 1 in all of the words - so the words I've written become 1, aba, ab^-1, ab, for instance
Free falling
Adjoints:
Forgetful/Free or Tensor/Hom
Every other one is alg geo/top witchcraft
galois connections:
True
Tensor/Hom is forgetful-free
alr so back to the question on homomorphisms from s3 to z6...💀
just see where you can send (123) and (12)
Algebraic structures are great because {x : f(x) = g(x)} is a proper sub object
Unlike fuckin topo spaces where you need hausdorffness
just take the homotopy equaliser
topoi
how to know where they can go
earlier i just figured out by the orders
ah yes equalisers thats the only reason why algebraic structures are nice
just think about it,: writing g for the generator of C_6 and f for our homomorphism,(123) is either sent to 1, g^2, g^4. Because (12)(132)(12) = (123) we need f((123)) = f((12))f((132))f((12)) = f((132)) so (123) must go to 1. Then (12) is either sent to g^3 or 1 giving us 2 morphisms
you're mother
i am earthbound
Explosion
*deltarune explosion sfx
have you found at least one homomorphism?
doesnt really matter ngl
Could easily go here or #advanced-algebra tbh
Probably slighrly less likely to get swamped out by more elementary qs over there
okay good because i'm trying to work on a cryptosystem based on octonions over finite fields, and as far as I can tell this is not anywhere near as well studied as cryptography over nonabelian groups(this would work over a finite moufang loop instead of a group)
alr to #advanced-algebra
struggling to show that if G is a solvable group and N \trianglelefteq G, then G/N is solvable.
i was able to show that i have a subnormal chain, now i'm trying to show that the composition factors are abelian. i'm struggling a little bit with how to define the homomorphism. i know that once i have the homomorphism defined, i'll probably invoke one of the isomorphism theorems (i'm guessing)... any thoughts?
Is a transversal (on the right or on the left) the same thing as a system of representatives? In group theory, relative to G/H
huh
I think "nonabelian group" usually means "group that specifically has some elements that don't commute".
A group that can be either would be just "group" or "(not necessarily abelian) group" if it needs emphasis.
Ok cool
Because things like “noncommutative ring” often mean “not necessarily commutative ring” right
confusing yeah
Or nonassociative algebra
Yeah, a bit inconsistent.
Maybe the abelian case in whatever you are doing is trivial?
theres an nlab page on this lol
probably red heering principle there lol
This is why often people say like "associative algebra" ig lol
Dat confusing why not just call it ring
Wym🥔
rings are often assumed commutative unless otherwise stated in some fields
fields
Bro had to use the word fields out all of em
e.g. generally in algebraic geometry, and much of alg top tbh
Is dat what we call commutative algebra
ig that too
I had a whole arc the other day of realising cohomology rings aren’t commutative and thinking there’d be some really cool overlap in the stuff I’m interested in
Then I realised that it’s jus graded commutative and that i definitely already knew that from my intro to geometry course lol
Lol
If (q) is maximal wrt to principal ideals containing it, is q an irreducible element?
I recall something like this but i forget the statement
This should be an equivalent definition (outside 0 and 1)
If q is irreducible then no principal ideal contains (q) ?
if u have this condition and q not a unit ofc and q = rt then WLOG r is not a unit. (q) is contained in (r) so (q) = (r) i.e. q,r are associates
Then this proof works the other way too I guess
like if q is irreducible and (q) strictly contained in (r) then q = ru for some u which is a contradiction unless r is a unit
Which means t is a unit so q irred right
It doesn't mean t is a unit in general
Well depends on whether ur assuming the ring to be an integral domain for example
If so then yes
Talking about irreducible when ur not in a domain is weird isnt it
Though there is a more general notion of irreducible where you say like if a = bc and c is not a unit then (a) = (b) or smth
But yeah I think so
Also, this is just the same as saying no principal ideal (excluding (1)) contains (q) isnt it
Idk what else you would mean by maximal here
Though specifying "containing it" is not needed
Like just "it is maximal among proper principal ideals"
Yea the context was i reading something just showing why pid has dimension 1, and he said for (q) since q is prime … no other prinicipal ideal contains it
But that is like using prime —> irreducible right
Or ig i was thinking u just need q to be irreducible to use that argument
Ye
Well for PID everything coincides
Oh yea
(At most 1)
Because fields?
Yeah true
Where are these concepts even important? I know they obv are for number theory but idk where else
Which concepts?
This stuff is important for some AG for example cause dimensions of ring are essentially the notion of dimension for varieties/schemes, and things like unique factorisation correspond to geometric properties too
Though personally I have never rly worried about irreducibility other than showing something is not a PID or smth lol
Why not just exclude fields?
From the original ting? Sure
This is not #latex-testing
This is an algtop question but I thought id ask here since my question is really, how should I reason about Hom(Q,G) where G is a free abelian group? I want to say this has to be trivial but im not sure how exactly to argue that
Like for Z/mZ you can argue that free abelian groups are torsion free so its trivial, but Q is also torsion free. Its also a lot more "rich" though, since you can divide
So I think it should be 0, I just dont know exactly why
No element of a free abelian group is n-divisible for all n
Cyclically reduce the word, then the nth power has length n times the original
So there's a lower bound of n on the length of an nth power cyclically reduced word
Just think about what the image of a non-zero q can be? It will have to map to something such that n f(q/n) = f(q). So 0 is the only option.
Or subgroup of free group is free, so the image would need to be a direct summand and Q is indecomposable (and not free), so image is 0
Ah these are all very nice thank you!
I like this one a lot though, im terrible for remembering that subgroups of free groups are free because ive had the modules thing drilled into me so well lol
oh this is really good
I mean it's way more machinery than needed, but it works
Im a big fan of a sledgehammer proof though lol
If our fancy machinary cant help with the small problems whats even the point
... and proving that Q is indecomposable would be about the same amount of work as just the direct proof I guess
That's true, but the proof is essentially the original statement
is that because if u assume u have a basis then there would always be relations among the generators since G divisible ?
yes
so that makes the top answer here even easier doesnt it
dont need to go through showing if Q were free its rank 1 and then also Q cant be cyclic
But combinatorial group theory
These are not words that bring me joy

i will have to agree with Nope here
You like UA so you have no opinion here /j
UA is super respectable idk what youre talking about
Unfortunately only group theorists are allowed opinions
Group theorists, ring theorists and field theorists*
No, just group
What if they are all the same
They are not
Proof: me
Field theorists are Galois theorists, which are group theorists. Group theorists are representation theorists, i.e., module theorists, as are ring theorists.

Or you just don't know it yet. 😉
discrimination >:(
opinions on homotopy theorists?
I’m a group theorist and not a rep theorist
Opinions banned
@true bolt
They need to spend less time online
just because every student is forced to learn geoup theory doesnt mean group theorists should be the only ones allowed with an opinion
smh
Why do I feel like #groups-rings-fields every time I've ever opened it has just been #math-discussion if #math-discussion was actually good
(I'm not telling y'all off, I'm just observing)
no it does not make your field "better" it makes it OLDER
What are these channels
the first one is groups-rings-fields the second 2 are math-discussion
never heard of her
Oh yeah I have studying role 
We are the role models of the server
Then why don't you have honourable 
Yellow is closer to pink
yeah why DONT we
Hey the ones of us who know things do
this is scandalous
nuh uh
I am pure of heart and that’s the highest honor I could ask for
By those of us I mean the regulars here. So jagr and raghuram
Maybe I was an appeasement appointment
You’re not in the in group, I’m sorry
:(
Maybe I'm not that much of a regular idk
I feel like one
Are you not also a busy grad student
Maybe!
consider ur account blocked and reported
gamma
I got gamma, saturation, AND offset
That's the problem. Where's the rho for representation?
I'm a character theorist so I'd use chi. I have not seen a matrix in 15 years
I was going to say chi next actually.
Also no chi.
Bro was doing LA along side his multiplication tables
That's just what happens when you put cool people in a channel together I guess
Why is the term "unique" used here? I undersand the theorem and proof, but not why the langauge unique is used
It says Q is "smallest ring" containing R, this seems to imply you can have another strictly larger ring S which contains R as a subring and has every element of D a unit in Q. But if such was the case, couldn't you repeat application of this theorem swapping S and Q to show that they are isomorphic?
Maybe I am misunderstanding, it seems the use of langauge "uniqueness" and "smallest" concurrently is contradictory
in that if you drop the sentence "smallest" its somewhat clear how would arrive at uniqueness. Whereas if you include the sentence of "smallest", it seems to imply there is sometihng larger, which seems impossible from uniqueness
i also agree the language is a little strange, partly because its getting at a point that seemingly isn't made apparent yet. uniqueness just means that anything nonisomorphic which containing R and with all elements of D units must in fact have more elements than D turned into units
When the theorem sates, there is a commutative ring Q with 1 such that Q contains R, and every element of D isa unit in Q. The proof constructs a specific Q. Does it mean that THIS speicfic constructed Q is hte unique instance satisfying property (2)?
or on the other hand, is it saying "any comm ring q with 1 st q contains r, and every element of d is a unit in q" is a unique instance satisfying property (2)?
if you are familiar with universal properties, you can understand the "Let S be.." part of (2) as a universal property statement, and unique is to be interpreted as "unique up to unique isomorphism which satisfies that factoring through property"
well Q hasn't been constructed yet
yes it means this specific constructed Q is the unique istance
yeah I guess I understand the phrase "smallest" then
yeah I have done a little bit of category theory. I guess this problem is missing the statement "there is a unique map"
it just states "there is a map"
right. presuming this is D&F and i dont remember the way they motivate things but i don't think theyre really trying to convey universal properties at this point in the book? the point theyre trying to make is the injective map implies S is bigger so Q is the smallest
do you know how to show uniqueness without adding the statement "there is a unique injective homomorphism phi:q->s..."
you still get uniqueness without a unique map
its just not unique up to unique isomorphism
Im trying to show P that satisfies property of being smallest, contains R, and has elements of D as units, then there is an isomorphism between P and Q
i guess I have been able to find maps from P to Q and Q to P such that they agree with identity fxn on R
but don't know how to show they agree with idenetity fxn on Q/P
the theorem states that P and Q should contain isomorphic copies of each other as subrings
this is enough
wait is this true? mutual embeddings mean you have isomorphism?
like you can generalize schroder bernstein to groups/rings?
the uniqueness of the homomorphism is given by 1) if we have f, g: Q \to S then f(rd^{-1}) = \phi(x)\phi(d)^{-1} = g(rd^{-1})
Oh I see, I think i was misinterpreting this point
no it doesn't hold in general for groups and rings
I believe it holds for certain nice classes of modules
it also holds for unitary representations of a group, which is fun
ok so if I and J are isomorphic ideals
and theyre generated by i and j respectively
if I is generated by i^2 - i, then must J be generated by j^2 - j
No
consider (2) and (3) in Z
2Z and 3Z arent isomorphic
i actually asked that question trying to show the two arent isomorphic lol
but fortunately i ended up finding an easier way later
wait what do you mean by isomorphic here
They're definitely isomorphic as Z-modules
they arent isomorphic as rings
if they're isomorphic as rings then like
the problem lies in that f(2)f(2) = f(4) = f(2) + f(2)
this should be true surely
thats what i was thinking but idk
if f is our iso
yeah
wait are we saying isomorphic as rings or as R-algebras
rings
oh ew
yeah rings are kinda ugly
i mean less that
the homework on them this week has been terrible
more now our isomorphism doesn't preserve any of the actual important structure on the ideal
i.e. the fact it's an R-module
there's got to be a counterexample here surely
oh wait (2) and (-2)
why are we considering ring isomorphisms in this special case when the ideals are rings
They're considered as rings (non-unital)
where the isomorphism is just taking the negative
oh i interpreted this as saying that they are unital
actually this is an algebra homomorphism
-3?
-3 generates 3Z
i said above sending 2 to -2 in (2)
were looking for isomorphisms from 2Z to 3Z
your original problem
oh right i forgot i said something more general
if you have (2) with generators 2 and -2 in Z, these are clearly isomorphic (as algebras even!) via the identity map (or multiplication by -1), but while 2²-2 = 2 generates (2), (-2)²+2 = 6 does not
(-a)(-b) ≠ (-ab) though.
I think there are no non-zero non-identity rng homomorphisms between ideals of ℤ.
||Consider the property of an element's square equaling the result of multiplying it by n (in the sense of adding it to itself n times). This has to be preserved by any rng homomorphism and in ℤ is satisfied by (only) {0, n}. Therefore any rng homomorphism from nℤ to ℤ (or any subrng) has to map n to n or 0, so must be the identity on nℤ or 0.||
In not really sure what the problem is trying to get at anyway. It's like very unclear and very arbitrary. What would it matter if i^2 - i also generates?
