#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 355 of 1
No I don't know that
I don't understand the task well
How can there be many groups of order 1800? I can only think of Z_1800, D_900 and maybe a few. And then there's as you mentioned group products that can create further variations
But I don't recall when a group product is valid
I can't make a product out of anything like Z_2 x Z_900 might not be isomorphic to Z_1800
got me curious so I just checked, there are 749 groups of order 1800 up to isomorphism
Fewer than I expected tbh
D_900 isn't abelian
Z_1800 has an element of order 1800, Z2 x Z900 doesn't they can't be isomorphic
also do you know the structure theorem for finite abelian groups?
They are indeed non-isomorphic.
I'm not sure what you mean by them being "valid" though...
💀
Ahh I see
Thankfully that doesn’t really matter because there’s a very strong theorem which tells you how to do this, the classification for finite abelian groups
I don't know what's that
it's ok, very few of those are abelian and you don't actually need to list a single group to do this
Luckily there's only like 12 abelian ones
whats the asymptotic growth of the number of groups
In abstract algebra, an abelian group
(
G
,
+
)
{\displaystyle (G,+)}
is called finitely generated if there exist finitely many elements
x
…
you can write any finite abelian group as the direct sum of groups of the form Z/p^jZ
think about what Jagr is saying about the order of (a,b) and try and deduce when Z_a x Z_b is isomorphic to Z_ab using the fact that Z_ab has an element of order ab
didn't want to say that exact number as this kinda spoils the problem a bit lol
I don’t actually know how the number of groups grows with the size of the set tbh
I think the bound is something like
n^(2/27 log(n)^2 + something)
thats so precise :0 i thought it would be a little prettier if an asymptotic existed
oh i guess a bound isnt a tight bound
combinatorialists in the year 3025 when they find an explicit formula
There are more than
p^(2/27 k^2(k - 6))
groups of order p^k appearantly
Which is less horrible at least
You and me both
my first thought was something like
order n corresponds to k! ish for some k, and then maybe just count the subgroups of Sk? cycle structures or something ,,, maybe i dont want to think abt this anymore
This looks perplexing and weird but that does sum up combinatorics so sure I buy it
What’s the whole 5/8ths thing about groups as well? I think wew told me about that at some point
Yeah, a group is abelian if more than 5/8 of it commutes
Yeah if you have a compact group the probability two elements compute is 5/8
Crazy
That’s just whacky
I mean, sounds pretty reasonable to me
Not even a whacky number, 1/8 more than a half
yeah was about to ask what the FUCK is 2/27 doing in both the formulas
I’m sure it’s reasonable enough if you know any of the theory, but I don’t and that just seems surprising
popping up once in a formula - sure coincidence ig
I think it's very easy to prove
I’m guessing it involves some measure theory so probably not for me lol
I mean, just stick with finite groups if you don't want measures
finite groups is just with the counting measure smh
That’s true I suppose, I guess I never really considered it for finite groups to get a sense of why it would be true
Still, a cool result nonetheless
wat
is there a counter example for when 34/56 of the group commutes 💔
And then Q8 achieves the bound.
Two elements have exactly 5/8 probability of commuting.
oo I guess that makes sense
If the probability is more than 5/8, then it's a 100%
right that makes sense
By sheer chance you’ve chosen a denominator exactly 1/3rd of the order of PSL(2,7) which amuses me
my brain isn’t understanding how that’s possible but that’s okay
Maybe 102 elements commute who knows 🫨🫨🫨
Jagr run the numbers what’s the prob for PSL(2,7) or as I like to call it GL(3,2)
crazy trivia
"what common group has order 3 times the denominator of 34/56"
It’s the second smallest non-abelian simple group it’s not that crazy
And what fool wouldn’t just know that off the top of their head
Well you know the smallest I hope
i mean 168 is many mathematicians favorite number
And the third smallest is A6
number of hours in a week, number of primes between 1 and 1000, order of second smallest nonabelian simple group
So u might as well know the one in the middle
I knew the smallest but I’m not sure I knew how the ordering went past that
Or at the very least I’ve never thought about it
yes thats basically the extend of my ordering knowledge
Past A6 idk myself. I think you get more PSLs arising as finite groups of lie type and then it gets real messy
PSL(2,7) is a good group to know
i think for me at this moment it would be more useful to remember the classification of minimal algebras
looks like PSL(2,8) is the fourth smallest
why?
168 comes up a lot in group theory
So you can win the quiz
It’s got D_8 as a Sylow 2 and we all love a good D_8
I don’t really get how mathematicians were able to prove that there’s no other simple groups outside of 3 huge families and 26 random looking ones
I guess I should read through the thousands of pages 
In fact it’s the smallest group with Sylow D8 where all involutions are conjugate
CRASZZYYYY 🫨🫨🫨🫨
D_8 also has D_8 as Sylow 2
Mods can we fact check ts
What is PSL(2,7)? Projective special linear group over F_7?
that is pretty interesting
Yes, it’s iso to GL(3,2) if you prefer
I don't care really, I get dopamine hit from understanding how to solve it, not knowing the solution
not sure why thats interesting to group theorists though
When a and b are coprime right?
I’m sure if I think about that I’ll agree
is it a nicely described isomorphism or an accidental one
In that case. Number of abelian groups of order p_1^(n_1)p_2^(n_2)… with p_i prime is the product of P(n_i) where P denotes the partition counting function
It’s a bullshit one 💔
Theres loads of bullshit ones https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Exceptional_isomorphism. the worst is PSL(2,4) = PSL(2,5)
All exceptional isomorphisms arise from a cool structure that only appears cause things are small
I don’t like that at all
omg stop the accidents
i guess
I suppose cool implications arise exactly because of the isomorphism
s = 0
for g in G:
for h in G:
if g * h * (g^-1) * (h^-1) == matrix(GF(2),[[1,0,0],[0,1,0],[0,0,1]]):
s+=1
s````
Sagemath says 1008/168^2 = 1/28
Fusion systems.
So we partition the group of order 1800 into a lot of smaller groups of prime orders. I didn't quite understand the last part of it though
I started reading about fusion categories tonight, too many words, category theory is word soup
Possibly lol
fusion cats should be like the math phys thing
Very
They’re entirely unrelated
indeed
These are very different ideas yes
people just can't give good names jk
theres a thing called "sesquimorphisms"
Example. 160 = 2^5*5 so there are P(5)P(1) = 7*1 =7 abelian groups of order 160 as there are 7 ways to partition 5: 5, 4+1, 3+2, 3+1+1, and so on. You can derive this formula directly from your Z_a x Z_b = Z_ab <=> (a,b) = 1 observation
I secretly mentioned a fusion system fact earlier see if u can spot it
What is P()? Is it Euler's function or something else? It doesn't look like Euler's function
I told you what it is and just explained what it is. P(n) is the number of partitions of n
That's exactly the part I was confused about in your last message that's why I had to ask again
Think about abelian groups of order p^n to start. we can see that abelian groups of this form are of the shape
C_{p^(n_1)} x C_{p^(n_2)} x … x C_{p^(n_m)}
with the sum of the n_i = n. By your observation, each different choice of n_i gives a new group (up to iso, so just reordering the factors doesn’t count), hence the number of abelian groups of order p^n is P(n)
Im not reformatting it on mobile
add in the _s using the power of the human mind
I mean, Emil is his dad right
yes
To this day I still think emil should be a girls name 🪫
People with the same last name related, pretty crazy when that happens
Never heard of the guy. Sounds cool though 😎
His phd advisor was zariski
yea
That’s CRAZY that they let a topology have students
And he is 91. Still alive!
Will need to check
my birthname is somewhat close to emil and im AMAB

I just found out the guy I might do my masters with is a descendent of cartan, that’s pretty sick
5
Assigned male at birth
got more testosterone than approximately 50% of humans
I think mine is 3
I think it's a pretty common boys name many places in Europe
No?
is very Belgian, but a boys name
I mean they may be but not necessarily
Enpeace is also a common first name in europe.
well I am technically but not because of that 
enpeace lore dropping
To offset it, the most notable person in my genealogy seems to be Phillip Hall who will be known to me and me alone
(this is a very recent development)
I know someone with erdos number 2
the same Hall as from the Hall subgroups?
Great proffesor
My chain goes through McKay, so I'm happy with that (not John McKay, but I'll take it)
Indeed
Although I have managed to get to ISAAC NEWTON directly so that’s fun
Going to pick my PhD advisor based solely on their genealogy to maximise my aura
slowly, little by little, my whole life shall be revealed
erdos number farming
One of my friends has basically 0 option for that lol (combi in Western Europe) iirc
He’s my academic great great great great great grandfather’s second advisors great great grandfather I think lol
That’s pretty close, you basically studied under him
I won’t have many options either but that’s more for reasons of incompetence
He never taught any students
Click button on website a few times
Didn’t he die at like 25?
No excuses
26 i think
Speaking of people with the same last name, I recently found out that the Conway who wrote the complex analysis book is not the same Conway from Conway's Game of Life. On the other hand I also found out that the Cox who cowrote Ideals, Varieties and Algorithms is not only related to the Cox who wrote the goated boon on Galois theory, it's the same guy!
Real
I wish the other Conway wrote an analysis book
Conway is a great writer
also feels strange referring to him as the other Conway
the analysis book Conway is the other Conway
Throw a few more greats on the end and I’ve gotten to Galileo lmfao
Adam
Who’s gonna tell em
Khan extensions.
Kan academy
Of course named after Dr. Extensions
introduction to limits
I am related to myself
And thats what really matters
My great great great grandmother was killed by ghengis khan when she was a baby 
My lineage ends at friedrich leibniz which is Leibniz's father
Look at mr history knower over here, didn’t realise you could double major in Switzerland
(i love sheafification)
Is there no more data or did he just start handing out PhDs?
Yayyy limits yayyy yayyy
I guess this means equivariant group theory is astronomy and quiver reps are calculus
It says advisor unknown
categorical limits >= analytic limits
Dat moment when i still havent learned categorical limits
Neither, I really need to patch up the holes in my category theory
I think I get the vibe of limits but I’ve never done it formally
its just the definition of inf but categorical
Ya its just that like duh
Limits is taking fixed points
Colimits are forcing your points to be fixed
Know what products are, check
Know what kernels are, check
Yup know limits
They’re called EQUALISERS
I'll have you know they're name is difference-kernels
Im gonna crash out
I seem to remember the very nlab brain rot definition of CW complexes being some sort of colimit
direct limits have to do with finitary properties and inverse limits have to do with patching local information
Idk if that’s a hallucination or if that’s something
Even more vaguely. Colimits are gluing limits are extracting
How else do you define CW complexes lol
Well I do remember reading it and going yeah that’s what a CW complex is
The way Hatcher does (badly)
I mean, an attaching cell is a pushout
I never got the point of CW complexes. Go straight to simplicial
I don’t even know the definition of limits in a category so like this isn’t even a case of I just didn’t realise
It’s just never really came up for me
id argue limits to be gluing but of another kind, rather than the whole object being glued together its that every "element" of your object consists of glued together information
I vibe with this
I should learn it, and I’m taking an actual introductory category theory course next semester so I will, but I’ve currently been on a very need to know basis with category theory hence learning about abelian and monoidal categories but not really knowing yoneda or limits
I started to read about semisimplification tonight and gave up
I bet they introduce it using the universal arrow bullshit I hate it when they do that
Turns out Verlinde categories are an annoying thing to define
Or we’ll at the very least a very technical thing to define, so many words
(hence why a B-sheaf can be extended to a sheaf and how you get the correspondence sheaves <-> local homeomorphisms)
This is what limits and colimits look like in any category that matters: https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/002U @elfin wraith
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
lmao, it gives a nice link between adjoint functors and limits though
Very explicit formulation for limits as a subwhatever of a product
Ts. Pmo. The limit is an adjoint to the diagonal functor is something you can just prove directly. I don’t get why this would assist
Oh yeah that’s fine, sure I’m happy enough with that
It shows that limits commute with limits
GRRRRRRRRRRRRRR
Wait it shows adjoint functors (on the appropriate side) commute with limits or limits commute with limits
limits commuting is a little hard to state precisely
It would help if I could remember the precise details, but right adjoint commuting with limits essentially falls out of properties of the Hom functor right?
yeah that's how i think of it
if you understand the representability def of limits you're good
So if you just directly show that the limit functor is an adjoint then you have limits commutes with limits?
well you have to say what you mean by "limits commute with limits"
Fix a pair of indexing categories, then you can swap the limits and its naturally iso
yes that works
lots of examples of "commuting limits" in practice are... awkward to express in that form
Nice
Idk they are more flexible in a way that can be useful
In my mind they serve different purposes
I went straight to simplical stuff when I started learning algtop
Ig also depends what you mean by simplicial stuff lol
Tbh now that I’m revising algtop (and patching some holes) is really the first time I’m properly learning to deal with CW complexes, I kinda just ignored them on the first pass
Like I was aware of them but never gave them much thought
One clear advantage of cw complexes is that it lets you say stuff like this: CP^n has one cell in dimensions 0,2...,2n, so its cohomology is Z in each of those degrees
And cell by cell arguments etc
Wait this is #groups-rings-fields lol
I was going to say this place is whatever we want it to be but I guess you have to be somewhat responsible since you’ve got the mall cop badge and all…
shhhh not in front of the mods
You mean uhh
Shopping centre police
Hey all! I'm new here. I see there's no Lie theory / representation theory channel. Is this channel the right place for such discussions?
#advanced-algebra is best for that
sweet, thanks
whats the context?
What is R?
im not really sure how to interpret Rm+mZ. Like Rm is ideal generated by m in R and mZ is ideal generated by m over Z?
Presumably R isn't unital, so Rm + mZ is just the ideal generated by m.
Why what is needed?
You really have to start providing more context when you ask questions lmao
It is enough, and you can prove it by induction
It's just multiplying out and see that you get a multiple of m^l
Yeah.
Prove that (Rm+mZ)^l is a multiple of m^l by induction on l
oh wow, so Rm doesn't even necessarily contain m 💀
Moderators non-unital rings, ban him please
hi
Yeah, it still pings us even you put a backslash before hand
Uh oh!
so uh don't do that
How funny
I'll be banning you for nonunital ring slander
Any last words?
oops, so sorry!
Everyone gets a ban 
how can you have last words in a ring if there's no order
damn, mods are swarming this channel now 💀 what have I done
Maybe, like kiand suggested, you could tell us the whole context for the question so that nobody has to collate various messages
and therefore dig the question back up again :)
You did after prompting, but you have a habit of posting an absolutely minimal screen shot of a formula with no larger context or explanation of what the symbols mean (unless someone teases it out of you)
It’s not like an attack but you’ll just get better answers if people have enough information to actually help
Is the Noetherian assumption actually used here btw? Or do you just need m^l = 0?
Sorry can you explain more why this implies n = n'
I understand that prime ideals of S^{-1}B are in one to one correspondence with prime ideals of B which don't meet S
Oh wait I think I get it
Yeah I think I get it?
lol
I forgot that q^c = p = q'^c
So then we can just extend to obtain m
and since the diagram commutes it must be that the extension into B_p then contraction is also equal to m
when you pass n and n' to A_p, they are maximal and thus equal. Then going back to B_p it follows that n and n' are maximal (by some integrality argument probably) so must be equal. Then using the correspondence of certain prime ideals of A and A_p youve got that q = q'
Not the Wedderburn-Artin theorem
oh nice you're norwegian now
Assigned Norwegian by Shedow
Other famous results include the Roch-Reimann theorem and the Borel-Heine theorem
the Zucker-Cox machine
Convergence domination theorem
the arithmetic theorem of fundamental
Getting dangerously close to just inventing French
I kinda like Wedderburn-Artin, I think it flows better than Artin-Wedderburn, atleast when saying Artin the french way
it feels wrong
cox zucker
why did you changed a2 to a2 * e
so e^2 = e, not e =1
but most likely its not 1
other then this yeah sure
Im not sure why i havent seen them or dealt with them much
I havent studied that theorem
then its just badly written lol, ideally you'd break it up into lemmas
“A semisimple ring may be characterized in terms of homological algebra: namely, a ring R is semisimple if and only if any short exact sequence of left (or right) R-modules splits”
Oh, thats cool
more lemmas then!
it is a very deep result so of course it is going to be complicated
i mean if each of the lemmas say something interesting
I proved Artin Wedderburn as a homework problem and I’m pretty sure we broke it up into 4 lemmas
The proof was pretty short as far as I remember as well
Does the classification of finite simple groups count as a theorem? It must take dozens of pages to even state what the claim is.
I don't understand, authors sometimes state some exercise as theorem
For example, Munkres state the FIP[ compactness] as theorem in his book, i don't understand why?
Is that Wedderburn Artin too?
what's the deal with theorems in algebra having 100 equivalent formulations?
You mean they state some theorem as an exercise? I guess it makes sense if it's not important enough to put in the main text, but still interesting to note
No, some exercise as a theorem
Why is it a theorem, a closed subspace of compact set is compact?
thats way easier than the usual statement
lol
i dont think thats the artin wedderburn theorem its just a nice fact about semisimple algebras
Wdym some exercise as a theorem? You mean it's too simple to be a theorem, so it should be an exercise instead?
Yes
Presumably they need to use that theorem later, so they can't just demote it to an exercise
I don't think there's actually such a thing as "too simple to be a theorem".
Yeah, too useless to be a theorem maybe, but I don't think it can be too simple
Then again, I'm perhaps too influenced by formal logic, where "theorem" means anything whatsoever that has a proof. :-p
It's funny how you call it "some exercise" btw, as if it's common terminology for useless propositions 
for me id call something a theorem if its a fundamental result about something
generally still based on vibes
Any hints on how to do this?
Why not?
forgot that [0, 1] is a total order
So far, I know that f is definitely not conjugate to any function with a fixed point in (0,1)
Funky question
It's so frustrating for how easy it is to state xD
i wonder what, in general, the conjugacy classes of this group are lol
in correspondence with subsets of (0, 1)?
Kinda question that makes me freak on an exam
there might be continuity issues?
Hahaha real
consider the intervals given by [f^n(x), f^{n+1}(x)] (and similarly for g). maybe you can describe the conjugating function in these intervals
mq's theorem 
Even Russell and Whitehead never reached such complex results.
theres this story where maxim kontsevich was giving a talk on whatever mathematical physics, and he had a bunch of 4's on the board. an elderly professor raises his hand asks, why all the 4s? and kontsevich replies "3+1" and the professor goes "ohh right"
True
For physics that makes perfect sense: 3 space dimensions and 1 time.
That's not even a question until you have a definition of "is a dimension".
Physical theories since the early 1900s generally make heavy use of vector spaces with dimension 4 where -- given suitable choice of basis -- three of the coordinates correspond to space than the fourth to time.
It is
In special relativity you can't get away with considering space coordinates to be separate from the time coordiante in that way. The fundamental postulate of SR is that laws of physics must be invariant under a family of transformations where the space coordinates change differently depending on what the time coordinate is, and vice versa. That's not really possible to work with without considering it all single 4-dimensional space.
(And basically all of modern physics builds on special relativity).
My college also provides post graduate, phd course in physics, so what I notice is that if you feel bad about you then you can teach maths to physics people then you will feel good about you 
A few minutes ago, someone questioned me how commutator algebra can be different from commutative algebra?
Commutator algebra used in quantum mechanics
You can, you’ll just be wrong 🙃
"Classical" is a bit ambiguous. From the point of quantum theories, special (and general) relativity are classical theories.
Pre-relativistic settings are simpler to work with and good enough for a very large range of situations. Just because that range is not "everything" doesn't mean we should just discard the entire theory.
It’s a good approximation for basically any situation you’ll experience in your everyday life (especially everyday life pre-1900)
Unless you’re observing mercury’s orbit very closely
And learning relativistic physics without first having an understanding of how the math works in the Newtonian case would probably be insanely difficult.
Learn QFT before any other physics 🙃
Anyway, this is not really #groups-rings-fields material ...
It’s my usual “not serious” indicator
Btw Troposphere, are you a PhD student or you complete your phd already?
My PhD was long ago (and not in mathematics).
Then in which subject? What you do now?
Bruh and BRUH
I think I speak for us all when I say that 😎
Is this legal lol
$gN = Ng \implies gNg^{-1} = N$
bellamy
where N is a set, and g is an element of a group I feel like its a abuse of notation
no its not an abuse
just prove the identities. as long as what you are writing down is well-defined and you can prove what you need from definitions, it's perfectly "legal"
multiplication of sets by elements is pretty nice overall it tends to satisfy most of the reasonable things you think it should satisfy
I may be having a bit of a brain fart, but I don't see the N subset gNg^-1 direction
gNg^-1 subset N is pretty clear because, for every n in N, there is some m in N such that gn=mg, hence gng^-1=m, another element of N, but I'm missing how you get that any element of N are equal to gmg^-1 for some m in N
watch out! or the math police will come to your door and arrest you!
gN = Ng iff g^-1N = Ng^-1, so n = gg^-1n = gmg^-1 for some m in N
I mean my justification is right multiplication by g^{-1}
The hypothesis is gN = Ng, which also comes with two sides. So e.g. for all n in N, ng = gm for some m in N, so n = gmg^{-1} ∈ gNg^{-1}.
Yes
Ng={ng| n in N}. So
Ngg^{-1}={ngg^{-1}| n in N}={n| n in N}=N
the obvious homomorphism F2[x] -> F2[X,t]/(t^2-X) is epi right?
Ohh thanks
Idk how I missed that
Im not sure what you mean by prove the identities
yea, sure, ig its not an identity. i just mean that everything there is well-defined, so just prove the statement from definitions
that shows you the that the syntactic manipulations you are making are "valid"
Yes if the statement you are assuming from that equation is true then … its a valid move, i guess
If the obvious one means the one sending x to X, then no
The codomain is just F[t^2, t] = F[t] and you would be mapping x to t^2
But it might not be immediately clear mapping to x to t^2 is not epi, given that we'll be stuck in characteristic 2. (So the "obvious" strategy of negating t won't work).
Suppose f: F2[x] -> F2[x,t]/(t²-x) is defined by f(x)=x.
Then consider g and h: F2[x,t]/(t²-x) -> F2[u]/(u²) defined by g(t)=g(x)=0 and h(t)=u, h(x)=0.
Now gof = hof yet g!=h.
how do I make elementary and normal form?
Take $\mathbb{Z}_{360}$ for example, I will first write it in elementary form: $\mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_3 \times \mathbb{Z}_3 \times \mathbb{Z}_5$
What is the normal form? Is it $(\mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_3 \times \mathbb{Z}_5) \times (\mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_3) \times \mathbb{Z}2 = \mathbb{Z}{30} \times \mathbb{Z}_6 \times \mathbb{Z}_2$
So we try to take all primes until we run out of them and rank them in that order?
I'm not sure what you mean by being stuck in characteristic 2, but the maps
F[t] -> F[t]/(t^2)
sending t to 0 or t respectively works
Which is the obvious strategy
I just meant that there's only a homomorphism F2[x,t]/(t²-x) -> R if R has characteristic 2.
And yes, that was the same maps I used in my next post.
HMD
Z360 is not iso to this elementary form
The "obvious" strategy for me in a different characteristic would have been to compare id o f to [t -> -t] o f.
hmm
how did you come to that conclusion? Is it because Z_360 has elements of order 360, 180 etc? How do I figure out if those smaller group products come to that?
I'm not clear on the terminology, but surely one of the distinguished forms should be Z8×Z9×Z5?
Mb
Yes
In the case of Z360 you use the fact that
Za x Zb is iso to Zab if and only if a,b are co-prime
I see, what about Z_90? It's Z_18 x Z_5 and 18 and 5 are coprime so we can proceed with elementary/normal form?
Well, every element of Z2×Z2×Z2×Z3×Z3×Z5 satisfies x^30=e, because that is true in each of the factors. So it cannot have order 360.
So what you have here is the elementary form (product of cyclic groupa of prime power order) and the normal form would be Z90
I have a question though, how is that allowed?
splitting into Z_18 x Z_5 allows for that sure, but what about Z_30 x Z_3
they're not coprime
Yes so its not iso
it's not obscure; it's been used as a course text at my university.
My group theory professor sent some abstract algebra exercises on groups one question is the same as this question. But how do I prove the direct inclusion?https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/336080/prove-that-langle-s-rangle-is-the-intersection-of-all-subgroups-containing
I have proved that $\langle S\rangle\leq G$ and also that the intersection of all the subgroups of $G$ that contain $S$ contains the group generated by $S$
schrysafis
if I prove for a subgroup $H\leq G$ with $S\subseteq H$ that $\langle S\rangle\subseteq S$ I'm done
schrysafis
this will give you the same inclusion as before
call the intersection K
then you have showed K contains <S>
now you want to show <S> contains K
but that is easy because <S> is a subgroup containing S, and so it is part of the intersection defining K
Its definitely more obscure than other algebra texts
Sorry, what if I insist on the codomain to be F2(sqrt(x))? Somehow thats what I intended but I messed up the notation
That is, the codomain of your morphism is now the field of rational functions F2(t), and you map x in F2[x] to t²?
Yep
Yeah there's only one map from F2[t] to F2(t) that maps t^2 to t^2
Because t would need to map to a square root of t^2
Right, so the map F2[x] -> F2(root X) is epi right?
Well, depends which category you're in
In Ring, morphism take 1 to 1
Then I don't think so no
Do you have any example
I mean the canonical example if it exists would be the pushout of the morphism along itself. So can try to compute that
(to HChan) Yeah, but here the embedding in question is not the canonical one.
lol, i dont feel like reading the entire convo so ill just shut up
Pushout is colimit right?
yup
Colimit of the diagram F2[X] -> F2(rootX) is F2(rootX) itself tho?
For a pushout you need two separate copies of your F2(rootX) in the diagram, each with its own morphism for F2[X].
Ohh fiber coproduct
So I'll write it as
F2[t^2] -> F2(t).
Then consider R = F2(t)[x]/(x^2) then
F2(t) -> R by mapping t to either t or t+x should work.
Very nice, thanks. How did you get the idea for this construction?
Are we sure t+x generates a subfield in R?
Yes, is you can think about the image when you reduce modulo x
Well, like I said before I thought about the pushout.
F2(t) is a little complicated, so I just did F2[t] first. Then the pushout is
F2[t, x]/(x^2 - t^2) = F2[t, x]/(x^2).
Then the analogous thing worked for F2(t)
Somehow it doesnt add up to me since in my mind the image of F2(t) has to be a field and the image of t^2 has exactly one square root- the image of t... whats wrong with this intuition
It has one square root in the image
Both t and t+x square to t^2, but a subring containing both t and t+x is not a field
Hmm, not quite getting it.
im not sure about this
Ah, perhaps I do get it.
So an element of R is a unit iff it's constant term is a unit.
When multiplying the constant term is not at all affected by the x-term
Hmm, yeah, a nonzero polynomial in t+x has the form a+bx where a,b are polynomials in t and a is unit in R. Then (a + bx)(1/a - bx/a²) = 1
I guess an easier way one might come to the same conclusion:
The problem is that t^2 only has one square root, so just add another one.
F2(t)[x]/(x^2 - t^2) = F2(t)[x]/(x-t)^2 = F2(t)[y]/(y^2)
what is nil ideals?
nilpotent implies nil. dont need noetherian
I mean, the proof looks good, but I thought you wanted to prove that nil implies nilpotent?
Sanity check: If A is a ring and q an ideal of A, then A[x]/q[x] is isomorphic to (A/q)[x]
I mean, you never proved T was nilpotent
Okay, then the proof works I guess. But you're kinda hiding the most important step
Not sure why i never thought before how q[x] would be an ideal of A[x]
Lol yeah me too but it comes up as several exercises in AM
q[x] would be finitely generated if q is i guess
yeah, and if q is prime, q[x] is prime, if q is p-primary, q[x] is p[x]-primary, etc etc
q[x] just means the ideal generated by q in A[x], right?
So then (2)[x] is generated by 2
I guess generally we cant write q[x] as something finitely generated
Idk u saying generated by q (where q is the ideal) made me feel weird
Yeah, or I guess equivalently all polynomials with coefficients in q
interesting, the class of rings where (0) is primary is also closed under taking polynomial rings?
Why u mention (0) @thorn jay
Broski
what! they pop up everywhere in ring theory I'm telling you
I mean like ik (0) is important cuz if da shi prime it be integral domain lol
But what else r we talking about
You're describing proving that
A and B and C
implies a contradiction. So then one of A, B or C must be false. Not necessarily A
suppose I < q < R. Then q is primary iff q/I is primary
in particular q is primary iff R/q contains no non-nilpotent zero divisors
Brb
Many properties of ideals turn into properties of rings, by reformulating (0) having the property
I'm too lazy to think about polynomial multiplication but p[x] is contained in the radical of q[x] because if f is a polynomial with coefficients a_i in p, then a_i^{n_i} in p since q is p-primary, so we f^{max{n_i}} in q[x]?
and this is nice because it means that the preimage of an ideal by a projection map satisfying that property again satisfies that property, and quotients too
If you've proven B and C are true then it's not really an assumption anymore
why is this discussion here lol
this proof is correct, given that A, B, C prove E and A, B, C, E prove F yes
No, it could be that it is B or C that is wrong
but if you prove B and C then you've proven not A
Like, are you trying to prove (B and C) implies (not A)?
I'm loving the context for this question lol
like what do you want to know this for
and you decide to ask it in groups-rings-fields lol
Let $G$ be a group, and $H, K \leq G$. Let $HK := {hk: h\in H, k\in K}$, and $KH := {kh: h\in H, k\in K}$. Suppose $HK = KH$. 1. Show that $HK \leq G$. (This is fine)
2. Show that $\langle H, K\rangle = HK$. (I struggle with this one)
schrysafis
I'm sorry for posting again just preparing for group theory lesson
Recall how <H, K> is defined.
schrysafis
what
thats me
uponthewitnessing
$\langle H, K\rangle={g_{1}g_{2}...g_{n}: n\in\mathbb{N}, g_{i}\in H\cap K \forall i\in{1,2,...,n}}$
I=1,2...N
i=1,2,...n
H \cap K is already a subgroup
schrysafis
so?
so <H, K> = H \cap K
oh yea I get it
I noticed it too
then?
How can I use this hint prove it?
Let me first introduce a standard notation in computer science. Given a subset $S$ of $G$, let $S^0 = {1}$ and $S^{n+1} = S^nS$ for all $n \geqslant 0$. Finally, let $S^* = \cup_{n \geqslant 0} S^n$.
Hint. First prove that $(HK)^$ is equal to $\langle H, K\rangle$. Next, using the relations $HK = KH$, $HH = H$ and $KK = K$, show that $(HK)^ = HK$.
schrysafis
Well write out what (HK)^n is and use those relations underneath to simplify that to HK
use induction
then the union of all the (HK)^n is HK yes
idk if that helps
and then you just need to prove that (HK)* is <H, K>
this is my struggle
well this (replacing H \cap K with H \cup K) basically solves it
what allows us to do that? I'm losing something probably
can you write out as a set what (HK)^n means?
$(HK)^{n}={h_{1}k_{1}h_{2}k_{2}...h_{n}k_{n} | h_{i}\in H, k_{i}\in K \forall i=1,2,...,n}$
schrysafis
notice how every element of this set is in some (HK)^n
hm
I still don't get where this is going
we want to prove $\bigcup_{n=1}^{\infty} (HK)^{n}=\langle H, K\rangle$
So HK = KH is given, right?
schrysafis
yep
So HK \subset < H, K >, it is clear, right?
why that?
How do the elements HK look?
$hk, h\in H, k\in K$
schrysafis
And < H, K > is subgroup generated by H \cup K
alright
So both H and K in < H, K >, so h and k in < H, K > implies hk in < H,K>
You know how the subgroup generated by arbitrary subset S looks ?
yes, $\langle S\rangle={s_{1}s_{2}...s_{m} | m\in \mathbb{N}, s_{i}\in S \forall i=1,2,...,m}$
oops
< H, K > is an intersection of all such subgroups which contains H \cup K, so < H, K > \subset HK, because HK is subgroup you proved in part i), and it contains both H, K
schrysafis
In general subgroup generated by S is the intersection of all subgroup which contains S.
No, it is not correct
What about inverses?
our professor defined it this way
and defined the set of their inverses too
wait
no
Say S = {1} in group Z then what will be < S > ?
${1,-1,2,-2,...,n,-n,...}$
schrysafis
$\langle S \rangle = { s_{1}^e_1 s_{2}^e_2\dots s_{m}^ e_m | m\in \mathbb{N}, e_i = 1, -1 }$.
Notknow🙇
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
I think the one index goes to e
Yes, latex typo
yep
So that's how your group looks
So you can show it is equivalent to say it is the intersection of all subgroups which contain S, you understand this?
oh yea
Now you are done
I'm stuck on the inverse inclusion
but opposite
yea
.
No problem
just for fancy could you show me the proof with this hint?
I want to get experience with proofs
could anyone give me some intuition on how the quotient group is defined like it is
and why it’s called a quotient ?
Let us write each set: $(HK)^{*}=\bigcup_{n=1}^{\infty} (HK)^{n}, \langle H, K\rangle={h_{1}g_{1}h_{2}g_{2}...h_{m}g_{m}: m\in\mathbb{N}, g_{i},h_{i}\in H\cap K \forall 1\leq i\leq m}$.
schrysafis
For space save I don't write my proof that $\langle H, K \rangle\subseteq (HK)^{*}$
its a quotient because you divide the group into parts and take those parts to be a new group (and normal subgroups are precisely when you can turn the cosets into a new group)
schrysafis
any ideas on how to use $HK=KH$ for the inverse inclusion?
schrysafis
think of quotienting as analogous to the "mod" operator in the integers
i see
wait, which inclusion have you shown?
hence why people usually say "G/H" as "G mod H"
^
$\langle H, K \rangle\subseteq (HK)^{*}$
schrysafis
the other direction should be straightfoward
by reading off the definitions for both
this idea of dividing into parts is best seen in the first isomorphism theorem, where the "parts" are the sets f^-1(h) = { g ∈ G | f(g) = h }, and then you divide by these parts to get something naturally isomorphic (the same) as the image of your homomorphism
When someone who doesnt study math sees this: omg math is just about squares and dotes and lines 🥹
simplicial objects
UPONTHEWITNESSING
non-mathematician seeing this: if you have a square of area 9, then you can divide it into 9 squares of area 1, and 9 squares = 9 dots 
so true
did you know that if you have an algebra A and an algebraic set X of A, then the tame congruence theoretic localisation A|_X is nothing more than the algebraic theory formed by the full subcategory of algebraic sets of A of the objects 1, X, X^2, X^3, ...
I didnt know that brochacho
Its nothing more than that hey? 🧐
Did you know: 1+1 is nothing more than 2
using duality this means that the localisation by an algebraic set is a coalgebraic theory in a prevariety, meaning it can be extended to arbitrary coherent conditions
:0
and because these are polynomial clones, they carry a natural model of themselves so this means that tame congruence theory really can be studied using algebraic geometry
I just still dont see why i would care to study the universal algebra framework
Personally
Like i wont lie thats probably in part because i think its too above me in terms of cognitive effort required of me to understand wtf you are talking about
So im not saying it’s uninteresting necessarily
That’s so real 😭
personally I kind of find things as annoying until I spend time to understand it and then it becomes more interesting
maybe that applies to most things but idk I also notice that things become boring after I understand it so maybe everything is just boring
Yeah youre def right with that
honestly that's pretty real
But if universal algebra really doesnt have many applications i cant see myself wanting to put the effort into learning it
I've gotta stop thinking about something just to appreciate its beauty again
Wdym exactly
like I had to take a break from my research to appreciate how cool everything about it was again
Oh yes thats what i suspected u meant
I feel the same way too
Sometimes i like going as silly as ooh cool words and diagrams 😁
idk at this point for me its super obvious to be interested in universal algebra
like it's literally the study of functions on sets
alternatively, the study of representations of generalised monoids
In what sense? Id probably like it if u used more dumbed down language at first lol
well, an algebra at its core is a set A (called its universe) with a collection of operations F, where an operation is defined as a function f : A^n -> A, n being called the arity of f
you can look at indexed algebras, which are algebra over some signature T, where T kind of fixes the symbols and arities of the operations (like for rings you'd have the signature { 0, 1, -, +, * }) and the look at classes of indexed algebras which have certain properties etc
so any time you have a situation of an object where you can look at it as something with operations on it, or as a collection of functions parametrised by a fixed other object (like modules), then you naturally are in the domain of universal algebra
Not sure abt the signature for rings
no? how so
What is 0,1 there for
nullary operations, they are constants
basically distinguished (special) elements of your algebra the must be preserved by homomorphisms and be present in subalgebras
Ok. And u wrote - + * for what reason
they're respectively unary, binary, binary operations
(one input, two inputs, two inputs)
I've said it a little informally, but the actual definition is basically just said once and then never thought of again: a signature is a function ar : I -> N, where N is the natural numbers 0 inclusive, and I is an index set
anyhow duality theory says that algebra is anything dual to geometry so that's also a nice way of looking at it
(half joking)
Is there a universal algebra definition of a groupoid? Or any useful perspective of it from UA or anything? 🤔
I guess not because the operations have to be functions from A^n
username checks out
lmao
oidification is something purely categorical though
you can see it as a partial group but I think that's not super fruitful, as the reason why UA is so powerful is precisely because of the fact every operation is total
Ic
total algebras (so every operation is total) are always models of algebraic theories. This, though, fails for partial algebras, because if you have partial operations t1, ..., tn defined on the domain U and an n-ary operation f defined on the domain V, then f(t1, ..., tn) is suddenly an operation defined on a domain that might be different from U. This means that you can't categorify it neatly
Wait sorry to bother you but I just wanted to sanity check this logic for $\mathfrak{n}^c = \mathfrak{n}'^c = \mathfrak{m}$; The following diagram commutes:
[
\begin{tikzcd}
A && B \
\
{A_{\mathfrak{p}}} && {B_{\mathfrak{p}}}
\arrow[from=1-1, to=1-3]
\arrow[from=1-1, to=3-1]
\arrow[from=1-3, to=3-3]
\arrow[from=3-1, to=3-3]
\end{tikzcd}
]
By assumption, $\mathfrak{q}^c = \mathfrak{q}'^c = \mathfrak{p}$. Thus $\mathfrak{q}^{c^e} = \mathfrak{q}'^{c^e} = \mathfrak{p}^{e} = \mathfrak{m}$. Since the diagram commutes, we have
[\mathfrak{n}^c = \mathfrak{q}^{e^c} = \mathfrak{q}^{c^e} = \mathfrak{m} = \mathfrak{q}'^{c^e} = \mathfrak{q}'^{e^c} = \mathfrak{n}'^{c}]
okeyokay
:Sob:
about q^{e^c} = q^{c^e} I am a little bit ucnertain about but I'm sure it's true since the extensions are generated by the images
the extensions are into the localisations right
man I hate that notation it pmo
Yeah
yeah okay
I think I get the rest of the proof
that's where we use the correspondence theorem
between prime ideals of localization and prime ideals of the original ring
(prime ideals disjoint from A \ p)
yeah looks good
you kinda alr implicitly use the correspondence theorem for localisations in the second and first to last equalities but that's besides the point, its still correct
ohh ok got it
(usually you can only this diagram chasing when you go against every arrow in the diagram, here that would be going from B_p to A, but because going against the natural map f : A -> S^-1A is injective on prime ideals, what you did is allowed - and of course necessary for the proof - here)
Completely unrelated to the maths, but ya know you can just let tikzcd worry about the placenta and lengths of the arrows right? It’s like the whole reason to use tikzcd
wdym placenta
ah I see
✨ placenta ✨
Like you can just do this \begin{tikzcd}
A \arrow[r] \arrow[d] & B \arrow[d] \
C \arrow[r] & D
\end{tikzcd}
he meant placement I think
Nope
ya, typo
Oh I just use https://q.uiver.app/ lol
A modern commutative diagram editor with support for tikz-cd.
I don't actually type up the code myself
Fair lol, there also this site (which quiver kinda copied) which I prefer, does the same job though https://tikzcd.yichuanshen.de
A simple visual editor for creating commutative diagrams.
Is there a way to show that for coprime $a,b$, $(\mr a)\times(\mr b)\cong \mr{(ab)}$ without using chinese remainder theorem? I'm actually trying to go go backwards and imply crt with this, but this part isn't coming easily
nHail
people actually type up their diagrams?????
isn't this literally the chinese remainer theorem?
Ill type up triangles sometimes yeah, its often quicker than loading up quiver and stuff, but yeah for anything mildly complicated im pulling up quiver
so proving this is proving the chinese remainder theorem
or well, the tikzcd online edittor
is crt related to classification of f.g. abelian groups
well okay, I don't want to prove this by just applying the number theoretic formulation of crt for modular arithmetic
that would be the sane option
Its true over any rings so you can just look up that
isn't it just a special case of the classification
or wait no i g
if you consider that every fg abelian group is Z
or something I forgot
yes every fg abelian group is indeed Z the cyclic group 👍 👍 👍 👍 👍 👍
every fg abelian group is Z? this is a much stronger classification than I remember
Group theory is the study of Z
every R-module is isomorphic to R
No that's number theory
type shit
The problem is that it’s usually too nice
Lol
its boring
It’s like using a field as an example of a ring
Well also like group theory like mostly focuses on noncomm stuff
that's like saying "let's go listen to electronic music!" and putting on slap house
yeah because the commutative stuff is called module theory 
Hey this ring theory stuff is really easy, everything’s injective and the ideals are pretty simple
I can't believe it! every R-module is free!
FREEEDOM!
I'm finally free!! ohhh martha I'm coming home sweetie
please tell me anyone catches this reference
Figured it out. Look at the natural morphism into Z/aZ x Z/bZ, get its kernel, and then use first iso.
Isn't that just the proof of the CRT?
yes but very cleverly disguised.
Ok what are your subfields?
look at the galois groups wrt the prime field, because we can assume every field extension is Galois
I thought for sure there’d be a Galois gif for me to respond with but apparently not, boo hiss I say
I know, not helpful
NOT HELPFUL, YOURE FIRED
Okay I will admit this whole exercise was just an excuse for me to put a commutative diagram in my intro algebra homework
I kinda wish I wasn't taking this class, because I should already have credit for it under the old system
but that's a long story
no way product diagram
exactly lol
there was something that was bothering me earlier today. it is very basic. i never understood it properly.
Uhhhh my German is pretty bad but the first part is like from a letter from Galois, something about heaven
But it gets gradually less understandable for me lol
What was it?
google translate:
"From a letter by Evariste Galois. Heaven is my witness. To have spoken such a disastrous truth to men of such limited ability."
German is so fancy
ive never been comfortable with modular arithmetic. In particular I was trying to understand why if a is coprime to n then a has a mult inverse in Z/nZ
$\mathfrak{GERMAN}$
jagr2808
I need to start practicing more again, I want to get better but it’s so hard to find the time (and effort)
so real
i like it
Ich hat Deutch in der Schule gelehrent
i no understand
Here, is $x^{q_i^{e_i - 1}}$ supposed to be $x^{q_i^{e_i} - 1}$? My first thought for the highlighted sentence was to show that $g_i^{q_i^{e_i} - 1} \neq 1$. But under these conditions I'm not sure that's true or it might require some thought
okeyokay
Aber sehr slecht
I dropped any language besides Latin and English as fast as I could
Went to a gymnasium, so you either have to take Latin or Greek
but in the end Latin was pretty fun
Wait no then because then q_i^{e_i} - 1 doesn't divide p - 1 which we need for congruence 2 to have more solutions than congruence 1 hmmm
congruence 
Think it should be q_i^{ei - 1} as it appears
hrmmmm
That just follows from the definition of modular arithmatic and Bezouts identity
I wish my school offered german, I only got to do french and I hated it
Do not speak a word now
oh yea thanks. i guess i should review why bezout is true
This is just the division algorithm as well, its all pretty elementary but defiently easy to forget. I think I need to remind myself how the division algo works about once a year
Wait I'm lost 😂
yeah i definitely looked at this many times but for some reason i remember it not being intuitive to me
Where'd you fall off
how do we know that g_i has order dividing q^e? g_i is an element of the units of U(Z/pZ) which has order p - 1, and the order of g_i must divide p - 1, but that's all I can see
I know that they have provided the prime factorization of p - 1 too
I usually think of this in terms of Bezout's identity: if a is coprime to n, then ax + ny = 1 for some x, y in Z, then just reduce mod n. More intuitively, I think of it like, when gcd(a, n) = g, and you look at the set { ka mod n | k in Z }, then every element of that set is gonna be a multiple of g, so the only way for a to have a multiplicative inverse is if g = 1. Like, if you add a to itself multiple times, while reducing mod n, you're never gonna get smaller than g, just the same way how if you start at 12 PM and jump around the clock, let's say, 9 hours at a time, you're never gonna reach 1 PM. Dunno if that helps
In a group, if g^n = 1 then the order of g divides n
ah ok, so if that's true then the order of g_i divides the order of q_i^{e_i} as you stated. so the only other case where the order of g_i is not q_i^{e_i} is when the order of g_i is q_i^{j} for 0 \leq j < e_i... and I'm struggling to see why this can't be the case...
Well g^(q^(e-1)) is not 1
It basically comes from the fact that you can pull out common factors, like gcd(453,102)=3 and 453=3x151 and 102=34x3. So then 453-102= 3(151-34), so 3 is still the GCD of 351 and 102, and then you can just keep doing this until the numbers are small enough that you can just read off your remainder. There is a really good explanation of the extended euclidan algorithm somewhere, Ill see if I can find the one im thinking of
:I saw that
No I agree w ur ting
while a != 0:
a, b = b % a, a
return b```
These number theory notes are just pretty good, I would say quickly skim through the first few sections if youre looking to brush up on your basic modular arithmatic @tardy hedge
thank u everyone
If it makes you feel any better it took me 5 minutes to prove sqrt 7 is irrational earlier
it really be like that 😢
Step one: prove the FTA
I remembered you squared stuff and then you get a contradiction but it took me a few minutes to work out/remember wtf that contradiction was
trivially follows from the fact that Z is a PID
step zero: prove euclids lemma
Step 1: trivial fact known by any mathematican
Euclid's lemmarick:
When a prime a product divides
In one factor it solely resides
Won't split in two
Nope, no can do
That is what Euclid decides
Thats great ive never seen that before, big fan
:D
Unless you just came up with it, in which case, props to you
I used to run a lemmarick column in the student news paper
proof : it rhymes!
Just made this one right now
yoneda lemmarick
God damn a man of many tallents jagr, very impressive
I think the first one I ever wrote was
Take a partially ordered set P
where all of its chains can be
Bounded below
Then we will know
There's a minimal element g
Lol
in appreciation of algebraists' favorite lemma
Jagr may be the only person in the world qualified to teach both homological algebra and poetry for mathematicians
Jagr can you do Whitehead’s Lemmarick
Take a natural transformation
From a functor with representation
All is done
When you map 1
What a great revelation
anapestic meter is fun
“What a great revelation”
the meter does feel a little flexible here :P but it seems hard to fit math terms around meter, not a lot of synonyms i imagine
So when’s the quivers book written entirely in limericks dropping?
this is how all theorem statements in Mathematics Made Difficult should have been.
Don't know if it turned out amazing, but...:
Representation of finite dimension
From Dynkin classification
Co-homology
In first degree
Is gone, went on vacation.
That’s awesome but it begs the question
If cohomology were to go on vacation, where would it go
Probably just moved up a few degrees
bishop goes on vacation, never comes back
LMAO
That was really good
The corresponding wikipedia page usually lists different proofs
Not to my knowledge, but often if you look on like math overflow there will be a few methods given, there’s also regular Wikipedia and the proof wiki
Besides that I guess just cross reference different textbooks I guess
deleting messages making everyone look crazy 😭
I am working through Atiyah Macdonald and I’m not too sure how they are getting the equality in 21 iii). Does anyone have a hint?
Which Inclusion have you shown?
Closure is a subset of V(b^c)
I guess this is not really helpful but try showing that any closed set containing phi^* V(b) contains V(b^c). I can't think of anything more that would be a hint and not a solution
The explicit description of the closure as the V of the intersection might be helpful
Yeah I have been trying to do that for a while now haha
Well if I show that any closed set containing phi^*V(b) contains V(b^c), then V(b^c) is contained in the intersection right (which is the closure)?
I mean that's true. But my hint is to think more explicitly about what the closure of phi*V(b) is.
And remember that intersections play nice with preimages.
You may want to first prove it for the case b is a radical ideal
Hmmm ok I'll think about this
I wasnt talking about the intersection of closed sets containing phi*V(b) if that's what you're saying here
I'm saying closure A = V(intersection over A)
Where intersection over A is intersection of closed sets containing A?
No, that wouldn't parse. You take V of ideals.
I mean intersection of the elements of A
Oh interesting
But does V(-) distribute over arbitary intersections? It certainly does for finite intersections
Distribute in the sense that
V(intersect x) = closure (union V(x))?
Yes
Ah ok
I fear I still don't entirely know what you are saying. Maybe I have just been looking at the problem for too long, haha.
I'm just saying, which ideals are in phi*V(b), and what is their intersection?
Wait wait I think I understand more now let me work it out a bit.
Oh wow I think I got it now. So $$\overline{\phi^(V(b))}=V(\bigcap_{x\in \phi^(V(b))}x)=V(\bigcap_{y\in V(b)}\phi^*(y))=V(\phi^{-1}\bigcap_{y\in V(b)}y)=V(\phi^{-1}(\sqrt{b}))=V(\sqrt{\phi^{-1}(b)})=V(\phi^{-1}b)$$
original goober gamer (OGG)
Whoops it went off the screen a bit, but the rest was just that radical commutes with contraction basically
Thanks for the hint Jagr, I hadn't seen that closure identity for the spectrum before, Ill make sure to note it down. I do still wonder if there is a way to do it in a more topological fashion...
Well you would need a way to interpret V(b^c) topological then I guess.
Like the relationship between b and b^c seems mostly algebraic to me
Like the closure of phi*V(b) will be V(a) for some ideal a, so it's just about determining which ideal that is
Yeah and I suppose showing that V(b^c) is contained in any arbitary V(I) which itself contains phi*(V(b)) isn't super straight forward
I'm actually coming around to this method more, it is very clean and intuitive (when I step back now and look at it haha)
Maybe a key idea in this proof is that there is a nice correspondance between closed sets and radical ideals?
But really, thank you so much for the help! I had spent like 3 hours on this part of this problem...
Yeah, and it’s an integral domain
I don’t think every ideal being principal implies ID but it may do
Well a PID is a ring with no zero divisors and every ideal being principal, I presume the latter doesn’t imply the former simply because it’s always stated that way but I don’t think I’ve tried to come up with a counter example before
But yeah your hierarchy is correct, there’s a big one on Wikipedia which has loads of classes of rings ordered by inclusion
There’s also one for like Cohen Maculey, Gornstien, complete intersection etc, Wikipedia is quite good for that stuff
Oh Z/4Z is an example duh
Yeah
Generally a domain is that, just without the commutativity assumption
Yur
any quotient of a ring with principal ideals has principal ideals
lol
All rings are PID
Yeah if you scroll down a little I woke up a little bit lol
YOURE WOKE NOW???
Always have been
do the scottish do anything other than larp
Heroin
ain't he from minecraft
"youre a hero, brian!"
this is actually my 13th reason
so glad I campaigned for this channel to exist
why the fuck is that the top gif for "herobrine honest reaction"
for this exact reason huh
ts shit ain't exact
its exact because i say it is
if irreducible it cannot be written as a product of a unit and a nonunit
the product of units is always a unit
element called prime if nonunit and a|xy => a|x or a|y but this coincides with irreducibles in PIDs
Such a ring is called a principal ideal ring, and they are exactly finite products of quotients of pids
Ah interesting, haven’t come across them (explicitly) before, but yeah when I woke up and realised Z/4Z is an example
It’s kinda clear how that structure theorem works for Z/nZ but how does it go in general? That seems harder
i guess, what kinda properties does a quotient of a PID have
lol the proof uses primary decomposition
this is looks like it employs a lot of heavy machinery lol
thats kinda funny
this is by correspondence theorem right
I'm not sure what you mean by how it works for Z/nZ exactly. But it's easy to see that products of quotients of pids are principal ideal rings.
The difficult part is showing the converse. A proof exists here
https://projecteuclid.org/journals/pacific-journal-of-mathematics/volume-25/issue-3/On-the-structure-of-principal-ideal-rings/pjm/1102986148.full