#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 324 of 1
just as they learn basic arithemtic
you don't need to sit through a first order logic book
Mh maybe I'm approaching the learning process from the wrong angle, I mean I don't get stuck learning stuff, simply it is hard to judge what to learn next
And it is harder when different authors use absolutely different set of axioms or notations, happens a lot in logic
well 99.999% of mathematics uses ZFC axioms so you don't have to worry about that
notation is a different story 
you just get used to it
well thanks for the suggestions then, so after the relations and functions part you're supposed to go through abstract algebra? I've tried to see a curriculum from an university or something but it is not that clear
never heard of the second one, what would be more fitting if I'm more interested in the structural part of mathematics and computer science in general?
real analysis is very necessary for stuff like analysis of algorithms (I think
)
You analyze algorithms as the input size tends to infinity, (you look at their asymptotic behaviour) and a major part of analysis is making sense of infinity
But this is getting off-topic
this is #groups-rings-fields
Oh maybe I'm already learning that, but I didn't knew it was named real analysis, I was reading that from CLRS
you can go through either, if you choose to go through analysis, I'd recommend "Understanding Analysis" by Stephen Abbott
Well if I had to define by the lack of knowledge I have, but atleast knowing what amazed me more, it is more about the foundational fields and pure math, will that be more fitting going through abstract algebra?
I'll save that one too then, ty
flip a coin! they're both equally foundational pure math
Okay I don't want to offtopic with it, I'll give it a try then, didn't know that would be consider equally foundational, thought it was more about abstract algebra and category theory.
Well thank you again for all your suggestions, they suffice more than what I was searching for! I'll start with groups, GN.
I need a hint on how to prove that $\mathbb{Z}[i]$ is a Euclidean domain. It's trivial to show that it's a domain using the the usual complex norm. I struggle coming up with a division algorithm though.
I tried defining $c, d \in \mathbb{Z}[i]$ such that $a = c + bd$, $|c| < |b|$ by first defining $|d|^2 = \lfloor |a|^2 / |b|^2 \rfloor$, then defining the argument such that the distance between $a/b$ and $d$ is minimal among elements of $\mathbb{Z}[i]_{|d|^2}$. But so far I can't find a bound for $|c|/|b|$, my naive attempt has led to a bound that goes to infinity as $|a|/|b|$ gets large. Am I on the right track, generally? Should I try another rounding function?
a-square
Specifically, if we let $|a|/|b| = u \in \mathbb{Z}^+$, $\varepsilon = |a|/|b| - \lfloor |a|/|b| \rfloor$, we get that $-\pi/4 \leq \operatorname{arg}(a/b) - \operatorname{arg}(d) \leq \pi/4$, and this leads to $|c|^2/|b|^2 \leq (u - \sqrt{\frac{u - \varepsilon}{2}})^2 + \frac{u - \varepsilon}{2}$. By taking $\varepsilon = 0$, we get $|c|^2/|b|^2 \leq (u - \sqrt{u/2})^2 + u/2$, which diverges when $u \to \infty$.
a-square
I would start with normal division of complex numbers.
Like given x = a + bi and y = c + di, then x/y is some complex number. Then you can round the real and imaginary part to closest integer, say z = e + fi.
Then
x = (x/y)y = zy + (x/y - z)y
what's the norm of (x/y - z)y? Use that the real and imaginary part of x/y - z is small
when does group theory stop being like, just about group theory itself
going through dummit and foote and im realizing more and more that the group theory chapters are just about classifying groups
ok my original question was phrased wrong
i mean like, when do you actually do stuff with groups, instead of just classifying them
in fields that aren't group theory :P
group theory is about, well, studying groups
applications are in e.g. algebraic topology with the fundamental group, homotopy groups, and even homology groups (or modules)
And I guess computations in Galois theory is a place where classifications of finite groups is quite useful
ah, yes, true
i would also mention combinatorics, should one (somehow) want to purse it
the most elegent two line proof was using lattices
What is this proof?
taking gaussian integers as lattice point that was the idea
I don't see how this leads to a proof that ℤ[i] is a Euclidean domain though.
for that see neukirch algebraic number theory chapter 1 page 1
wow that is a very clean proof
Thanks
Very nice proof
Wikipedia suggests five different notations
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Normal_closure_(group_theory)
Where do we use unique factorization? I know that if gh in (f), then f divides gh, but don't we have irreducible <=> prime in a PID (and k[x_1, \dots, x_n] is UFD but not a PID)
I'm not sure I fully understand your question, but irreducibles being prime is one of the defining features of being a UFD.
It is true that PIDs are UFDs though if that's your question
Oh really
Huh I wonder why it was only stated for PIDs
I just assumed it wasn't necessarily true for UFDs
That irreducible => prime
UFD is just every element is a product of irreducibles + every irreducible prime
Why in considering infinite sums do we often require all but finitely many terms are zero
Im not sure what this is in reference to, but say in an abelian free group you want to consider only finite sums because the infinite sums with infinitely many nonzero terms may not "converge" to anything in the group
Also a sum of ideals is really the smallest ideal containing the others.
An ideal is only defined to be closed under binary sums (because that's usually the only type of sum that is defined). Repeated binary sums can become arbitrary finite sums, but not infinite
Thanks jagr for always being a great help 👍
Thanks jagr
Ty jagr
np
Lie Groups 
is that not doing stuff with groups?
I think classification is a major part of mathematics
People try to classify groups, manifolds, lots of stuff
thanks @rocky cloak because of you i solved a huge 20 point question in end sem
Its studying groups for the sake of groups but its not doing stuff with groups
That's still group theory
But I suppose they were asking about applications of group theory within mathematics
Is there a name for the subdirect product G \rtimes G where G acts on itself by conjugation?
Is this statement correct?
If R and S are isomorphic rings, let $f:R\to S$ be an isomorphism. If $T$, a subring of $R$, is a field, then so is $f(T)$.
struct ∅ {};
yes
(assuming you use the correct convention that rings are unital) that's not even needed here
why what were you thinking of initially?
I have no clue
I don't even remember writing that, frankly

How can a field not have identity?
ohh ok
tensor product of abelian groups is like taking tensor product over Z with Z-modules right
it's literally that, yes
I am thinking about the group which is finitely generated but there is a subgroup of that group which is not finitely generated
i was trying to find a subgroup with same property inside SL_2(Z)
I don't know much about free groups, but I think it is a group which has a generator without any relation?
So can I say Z × Z is a free group with generators (1,0) and (0,1)?
it needed a word relation
Actually I thought about it
So what is an example of free group with two generators?
The free group generated by {x, y} is the set of all words with letters x, y, x^-1, y^-1 where the operation is concatenation of words
And x x^-1 etc is the empty word
I see
i always forget about examples of fg R-module that has non fg submodule. Is the typical example that of considering polynomial ring in infinite many variables as a module over itself?
Sure
Noncommutative polynomial ring in more than one variable also works
is this also an example of a free module with finite rank that has a free submodule with not finite rank?
The noncommutative polynomial ring is
the ideal generated by all variables is free but not finite rank no?
It's not free
oh ok yea
i love module over pid
its free as R-mod not R[x1,....]-mod
me too i want to review why the pid condition makes things work so nicely
In the commutative case the rank of a submodule is always smaller
rank here meaning size of a basis or size of biggest set of independent elements?
pids are close to fields
Either
in the commutative case of free module finite rank, youre saying if a submodule is free then it has finite rank that is smaller?
which definition of rank you are using
I proved both of these facts without using the fact that pi was irreducible, should i be suspicious?
send your proofs
Is this like an obvious fact or. Tbh, the nuances with free modules ive been weary of for a while
in the first part, "is an ideal" means "is closed under multiplication by anything in ..."
Hard to remember them
Not obvious no, though the rank 1 case should be, since
x*y - y*x is a relation between x and y
That relation is ring elements?
oops, Z[i]
Oh ok so it cant be more than rank 1 because you always have a relation that contradicts freeness
Like if x and y are two elements in R, they are not linearly independent
So that shows in comm case a rank 1 free module with a submodule that is free cant have rank more than 1. But how do we know its for sure fg?
Maybe silly questions but i havent thought too much about free modules that arent fg
A free R module that is not fg is still just a direct sum of copies of R right
If it's not finitely generated then it's basis would be infinite
But the basis can't have size more than 1
Im a bit confused by this still. A free submodule cant have rank more than 1 because ..
So the rank is the size of the basis. A basis consist of linearly independent elements. No two elements are linearly independent
So there cannot be two different elements in the basis
Ok that makes sense but why were you saying that relation with just ring elements? Isnt that relation always true
What do you mean?
Im thinking since the module is rank 1 there cant be more than 1 module elements that are lin ind, so thats why a free submodule must have rank 1. Im not sure where the xy - yx thing comes in
I guess im confused cause im thinking of equation using module elements and ring elements
Not just ring elements
Well apriori it's not obvious that the size of a basis and the maximal number of linearly independent elements is the same
(and indeed it's only true in the commutative case)
Aghh yea thats the kind of stuff that makes me go 😩
i have a problem on modules
Omg im going crazy lol, im like {2,3} is lin independent in Z over Z right? But no because -32+23 = 0. I thought that contradicted bezouts lemma but i guess 0 is still a multiple of gcd of 2,3
I thought it was independent initially cuz i interpreted bezout lemma wrong
I thought it was like since gcd is 1 any combo is 1 or a multiple of 1 but i forgot 0 is a multiple of 1. And obviously no integer pair would be independent but im just speaking out loud
Anyway
Post it
We give the C-vector space $C[x] $ a $C[t]$-module structure by setting $(t.f) = x^2f, f\in C[x]$ Show that $C[x]$ is a free module over $C[t]$ and compute its rank
Posting isn't the problem,
Akhi Mishra(Riemman's Cat)
Is ts from an exam bruh
yeah
The humble loading bar
Wdym
wtf
Is guy currently doing an exam and asking for help on it?
ts 🥀
French interval notation??
French write ]x,y[ for (x,y)
Thats crazy
Jumping off a bridge
Or at least used to, and you’ll still see it occasionally
the problem is given, because it is related to your discussion
the problem is already solved
yes it was
Not getting my joke qwq
how one can ask it on live exam
yeah but not in exam
Why $\frac{\mathbb{Z}\times \mathbb{Z}}{\langle( 1,-1) \rangle}\cong \mathbb{Z}\times \mathbb{Z}_2$?
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
Last time I did an NSFW shit post was like last September
I gotta step up my game
(a,b) |-> (a+b, a+b mod 2)
Actually no
That isn't surjective lol
Actually that isomorphism isn't even true I think
It should be Z
Not Z x Z/2Z
Yes
(1,-1) is the kernel of the addition map
This just in, Z has torsion
This is what I thought, but I know that the first homology group of the Klein bottle is Z X Z_2 and when I tried to solve it via Mayer Vietoris I got that H_1(K) is this group, so they have to be isomorphic. I just dont see how...
(Im sorry for being off topic with homology groups, but this is the context for the question)
Then you probably made a mistake somewhere, because these two are not isomorphic
I don't think I had a mistake tho
I'd reckon you making a small mistake is more likely than two objects both not being isomorphic and being isomorphic
I should now what
You should now think you made a mistake
Z and Z x Z_2 are not isomorphic
I just used this exact sequence
Klein bottle is two Möbius strips glued along their boundary right?
In which case MV should give you Z^2 /(2, -2)
This is what I imagined happened cuz then you do get Z x Z_2
Of course they’re not. It’s just a bit frustrating that I can’t find my mistake...
Oh well — to hell with those 5 points.
yeah, but I did not look at the bottle like this, rather as two cylinders glued along S^1
How do you do that
I am not sure.
Maybe
You can do that but it's tricky
You have to do an extra twist
And you get an extra 2 factor in there
Isn’t the standard way to do this computation to just use a polygonal description anyway
Yeah
The point is to do it using Mayer-Vietoris
Tough
Ruff
Hi all, does there exist a free resolution of $\mathbb{C}[z, \overline{z}]$ as a complex algebra?
a-square
There’s a free resolution of everything
But what do you mean a resolution as an algebra?
This is a real thing, but I don’t think it’s what you want
Also I guess wtf is C[z,z-bar]
I guess what I am now realizing is maybe “complex algebra” means something different than what I was interpreting it as
I’m trying to represent trigonometric polynomials as restrictions of complex polynomials to the unit circle, but the conjugation is ruining my day 🙂
That doesn’t answer anything for me lol
So I’m trying to come up with the “correct” ring, and currently I’m stuck trying to express the ring of polynomials in z, z-bar with generators and relations
What is z-bar
Complex conjugate of z
What is z
z is a variable
😭
What the hell is the conjugate of a variable
that’s what I’m trying to understand lol
…
I mean I guess you can say you have a
Uhhh let’s say it’s called a
Qolynomial
Which is a function inputting a single complex number z
Probably, from the analysis point of view this is just real-smooth function x + iy to x - iy
Which is formed by sums, products, and taking complex conjugates
Where z-bar represents taking the conjugate
So you can then say the ring of qolynomials is denoted C[z,z-bar] as a subset of all real-smooth maps C -> C
But this is (I think) different than a formal polynomial ring
But let’s say this is the ring you’re dealing with
Then just as a ring, you have a free C-resolution both as a vector space and as an algebra
This tracks
For the existence of a free resolution as a vector space just any resolution is free
For a free resolution as an algebra (which I truly don’t believe is what you want) there’s a canonical resolution for any A-algebra, A a commutative ring
you get a polynomial-ish "ring" over an extended language, which essentially behaves the same as complex conjugation is a ring hom
If the algebra is R, you take the (hella infinite) polynomial ring A[R] where all elements of R are now new variables
And the map A[R] -> R is the map sending the variables r to the element r
And extending A-algebra-ically
Freaking monads 😄
And then you just repeat this process
This gets you a simplicial resolution by free A-algebras
Or whatever you want to call this, it’s a simplicial A-algebra with an augmentation to R
But I seriously doubt this is what you want
I did see tteg typing tho
She probably has smart things to say
Oh right, I completely forgot about the divisibility condition, yeah, my bad
What is the best way to learn to understand Abel-Ruffini Theorem?
I'm not sure if I should ask this here or alg-geo but I'm trying to understand the structure sheaf of Spec(A) where A is a commutative unital ring.
How do I show that stalk at x \in Spec(A) is isomorphic to the localisation of A by the complement of the prime ideal p_x containing x?
I have defined the map, and also have proved its surjective
But I'm not sure how to show its injective.
The map comes from the direct limit cone that defines the stalk, and that also shows why it's surjective
alg geo of course
Alright then
The map comes from the direct limit cone that defines the stalk, and that also shows why it's surjective
equality in the big localization, “comes from” equality in some smaller localization. Basically ensuring injectivity of the map from the direct limit.
I don't think I get why it's useful
I was thinking more on the line of showing that kernel is zero here
Let's say there is one element in the stalk which gives zero when mapped via the map we defined via the direct limit cone
If an element dies after localizing at p_x, it must already be zero somewhere “close enough” in the directed system of localizations.
so I Guess yeah
Okay I think I am somewhere
on the moon
😭
If your goal is just to understand Abel--Ruffini, then there is a fairly elementary proof due to Arnold.
This video goes through that proof
https://youtu.be/BSHv9Elk1MU?si=X1Un0GtJU9yJUdQ2
Otherwise Abel--Ruffini is usually proven as a corollary if Galois theory, and then you're also able to say something more quantative about which polynomials can be solved.
For this I guess just pick up a book in Galois theory, might require you to know a little about groups rings and fields first.
Feel free to skip to 10:28 to see how to develop Vladimir Arnold's amazingly beautiful argument for the non-existence of a general algebraic formula for solving quintic equations! This result, known as the Abel-Ruffini theorem, is usually proved by Galois theory, which is hard and not very intuitive. But this approach uses little more than some ...
Can you check if I got it right, please?
Nvm found a mistake
This is probably a very stupid question but let's assume S and T to be two multiplicatively closed subsets of a commutative unital ring A such that S \subset T.
Then do we have an inclusion of S^-1A into T^-1A?
There's a natural map, but it's not necessarily an inclusion
The natural map is sending a/s to itself right
Yes
I mean the classes, they might be different in each licalizayon
Localization*
oof typo
So you can reduce this to the case S = {1}
Oh, A to T^-1 A
You have a map A -> T^-1 A, but it's not necessarily an inclusion
Oh wait actually I need an example because I'm not sure I see it for this particular case
because a goes to a/1 in T^-1A no- oh
Wiat my bad
I got it
Sorry
Any ring A with any multiplicative system containing a zero divisor will not yield an embedding
Precisely yeah
I remembered the example I did while solving Atiyah
The reason I asked this because I was trying to actually make sense of the restriction maps in the sheaf structure of an affine spectrum
They need not be inclusions, as long as they are ring homomorphisms it would be fine
It would be rather uncharacteristic for them to be inclusions
Because two nonequal continuous functions on U can have the same restriction to U' ⊂ U, and that is in fact almost always the case for some pair of functions
Okay, good, thanks a lot actually
But this now makes me ask this question:
Let's say we take the presheaf of rings of the affine spectrum of A, and we have an element b/s in one O(U). Let's say in a restriction from O(U) to O(V), b/s becomes zero. Can I comclude b/s is zero? And Why?
U and V are distinguished open sets here?
[If one needs to define O(U) explicitly, first we define ∆(U) which is the complement of the union of prime ideals in U, and then localize A wrt ∆(U).]
I guess you can think about the analogy again.
If a function is 0 on an open set V must it be 0 everywhere?
Yes, they are open in Spec(A)
Distinguished - are they the sets of prime ideals not containing some distinguished element
Or just general open sets
But this
Not necessarily right? Because just take the floor function and check on (0,1) and (1,2)
Yes, the example I'm taking have both of them to be distinguished. Sorry.
U = D(s) and V = D(st)
Your example isn't continuous, but anyway. You shouldnt expect that, so you shouldn't expect it here either
Thank you, I was thinking of that exactly. Okay, now - which leads me to the actual question - I'm actually trying to prove that stalks of the structure sheaf on Spec(A) are isomorphic to A_p_x.
I have defined the map (using the direct limit cone) and also have shown it is surjective. How do I show it is injective?
Someone here suggested that showing restricting the elements to a smaller set and showing its zero should work here, and that's why I asked the original question
I was trying to prove that the kernel is zero basically
Well are you aware of the descriptions of elements in a direct limit and when they are 0?
I am not really sure, is it somewhat like: if a restriction map sends one element to 0, at some index, then it's actually zero in the limit?
If it's true, I haven't proved this yet
That is indeed true
Oh. That explains why it's true here...
Okay, but if you don't know what the elements of the direct limit is, how can you hope to explain which of the elements are in the kernel?
Yeah... i'll try to look it up then. I do know the definition of how the direct limit is constructed when the directed system is in place, but if that doesn't help I'll try something else
I guess a different approach could be showing that A_p satisfies the universal property of the direct limit
doesn't entering 1 into this algorithm output multiple values (either 2 or 3), since 1 is in multiple different cycles? why does 1 => 3 if the cycle (1 2) exists as well
It looks like your book follows the convention of reading cycles from the right to the left
So to get the output for 1, first perform (2513), then (13425), and last (12)
ah ok, thanks
if e is an idempotent element
longboard kayak
longboard kayak
I disagree
well i have done the proof but is there any use that i can get
Because my rings got 1
A subring has to have the same identity element for my definition, and eR, Re, eRe won’t have the same identity
I think eRe is a subring of eR though…???
Cuz e is the identity on both…?
Anyway, idk about the eRe thing but
Knowing that eR is a ring in its own right is good
alr
Let’s say we are dealing with commutative unital rings so I know what I’m saying is def true
Maybe it’s true more generally
But if e is an idempotent so is 1 - e
And you get that R ≈ eR x (1-e)R
And likewise if R ≈ S X T then (1,0) and (0,1) are orthogonal idempotent
Meaning idempotent where xy = 0 and x + y = 1
sounds like direct sum type shit
So splitting of rings into products are exactly the same as having non trivial idempotents
And this is also the same as having a disconnected Spec
Yeah
Splitting a ring into a direct sum of (not quite sub)rings are idempotents
corner of what
A classic example is the Peirce corner eRe, where 'e' is an idempotent in R (e² = e). This corner is not a subring of R unless e is the identity element.
what you mentioned as a caution
An okay so I think what I said is the simplification when you’re commutative
Otherwise I guess you need to do eRe to be closed or something
Yeh cuz multiplication bad
If not commutative
And if you are commutative then obviously eRe = eR = Re
I’m the chmoat
in anyways ex = xe
so idempotent always lies inside?
that's a nice thing i learnt
I found a lemma being proved in m.SE
longboard kayak
Does anyone have any tips for computing splitting fields of polynomials with horrendous roots? Is the best strategy to compute the extension E as E=F/<irr> and try to simplify that field down?
something i found which seems relevant to the prior chat
Wow your rings are rings
galois radical guy
Potato self react, they wanna be nG soooooo bad
I mean this is true
im stupid the answer is use the galois group
that tells you the order of the splitting field extension
what is horror roots
its only a cubic but the roots look like this
what u want to do with this
compute the order of the splitting field
i think i know how to do it
ill get back to you if I cant figure it out
yes galois theory is needed, so you found a minimal cubic irreducibe polynomial right?
yeah no dont worry I got it, figured it all out
whats the ans
6
deg 3 extension to add the real root and deg 2 extension to add the two complex roots
Is it true all cubics with roots outside Q have field extension degree 6 over Q
you mean irreducible cubic
No, there are irreducible cubics with Galois group C3
Do you mean if f(x) is an irreducible cubic in Q[x], does the splitting field always have degree 6? Then no, the splitting field is Q(a, sqrt(D)) where a is a root of f(x) and D is the discriminant. I think x^3 + 2*x^2 - x - 1 is a counter example, it's irreducible with discriminant 49, and its splitting field has degree 3
but if f(x) has complex roots, then the splitting field has degree 6
Ah thank you everyone who responded
ah I see
Im assuming this counterexample is the Z/3Z case @rocky cloak mentioned, if so where does this cubic come from/how was it constructed
So there is a formula for the discriminant in terms of the coefficients.
So you can basically play with it a bit until you find something where the discriminant is a square
ahh I see
I constructed it by tedious experimentation in sage (by spamming discriminant on various polynomials) 😅 there's probably easier ways to find it
you did mention discriminant here so yeah ig it is relevant
this is a really good counterexample ill keep this one in my back pocket
Sorry I was thinking further on this and what is the concept of discriminant in this cubic? Is it something to do with the resultant quadratics when factored linearly?
I havent really looked closely at cubic behaviour since I was 16 and those were on very nicely behaved cubics
In general the discriminant of the polynomial is the product of the differences of its roots
so in (x-1)(x-6) = x^2-7x+6 the discriminant should be 25
how does this relate to the roots?
Well, the relationship to the roots is pretty explicit I guess.
For a quadratic it is irreducible iff the discriminant is not a square (the discriminant appears in the quadratic formula).
In the degree 3 case the splitting field of the polynomial is given by adjoining a root and a square root of the discriminant, so it tells you something about the degree of the splitting field.
In general the discriminant generates the field fixed by the even permutations, when viewing the Galois group as permuting the roots, so whether the discriminant is a square tells you whether the Galois group is contained in the alternating group
ahhh this is fascinating
thank you very much
galois theory truly is amazing
Is it important to know how to prove Sylow theorems?
Everytime I look at the two page proof in my book and i'm like, i dont have the mental capacity to actually read and understand this
In applications just the numbers are important
But sometimes doing small variants of the group actions is ok
there is a simple few lines proof available
using embedding
for sylow first theorem it is mentioned in excersises of foote
what are some methods to find inverse of a permutation polynomial?
It’s pretty cool that the complex form of trigonometric polynomials can be viewed as the embedding $\mathbb{R}[\sin x, \cos x] \to \mathbb{C}[z, z^{-1}]$!
a-square
so both of them are pid
No, $(1 - \cos x)(1 + \cos x) = (\sin x)^2$, so the former isn’t even a UFD
a-square
What's the embedding?
are they irreducibles
Yes, because they have the trigonometric degree of 1
Note that on the unit circle, $z^{-1} = \overline{z}$
a-square
so you mean the embedding isnt surjective
Correct, the image consists of real-valued functions
I don't see it
As in, the embedding
Neither for C
$\cos x \mapsto (z + z^{-1})/2$
a-square
FOR C it is straight forward
Not really, you still need to say where cos and sin go
Lol
Cuz if there's an embedding from C[sin x, cos x] then there is also one from R[sin x, cos x]
I haven’t checked, in this case we might get an isomorphism
yes u will get it
I guess the image of cos(x) + sin(x) is z, naturally
$\cos x + i \sin x$
a-square
Close wnough
This embedding is the best way to solve exercise 11 in Lang:
BTW Springer’s print-on-demand is the best way to get a hardcover, Amazon’s paperbacks are quite flimsy
In the ambient ring, $2iz \sin x = (z - 1)(z + 1)$, which is also pretty sweet in and of itself
a-square
$z \pm 1$ are irreducible because they are prime (the localisation only kills one maximal ideal)
a-square
It’s a bit ironic that functions on one conic describe functions of a different kind on another conic
Without embedding how one can do it
We did it in undergrad analysis somehow, I don’t remember how (probably by the orthogonality of the Fourier basis)
How do you teach it to undergrads?
Here r(a) is the radical of a. Why is (p_1, \dots, p_r) contained in r(a)? We don't necessarily have p_i^k \in (m) for any k in Z, and I don't know why an average element a_1p_1 + \dots + a_rp_r is in r(a). Is it because we can raise it to some integral power so that we can factor out m?
It's not $(p_1, \ldots, p_k)$ it's $(p_1 \times \cdots \times p_k)$
Spamakin🎷
Lang mentioned 
I feel like the vibes here have been more quiet recently
Maybe im imagining
Where the algebros at
so in my recent interview, they asked me about the quotient group {Q\{0} } \ H, where H = { x^2 | x in Q\{0} }. so first I found all the possible cosets, and i know every non-identity element has order 2, what can i conclude about that?
what is the exact question
they said, tell us more about this quotient group
can you find non trivial proper subgroup of this group
yes
every non-identity element has order 2, so we can
of infinite order
and i think it is related to vector space
okay
but what is the motivation to find this non trivial proper subgroup?
i think they want to show that it is isomorphic to product of infinites copies of Z/2Z
whats your vector sp structute a.x=x^a ? a \in Z/2Z
you can verify all the properties
okay
addition is group operation and multiplication is just given above and in Z/2Z it works
Rings and Modules: i'm lost
Hiding in my thread
so aut(M) are the only units in End(M)?
M is gen module or ring?
M ia abelian group
so module 
wait what

Z-modules are exactly abelian groups
Who in god's name denoted a ring with M 😦 I just would like to talk to them
They study mings and rodules
Rroup gepresentations in M-rodules
not everybody went to the same school as you
I am self taught
for module we need R also to write End_R(M) that is why i asked
Often it's implicit from context
was there a context
"unit" only makes sense when End(M) is a ring, which is not the case for rings
oh i m not as clever as you
so we have a M-Zodule
Wait why not what fails
Pointwise addition of endomorphisms of a ring may not be endomorphisms
Oh sorry I thought M was a module
If this were the case in general, then the ring operations would intercommute
Exactly
Not just "may not" -- the pointwise sum of two ring homomorphisms is not a homomorphism, because it maps 1 to 2.
(Unless the codomain is the zero ring).
A universal algebraist always takes into account the edge case of the trivial algebra :P
That fucker satisfies every (nonnegated) thing
how would one go about doing this? i tried the following:
if there is an isomorphism, then the image of x + (x^2) must be nonzero in F[x]/(x^2 - 1). further, the image p of x + (x^2) must be such that p^2 = 0 in F[x]/(x^2 - 1). so we need a polynomial ax+b a,b\in F (a or b\neq 0) such that (ax+b)^2 is divisible by x^2 - 1. so a^2x^2 + 2abx + b^2 must be divisible by x^2 - 1. by the factor theorem, x=+- 1 must be a root of this which implies a^2 + 2ab + b^2 = 0 and a^2 - 2ab + b^2 = 0 which implies 2(a^2 + b^2) = 0 which implies ???
yeah so im not sure, what to do from here 
i want to conclude that a^2 + b^2 is not 0 so F must be such that 2 = 0
but a^2 + b^2 may be 0, even if a,b \neq 0
why if there is an isomorphism, the image of x+(x^2) must be nonzero in F[x]/(x^2-1)?
because x + (x^2) =/= (x^2) and isomorphism is injective
If char F = 2 then it will be isomorphic
that is clear
thats why i am trying to prove this
so we can say its isomorphic iff char F = 2
this is easy to verify
there i am trying to show F[x]/(x^2-1) has no nilpotents for char F =/= 2 instead
This method would work too:
a^2 + 2ab + b^2 = 0
a^2 - 2ab + b^2 = 0
Subtract
4ab = 0
If char F ≠ 2 then 4≠0
=> ab = 0
Yeah that's what I meant, used idempotent instead of nilpotent
oh haha i added instead 😄
but that does not imply a and b = 0, so maybe still there is a nonzero nilpotent??
Either a or b is zero
Per case you get from the first equations that the other must be zero too
Np!
Yss
Say char F ≠ 2, then x-1 and x+1 are co-maximal elements, now use Chinese Remainder Theorem
So F[x]/ < x^2 - 1 > isomorphic to F × F
So this ring has 4 ideals, but F[x]/< x^2 > has only 3 ideals
of course if char(F) is not 2 then they are not ISO use chinise remainder on second ring
What?
f(x) is irreducible over some field F if and only if f(x+α) is irreducible for all α in F?
Yep, it's easier to see if you substitute irreducible for reducible tho: if f(x) = g(x)h(x) then f(x + a) = g(x + a)h(x + a)
Oh thx.
any element a of R[x]/(tx-1) can be expressed as r(t)*(x+(tx-1))^k for some k\in N with r(t) \in R.
Let k_a be the smallest such k and r_a be the r occuring with k_a.
so can i map a to the Laurent polynomial t^{-k_a}*r_a(t) to identify the two rings?
the idea here is that x + (tx - 1) is an inverse for t in Rx, so i map it to t^{-1}
this map is invertible because if we have a laurent polynomial l(t), then you can take out the smallest power of t from it to express l(t) as t^{-k}*f(t) where f is some polynomial, and then map this to f(t)*(x+(tx-1))^{k} in R[x]/(tx-1)
i hope my solution makes sense 😄
i have not learnt chinese remainder theorem, but as you can see above it was easily solvable without it
An alternative at the step after a^2 x^2 + 2 ab x + b^2 = 0 (mod x^2 - 1) is to do long-division of the polynomial by x^2 - 1 (because it is monic, you can do this without worrying about the characteristic). You get the remainder 2 ab x + (a^2 + b^2). Since x^2 - 1 cannot divide a non-zero polynomial of degree < 2, a^2 + b^2 = 0 and 2ab = 0 in F. From here, you can show that 2a = 2b = 0, from which it's clear how things go in characteristic other than 2 and characteristic 2.
actually thats the most natural thing that i should have done, especially given that i said
...a^2x^2 + 2abx + b^2 must be divisible by x^2 - 1.
in my message. i dont know why i didnt do that xD
Maybe I'm thinking too literally here, but why must there be a bijection from X to X'? Is it something like we can assume without loss of generality that they have the same cardinality otherwise we can remove/append elements to X' lol
I think it's just telling you to start with a collection of letters X, and then assume that the inverse of each letter is unique & distinct, and assume that the identity is also unique & distinct
it's just formalism
I see so we just assume that they exist
well you can construct X' from X if you really wanted to
Ye
We are assuming a bijection exists and calling it ^-1
Strictly speaking it is a bit sloppy and they should have said "pick some set X' that is disjoint from X and has the same cardinality as X".
Such sets always exist -- e.g. { {x,X} | x in X } -- but it would be more confusing to insist on a particular construction for the purpose of this proof.
is the classification of finitely generated abelian groups and semi-direct products just completely absent in artin?
i dont see it in contents
and is chapter 6 about isometries actually useful, or just motivation for group actions?
ive read up to 4.5 of dummit and foote and was getting bored so i wanted to try artin
can't find it, but it does give the classification theorem for modules over PID polynomial rings, which is a more general statement
but you can prove the structure theorem for fg abelian groups yourself with the sylow theorems
the first half is about isometries, the rest is about group actions
honestly imo isometries is a skip
i did them in dummit and foote
okay then
so a representation of a group G is just a k[G]-module? (k a field)
that's one way to say it 😂
it's a group acting on a vector space which is a field action so I guess it is a module on a group action
How to prove that $3$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{5}]$ but not prime
rando
do you mean Z[sqrt-5]? because it seems like it is prime in Z[sqrt5] lol
but anyways Im not aware of a better method for proving it's not prime than just brute force searching for zero divisors mod 3
you have at most 9 cases to check here anyways
You could argue with norms
for irreducibility sure
In general it is useful to check something is prime by showing that the quotient is an integral domain.
It is then useful to use that
Z[sqrt d]/(3) = Z[x]/(3, x^2 - d).
To show irreducibility you just need to show that it can't be factored. It's useful to use that the norm N(a+bsqrtd) = a^2 - db^2 is multiplicative
for primality? to prove it's not prime you need existence no?
Oh right
oh shit that's good goddamnit
I have arrived to nod assuredly while i pretend to understand what I'm looking at
Let S be a multiplicatively closed set. Then, is it true that saturation of S is equal to the contraction of extension of S wrt the canonical homomorphism from A to S^-1A?
I am not sure about anywhere to start from, and I don't know if I need to prove or disprove it.
Only thing that I'm aware is that if S is saturated, the complement is union of prime ideals, and for the saturation, the complement is the union of prime ideals which do not intersect S
What’s the extension of S?
Yah
The saturation of S should be the preimage of the units in S^-1 A
That is true, but all units of S^-1A not necessarily need to be of the form f(s) where s \in S right?
all elements of f(S) are units
Correct, for example 1/s you wouldn't expect to be in the image of f
Okay if I can show like the complement in A of the preimage of the units in S^-1A is union of prime ideals in A, not intersecting S we are done
Say I=(a,b) and J=(c,d) [ideals in a ring]
Then is I*J=(ac,ad,bc,bd)?
The problem Im having with it, is that I dont understand how I(or J) is a subset of IJ.
Say.. how can a in IJ?
I and J are typically not subsets of IJ
E.g. I = J = (2) in Z
Yes
At least if R is commutative
You can even prove IJ lies in the intersection of I and J
It’s the other way around: IJ is a subset of IR, which is just I
Can somebody please explain the line "if for some i we have x_i \notin p_i, we are through"? We are assuming that for each 1 <= i <= n - 1, there exists x_i \notin p_j whenever j \neq i, however 1 <= j <= n - 1. We still haven't included the case where j = n, so how is this applying induction?
Is it not the intersection of I and J lies in I*J?
this is the case j=n
if such an x_i exists there's nothing to prove, the theorem is true
If such an x_i doesn't exist then you get a contradiction
so the theorem has to be true
the idea is that you have some index 1<=j<=n and you exclude it from your first look
then for all other indices except j you know such an x_i exists
If a in I and b in J, then ab is in I since I closed under right multiplication by elements from R (and thus from J as well). Similarly ab is in J since J is closed under left multiplication by elements from R. So sums of the form \sigma a_i * b_i are both in I and J.
It's funny, because "logically" it makes no sense that the multiplication of sets(in this case, ideals) lies in their intersection
Yeah, you'd think multiplication makes things bigger
Except in this case the sets are ideals, which are pretty well defined by you cannot get out of them by multiplying by anything.
(Oh, what Jelle said, really).
Same thing goes for radical I guess..
(Because it is denoted by sqrt(I) one might think(me) that it makes the ideal smaller)
Perhaps think more in terms of "multiplication" ~ "intersection" from boolean algebras.
IDK what boolean algebra is 🙂
Basically, an axiomatic abstraction of how "union", "intersection", and "complemet" from elementary set algebra work.
It also turns out to be equivalent to rings satisfying xx=x for all x. (These rings all have characteristic 2).
You get such a ring from a set algebra by declaring a+b = symmetric difference of a and b; a·b = a intersect b.
On the other hand, from a ring with xx=x, you get a boolean algebra by defining a OR b = a+b-ab; a AND b = a·b; NOT a = a+1.
I’ve seen the proof of the prime avoidance lemma for like 100 times and yet ever time it’s baffling 😄
the geometric statement of prime avoidance is more lucid to me
if you have finitely many points contained in an open subset of an affine scheme you can always find a smaller distinguished affine subset containing those points
Can you expand about how this gives a geometric interpretation of prime avoidence?
I'm not able to connect the dots
Okay, I see what you're saying.
You have finitely many primes in the open set V(I)^c, then there is an f in I such that the primes are contained in D(f).
Doesn't necessarily feel that geometric to me though. It's kinda particular to the distinguished open sets...
Idk
Feel like just, if an ideal is contained in a finite union of prime ideals it's contained in one of them is lucid enough.
Can you check my proof, please? I have a feeling that I messed up somewhere because I haven’t fully used the hint
Here is the ith entry in the direct sum of b_i equal to the 0 ring
Otherwise b_i doesn't live in A (set theoretically)
Yah
There's no set theoretic issues with taking the sum of ideals
The sum of ideals aj will always be an ideal of A, and in this case the sum is direct.
I'm confused about what the question is
Okay sure I mean I guess yeah the point is that these are internal direct sums so there aren't even any abuses, but more generally there is just the standard "abuse" that V is a submodule of V (+) W etc
I assume that is what the confusion is
Do we tend to consider the empty product to be a product, when someone makes a statement like: "Prove everything in set A can be expressed as a product of stuff in set X"
I know I do.
Could someone pls check my logic for this question? I think my proof seems a bit dodgy but I can't put my finger on what I've missed. Let $R$ be an integral domain such that $R[x]$ is a PID. Prove that $R$ is a field.
theaveragejoe6029
take the ideal in $R[x]$, $(x)$. Then we have that $(x)$ is a principal ideal since $R[x]$ is a PID. Thus, we have that $R[x]/(x)$ is a field. and since $R[x]/(x)$ is isomorphic to $R$, we then have that R is a field.
theaveragejoe6029
well (x) is a principial ideal by construction
not because R[x] is a PID
and the quotient of princial ideals is not guaranteed to be a field, you're mixing it up with maximal ideals
because otherwise what you have just proved is that all rings are fields
because R is always isomorphic to R[x]/<x>
oh yeah, true lol. I misread my notes.
fr thought I was being slick haha
oh, there is a slick proof for this theorem, keep searching for it!
actually. since we have that every prime ideal in a PID is maximal we have that (x) is maximal anways right?
*every non-zero prime ideal
that proof works, the one I had in mind was to take any nonzero r in R. consider the ideal <r,x>
Once you show that (x) is prime, yes!
Yeah, but that's pretty easy.
Do you mean <r,x>? Where do you go from there?
Sorry for the late reply btw. I had to run off to a lecture 🏃♂️💨.
right, typo.
well, it's a principal ideal by assumption, so let it be generated by f
then f has to divide r and x at the same time, what do you conclude about f?
That r is invertible?
well that's the goal, but you're skipping a lot of steps there
In mathematics, a group is a set with a binary operation that satisfies the following constraints: the operation is associative, it has an identity element, and every element of the set has an inverse element.
based on this Wikipedia definition of group, is the boolean set of values {0,1} a group with the AND operation?
the identity element would be 1, since 1 & 1 = 1 and 0 & 1 = 0
No, 0 has no inverse
you're right, i didn't realize that. i was focusing on 1. Thanks
There is another logic gate/operation that does make it into a group though, where 0 is instead the identity
could u tell what it is
XOR
ah
.
C2 my beloved
Gonna start using = as my symbol for group operation
Well that's just the induced group from the map x -> x' (where ' denotes negation)
I mean of course it is they're both cyclic and that's the only nontrivial bijection on { 0, 1 } 
So if I define a set {A, B, O} which is commutative and associative, and O is the identity element, and A*B=O, it's a group
and A and B would be inverses of each other
Arki red fox
A commutative group is called an abelian group
it's also called a commutative group!
Don't stomp on my boy Niels Henrik
i see
Perhaps all continuous homs, but I think there will be wildly discontinuous ones too.
one discontinuous exampls which isnt obvious
I also expect the discontinuous examples to require the axiom of choice, and not be able to be written down explicitly...
so how we can write it
We can't -- it would be a nonconstructive existence proof.
please give the existeence proof
I don't have all the details ready -- but my gut feeling is that one can use Zorn's lemma to show that the circle group is isomorphic to the direct sum of Q/Z and continuum many copies of Q, and if we have such an isomorphism we can use it to interchange two of the copies of Q, giving a nontrivial automorphism that preserves all the rational fractions of a whole turn, which would be discontinuous.
Wikipedia agrees with my gut, FWIW: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Circle_group#Group_structure
Yeah worth mentioning that C can have 2 autos without choice but tons with choice
(But, to avoid doubt, those wild automorphisms of C won't generally preserve the unit circle).
What about radical ideals?
If I,J are radical ideals, does it mean that their intersection is equivalent to their multiplication?
comaximal
Not necessarily - for example in Z, (10) and (15) are radical ideals. Their product is (150); their intersection is (30).
what is comaximal
I+J = R
The radical of their product is their intersection though
oh ok
oh wait it's not good..
I need the radical of their intersection..
More specifically,
(In algebraic geometry) If I want to describe the radical ideal that vanishes at (x0,y0) and (x1,y1)
Than for (x0,y0) I take (x-x0,y-y0) and for (x-x1,y-y1)
so now I need to look at Rad((x-x0,y-y0) intersection (x-x1,y-y1))
The intersection of radicals is already itself radical, if I'm not mistaken.
yes it is.
I just know that the answer for this question is their multiplication
So I am trying to make sense of it
Hmm consider the straight line containing the two points. I don't think its equation is in the product of your ideals (though I cannot rattle off an airtight argument for this), but it is in their intersection.
Ok, so say I want I(x-x0,y-y0) intersection I(x-x1,y-y1)=X
How can I find f1,dots,fn with I(f1,dots,fn)=X
The ideals are comaximal, so the product should be their intersection
That itself doesn't prove much, the stronger property is that the radical of the intersection is the intersection of their radicals though
(assuming the two points are not identical anyway)
Hmm, to be concrete let's consider (x,y) and (x-1,y). I claimed that y would not be in their product, but I was wrong: xy-y(x-1)=y.
So is the question just what the generators for the ideal that vanishes at two points is?
But a set of generators for a product ideal could just be the cartesian product of the generators for each factor. It might not be a minimal set of generators, though.
I guess exemplified in how
(x, y) * (x-1, y) = (x(x-1), y)
Why these two ideals are comaximal?
Ohh I think I got it
(x0,y0)!=(x1,y1)
wlog x0!=x1 then we take
f= (x-x0)/(x0-x1) in I=(x-x0,y-y0)
g=(x-x1)/(x1-x0) in J=(x-x1,y-y1)
this is well-defined because again x0!=x1 and we have
f+g=1
Yeah.
🙂
Another way to phrase the same argument (which at least to me feels less at risk of sign errors) is that I+J contains (x-x0)-(x-x1)=x1-x0, and if that constant is nonzero we can scale it afterwards to get 1.
Are there any other rings that are Morita equivalent to Z? (other than integer matrices)
That sounds like an #advanced-algebra question.
No, any Morita equivalent ring is equal to End(P) for a progenerator P, and the only progenerators are Z^n (which you can see from the classification of fg abelian groups for example)
what is the idea behind the yellow underlined sentence? (hint) i feel like we need to take some nonzero noninvertible element b and consider polynomials like bx and x and try to contradict the existence of a division algorithm
The easiest would probably be to show that its not a PID, by showing for example that (r, x) is not principal when r is not a unit.
But I guess you can have a look in section 2 to see how they prove it
So basically,
The yellow line means that R[x] can't be an Euclidean domain unless like R is a field because the division algorithm for polynomials only works if you can always divide by any nonzero coefficient, which isn’t possible if
R has noninvertible elements, which you thought correctly by the way.
And as said by @rocky cloak Look more into section 2 for the proof and stuff.
And before anyone says that I am using ChatGPT like the last time they did, I was just being a bit formal and do note that answers from ChatGPT are pretty long.
actually its much more simpler 😄 R[x] is Euclidean domain => R is PID => R is integral domain. (x) is a prime ideal, so (x) is maximal (R[x] is PID) but R[x]/(x) = R so R is a field
so actually this also holds for when R[x] is just a PID
this argument is by dummit and foote, not by me
Ahh that textbook
Abstract Algebra
do you know how to use the noninvertibility, since you said that idea works?
Yes
well? we're waiting 
Oh u want the answer ig
Well how do I type out the symbols though
If R is not a field, then there exists a nonzero element b in R that is not invertible (i.e., there is no b⁻¹ in R).
Now consider the polynomial ring R[x]. The division algorithm says we should find polynomials q(x), r(x) in R[x] such that bx = x * q(x) + r(x),
where deg(r(x)) < deg(x), so r(x) is a constant.
We can let q(x) = b and r(x) = 0, since:
x * b + 0 = bx.
Try reversing the process: divide x by bx.
And we would want:
x = bx * q(x) + r(x)
Again, deg(r(x)) < deg(bx) = 1, so r(x) must be a constant.
However, to make the leading terms match, we’d need q(x) = b⁻¹.
But since b is not invertible in R, b⁻¹ does not exist in R, and therefore not in R[x].
So the division algorithm fails, which means R[x] is not a Euclidean domain unless R is a field.
There we go, it was kind of hard to type it out since I never actually used Latex before which would make my job easier
Anyways I have a question for you, how did you make your role blue, I have the he/him role but it isn't blue for me for some reason
he/him is the blue diamond next to your name.
Blue name is the very active role, whitch you get by being here often
Oh ok thanks
Does this work for showing that if $x$ is nilpotent, then $1 + x$ is a unit? Here $N(A)$ is the nilradical of $A$. If $1 + x$ is not a unit in $A$, then $1 + x \in \mathfrak{m}$ for some maximal ideal $\mathfrak{m}$. Since $\mathfrak{m}$ is prime and $N(A)$ is the intersection of all prime ideals in $A$, $N(A) \subset \mathfrak{m}$. But $x\in N(A)$, so $1 + x - x = 1 \in \mathfrak{m}$. This contradicts the fact that $\mathfrak{m}$ is maximal.
okeyokay
Yeah I think that works and that's pretty slick too
Okay because i looked up the answer and people used geometric expansion or smt
Ofc you know the elementary proof right? By considering the power series of 1/(1+x)?
Yeah the geometric expansion is a neat proof
Yes. In fact you have shown that if x is in all maximal ideals (I.e. in the Jacobson radical) then 1 + rx is a unit for all r, and the converse is also true
I didn’t know blue name means v active
I didnt even know the colour of name means anything
Hi all, if $A$ is a commutative ring, and we embed $A\textrm{-Mod}^{\textrm{op}}$ into some $B \textrm{-Mod}$ by the Mitchell theorem, is B necessarily commutative?
a-square
The answer is no for somewhat trivial reasons: BMod is equivalent to M_n(B)Mod, and M_n(B) is never commutative (except trivial cases)
Perhaps a better question is: is it always possible to embed AMod^op into BMod for a commutative ring B?
And then I am unsure to be honest, but suspect the answer to be "no"
I believe the answer is no
If so you could just embed any (barring size conditions) abelian category into the category of modules over a commutative ring which I am 99.99% sure is not possible
Since that’s like the first thing people tell you to be careful about with the embedding theorem
How can I prove that in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$, the ideal $(4,x)\cap (2,x^2)=(4,2x,x^2)$? $\supseteq$ part is not hard, but how can I do $\subseteq$ part? I want to show for any $r\in (4,x)\cap (2,x^2)$, $r$ is in $(4,2x,x^2)$. And I only know that $r$ can be written as $r=4f+xg=2m+nx^2$. How can I proceed from here?
Dong_Valentino
that is also easy
Is there any hint?
one side is clear as IJ is in I intersection J
FOR opposite part focus on generators
I figured it out. $r=4f+xg\in (2,x^2)$ implies $xg\in (2,x^2)$. So either $2|g$ or $x|g$. In both cases $xg\in (4,2x,x^2)$.
Dong_Valentino
Thanks.
What do they mean by annihilated by m, hence naturally a A/m module? Do they mean that the action of A/m on M/mM is well-defined since it's annihilated by m?
yes
can you share 2.6 i want to read that
So A-Mod^op is not a small abelian category, so the Mitchell embedding theorem doesn't apply, and I believe there are arguments for why A-Mod^op cannot embedd fully faithfully into B-Mod.
If A is Noetherian you could use the category of fg A-modules though. In which case I think you should be able to take B = End(E) for an injective cogenerator.
Now, should one expect this to be commutative...
Is E the tensor unit?
Actually, here's an argument for why it can't be commutative for A=Z.
So we just consider the category of fg abelian groups Z-mod.
Then we have a fully faithful exact contravariant embedding
F: Z-mod -> B-Mod
Now F(Z) is a B--Z-bimodule and using exactness and finite projective presentations you can show that F = Hom(-, F(Z)).
Let's call F(Z) for E. Since F is exact E is injective, and since F is an embedding E is a cogenerator. So E contains Q/Z as a direct summand.
Let's say E contains some extra summands of Z[1/p]/Z. Then
F(Z/p) = (Z/p)^I. Since F is fully faithful this must have endomorphism ring Z/p as a B-module. Since over a commutative ring multiplication by an element is a homomorphism, the action of B on (Z/p)^I is just multiplication by elements in Z/p, but then the endomorphism ring is much larger, contradiction.
So E must be Q/Z direct sum some Q-vector space. So E = Q/Z (+) V.
Now again multiplication by an element in B should be a homomorphism, so since this is fully faithful B simply acts by multiplication by integers. And then the endomorphism ring is much to large.
I think you can embed Z-mod into B-Mod for B = End(Q (+) Q/Z) though
Thanks, it will probably take me a while to understand this argument though
Jagr are the application for like Postgraduate role closed because I applied for it but I have the undergraduate role for some reason.
I think the mods are just slow to aprove the roles that require manual aproval, but I don't know the inner workings
I need to go through the modules exercises section in Lang first at least 🙂
Oh ok 👍
The main idea is really that for a commutative ring, multiplication by an element is a homomorphism.
So for modules with few endomorphisms you are very limited in how B can act.
So refuting this conjecture then I guess.
For A=Z, E=Q/Z is a cogenerator, but the embedding into End(E) = profinite integers cannot be full. In particular Hom(Z, E) will have the profinite integers as endomorphism ring, which is of course larger than Z.
every irrational number has unique continued fraction ?
Yes they do
unique infinite continued simple fraction expansion to be even more precise
how did u show that
How do I write the fractions here tho
write sequence
Because like I really don't know how to use latex

I guess
[a; b, c, d, ...]
is a notation people use for continued fractions
mhm
So like it sucks to not have any notation but anyways here is a sentence explanation for you @chilly ocean
Every irrational number has its own unique infinite continued fraction because when you break it down using the continued fraction algorithm (taking the integer part then flipping the decimal part over and repeating), the steps always follow a consistent pattern. Since irrational numbers are infinite and do not repeat like rational numbers, the process never ends at all which gives each irrational number a unique continued fraction.
Nice circular argument gpt
I am just being formal, if you think being formal is being an AI then I don't really know what to say.
Your argument is literally “because irrational numbers are infinite, they have infinite continued fractions”
And you don’t address uniqueness at all
Well, I can't type out fractions here and can't really give the notational proof and stuff, so I have to type out what I can in my own words in sentences.
how did you detect that
I'm not convinced this is a ChatGPT answer but it is certainly a very low-quality one
Please let me know if this comes up again
well, they've had similar answers in, say, AG channel
I think I would prove by induction on n that:
- For fixed a1, a2, ..., an, all positive integers, the function x |-> [0;a1,a2,...,an,x] maps (1,infty) monotonically to an open interval of (0,1).
- When n is fixed, different choices of a1, a2, ..., an lead to disjoint ranges which together cover all of (0,1) except some rational endpoints.
which together with appropriate handwaving about limits prove that
a) different simple continued fractions must have different values.
b) an arbitrary irrational is in the range of one of the functions at every n, which fit together to produce an infinite continued fraction.
well, ios devices do that automatically
Wat
if you type -- on ios it will spit out one of the dashes
Yeah but I mean that very few people use them, but chatgpt loves them
Not that it’s a difficult character to produce lol
To play devil's advocate you can easily type "—" by pressing Shift+Option+- (but I don't know many people who actually bother to do it)
to be fair, you can just hit alt+0151 to type an em dash...
I am going to fill my mouth with popits and bite down hard
I have an autohotkey script to put this in windows lol
- – —
wait hold on this isn't just circular, it's factually wrong
There are plenty of irrational numbers with a repeating continued fraction expansion
However this appears to claim the opposite
In the first place, sqrt(2) = [1; 2, 2, 2, 2, ...]
I think their just claiming that process doesn't terminate, which is clear from a finite fraction just being a rational number.
I was focusing really on this line:
Since irrational numbers are infinite and do not repeat [...]
Well, that's not wrong right, just kinda irrelevant
As for uniqueness, I think the claim is simply that if you have a continued fraction and use the standard algorithm for computing them you recover the same coefficients.
I think this follows just from continued fractions always covering to some positive real (which I guess actually might depend on how you define convergence of continued fractions)
But for the usual way it should be clear
No it is wrong, because sqrt(2) = [1; 2, 2, 2, 2, ...] is an irrational number which does repeat, if indeed we interpret that line in what I think is the only reasonable sense
Tbh idk what you mean by reasonable because I have no idea what they meant
I feel like what they wrote isn't a complete sentence
Idk if they were ever referring to the coefficients repeating?
Oh wait maybe they meant like the decimal expansion doesn't repeat lmao
Tho idk how it's relevant
Typically when people talk about numbers repeating this way they mean the decimal expansion. And with this interpretation the statement is actually correct, so I think it is a more reasonable interpretation
Not that it would be relevant in either case
Fair enough, but I think this more indicates at best a confusion about continued fraction and decimal expansions
I meant a pattern like rational fractions or stuff so sorry for that
yes
How would you define what an integral domain is?
just ask chatgpt if the answers sound like chatgpt
It's interesting that this answer is taking so long. You yourself answered a question not too long ago about Euclidean domains, Cyber, so I would have thought you'd know integral domains - a much simpler concept - like the back of your hand!
it's just a domain that has integrals in it, simple.
Bro I am giving explanations and examples
You haven't answered my question though
he just asked for the definition though
It's been three minutes. Any student could tell you the definition in about 10 seconds
I know but I need examples and stuff
You need me to give you examples?
No
OK maybe just name a single example of an integral domain
I will give
then just say Z, easy example
Q
Hey well done!
R
what about integral domains that aren't a field 
what about non integral domain?
I've seen enough fwiw
That's Z6 for example
I don't know how to write it using the latex and stuff
There are helpful resources in pinned messages in #latex-help
just curious: since you're a postgraduate, you've obviously had to write some papers or something. How did you do it without knowing latex?
word 
I don't know in Discord
Bro has the undergraduate role though
he said earlier he applied for postgrad
yes I applied for it
the postgrad role
hmm, weird, why would they reject such a promising candidate? 
this is my favorite tv show
they also rejected me
absolute ads
Aye beats me man

you mean you don't know how to use latex in discord specifically? But you know how to use it otherwise?
Just gonna throw it out here that the mod team is aware of this whole situation and we're working on it; there's no need to continue investigating
But ofc do as you please
Okay, sorry 
It's fine I was just letting you know
I'm pretty convinced for my own sake atleast
The council will decide your fate
No I usually write in Word
What situation?
Me learning algebra
Someone accusing Cyber of copying answers from gpt as replies to questions here I guess
i coudnt follow the induction
I didn't give details of the induction step; they're left for the reader to reconstruct.
your map is injection right
Monotonic maps between subsets of R totally ordered sets are always injective.
so we have to use induction to show every term of sequence is unique for irrational
I don't know whether we "have to", but that was the way I could imagine taking when I wrote my suggestion.
Lmao
hey! sorry for not replying yesterday, but doesnt this just disprove that R[x] is not a euclidean domain with norm(f) = degree(f)? we need to show that it is not euclidean domain for any norm function
i actually already knew this but was wondering what to do for any general norm function 😄
hey! i did think about this. so what i got is that if (r,x) = (k), then because x \in (x,r), we must have x = kp(x) for some polynomial p => k is a unit => (r,x) = R[x]. but we know that the map R -> R given by x -> rx is not surjective, so there will be some constants missing from (r,x) showing that (r,x) =/= R[x] (contradiction)
i like this proof much better because its direct, thanks for the hint! (the book uses a more abstract argument. see #groups-rings-fields message)
The intersection of co-maximal ideals is their multiplication, but what if J,K,L are ideals in R where J,K are co-maximal and K,L are co-maximal, but J,L aren't co-maximal.
the intersection of J,K,L is still their multiplication?
What if only J,K are co-maximal but K,L and J,K aren't?
Consider for example the case where J=L
J=L=(2) and K=(3) then JKL=(12) and J inter K inter L=(6)... that's too bad 😦
does anyone know a source of interesting ring theory problems?
Dummit and Foote has some nice problems
Although I guess any standard algebra textbook should work
*not
can you write (C_2)^3 to represent the group (C_2)x(C_2)x(C_2)? (where C_2 is the cyclic group of order two)
if thats more clear
Yes
In free abelian groups is ma = a + a + ... + a m times or nah
In latex we would write this as follows, just so you don't feel the need to go to word every time:
write $C_2 \times C_2 \times C_2$ as $(C_2)^3$
Boyt(ji=-k)e
LaTeX is actually super friendly, don't fear it :)
@chilly ocean
I am trying to prove that $3$ is irreducible but not prime in $\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{-5}]$, was hoping someone could read through my proof and tell me if I have made any errors:
Let (R = \mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{-5}]). Recall that the norm (N\colon R\to\mathbb{Z}_{\ge0}) is given by
[
N(a+b\sqrt{-5}) ;=; a^2 + 5b^2.
]
It has the key multiplicativity property
[
N(xy) = N(x),N(y),
\quad
\forall,x,y \in R.
]
\medskip
(i) (3) is irreducible in (R).\
Suppose, for sake of contradiction, that
[
3 = \alpha,\beta
\quad\text{with}\quad
\alpha,\beta\in R
\quad\text{non-units.}
]
Then
[
9 ;=; N(3) ;=; N(\alpha),N(\beta).
]
Since (\alpha,\beta) are non-units, (N(\alpha)) and (N(\beta)) must both exceed (1). The only factorization of (9) into two integers (>1) is
[
9 = 3\cdot 3.
]
Hence
[
N(\alpha)=N(\beta)=3.
]
But no element of (R) has norm (3), because
[
a^2 + 5b^2 = 3
]
has no integer solutions because (a^2 \equiv 3\pmod 5) has no solutions. Thus the factorization (3=\alpha\beta) with both (\alpha,\beta) nonunits is impossible. Therefore (3) is irreducible in (R).
\medskip
(ii) (3) is not prime in (R).\
We exhibit a product of two elements that (3) divides in (R), but does not divide either factor. Observe:
[
2\cdot (1+\sqrt{-5}) ;=; 2 + 2\sqrt{-5},
]
and
[
2 + 2\sqrt{-5}
= (1+\sqrt{-5}), (1-\sqrt{-5})
= 1 - (-5) = 6.
]
Hence
[
2,(1+\sqrt{-5}) = 6 = 3\cdot 2.
]
So (3 \mid 2,(1+\sqrt{-5})) in (R). If (3) were prime, it would have to divide one of the factors (2) or (1+\sqrt{-5}). But
[
N(2)=4,\quad N(1+\sqrt{-5})=1^2+5\cdot1^2=6,
]
and neither (4) nor (6) is a multiple of (9=N(3)). Hence neither (2) nor (1+\sqrt{-5}) can be divisible by (3). This contradiction shows (3) is not prime in (R).\
Q2. Let (0\neq a\in R). We will show that (a) is a unit in (R). Consider the ideal