#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 258 of 1
As in, can be written in a first order sentence in the language of groups
Abelian is \forall x, y (xy = yx) after all
oh
So like, class 2 would be like, $\forall x.\forall y.\exists z. xyx^{-1} = z \land z\in Z$ maybe?
Sharp for President 2036
Or something
Well, why not go a step up
Well, as it says, a finite central series at all <=> nilpotent
Then just show the lower central series is a central series ig
that’s probably not as easy but
so I have to show that the central series is unique?
because G nilpotent says a finite central series exists
but not necessarily that the lower central series is finite
since that's what I want to show
The way I originally remember nilpotent is iff the upper central series terminates
same but I gotta work with the definition in this problem 🙃
I did do all the above stuff so like I have that at my disposal
Just prove that form is equivalent :3
so show that central series are also lower central series?
that seems really rough
Well I think they’re different series
I'd believe that
But they always have the same length when they terminate iirc
There’s a section in DF about it
yea I already did that
that's how I proved G^{k} = e implies G nilpotent, it's immediate from lower series is central
Ye
Hmmmmm in the same way you’d do “has a central series” iff “finite upper central,” why not just try that for lower to kinda just
Slip it on in between to terminate it :3
My class kinda just neglected the lower central stuff mostly, but like with upper it should be doable to kinda pass it in between the finite series things to extend it
Can I express the $A_i / A_{i + 1} \subseteq Z(G / A_{i + 1})$ condition in terms of commutator subgroups?
Spamakin🎷
Well, you’re in the center iff you commute with all of G there, so like
[G, A_i] is in A_{i+1}
ahhh
Because quotients and commutators mix well
I think this gets me what I want
I need to understand this (and other identities with commutators) better lol
Note, lower central is stacking this
So
That’s what I meant by sorta slipping lower central in between
It sorta follows from normal = commutes as coset = pull it to the side in commutator expressions
quite stuck on this one — does anyone know of a relatively slick solution?
I don't know how slick it is, but with some computer help to factor it modulo 7 and 29
https://www.wolframalpha.com/input?i=factor+x^6+%2B+69x^5+-+511x+%2B+363
You can see that any irreducible factor has degree 2, 4 or 6. But also has degree 1, 5 or 6. Leaving 6 as the only option.
im confused with (b) the way they define wreath product and then if it is G^Y semidirect J then as G^y semidirect {e} is a normal subgroup of it so as its isomorphic to D^4 is should be cyclic right?
but apparently its not?
cause i believe any function squared in G^y will be the trivial function?
that definition of the wreath product is a bit gross imo. Just think of $C_2 \wr C_2$ as $(C_2 \times C_2) \rtimes C_2$ where the $C_2$ acts via permuting the copies of $C_2$
Wew Lads Tbh
what do we mean by permuting copies of C_2 here
not really
Why is it sigma^-1 smh smh
yeah you have to do it backwards due to woke
yeah why is it that, thats one of the questions that came to me too
Is this a RIGHT ACTION wokism
so youre saying the author prefers right actions?
honestly I hate this function definition so much I'm just going to straight up introduce the sane definition so I don't lose my mind
It doesn't matter whether you're leftist or rightist as long as the math works out
take a finite group $H$ and an embedding $\phi \colon H \rightarrow S_n$. Then given another finite group $G$ we define $G \wr_{\phi} H$ to be $G^n \rtimes_{\phi} H$ with $H$ acting by permuting the copies of $G$ in $G^n$ according to the embedding $\phi$
Wew Lads Tbh
oh this is cooler
sure your definition is slightly more general due to the fact that we can take Y to be uncountably infinite but I just don't care
yeah I realised that we can permute countably infinite lol
I wrote up a proof that these definitions are equivalent in like 2022 one sec
complete babble
basically it boils down to a J-set X being the same as a morphism into S_|X|
just noticed I wrote the semidirect symbol backwards 
Wait isn't this what semi-direct product means 
a wreath product is just a special type of semidirect product
oh like what does a semidirect product do in a more intuitive sense
How is this different from just unpacking the definition of semi-direct product
The libs when Sym(omega)
it isn't really. But I was very stupid back in 2022
a semi direct product takes one group acting on another, via automorphisms and form a new group using that data
A short exact sequence
0 → A → B → C → 0
is left split iff product and right split iff semi-direct product
so a wreath product is G^n doing the same stuff?
yeah, but H acts only by swapping the Gs around. It fixes each G pointwise
that's the key difference
oh okay
if you want to do a little bit of crankery - purely intuitionally a wreath product is "like permutation matrices on G^n" but a semi direct product is "like invertible matrices on G"
i wonder if there are like any reference towards the motivations os these constructions just like there are motivations on how groups were thought of
this has no rigorous bearing I must emphasise
Aut(G) do be lookin like GL(R)
yeah they're both automorphism groups
this BECOMES rigorous if G = (Z/pZ)^k for some prime p
Abelian p-group time
specifically because then G is the additive group of a field 😹
wait sorry I put my ^k in the wrong place
anyway redacted I kinda got distracted
are u ok to tackle the exercise yourself now?
also on a side note for (b) is there like a geometric explanation to why we can realize D_4 like this
yeah i think ill try again after i got to see nnew
definitions
yes actually - it's a square lol
hold on I'm trying to remember how B_n works
so you can realise all of its symmetries by reflecting the basis vectors I think, together with permuting the basis vectors
So like C_2 wr C_2 is isomorphic to <(12), (34), (13)(24)> ?
did i get that right
yes that's exactly correct
thanks
this holds in higher dimensions, the symmetires of a n-cube are isomorphic to C_2 \wr S_n
set n = 2 and we get C_2 \wr C_2
In 2 dimensions isn't permuting the basis vectors same as reflecting them?
permuting them is a reflection along the line y = x
So different axis?
the other reflections are along the lines x = 0 and y = 0
Okay 👍 thanks @delicate orchid
D4 has normal subgroups that are not cyclic
open problem
Orthogonal reflections commute, and you can think of symmetries of the square (or n-cube) as permuting the axis then going some orthogonal reflections.
.
[redacted]
And they're not the same, am i doing sth wrong?
Here's how they define wreath product #groups-rings-fields message
I would think the definition should have been
(f, sigma)(x, y) = (f(sigma y)x, sigma y)
But maybe they're defining the semidirect product slightly differently than I'm imagining. Or maybe it's just a typo
This is how they define semi direct
Yeah, that's how I would define it as well
So uh this is a typo in the wreath product definition?
No, probably typo in the action
Like it should be this
Oh
Okay
Wait so I also had to ask
Is this sort of definition of the action as a result is natural?
Like you know
Is the sth of a universal property kind of stuff to it
I don't know if it's necessarily tied to any universal property, but it does make a lot of sense.
Like if you think of f as a tuple of element in G indexed by Y, then the action g.f is like maping x_y to x_{gy}. Which is pretty natural.
Like say f(y) = x and f is the identity for other elements of Y, then g.f(gy) = x.
I see, okay thanks a lot, actually I am seeing that this tuple way of defining the wreath product is much more natural
Idk why lenstra does it the way it is in these notes
This is more #linear-algebra material, but I just wanted a quick check: I was idly recalling the construction of the determinant (for an arbitrary commutative ring R) via alternating forms M^k->R, for this you need to show the space of all forms has dimension n choose k when M is free of rank n. Clearly the coordinate functions for tuples i_1<i_2<...<i_k span it, and to show they're linearly independent you need to consider the alternating forms as a subspace of all multilinear forms, in which coordinate functions over all tuples (not only increasing ones) are independent just by plugging in values, same as for dual bases, right? Was it really as trivial as this? I remember it being more messy.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VdLhQs_y_E8&list=PLelIK3uylPMGzHBuR3hLMHrYfMqWWsmx5
In this intro video the prof. calls the operator on a group a multiplication operator multiple times but it doesn't seem to have the same properties as the multiplication operator of R^3 nor do I know how it would be distinct from an addition operator given the constraints. Is this just inaccurate language or is there actually a more general distinction between an addition/multiplication operator?
Week 1: Review of linear algebra. Groups. Examples of groups.
Basic properties and constructions.
This video:
Introduction to the course; Review: Linear algebra; Definition of groups
Notes for this lecture: http://www.extension.harvard.edu/sites/default/files/openlearning/math222/files/notes/L1-N.pdf
These lectures are from the...
he defines it as just an operator which associates a third value to two others
Thanks, but this is originally one part of a qualifying exam question, so presumably there is some way to do it in a reasonable amount of time without a computer or calculator.
But I can't seem to figure it out
Well, let me know if you figure it out, because I'd be interested
There's also this, with a similar methode using finite fields
does this always happen for irreducible polynomials? as in, you can find two primes p and q where the factorization patterns can't match
I think x^4 + 1 is a counter example. It's irreducible, but for every prime p, it either splits completely or splits as the product of two quadratic polynomials. So you can't really tell it's not the product of two quadratics just from the factorization pattern.
This is simlar to what I did. I had a long solution which involved observing:
- f factors irreducibly as x(x+2)(x^4+x^3+x^2+x+1) over F_3
- f does not have any roots in F_5
- f factors irreducibly as x(x+2)(x^4+x^3+9x^2+4x+3) over F_{11}.
Together 1 and 2 yield that if f factors over Z, it must do so as an irreducible quadratic times an irreducible quartic. 1 and 3 yield that
- the constant term a of the quadratic is divisible by both 11 and 3
- the constant term b of the quartic is equivalent to 3 mod 11
Since 33 divides a and ab=363 = 3 * 11 * 11, it follows that a is either 33, -33, 363, or -363, so that b is one of 11, -11, 1, or -1. But none of 11, -11, 1, or -1 is equivalent to 3 mod 11. So f cannot factor over Z
The issue with this is that it involves factoring f over F_3 and F_{11}, which involves:
- Finding the roots of f mod 3, mod 5, and mod 11
- Performing polynomial long division mod 3 and mod 11 to get the remaining terms
- Showing that x^4+x^3+x^2+x+1 is irreducible mod 3, and x^4+x^3+9x^2+4x+3 is irreducible mod 11.
All of this is pretty computationally intensive, not to mention the fact that in practice you'd probably waste time checking other primes
is there a homomorphism from the symmetry group of a circle O(2) to D_4? i'm thinking the only homomorphism is the one that takes everything to the identity
Well, O(2)/SO(2) = C2, and D4 has quite a few elements of order 2, so that would give you homomorphisms.
Other than that, every proper normal subgroup of O(2) is contained in SO(2), and SO(2) is divisible, so can't map to any torsion group. So there are no other maps.
oh so like
all the rotations that don't flip the circle could map to e in D_4, and all the rotations that do flip the circle could map to a 180-degree rotation in D_4?
that seems to work
thanks
I’m trying to find out what part in particular you are referencing but that’s difficult since it’s such a long video. I think for the majority of the video he introduces groups using a specific kind of matrix [I think he says GLn(IR)] and its important to note that while multiplication is defined for this group, it’s matrix multiplication which does indeed have different properties than multiplication of say elements in IR. I’m not sure if this is what you’re referring to? Furthermore, it’s important to note that group operations can be more than just simple multiplication and addition, like how multiplication of two real numbers is different than matrix multiplication as mentioned above, but you can also have function composition as a group operator. Additionally, some texts use “multiplication” as a placeholder operation when defining groups (which is somewhat annoying because notationally it can lead to confusion) but it should be inferred as any binary operation between two elements of a group
0 ideas about this
Let G be a finite non-abelian simple group with all proper subgroups abelian. So let M be a maximal subgroup of G. I think the simplest thing may be show that G is not simple as my contradiction. All I've come up with in this direction is that N_G(M), the normalizer of M in G, is equal to M. I don't think this is useful though.
how would two maximal subgroups intersect
Well their intersection would be a normal subgroup of both.
but that doesn't necessarily say that the intersection would be a normal subgroup of the whole group (assuming it's nontrivial)
Ah but the two maximal subgroups are distinct and generate the whole group?
So indeed the intersection would be normal in the whole group
but G is simple so the intersection is trivial
Why is this? 
So intersection of any two maximal subgroups is trivial in this case.
Uhhh
actually good question
The intersection of any two distinct maximal subgroups is indeed trivial though
how, if not by the way I tried to show?
By considering centralizers of elements
But I haven't figured out how to proceed from this fact
I know that the intersection of all maximal subgroups is normal and so trivial
but not just intersection of two
If M is maximal, and g ∈ M is nontrivial, what is the centralizer of g?
Nothing
Nothing in this textbook
Has been as brainmeltingly insane
As dealing with noncommutative matrices
I am still trying to fathom this shit
The centralizer of g is something I'm sure
I mean what is it other than the centralizer of g lol
It's M
huh?
oh yea
cause M is abelian, g in M, so everything in M commutes with everything in M
And it isn't G since center is trivial
yea
conjugation action on the group?
Center is trivial
So then orbit stabilizer?
Let G act on itself by conjugation. G must have trivial center, so the action is faithful
No wait
Oh right you can do orbit stabilizer on the set of maximal subgroups
Idk what this gives you tho
oh well then normalizers ate the stabilizers
yea I don't follow this orbit-stabilizer approach
Okay let me state it
If there is no proper subgroups, then the stabilizer of each element (centralizer) must be either trivial or the whole group
So conjugacy classes are therefore either the whole group, or singletons
If the conjugacy classes are singletons, then gxg^-1 = x for each g. This can’t happen, since x cannot be central (center is trivial)
Wait
I’m pretty sure the conjugacy class could be the whole group (one conjugacy class) so we have no problem hhhh
yea
Assume every subgroup of G as described is Abelian. Let K be a maximal (Abelian) subgroup of G. Then for any x in G\K, (K,x) = G. Thus x doesn’t commute with some element of K, call it y. But (x,y) must be a subgroup of K unless (x,y) = G and thus must be Abelian, so x and y commute.
that doesn't show that for arbitrary x, y that xy = yx
Actually made a small error
if (x,y) is abelian than it’s isomorphic to a direct product of cyclic groups, no?
should be, yea
If x in M, M < G is maximal and all maximal are abelian, then C_G(x) contains M yeah?
C_G(x) is M
Well yeah if G isn’t abelian (and x not 1)
which is the assumption
If we have two distinct maximal subgroups M, M’, then the intersection has to be trivial, since any point in the intersection has centralizer contain both M, M’
Any for any pair x, y in M, M’ both not 1, G = <x, y> :3
Since that’s contained in a maximal subgroup, but all maximal subgroups are abelian, and x and y don’t commute
Right?
<> here being taking as generators
no I know I just don't get how those two elements generate the whole group
since y not in C(x), they don’t commute
<x, y> is not an abelian subgroup
But all maximal subgroups are abelian so it can’t be contained in any
ah
Dunno if that helps, but it’s like a strengthening of what Miz said
So any pair x, y from M-1 x G-M generates G
:3
Which uhh similarly, conjugating points in M by points outside M does a lot, but that’s just being simple tbh
I would hate to be a student in 2021 getting this on my qual 
Yeah I might take an L on this one without sitting on it for a while
If G is finite, we have Sylow subgroups right?
And, by simple, it’s not a p group so these are proper
That’s contained in some maximal M hence abelian
sure but Sylow subgroups aren't maximal and so I didn't look at the Sylow route further
Well, every Sylow subgroup is conjugate
But conjugating M which contains P splays everything everywhere, right?
Maybe
A Sylow subgroup of M > P is a Sylow subgroup of G because of properness
So something something, if you can fit em all in one M, that’s bad for being a proper subgroup
So some maximal subgroup misses some Sylow p-subgroup for some p
But uhhh conjugation throws things around like crazy, so uhh
RIP qed
Something like that work?
When in doubt, finite -> spam Sylow
I don't fully get what you said but I'll try to write out the details more and see if it comes together
Well I am known for incoherent responses
But you get what I mean by this right?
Since P < G so P \leq M < G
And since it’s full prime power in G, it is in M
yea
it's the stuff after that that I don't fully follow
Conjugation of M has to throw stuff everywhere
Because again, <x, y> generates G for y not in M
So I’m thinking you have to be able to conjugate M all over to include that prime’s Sylow
what do you mean "throws stuff everywhere"
do you mean that every element in G is in some conjugate of M?
Well I’d hope something analogous happens
Or otherwise moving p-subgroups around into M
(Which is the same)
sorta
I dunno if that works though 
But like, if we have maximal subgroups of wildly different sizes, that should be problematic, and all da p-subgroups are abelian
I’d be happy to not get this on a qual though
Sort of
Uhh we have maximal subgroups of different sizes iff we can’t conjugate everything around because we can pass Sylow downward I think?
it's getting a little late so I may look at this tomorrow instead
but I think I get the vibe
And I do remember some downward passing of Sylow things but uhhh
Which, btw, this essentially depends on being finite, since Tarski monsters
Ok back to better stuff (rings!)
Spamakin🎷
I mean you do it in exactly the same way right.
Like take some non-zero element m, pick a prime ideal that contains Ann(m). Then m/1 is nonzero
Or is it too indirect for you that you have to use that every proper ideal is contained in a prime ideal?
https://crypto.stackexchange.com/questions/112469/sparse-packing-for-ckks Does anyone here have a clue about this one?
Noncommutative Matricies and Endomorphisms
Let’s say we have an indexing set $K$ and a ring R. Describe the ring $M_K(R)$ as an associative algebra over $R$ generated linearly by elements $e_{i,j}$ indexed by elements of $K$ such that: $e_{a, b} e_{c, d} = \delta_{b, c} e_{a, d}$ where $\delta_{b, c} = 1$ iff $b = c$ and is $0$ otherwise. \\
For a left R-module U, is $\mathrm{End}_R(U^{\oplus K}) \cong M_K(\mathrm{End}(U))$?
The Library of Babble
I am not quite sure, i don’t think so?
this is true I think
The proof for the finite case uses biproduct
I don’t think it generalizes because that has the implication there is a kernel for each endomorphism, no?
Because the e_{n,m} are maps that send the mth term to the nth term
Wait no lmao
M_K isn’t unital
Unless K is finite
Because the identity is 1 “along the diagonal”
lol yep
if that's your definition of M_K anyway
The problem is just
for K countably infinite would you define this as like, a limit?
I guess so?
But even with shit like the dual
We have one being a direct sum, the other a direct product
so there’s probably shenanigans like that here
It wouldn’t be finitely generated y’know
Eh whatever
I mean we can look at Hom(M^A, M^B)
I think if you want only finitely many non-zero entries in each row it would have to be a colimit but w/e. That appears to be the accepted definition in the literature
Is this prime ideal not a maximal ideal? I feel this still uses maximality rather than "primeness"
Yeah
It doesn't have to be maximal, just any prime ideal
You can of course choose it to be maximal if you want
Localization
Well then can’t you look at units
units don’t lie in any proper ideal
And look at what happens to them, no?
Elements inside the ideals will be forced into the annihilator
Actually I’m a fucking idiot
WOAH! No swearing...
If M is 0 as an R-module, then it’s 0 as a module for any subring of R right
If M is so for Rp^-1 (which R injects to) wouldn’t it be 0
And the existence of prime ideals is actually weaker than the existence of maximal ideals (which is equivalent to the axiom of choice)
literally you can use R into Rp^-1 into End(M) (zero map)
So you can prove this equivalence in a slightly weaker system than ZFC
So as long as there is a maximal (prime) ideal then
ultrafilter lemmon 
Or Boolean ideal theorem or whatever it’s called
Boolean prime ideal theorem lmao
it's just zorns dawg
The weaker one

I will keep asking this periodically
For the exterior algebra over the space of smooth sections of the cotangent bundle
We can extend the original derivative “gradient” mapping to an exterior derivative
Can we extend the original derivative gradient mapping to a “tensorial derivative” on the more general tensor algebra where when quotiented by (x (x) x) gives the exterior algebra’s one
What i mean by gradient mapping is that: V -> V^dim(M) where f(v) -> (f_x(v), f_y(v)…)
Yes
As long as you’re unital anyway 
Actually i did it incorrectly
Actually differential forms are weirder than I thought
Nvm
maybe ask this in #diff-geo-diff-top rather than fuckin #groups-rings-fields
I was originally working with a purely algebraic formulation
i think Jacobson actually covers it in later chapters
I just forgot that diff forms aren’t exterior algebra elements explicitly, moreso functions to them
I am now pondering
Assume we have a commutative ring R and a module M
then we can define the tensor algebra ring T(V)
Where V = M lol
Dw
Anyway
Certain quotient rings like the exterior algebra
Are finitely graded if M is free of finite rank
I wonder when that happens for other quotients
obvious thing to try is studying quotients by a certain quadratic form
clifford algebra type nonsense
Jumpscare
One more thing
So for a map between R-modules $U \rightarrow V$, it extends to a ring map $\wedge(U) \rightarrow \wedge(V)$ that also allows linear maps $\wedge^n(U) \rightarrow \wedge^m(U)$ is there an easy way to describe these maps
The Library of Babble
Graded ring map
for free modules, yes 😹
never said they were free
Every element can be written as a sum of v_1 ... v_n and that is sent to f(v_1) ... f(v_n)
Can we just say the extension distributes over the exterior product
Without problem?
Well if we have like vectors u, v then if f(uv) = f(u)f(v) then if f(u) = f(v) then it’s 0, hm
Kernel might be interesting
What do you mean
Nevermind
Idk if extension is the right word here like the induced map ig
But sure yes
But that is just saying it is a ring map
Unless i am misinterpreting you
Yeah
And yeah V generates the exterior algebra
I think any morphism of U to V can be extended to a morphism between the exterior algebras preserving the subspaces of 1-forms
If M is of finite rank n, and endomorphism T maps M to a submodule of strictly lesser rank, then det(T) = 0 right?
Yes
Okay i proved it
Nice
Are you over an integral domain?
Though what do you mean by rank? Are you over a domain or smth or is this free
image of the map M to im(M) extends to \wedge^n(M) to \wedge^n(im(M)) ~= 0
Free
Well
M doesn't embed into its nth power
Functorially
But if like R=k[x]/x^2 and M=R, then the map given by multiplication by x has image with smaller rank
Or are you saying the image is free?
If the image is free
For PID every submodule is free i think
Well you could also use finitely generated submodule generated by less elements than the basis
Yeah
If M is free with basis (b_i), then can we describe the “minors” of an endomorphism on M with the induced linear maps on the exterior powers
who is this guy?
let me think uhhhh
it's gotta be the exact same mechanism as for vector spaces right
yeah
like what's the difference libtokers
I'm just trying to recall how you do it
there are many minors, only n exterior powers. Why should this be true? Also, I don't think minors are preserved under change of basis. Some relations between them will be preserved, but not the minors themselves
Well, i had to be specific with my definition of minors
It’s a very specific case
I also computed what i was looking for lol
If $T$ is the transformation, and you have the basis $(e_n)$ then the $(i,j)$-th minor is the scalar of $\bigwedge_{k \neq i}{T(e_k)}$ at the basis vector $\bigwedge_{k \neq j}{e_k}$ in $\wedge^{N-1}(M)$
The Library of Babble
Minors are relative to a basis because they are components of a vector in the exterior algebra
The determinant is an exception because of the space it’s a vector of being 1D
The “minor’s” as described usually for matrix computations are “all but (i,j)”
Thanks for the response, I should have linked the specific part I was referring to. At 36 minutes in he defines "A group G is a set with a product operation g*h (read g times h)" with some properties. Then at 39:40 he clarifies "when I say a product operation I mean that for any two elements g, h in G, there's a product gh in G". So, it sounds like it may just be that a weird way to refer to a binary operation closed in G
It confused me because it seemed like the operation on groups was more general and could include addition
Yes. I encountered a similar issue when I took this as a class last semester. In some texts they clarify that it’s some binary operations which may be multiplication, addition, or something else. Others it may be written in a way that appears like multiplication but it should be understood that it’s some operation. A few texts I’ve seen like to use ✱ which is supposed to be a universal binary operation symbol. It’s implied to be multiplication or addition based on context.
it does! (include addition)
i forget what's that website that lists information about lots of groups
Groupprops?
yes that one thanku very much
does multiplication mod 4 mean (a x b)mod4 or (a)mod4 x (b)mod4 here
The former
What do yall think is the best way to go about this
if eta is surjective and (e_i) is a basis of R^(n), then u_i = eta(e_i) is a set of generators
What is R^(n) here
That's what I'm trying to verify
But i think I have an idea
well start by assuming you have two elements a and b of R^n that map to the same thing
So you have that eta(a-b) = 0 and now use the fact that every x in R^n can be written as a sum a_1u_1+...+a_nu_n
okay ignore that detail then
I think it's relatively easy now that I think about it
Assume we chose u_i such that eta(u_i) = e_i
by linear independence of e_i
$\sum a_i e_i = 0$ if and only if $a_i = 0$
The Library of Babble
$\sum a_i e_i = \eta \left( \sum a_i x_i\right) = 0$ if and only if $a_i = 0$.
The Library of Babble
Now assume the $x_i$ are linearly dependent, then $\sum a_i x_i = 0$ for some $(a_i)$, and thus $\eta \left(\sum a_i x_i \right) = 0$ implying $a_i = 0$, thus proving linear independence (granting injectivity)
The Library of Babble
so you basically argued if you have some x = sum a_ix_i that maps to zero this implies that eta(x) = sum a_i eta(x_i) and by the linear independence of eta(x_i) we have that a_i = 0 so x = 0
yeah basically
Assume $\eta \in \mathrm{End}_R(R^n)$ is surjective, and fix a basis $(e_i)$. Then $\exists x_i : \eta(x_i) = e_i$. \\
Assume $0 = \sum c_i x_i \Rightarrow 0 = \eta \left( \sum c_i x_i \right) = \sum c_i \eta(x_i) = \sum c_i e_i \Rightarrow c_i = 0$ thus $x_i$ are linearly independent. The map $\zeta : e_i \mapsto x_i$ is thus an inverse.
The Library of Babble
SOOOOOO I am confused here
If f_i form a base for a free submodule K of R^n
then f_i are linearly independent
meaning that the map A_e is injective?
I'm in general confused as all hell
Assume $f$ is an injective endomorphism of $R^n$, then let $(e_i)$ be a basis.
Assume $\sum c_i f(e_i) = 0$, then $0 = f \left( \sum c_i e_i \right)$ and by injectivity: $\sum c_i e_i = 0$ and by linear independence, $e_i = 0$ for all $i$, so $f(e_i)$ is linearly independent
The Library of Babble
oh ic
Yeah I keep running into the issue for when the adjugate matrix is 0
fuck it, using exterior powers
Why? If det A is a nonzero divisor the adjugate can't be 0 since multiplying it by A gives det(A)I
I got tired and just used the functorial map on the top exterior power (iso to R) being injective (and multiplication by an element r is an injective map iff it's not a zero divisor)
If H is a subgroup of G, and G has presentation <S | R_1>, does H have presentation <S | R_1, R_2> for some relation R_2 in general?
Also, if H is normal in G, what is the presentation of the quotient group G/H?
(Free groups still causing me grief 😢)
The quotient group G/H can be presented as <S | R1, R2> where R2 is a set of (preimages of) generators of H. (But this is not necessarily a minimal presentation in any way).
Since <S | R1, R2> is always a quotient of G, you can't hope to make an arbitrary subgroup in that way.
For example the alternating group A_3 is a subgroup of the symmetric group S_3, but it cannot be a quotient because S_3 doesn't have any normal subgroup of order 2.
Where do I ask about e.g. determinant of block matrix, and trace of discrete finitely generated subgroup of SL2C?
The usual question about "determinant of block matrix" is whether the determinant has a nice expression in terms of the block, the same way a product of block matrices can be written using the blocks. The answer to that is no: We can consider block matrices to be matrices with entries in a matrix ring. Even though that construction stacks well enough for products, the trouble is that determinants don't work well over a non-commutative ring. So there's not even any determinant concept on the upper level that we can contemplate stacking with determinants at the lower level.
"Trace of discrete finitely generated subgroup of SL2C" smells of representation theory, which would be #advanced-algebra.
It ought to: there are rings such that R^m is isomorphic to R^n as R-modules for some m < n; if you map R^m bijectively to R^n, then map R^n to R^m by (x_1, ..., x_n) -> (x_1, ..., x_m), then you'll get a surjective but non-injective map from R^m to R^m.
I don't think that this proves that the x_i generate R^n.
(Indeed, your proof doesn't even use the fact that the basis is finite, but this is false for an infinite-rank free R-module, for example the map (x_0, x_1, ...) |---> (x_1, x_2, ....) on \oplus_N R.)
(This cannot happen for commutative rings though, as ||they have the Invariant Basis Number property that different finite bases of a module must have the same size||. Using that, you can finish the proof.)
Yeah, that's the issue - determinants get kind of screwy on noncommutative ring.
I was hoping for something workable where elements are SL(2, C), as that is roughly what I am working on now.
Anyway, let me go to #advanced-algebra . Thanks!
I corrected my proof
Also if you want an example of this:
R[x]^2 ~= R[x] as both have a countable basis.
Thus let K = End(R[x])
K ~= Hom(R[x], R[x]^2) ~= Hom(R[x],R[x])^2 ~= K^2 as K-modules
eta is surjective, so for each x, x = \sum c_i e_i = eta(c_i x_i) and due to linear independence of the x_i, it’s a bijection
This shows that x = eta(a linear combination of the x_i), but not that x = a linear combination of the x_i.
It’s basically stating that it’s injective and surjective
Injective because of linear independence of the x_i, surjective because of the problem statement
I can't find this.
I found a simple counter example for part two: Z -> 2Z as Z modules is an injection
eta is injective on span(x_1, ..., x_n), not necessarily on the entire domain R^n (unless x_1, ..., x_n generate R^n as an R-module).
what do you mean,
Span(…) is the image
So it’s have to be linearly independent on the entire domain
No, x_1, ..., x_n are elements of the domain, and span(x_1, ..., x_n) is a submodule of the domain.
How could it be linearly dependent over R^n then
Since we are only considering sums in that span
What is even the original thing you're trying to prove here?
Finite rank modules: surjective endo is auto
This.
It seems to me like it should need IBN for commutative rings, which hasn't been used so far.
It seems all you've proven so far is that it splits. Which you could have just proven from free modules being projective
I'm not saying that x_1, ..., x_n are linearly dependent elements of R^n. I'm saying that (a priori) they might not span it.
To elaborate more concretely: your inverse phi: e_i |----> x_i satisfies eta \circ phi = id_codomain, but you haven't shown that phi \circ eta = id_domain.
If you can't see the problem we're trying to point to, I suggest trying to apply your proof with "n" infinite, specifically to the map
eta: R^N -> R^N: (r_0, r_1, ...) |--> (r_1, r_2, ...)
(where R^N = {(r_0, r_1, ...) | all but finitely many r_i are 0}) and seeing why it doesn't show injectivity of eta.
(You can take e_i to be the sequence with a 1 in the i^th position and 0 elsewhere, and you can take x_i = e_{i+1}.)
You can use the adjugate matrix to finish the proof of though. Or just apeal to IBN I guess
Haven’t talked about projective modules or splitting lemma yet
ok then prove the splitting lemma for free modules and then use it
But you know about determinants, and how unit determinant implies invertible matrix, yes?

That’s the next exercise
Then I'm wondering what the intended methode is
No idea, it’s Jacobson
Interesting book
.
What about localization?
Not sure if that’s the intended route
I’m also not following why my proof for the surjective part doesn’t work
To prove that it's injective?
If I give you an x such that eta(x) = 0, you haven't shown that x = 0.
You have shown that if x = \sum_i c_i x_i for some c_i, then x = 0.
Ohhh I see
But not that any x in R^n has to be of the form \sum_i c_i x_i for some c_i.
Not sure how that would work myself, but great if you can.
You have Cayley Hamilton, but don't know about determinants?
We don’t have it, but I did prove End(M^n) ~= M_n(End(M))
Of which you can then work with the matrix ring embedded into it :3
for finitely generated more generally
Instead of free
I am actually gonna be smart
I’m going to prove the next problem first
and use it lol
I spent a while proving functorial bullshit about the tensor algebra yesterday so I’m going to use that
what bullshit
Homogeneous ideals of the tensor algebra for modules
Functorial 
Assume we have a commutative ring R. Let U denote the free monoid in countably many letters
Assume M is an R-module
Immediately, we have the R-algebra R[U], the monoid algebra, which also can be equipped naturally as a ring with a degree grading.
Now let’s say we have a monoid M, and we then have the tensor algebra T(M) as a graded ring.
Like the polynomial ring, we can map R[U] to T(M) through valuations of M due to the universal property of R[U] and free-ness (as a monoid) of U. These are actually graded ring / associative algebra morphisms
Assume we have a homogeneous ideal K of R[U], then we can consider the generated ideal T_K of the images of K under all valuation maps to T(M). T_K is a homogenous ideal of T(M), thus T(M)/T_K is a graded ring
There’s some interesting bullshit you can do with this
M is an R-module, IG?
Yes sorry, accidentally wiped that
Makes sense.
This is actually really because T(M) is a quotient of R[U] lol
No I meant
I assume you're starting with an R-module M and not a monoid?
So for example, IG you'd take the ideal of R[U], for U free on {x,y}, generated by xy - yx, and then T(M)/T_K would be T(M) but with x and y (whatever you chose to map them to in M) forced to commute?
Although honestly it seems simpler to directly consider the two-sided ideal of T(M) generated by xy - yx (which is homogeneous because it's generated by a homogeneous element)...
Like for the exterior algebra, K = (x^2),
Generated by all valuation maps yes
Or in other words, the valuation maps then the quotient map by K is always 0
:3
(Which is where we get the universal property we are looking for btw)
Can you characterise Clifford algebras (x^2 = Q(x) for a given quadratic form Q) or universal enveloping algebra (xy - yx = [x, y] for a given function (x, y) |---> [x, y] making M into a Lie algebra) in this format?
maybe :3
It seems to depend on more structure than just a module, so I'm not sure it's possible with a single homogeneous ideal of R[U].
The quadratic form is a homogenous element of degree 2 in R[U]
Eg: 3xy + 4x^2 + 7z^2 + 4yx
The commutators [x,y] = xy - yx are degree 2
That was just a tangent.
Continue.
So they generate a homogenous ideal
K = ([x,y])
The quotient T(M)/T_K is the symmetric algebra
So there’s some rather useful bullshit here I guess
More of a fun universal property exercise though
Q(x) - x^2 is a homogenous polynomial of degree 2, no?
Wait Q(x) is a map from M -> R
I think you can if you’re smart about it actually
x^2 - Q(x)1, Hm
actually no
Oh, that explains a lot, thank you!
You can obviously do T(M)/(x^2 - f(x)) at your leisure but that’s different than this construction
I wonder if you can construct T(M) off of R[U]
Let M be an R-module
U = Free_grp(Forg_set(M))
Let K be the ideal of R[U] generated by elements of the form a(v + u) - av - au, auv - (av)u, auv - v(au), u(v + w) - uv - uw, (u + v)w - uw - vw
Then R[U]/K ~= T(M)
Annoying.
R[FreeMonoid(S)] = T(FreeRModule(S)), since both have the same universal property.
Yeah that’s a subcase
You just need a fuckton of relations, but ironically K is a homogenous ideal
So that explains why the tensor algebra is graded from that construction
lmao
If M is generated by S subject to relations R', you can take R[FreeMonoid(S)]/(R'), where each relation R' is viewed as a degree-1 element of R[Free(S)].
Yeah
FYI I know almost nothing about this kinda stuff and it’s me mostly pulling shit out of my ass that seems to follow relatively intuitively
I was trying to work it out on my own and stumbled across this - kind of a question about functions in general.
Given an injection f: X -> Y, does there exist a surjection g: Y -> X?
I think the answer is yes but I’d like to make sure. My thought process went something like this: If f is injective, Y must have at least as many elements as X, which implies that X must have at most as many elements as Y. This is the same as saying there exists a surjection g: Y -> X since X must have at most as many elements as Y.
Is this true in general? It would imply that there always exists a homomorphism from a group to its subgroup, which ties this into my previous question.
Its universal property is basically saying K is in the kernel of every type of special morphism you want (e.g linear, symmetric, antisymmetric, etc.)
The answer is yes (for sets) unless X is empty and Y is non-empty.
And then there’s rings and Z into Q is epi but not surjective because fuck you
Ah that checks out, thanks
So does that imply that there’s always a homomorphism from a group to its subgroup?
Using notions like "as many elements as" is a bit dicey if X and Y can be infinite, since those notions are usually formalised using existence of injections and surjections (in other words, this lemma is a prerequisite for using those phrases with their intuitive meanings as you have, making the argument circular).
Definitely not a surjective homomorphism from any group to any subgroup. There will exist a surjective function, but there's no reason for it to be possible to choose it to also be a homomorphism.
(On the other hand, if you don't want the homomorphism to be surjective, then certainly - "map everything to the identity" defines a valid homomorphism between any two groups.)
The group S_3 and the subgroup of 3-cycles, which has order 3, is a counterexample.
@tough raven I have an idea
That makes sense, I totally ignored the homomorphism structure lmao
Assume we have ring R, and a free group F in finitely many letters.
Then if R is noetherian then so might R[F]
Because we have the multiplicative map R[F] -> R that sends f(x1… xn) to the sum of it’s leading coefficients
I have to ask: is there a particular goal all of this is leading up to?
And if we throw a left-ideal of R[F] into that map, it’s image is an ideal I think
R[G] for finitely generated G is noetherian iff R is
Well, if it was the free commutative monoid, then yes, R[F] is Noetherian (Hilbert's basis theorem).
But why do we care about that?
That leading coefficient map being an ideal map is how you can prove Hilbert basis
After proving that $\phi$ is a homomorphism, how do you compare the kernels of $\phi$ and $\sigma\phi$?
My initial thoughts are comparing the orders of them because the kernel of a mapping is a subgroup of the "domain" group in the mapping. i.e. if $\phi : G\rightarrow H$ then $Ker\phi\leq G$.
Soap_Opera
Let f and g be two maps, and the preimage of a set be denoted f^-1(S). Show (f \circ g)^-1(S) = g^-1( f^-1(S))
The kernel is the preimage of {e}
Here is what I understand from the definition...$ker\phi={x|\phi(x)=e}$ and $ker\sigma\phi={y|\sigma\phi(x)=e}$ so by that definition, we know that $ker\phi\in ker\sigma\phi$
Soap_Opera
Yep (although technically you should write \ker \phi \subseteq \ker \sigma \phi).
That's probably all they want for the first part.
Ah, good point
I'm still thinking about how to answer this. Was not ignoring your hint!
Write out using set builder notation :3
= {x : g(f(x)) in S}
$\ker\sigma\phi={g\in G | \sigma(\phi(g)) = e}$
Soap_Opera
I.e u in ker(sigma) such that u = phi(g)
Oh, good idea
The very definition of phi^-1(ker(sigma)) :3
If you want some excitement in your life
- The preimage of a subgroup of the codomain is a subgroup
- The preimage of a normal subgroup is normal if the map is surjective
good exercises
A common thing is “preimage of algebraic subobject under map is also the same type of object”
For algebra sorta objects
Like topologies are algebras in a way with union and intersection
Ok, so using your idea, $\ker\sigma\phi={g\in G | \sigma(\phi(g)) = e}={g\in G | \phi(g)\in ker\sigma}$ which would be the "preimage of the kernel of $\sigma$, but then how does that lead to comparing the kernels of each homomorphism?
Soap_Opera
If g is in ker phi then I'm not sure what can be said about sigma phi from there because it's not necessarily in the ker sigma phi
think about whats the definition of ker phi
ker phi is the set of all elements in G that map to the identity in H
Ugh, homomorphism means identity maps to identity of K
so if g is in ker phi then phi(g) is the identity yes
oh you already had this
So every element of ker phi is in ker sigma phi
yeah
yeah
From the first isomorphism theorem we have that $|\phi(G)|$ divides $|G|$ and $|H|$
Soap_Opera
But still not sure how to "compare" the kernels of the homomorphisms
wdym
The question says how are Ker phi and ker sigma phi related
subseteq
Yes
Is ker phi a subgroup of ker sigma phi technically?
You said it yourself here
yea
Would you like intuition?
The kernel of the composition is bigger than the kernel of the inner map
everything phi sends to the bin will be sent to the bin by sigma, but sigma could also send more things to the bin
This yes
The inner morphism kernel is sent to 0, but the composition kernel is just sent to the kernel of the SECOND map (a bigger set)
Ok, but if the second map is one-to-one, wouldn't it technically be smaller or the same size as the first map?
By the way, I'm not arguing with you here because you both know algebra way more than I do, I am genuinely trying to learn haha
No worries nobody is interpreting that as an argument
yes injective maps would have trivial kernels
so if sigma is injective nothing nonidentity is sent to the bin
Thank you @tender wharf and @dull ginkgo for your help!
has anyone read Lara Alcock's: how to think about abstract algebra? it looks like a good supplement to a standard abstract algebra textbook, something to help some of the concepts sink in a little further
hey i need some help on this
so we know that all G sets split into orbits
so they can be recognised as disjoint union of orbits
also we can split the e^sum into prod e^term
and expand each e^term into a sum
the only problem is i dont understand what the factorials do in the coefficients
like up until now i am not exactly clear on what we are trying to count
If we have the free monoid in finitely many characters, can we equip it with the lexicographic order, and is this order left/right multiplication invariant (depending on choice of the order direction)
u want a < b => xa < xb right
then yeah this is fine
I think you can just expand the right side and everything works out
okay maybe after the deleted reply of dary i think the factorial divisions rule out the repeated G/H types in the disjoint union
Not only that
expand !!?
Any G-set with k orbits will be contributed to by k! terms on the right
Then I’d have to read it from right-> left
wait uhh
Unless there are repeated orbits
In which case the left side gets smaller by the same factor
after writing e^sum as product e^term we can write each e^term as sum stuff
I'm defining the lexicographical ordering as "a = a_1...a_n, b = b_1...b_m, a < b iff a_i < b_i for the smallest i s.t. a_i \neq b_i". Using this you can read it left to right
now that stuff corresponds to the possibilities if isonorphic copies of orbits in the disjoint union right
so like we are just avoiding repition by dividing by that factorial?
No
okay
The abject horror in the fact that you can compute Gröbner basises over R[F_n] where F_n is the free monoid in n characters
keep ur alg-geo nonsense out of my beautiful channel
Consider the Z/6-set Z/2 ∪ Z/3
Never said it was commutative :3
okay
This can be Z/2 ∪ Z/3 or Z/3 ∪ Z/2
neither did I?
understandable
but what im doing is
splitting stuff up into isomorphic classes
so z/2 would be in a e^term series
or maybe im doing sth wrong
just as an aside this question fills me with fear
It's just unpacking
why it looks pretty cool
oh nvm it's just transitive G-sets
yeah
The coefficient of t^n on the right is the sum of ∏_k 1/[Aut(Xk) m!] over ordered m-tuples of transitive G-sets with total n elements
(then summed over m)
This website has a proof of hilbert basis theorem
Is this correct, I am a bit hesitant
is that aops
Yes
Because the m_i need not be increasing
You can slightly modify it though for it to be fine
But this proof seems incorrect
Particularly the last part about being for any j
Wish me luck, link or give any important starter info I should know before diving in
Looks like a good intro book, judging by the contents
A lot of people don't like Gallian
I read Gallian a long time ago when I was starting out and didn't like it but I don't remember why anymore lmao
I never read it
I'm forever a Dummit and Foote apologist 🫡
what about aluffi
Gallian looks like Fraleigh but slicker
artin seems pretty good
iirc group actions or something else were done weirdly in Gallian (maybe it was fraleigh idk). I had to TA from that book once.
jacobson mfers
How do I show that all elements of the automorphism group of S5 has only inner automorphisms?
This is the outline Rotman follows:
- If sigma in Aut(S_n) preserves transpositions then sigma is an inner automorphism

no idea how I'd think of that but I'll try to show that and then ig show all automorphisms preserve transpositions
We had this as HW problem and I think it came down to showing Out(G) is trivial via an Out(G)-action on the conjugacy classes of G
Oh wait no I had those mixed up
I think what croqueta said is the way to go
this is for another problem lol
https://mathweb.ucsd.edu/~asalehig/math200a-22-f-hw5.pdf
This HW set gives a way to show if for n>6
If you can derive that all automorphisms are inner (n!=2, n!=6) from what I said it is clear how one could have thought about it
well yeah you can just prove that automorphisms preserve transpositions (n!=2, 6)
I think Aut(S_2) = Inn(S_2)
It isn't true that Aut(S_n) = S_n for n=2,6 tho
im going through this book right now
im going through the Chapter 0 and havent even touched groups yet
same here, I am on problem 19
I tried my hand at a proof though
Well, brute forcing by listing all automorphisms works 
have fun abstract algebra is awesome
I have it too, I am progressing very slowly in this area of mathematics.
My first semester of abstract only went up to chapter 11. Hopefully that gives some context on a good pace
No, Aut(S_2) is trivial and Aut(S_6) = S_6 x C_2
Oh nvm u said isnt. I shouldn’t post while intoxicated
Trying to understand some wording. In the quote p is the permutation representation of an action . of a group G on a set A: "In particular an action of G on A may also be viewed as a faithful action of G/ker(p) on A." They're saying the map sending (g ker(p), a) to (g . a) ker(p) is a faithful action?
Or do they mean something else?
The action rho : G -> Sym(A) has a corresponding action rho’ : G/ker(rho) -> Sym(A) defined by rho’(g ker rho) = rho(g). It is faithful.
This is also known as the first isomorphism theorem
Nerd emoji
would it be correct to say that if G has no normal subgroups, an action of G on A must be either faithful or trivial?
An action of G on A is given by a homomorphism G-->Sym(A)
yes
the kernel is a normal subgroup
so the kernel must be G or the identity of G
i think that means my statement was correct
right?
thanks
No, Aut(S_6) = S_6 : C_2
A field is it should be commutative on both operations?
Let $H$ and $K$ be finite subgroups of $G$. Show that $|HK| = \frac{|H||K|}{|H \cap K|}$. $Instruction$: Let $m$ be the number of all different cosets of the form $hK$, where$ h \in H$. Show $|HK|=m|K|$. Then show that $hK = h'K$ holds for $h,h'\in H$ exactly when $h(H\cap K)=h'(H\cap K)$. From here conclude that $m = [H : H\cap K]$ and finally use Lagrange's theorem
OHHELLNAH
How do I show |HK| = m|K|
Usually I need to show equality of sets, where i can find a bijection or just prove subset + supset but these are not sets
What you can do is just show that HK is the union of those cosets. They all have size |K| and there are m of them.
(and cosets are disjoint)
Put a lil twist on that thang…
Ok i got that, what about the step "From here conclude that $m = [H : H\cap K]$ "
OHHELLNAH
I managed to prove that hK = h'K <=> h(H \cap K) = h'(H \cap K)
Right, so then the number of cosets hK is the same as the number of cosets h(H cap K)
Yeah how that follows from there
hK |-> h(H cap K) is a bijection, that's what you just showed
aa yes ty
I solved this problem by definined an R-bilinear map I x I -> R mapping (a,b) -> ab, then applying the universal property and showing that the resulting map is injective. One question, however, why do we need the ideal to be principal? I see why we need I to be an ideal, so that we get closure under multi. and addition but I have no idea why principality is necessary, I'd appreciate any idea (:
Let R = k[x, y] and I = (x, y)
Then consider the element
x(x)y - y(x)x
multiplying by xy gives
xy(x)xy - xy(x)xy = 0
No, I is not a principle ideal
right I see
Can we explicitly link "not being principal" with having nonzero torsion elements in I \otimes I? This feels like a counterexample which "just works because it does" atm
(Of course, to show that this is a counterexample, you also need to show that x (x) y - y (x) x is non-zero in I (x) I.
)
OH wait. D&F literally gives the reason in the next few exercises
Well, I think the better perspective is that if I is principle, then I is just isomorphic to R. So it's just R(x)R = R.
In general there's no reason to expect the tensor product of torsion free modules is torsion free
It's not true that I (x) I has torsion for any non-principal ideal of any integral domain, so perhaps not.
(Counterexamples include any non-zero ideal I of a Dedekind domain R. It can be shown (if I'm remembering correctly) with some effort that I (x) J is isomorphic to IJ (product of ideals) as R-modules, and the latter embeds in R and is hence torsion-free.)
Not terribly hard:
R - (x, -y)^t -> R^2 -(y,x)-> I -> 0
is a projective presentation of I. Tensoring with I gives
I -(x,-y)-> I^2 -> I(x)I -> 0
(x, -y) |-> x(x)y - y(x)x
And (x, -y) is not in I*(x, -y)
do we have any general strategies for showing that an element of a tensor product is not a simple tensor?
I suspect that this depends too much on the underlying modules we are working with, but I figured i'd ask anyway
You can try exhibiting a bilinear function with a domain that is more restricted than what its linearisation via the tensor product achieves
Admittedly this is like asking to determine if a single element alone is a basis element or not. It depends highly on the structure of the object, and especially upon how it’s given
I'm not quite sure how to go bilinear-map wise in this question, and I can't work "naively" because 2(x) 2 can't be factored as 4(1 (x) 1) or whatever. do you have any advice?
i foreshadowed this lol
2 (x) 2 can be
It’s like multiplication
2 (x) 2 = ?
wait the tensor is over the poly ring
(1 (x) 1) isn't in I \otimes I because 1 isn't in I
I guess you can think about the multiplication map
I(x)I -> I
a(x)b |-> ab
Tensor algebra my beloved
oh yeah
There is no more natural bilinear map on an ideal than multiplication :)
4+x^2 is irred in Z[x]
and 4+x^2 * 1 doesn't exist
because 1 isn't in I
i literally wrote 4+x^2 is irred in Z[x] o nmy page but forgot that multi. identity doesn't exist in the ideal
oh my god
thank you all
huh
Miz discovers multiplication is bilinear
It’s the “no more natural” part
Name a more natural map, I'll wait
Oh yeah the ideals are viewed as R-modules
Tensor product of R-algebras since they are closed under multiplication
and then you map the tensor algebra onto the ring
\textbf{Let $G$ be a finite group and $H \leq G$. Show that there exist elements $a, b \in G$ such that $a \not\in H$, $b \not \in H$, and $ab \not\in H$ if and only if $2|H| < |G|$}\
For => side im tryin to prove: $2|H| >= |G| \Rightarrow \forall a,b \in G$ $ a,b \in H$ or $ab \in H$
So from lagrange theorem and $2|H| \geq |G|$ follows that there are only 2 cosets (if $H \neq G$), so then i got 3 options: $a,b \in H$, $a,b \not\in H$ and $a\in H, b\not\in H$... How to prove that $a\in H, b\not\in H \Rightarrow ab\in H$?
OHHELLNAH
2|H| < |G| is equivalent to there is at least 3 cosets.
And we have a, b, ab not in H… how many cosets does that give us
Along the lines of this, we have the presentation for I as an R-module:
I =〈x, 2 | 2 x = x 2〉.
Hence I ⊗ I has the presentation
I ⊗ I =〈x ⊗ x, x ⊗ 2, 2 ⊗ x, 2 ⊗ 2 | (2 x - x 2) ⊗ x = (2 x - x 2) ⊗ 2 = 0, x ⊗ (2 x - x 2) = 2 ⊗ (2 x - x 2) = 0〉,
or
I ⊗ I =〈x ⊗ x, x ⊗ 2, 2 ⊗ x, 2 ⊗ 2 | x (x ⊗ 2) = 2 (x ⊗ x) = x (2 ⊗ x), 2 (x ⊗ 2) = x 2 ⊗ 2 = 2 (2 ⊗ x)〉.
So I ⊗ I is generated by those four simple tensors. Moreover, we can use these relations to move coefficients from 2 ⊗ 2 to x ⊗ 2 or 2 ⊗ x to x ⊗ x, with the result that every element of I ⊗ I has a unique representation of the form
p x ⊗ x + l x ⊗ 2 + m 2 ⊗ x + n 2 ⊗ 2,
with p in Z[X] and l, m, n in Z.
Now, in particular, for a = xp + 2m, b = xq + 2n, p,q in Z[X], m, n in Z, we have
a ⊗ b = pq x ⊗ x + pn x ⊗ 2 + mq 2 ⊗ x + mn 2 ⊗ 2.
This can be equal to x ⊗ x + 2 ⊗ 2 only if pn, qm are divisible by x (i.e., p,q are divisible by x), and then its standard form is
a ⊗ b = (pq + 2(p/x)n + 2(q/x)m) x ⊗ x + mn 2 ⊗ 2.
So pq + 2(p/x)n + 2(q/x)m = 1. But the latter is impossible for degree reasons unless pq = 0. But if p = 0 or q = 0, then the LHS is even and cannot be 1.
In summary, this was a big mistake, but at least I got some idea of how to compute explicitly in tensor products of ideals.
If a in H, b notin H, then you already have a in H, so you don't need to get ab in H.
This is not true.
Consider the cyclic group Z and the subgroup 3Z.
[3Z : Z] = 3
But (1 + 3Z) + (2 + 3Z) = 3Z
Unless you are allowing a = b
Oh wait finite group
Just swap with a different cyclic group for the same result
That should be allowed.
That's not what you're asked to prove though. If a is in H, then you're already done
What you should be proving is that if neither a nor b are in H, then ab is in H. (Use that a and b most be in the same coset)
To prove:
$\exists a,b \in G$ $a,b \not\in H$ and $ab \not\in H \Leftrightarrow 2|H| < |G|$
So I thought for the right side I will prove the contrapositive and contrapositive is:
$2|H| >= |G| \Rightarrow \forall a,b \in G$ $ a,b \in H$ or $ab \in H$
Is that not correct?
OHHELLNAH
if by "a,b in H" you mean a or b is in H, then that's correct
hmm no I mean a and b in H
Remember the negation of
"P and Q" is "not P or not Q", as opposed to "not P and not Q"
So the opposite of "a and b not in H" is "a or b in H"
yeah i see what i did wrong, i just coupled a,b together and forgot the and between
Oh HELLLLLLL Nahhh!!!'
!rotate
Is there a command to rotate these images?
My question is: how does one see HK = S4
Please read only the last paragraph in pg 94 and its rest in pg95
,rotate
I’m confused at how |HK| = 24 implies HK= S4
Because it doesn’t check if HK is a subgroup before concluding that
,rotate
,rotate
Please read only the last paragraph in pg 94 and its rest in pg95
I’m confused at how |HK| = 24 implies HK= S4
Because it doesn’t check if HK is a subgroup before concluding that
HK is a subset of S_4 of the same size as S_4 so it must be S_4
,rotate
What do they mean here by a "group homomorphism" that dosent agree on G
Like if it's a group homomorphism then it has to agree on G right 💀?
agree means equal
So you want two homomorphisms $\phi_1, \phi_2\colon G \to K$ such that they agree on $H$ and don't agree on all of $G$. So you want for all $h \in H$ we have $\phi_1(h) = \phi_2(h)$ (agree on $H$) but there exists $g \in G$ such that $\phi_1(g) \neq \phi_2(g)$ (don't agree on all of $G$)
Spamakin🎷
Okay so I somehow I need to look at cosets of H or sth?
Not necessarily
Hmm so what's the way
I’ll give you a hint. If we have a group G^2 (direct product), we can find an easy one :3
What are two important morphisms from G^2 into G?
Uh projection?
Diagonal ?
Yep
Uhhh
There you go
Is that not what you’re looking for
Or is it looking for an explicit example for each K and H
I mean if it helps this is from the group actions section
Okay in that case
Here’s a silly solution:
Consider the two group actions of G on G/H, one is left multiplication and the other is conjugation
Both are therefore maps from G to Sym(G/H)
but H is closed by multiplication
So any element of H acting on H in both ways is an element of H
Wait let me refine that
Sym(G/H)?
Symmetry group of the set of left-cosets
Actually I think they are equal
or not well defined
Yeah it’s not well defined, shit
g(xH)g^-1 is not necessarily a left coset
But you can consider two sided cosets xHy
Oh O_o
actually there has to be a better way to do this
Let me try to think of a better example
OH! (G/H)^2
send G to G/H, and then we have two injections into (G/H)^2, a left one to (x, 0) and a right one to (0,x)

The kernel of both is H, so they agree on H (just sent to 0) but differ everywhere else
Oh fuck H isn’t normal
I am not doing too great, usually I’m rather okay with this stuff lmao
Probably
Like there are 2 bits to this
Ok
2.23
I was able to do a via realising that if an element of one copy if maps to another copy then the entire one copy maps to another
So in constructing an H automorphism map x to its copy and vice versa
But keep all the other elements in their respective copies
But it would never be a g automorphism
For part (b)
Yeah
I see
Oh wait i think it somehow includes conjugating with an element of the centralizer of H ?
Or sth
But what if there isn’t any
Yes,
Okay......I thought I was onto sth 💀
The normalizer is the stabilizer of H under the conjugation action on sets of elements of G
