#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 249 of 1
but yeah, I used that if |G| x=0 then x=0
also that the action on Z is trivial ofc
For that part, I did this: consider an exact sequence 0-->A-->B-->C-->0, if B^G-->C^G is not surjective then I can find x in B setminus B^G such that f(x) is in C^G, and gx-x is not zero for some g in G. Then gx-x is in the image of A and since the action of G on A is trivial gx-x=g^2x-gx=...=g^nx-g^(n-1)x, adding all up gives n(gx-x)=g^n x-x
and if n is the order of g, this will give n*y=0 for some y
also I believe the claim that H^2(G, Z)=H^1(G, C^x) is the same as saying that H^2(G, C)=0, considering this sequence?
Okay sure, but you know that is 0 too
no idk how to prove it
This shouldn't be true. I don't think H^2 of a perfect group is always 0
I can quote theorems, but is there a straightforward way of doing this?
Just curious, is there a way to "detect" if certain infinite-dimensional vectorspace is a dual of another vectorspace?
the only restriction is cardinality of a basis
For (3)->(1), what was the reasoning behind hopping in the quotient field ?
Oh, makes sense
I think duals of infinite vector spaces tend to grow, but there is an explicit formula which I don't remember, try rederiving it. Then your question is "which cardinals are of this form", which is set theory
I guess one issue with this is that we don't have canonical morphism from the space V^* to V.
the dual of V is F^k where k is the dimension and F is the base field
Ah, it's because the quotient field is a vector space over R
Nvm about this, I forgot that we don't have canonical V^* -> V for fin dim as well
also if B is the cardinality of a basis for F^k I think you should have BF=F^k. If F^k>F then I think this implies B=F^k, but don't quote me on this one idk for sure
like when F=Z/2Z I believe you are asking which infinite cardinals are of the form 2^k
I could use a little help understanding. In the proof for the corollary, I'm not seeing how a-b, ab in R[a,b] implies they are integral over R from the proposition above it.
Oh! At the very least we have that R[a+b] is contained in R[a,b], which is module finite.
So condition 3 is satisfied, which means a+b is integral over R
Same thing for ab
Whole lotta rubber duck moments today
What's the automorphism group of cyclic groups
For prime cyclic groups it's just -1 cyclic group.
Don't know what it would be for cyclic groups of compound n
well for cycling group of nm where n m are coprime, I would guess it's just the product lf the automorphism groups of the cyclic groups pf n m
Cyclic groups are one where operations are like additions, right?
yes
multiplication.
it is a group of order phi(n)
eulers totient function
I see
Yeah you can approach this elementary number theoretically
phi(p^k) = p^(k-1) * (p-1)
And since it has primitive roots, the automorphism group is the corresponding cyclic group
Yes
Indeed
Generally the automorphism group of a cyclic group isn't going to be cyclic, though
Explain
C12 = C3 * C4, its automorphism group is C2 * C2
C2 * C2 is not C4.
You were probably thinking you could decompose any integer into its prime power factors then use what you said previously, right?
the automorphism group of a cyclic group is a product of cyclic groups. Via that prime power equation you used.
Yea
It's just that the orders of Aut(C(p^k)), Aut(C(q^k)) might not be coprime, so you can't use the chinese remainder theorem
Finite abelian groups.
What about the automorphism group pf finite abelian groups

C(2)C(2) would have more complexity.
I forget the name of that group but uts automorphism group is S(3) I think.
Permutation group
You get interactions from the product of the same groups.
Idk if you get some from product of powers lf the same prime
Like C(2)C(4)
I don't think you get anything from C(4)C(9) for example.
Aut(C(4)C(9)) I would guess is just Aut(C(4))Aut(C(9))
or any coprime n m
it's been way too long since i've done module theory. im trying to derive the module decomposition of finite dim vector space V into a F[x] module (using an operator T) via p(x)v=p(T)v.
structure theorem gives it as a sum of F[x]/(pi(x))
why must pi(x) divide the min poly of T m(x)? if pi(x)=m(x)q(x)+r(x), then we get r(x)v=0 for all v in the ith module. but im assuming we want to show that r=0. and i'm not sure how to do that.
also, can anyone give the fastest derivation to get to the decomp into F[x]/(x-lambdai)^m for the jordan blocks?
It's a nice exercise to show that a monoid with either right or left cancellativity, and is finite, is a group
Okay, so I now have the tools needed to do (*), but I'm running into a weird issue.
For now, I'll just be looking at k[X]
So the homomorphism mentioned measns L is ring finite, so there is a v in L s.t. L=k[v]. But...what if this v is an element in L that is not a root of any polynomial?
It seems like a silly question, but all (*) says is that k is a subfield of the field L.
There are 51 groups of order 32
Any other words, how do we know v has to be integral over k?
there are a lot of prime power groups
there’s some weird facts i’ve seen with like the number of 2-groups
like 99% of all groups of order at most 1024 are of order 1024 or something
oh actually, up to 2000
Seems the number of groups grows by a square root exponential
There's only 1 group of order p for each prime p
Yooo guys so I was doing some intro Group Theory exercises in Dummit and Foote
and I noticed something strange\cool
I think the group of n-th roots of unity is isomorphic to Z/nZ?
It is
Because multiplying them is essentially just modular arithmetic
yep
ye
Un is isomorphic to Zn is isomorphic to Z/nZ
it's denoted by U_n?
I suppose more accurately it's (Z/nZ)^+
what is Un here? most things that i know that are denoted U_n aren’t cyclic groups
but i searched up and i dont think there is like a uniform notation for the group of nth roots of unity
oh weird, i’ve never seen the group named that way :P
we have groups of unity, groups of unreal when? 
which book is this?
monster group
I've seen \mu_n but not U_n
U_n if anything means the unitary group or group of units of Z/nZ to me lol
Not sure about last part. “Defining phi r = r phi” makes it an R algebra? Where is this coming from and whats going on here
What is phi r? An action on Hom from R from the right side?
Can we use that to show r . (Phi1phi2) = phi1(r. Phi2) sort of thing?
I'm not entirely sure what they're trying to communicate, but you can just define
(rphi)(x) = r(phi(x))
(4) is proving that HomR(M,M) is an R-algebra
They already defined action of R on Hom and showed that it makes it an r module in a previous part
What is (2) is the relevant question I guess
I was doing the following exercise in Jacobson's Basic Algebra 1 (section 1.8, exercise 6): Let $G_1$ and $G_2$ be simple groups. Show that every normal subgroup of $G= G_1 \times G_2, \neq G, \neq 1$, is isomorphic to either $G_1$ or $G_2$. I feel that this is wrong? If $G_1$ and $G_2$ are abelian, the direct product is abelian, so every subgroup is normal? I'm also struggling with the non-abelian case
ImHackingXD
Does there definition of R-algebra include a bimodule or something. I'm not sure why they would need to define a right module structure. But indeed phi r = r phi would follow from it being an R-algebra.
Their definition of A an R-algebra is a ring with 1 that has homomorphism R -> A so that f(R) is in center of A
Have you tried looking at an example. Indeed every subgroup being normal does not contradict every subgroup being isomorphic to either G1 or G2
Airtight, then they should define
R -> A by
r |-> (x |-> rx)
A possible hint is to consider the image of the subgroup under the projections G1xG2 -> G1 and G1xG2 -> G2
Yea this is what ive seen so that makes more sense to me
In (4) they didnt even give any ring homomorphism so i just dont understand what theyre trying to do
For 3, cant i just use the example already given in the book previously, even though it was showing it as an example of a ring hom thats not a mod hom
The example was for F[x] and the map was f(x) -> f(x^2) being a ring hom but not F[x]-mod hom
So … can i just consider F[x] as an abelian group and then just use that same example for this question
But it would also be nice to see another example
Ok I saw an example with C and complex conjugation
Does anyone have an example where the module M is not the ring R
A module is a ring homomorphism R → End(G) for G a group
So take two R-modules M, N with an R-module morphism and pick two wildly different group endomorphisms on M, N
Then you get two R[x]-modules, and the R-module morphism is likely not an R[x]-module morphism
What is End(G) in this case ? Ring of homomorphisms of G im guessing?
Yup, the ring is (f+g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) and (fg)(x) = f(g(x))
Right, ty
I also havent seen that way of defining a module before. Its insightful, thanks
It’s incredibly useful later on too!
Awesome, yea it seems like that formulation could be really useful
An R-module is an additive functor from a pre-additive category with one object to Ab and R-module morphisms are natural transformations
This is Atiyah-MacDonald Prop. 9.6. Why does the grey part hold? 👀
The localization a_m is an ideal of A_m. It's equal to the whole ring iff it contains a unit s. By clearing the denominator, assume that s in a. Then it's a unit in the localization iff s in A - m, hence a is not contained in m
What do you mean by "clearing the denominator"?
We know a_m contains elements of the form x/s with x in the ideal a.
Yeah, so multiply by s to isolate x in a
It'll still be a unit in a_m since the product of two units is a unit
I am finding some popular applications of the group GL(n,F). Also, my teacher said something about it is used in linear transformation
If V is a finite vector space, T is in GL(V) and f is a permutation of V such that fTf^-1 is also in GL(V), is it true that f is necessarily also in GL(V)?
Is this a good channel to ask about representation theory?
Yes
#advanced-algebra might also be appropriate
It's not really a super difficult thing
In this context I mean
Yeah, it might go in either. Idk, what your question is
I'll post it in a bit
Either is probably fine, lots of "not difficult" questions in #advanced-algebra
I was just trying to look around at where I could post kt
For part (c) why can't I just pick the trivial proper subgroup as a counterexample?
H_0 is not defined?
Ah okay. So here they probably meant to include 0 for the definition of the H_k's you think?
Yeah I guess
That makes sense. Thanks!
Np
What is the induced representation? H is a subgroup of G
G is finite
I'm thinking that you can take rho in Hom(H, C^x) and consider g-->prod sigma(g) where sigma runs through the characters of G that agree with rho at H
Well you can always induce reps from subgroups to the whole thing
essentially given a $\mathbf CH$ module $V$ you form $\mathbf CG \otimes_{\mathbf CH}V$
Crystalline Potato
You can also describe this explicitly after choosing a set of coset representatives
Could you write it explicitly?
I am familiar with the classical transfer
Ig you can take duals to that
Any group whose order is a prime power has nontrivial center
This comes from the class equation
You can also kinda brute force it. Like if the group isn't cyclic, then every element has order 3, so now you're looking at a group of order 9 generated by two elements of order 3. There aren't very many things that can happen
hi! i just started learning about rings and fields. my question is if every integral domain can be embedded in a field, then is it also true that every field is a field of quotients of some integral domain? for instance if i am given the field of real numbers R, can i identify the integral domain for which R is its field of quotients such that R is the smallest field containing it? or is such an existence of integral domain actually necessary or not?
So, yes. Every integral domain embeds into a field and every field is the field of fractions for some integral domain.
But that integral domain is not uniquely determined.
A field is an integral domain, and a field is it's own field of fractions, so you could just pick the field itself.
If we consider for example the field Q, then it's the field of fractions of Z, but also of Q and of Z[1/2] and a ton of other integral domains.
ohhh i see then what about for R? ive been trying to think about an integral domain D ⊂ R, such that R is its field of quotients, like R = {ab^-1 | a,b in D, b≠0} but i can only think D = R
like in the case of Q i can find Z ⊂ Q for which Q is the field of quotients for Z but I can't find such a convenient proper subset D of R. is that in any way related to how R has a nontrivial subfield already and hence the integral domain for which R is its field of quotients must be R itself
i am just jumping into conclusions here i have no basis for what i just said
R doesn't have a "ring of integers" like this
It's a bit hard to come up with other examples.
One thing that should work is take a trancendence basis {xi} of R over Q, then let D be the integral closure of Q[{xi}] in R.
Another thing I think should work would be take the subrings of R that don't contain 1/2, and pick a maximal one using Zorn's. Pretty sure that should work, but haven't checked
I'm kinda stuck on this one. Since A is a Dedekind domain, we can write c(fg) = p_1 ... p_k, etc. using factorization into prime ideals. But I don't see why localizing at each maximal ideal would help. Any further hints?
Is ring of integers only defined for either
- Finite extension of Q, or
- Non-archimedean local field?
oh okie thanks for clearing the confusions i will look them up
Heywood Jablome
Is this the standard way to see this or is there a simpler way?
Yes there's a simpler way
Q(...) is formed of rational functions of the z_i, \overline z_i
(With nonzero denominator)
The conjugate of such a rational function is another such rational function, QED.
You do not need to choose a basis
another similar way is to use that Q(...) is the smallest subfield of C containing z_i's and z_ibar's.
if we have a finite group $G$ and two subgroups $H,N$ of $G$, can we have $G/N \cong G/H$ but $H \not \cong N$
Y. Beer
Yes
can you give an explicit example, because I suspect as much
If you're struggling to find an example, here's a hint: Try ||G = Z_4 x Z_2||
thank you
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Induced_representation
See the first construction here
In group theory, the induced representation is a representation of a group, G, which is constructed using a known representation of a subgroup H. Given a representation of H, the induced representation is, in a sense, the "most general" representation of G that extends the given one. Since it is often easier to find representations of the smalle...
It’s defined for any global field
when i have a group G with an operation +, is this correct ? for every g in G there are x,y in G such that x+y=g
Yes
sorry with the addition that x≠g and y≠g
Then it isn't true
Try the simplest group you can think of
(To check if it's true or not)
The most trivial group possible
like with only the e?
Yes
yeah you are right
Sure. Is that a group? And does this hold?
what more a group needs to have so the statement to be true ?
What about the next simplest group possible?
What's the next smallest group apart from the trivial group
This line of thinking will answer your question for you if you choose to follow it
oh yeah sorry
So does it hold in the group with two elements?
it does not, right ? cause 0+1=1 and we cant achieve the 1 with an other way
actually we can with 1+0 but you know what i mean
Yeah I agree
OK so it doesn't work for those two groups
Does it work for the group with three elements, Z mod 3?
{0, 1, 2} let's say
Try it with g = 1
then 2+2=1 so we can
Aha yes indeed
So I'm going to observe something
g = 1. Let's say h = 2 just choosing a name for it
so g = h + (g - h), right?
What do you get from this
i am not sure... 😛
I am going to leave you to think about what this means.
maybe that if h is not the identity, we are good ?
oh yeah so if we have one more element aside from g and e we are good, right ?
because h isnt e so (g - h) cant be e either and h isnt g so (g - h) cant be g either so everything good
what is a chain of ideals? is it a chain in the sense of a partial order on R defined by $\subseteq$?
esca (@ with reply)
ok ty
how is it an equivalence relation? what is there to guarantee that $a-a\in S$, if S is just some arbitrary subset of R?
esca (@ with reply)
You are right, indeed you would at least need 0 to be in S.
In fact you would need S to be an additive subgroup in general.
I think it's likely that this was mentioned elsewhere, else this is a rather large mistake.
alright thanks. i didnt see it mentioned anywhere but I'll check again
maybe I'm just confused about definitions. But if Z/2Z acts on Z/3Z, then shouldn't you have (1+1)·x=1·x+1·x which forces 1·x=0?
Because 0=0·x=(1+1)·x
"Z/2Z acts on Z/3Z" doesn't specify that the action has to be something that's meaningful in terms of arithmetic operations in Z/3Z.
I am talking about a Z/2Z-module structure on Z/3Z (see the last line of the screenshot I provided)
ah okay
yeah I rechecked the definition of G-module
I think that's a "module over a group", rather than viewing Z/2Z as a ring.
So you just need a group homomorphism from C2 into Aut(C3).
yeah, thanks. I was thinking that the G-action should also be distributive (as in (g+h)·x=g·x+h·x) but that's not true, you just want g·(a+b)=g·a+g·b
The notion makes more sense when G is written multiplicatively so instead of a distributive law to the left there's just the associative g·(h·x) = (gh)·x.
also, it's not into Aut(C3), its just Hom(C3, C3)
(I think)
like you could consider the action g·x=0 for all g and x
When a group G acts on X, each particular g·_ always needs to be invertible -- because its inverse must be the action of g^-1.
right, you also need associativity. Good point 👍
Let $G$ be a group and let $S$ be a subset of $G$. Suppose $a\sim b$ iff $ab^{-1} \in S$ is an equivalence relation on $G$, show that $S$ is a subgroup.
thewizardofOU
kind of funny lol
clearly associativity carries over from G. we have
-
$a\sim a$ therefore $aa^{-1}=e\in S$, which gives us the identity axiom;
-
$a\sim b \implies b\sim a$ therefore $ab^{-1}\in S\implies ba^{-1}\in S$, which gives us the inverse axiom;
-
and $a\sim b\land b\sim c\implies a\sim c$ therefore $ab^{-1}\in S\land bc^{-1}\in S\implies ac^{-1}\in S$, which gives us closure
esca (@ with reply)
nice
there's a weird correspondence always and I'm not sure whether it's just mathematical coincidence or some crazy category thing I don't understand or what
reflexivity - symmetry - transitivity
yeah its like one to one lol
identity - inverses - closure
and for metric spaces
d(x,x)=0, symmetry, triangle inequality
positivity is kinda extra
Definitely not the first place I've seen it happen
It is indeed a category thing, but it is a little complicated to describe. For example a metric space is a small category enriched over the poset of nonnegative reals
damn
In category theory, a branch of mathematics, an enriched category generalizes the idea of a category
I think I'll stop there
who decided categories weren't general enough 😭
whats the partial order here? order of distance of pairs of points?
The partial order on the reals is the one you’re used to
0 <= 1, pi <= 5
Every poset is a category in a natural way
Enriched categories are actually very common - for example it is common to consider the abelian group of homomorphisms between abelian groups / modules / vector spaces etc
as in the total order right? sorry if this is a dumb question lol
But in that guise it isn't too different from just a normal category; it can be much harder lol
is there a reason we're calling it a partial order rather than total
Might be a good idea to ask follow-ups in #category-theory in case we go off topic
It is a total order tbf lol
There is no problem
I guess categorically poset is more natural than toset
I would agree
And being a toset is just a condition than R happens to satisfy
i guess im asking if the category thing you described is just due to nonnegative reals inheriting some general property of partial orders
What's the product that makes metric spaces a monoidal category?
The usual one would be the cartesian product
The general property is being a category
Ah hmm
ah okay thanks
Specific distance (euclidean vs max vs sum) doesn't matter?
Good question, hmm
I think any of those will produce a monoidal category. I’m not sure if there is a standard one. I doubt the category of metric spaces & continuous maps is particularly nice
Yeah fair enough
The product equipped w any two of these are homeomorphic
Since they are equivalent metrices on R^2
Ye ik, just not isometric
Yeah
But yeah I mean having only isometries would be very restrictive ig
Well like every map becomes an embedding I suppose
Good point! Perhaps we instead need the category of metric spaces & maps which do not increase distance
Well max and sum are isometric in R^2 maybe lol
ah hmm
yeah I didn't think about that
given G = S_3, H = {(12), (123)}, it follows that the normalizer of H in G does not contain H, correct?
my reasoning is that (12) (123) (12) = (132) != (123) so (12) is not in N(H)
just want a sanity check
It took me a second to realise that H is not a subgroup and rather a random set
I must admit I haven’t seen the notion of the normaliser of a non-subgroup very often
But yes, I suppose if we were to extend the definition in a straightforward way that would be correct.
I would advise against using the name H for something that isn’t a subgroup, it’s quite misleading
im using the notation from Dummit and Foote lol
this is an exercise in there
its more clear with context, but the phrasing still has some issues
this is in section 2.2.
like, obviously if H is not a subgroup of G, then H is not a subgroup of N(H) by transitivity of <=
they meant that H is not a subset of N(H)
Well that's a fairly straightforward way of proving that lmao
just get rid of the identity
Oh wait
I flipped the inclusion lol
what?
ignore me I'm crazy
Let A be an abelian category. Must there always exist a ring R (if the answer depends on whether its commutative/unital or not I'd like to know it) and a functor F : A-->R-mod such that F(x) is isomorphic to F(y) if and only if x is isomorphic to y?
mitchell embedding theorem gives you a fully faithful exact functor. that might work
Oh, how is ring of integers defined on global field?
That only works for small categories, and I'm not sure how you would use it here
I do wonder why ring of integers are only undefined for Archimedean fields out of number theoretic fields then.
locally small could work
you basically "cut out" the bit of the category you want
Locally small means every object is contained in a small subcategory?
Ah ok
if f is an isomorphism from x to y, Ff is an isomorphism of Fx to Fy. conversely if you have an isomorphism of Fx to Fy the fullness of F guarantees there is an isomorphism of x to y
yes this is true
And F is?
by cut out I mean take a small subcategory
of A
the fully faithful exact functor given by the embedding theorem
we're not using the fact that F is exact here so maybe this theorem is overkill but
But the embedding theorem doesn't work in general?
what's the context of the question anyway
when I've used the embedding theorem to do proofs it's only being used on a set's worth of objects
otherwise you just need a full functor from A to R-Mod. Not sure if that always exists
I mean reading the proof of the embedding theorem from the Wikipedia article, they use that A is small from the very first line
Namely, they consider the category L of left exact functors A-->Ab
and the ring R is this thing
which is an hom set
if A is not small, there is no reason why Hom_L(I, I) should be a ring
actually all abelian categories are locally small by definition
so idk why you brought that up
is $I_1, I_2,\dots$ presumed to be infinite? otherwise this doesnt seem right
esca (@ with reply)
also how do i get the slightly fancy looking capital i
$\mathcal I$
ah ty
if it were finite, how could it be strictly increasing?
consider $\mathbb{Z}/6\mathbb{Z}, \mathbb{Z}/3\mathbb{Z}$
esca (@ with reply)
in the sense that you have a sequence of ideals, i.e., a map from N into the powerset of your ring
i guess, idk
like, finitely many distinct terms
its gotta be eventually constant if you want it to be strictly increasing, which is a contradiction
is this not a valid sequence
it would be 6Z, 3Z, 3Z, 3Z,...
They meant infinite strictly increasing sequence in the theorem
The ... was meant to signify that it is infinite
ok i see, thanks yall
okay yeah this is clear to me now thanks
yes sorry I was sleepy
I think you were confusing the notion of using FM "locally", i.e. taking the abelian subcat generated by the objects you care about and "locally small" as in the category theoretic term
Im a bit confused on what's meant by "continuously connected" here
I think they mean path connected
No idea tho
This is the really a math term afaik (nor does googling it give any results)
Yeah I couldn't really get anything on google either
The group here is the rotation group SO(3) for context
SO(3) is path connected so that doesn't make sense, but also SO(3) is defined to be the subgroup of O(3) of matrices with det 1, so it seems like it's asking you to prove the path component of the identity in O(3) is SO(3)
That's my best guess
I see. Thank you
Do multiplication tables help in any way of finding normal subgroups? Just curious.
Not really
Do multiplication tables help with anything
Cayley tables for groups aren't very helpful in general 
they're a little useful sometimes for making upper bounds on stuff, but yeah not really
Ig if you already have a suspected normal subgroup in mind you can colour each coset with the same colour to verify that the quotient table exists
I wonder what the complexity of deciding whether or not a group is cyclic is?
So the decision problem would be: given a cayley table for a finite group, accept iff it's cyclic.
Perhaps assuming it is a group
So you choose an element, check what subgroup it generates (which is O(|G|)) and then check if that is the whole group (which is O(|G|)). If not you continue with some element not already checked? Is that the idea?
There are some tricks from then on but I'm too lazy to work them out properly
But my guess is it'd be O(|G|^2) which is indeed O(n) if n is the size of the input (roughly |G|^2)
A = []
while there are elements not in A:
Pick element x ∉ A
For each n:
compute x^n
If x^n ∈ A, next iteration
Inefficient asf ew
This is O(n) though
I think if you have some tricks you could get it to O(|G| log |G|)
Oh I mean O(|G|)
Wait I underestimated some stuff
Did not underestimate
Hmm is it though?
computing x^n is actually O(|G|^2) in the lookup right
Like if we have x^n-1, looking up the product is O(|G|^2)
Well whatever I'm so shite at complexity theory it'd be better just to ask an expert
Oh I assumed multiplication would be constant time and everything else is instant
The input is the cayley table so you have to look up the products
Wait why is looking up the product O(|G|^2)
If the elements are just {0, …, n-1} then it's very quick
And if you have to convert between the elements and the index then it's still just additional O(|G|)
I mean there is no objective answer here, but if a list lookup is O(n) in the length of the list, then the table is a list of |G|^2 elements
Oh the input table is just an unordered list of tuples (g, h, gh)?
In my mind it was like an n×n array of indices in {0, …, n-1}
I ve been stuck on this no 11 excercise of Dummit Foote
Before this there was an excercise that proved many equivalent consequences of a solvable group
Here it is
I am supposed to use this i guess
I was thinking to use iv consequence and consider H intersect N_1 but what if it's empty
You are presumably familiar with the isomorphism theorem SN/N iso S/(S n N)? If I'm not mistaken, that is the key.
(Where S is any subgroup of G and N is a normal subgroup of G)
Indeed there is short proof using this
So together with Boytjies hint, another point is that ||H has to intersect one of the N_ts||
Okay this part seems non trivial to me using the second iso thm we consider SN/N iso S/(S intersect N) for each N
Is this the right step
What is S and what is N? And what is the common overgroup G? You need to choose appropriate things here
I deliberately didn't tell you what good choices for S and N were
Oh I meant H is for S right?
And N is the one in the iv consequences of 8 no
But the factors of it are not simple
I mean the N_i+1/N_i
Idt I still have the right intuition for this
A further hint: consider a minimality condition
What is a minimalty condition
Something being as small as possible
Let t be minimal such that (some property)
What exists
I'm going to leave this to you now
🥲👍 ok
Maybe I'll be back for help
What does it actually mean for a group to be solvable tho
Like the book just presented this weird def
Idk what's it supposed to do
The original motivation comes from a polynomial being solvable in radicals iff it has solvable Galois group. So I suppose that's what it's "supposed to do"
But in general it's just a group "built" out of abelian groups, so many properties of abelian groups extend nicely
Hmm okay
They said this in the book but that part is after fields
And I am not even through groups yet
C.f. Nilpotent groups, which are super duper built out of Abelian groups
What's C.f
conferre, meaning "also look at" or "compare with"
Ok 👍
Also one more thing i would like to ask ..out of the three consequences given here would it be possible to do this no 11 without knowing them
Like not directly involving them at all
Idk but it would be less straightforward. I would suggest just thinking about the hints we gave.
Ok thank you for the help so far @coral spindle and @rocky cloak
Oh did I have to consider the minimal normal subgroup of G that is also a subgroup of H
there must exist like such cause If not then just take H
?
Maybe try intersecting the subnormal series with H and see what you get
Wait what is a subnormal series now....I only know composition series
It's just that chain of normal subgroups
Also I think this idea works cause now we know that as G is solvable all it's composition factors are prime
I would get a subnormal series of H
But I don't k ow if the factor conditions still would hold
You seem to have forgotten a hint
Minimality?
Also is this right?
Try it and see
So using this minimal subgroup with the given property we can form a composition series all of whose factors as prime order
Then uhh
Okay so proving this to be abelian like any other thing i consider the commutator of elements in this minimal subgroup
Okay so this commutator would belong in its undergroup? In the composition series
I guess so
Now consider the conjugation of it's undergroup
As S is normal in G (minimal normal non trivial subgroup of G which is also a subgroup of H)
Then if N normal in S then gNg^-1 is also normal in S? right
Considering that fact that this inner automorphism fixes S
Now
For all such g , commutator is in gNg^-1
So commutator is in the intersection of gNg^-1
Oh this intersection is normal in G and it satisfies the conditions
So it's smaller than S
Which is not possible
So it's trivial right
And the commutator of any two elements this given is trivial
so S is abelian?
@coral spindle is this right?
This doesn't make sense to me
Okay 🥲
I have a suggestion. Write down the relevant info (the hints & the theorem you found to be relevant) and come back when you think you have a complete proof. Don't bash it out in discord messages – write it up when you think you have a complete proof.
Maybe i messed up
I have taken the time to write what I came up with in latex
Browassup
Is this correct
Should I brute force 4.2?
Like I used the theorem of subgroup having index 2 is normal but I didn't dwell into Z(S_3) or subgroups of order other than 3 yet
S_3 and D_6 are isomorphic
and take your favourite generator of the cyclic 3 group
Now Z_S_3 is trivial
U can just use the dihedral relations rs=sr^{-1}
How? S_3 has 6 elements and D_6 has 12
Oh D_3 i mean
By your notation
Mines a bit different 😅
Also there's a different way
Conjugacy classes in permutations are dependent on their cycle structure
So if you have a single transposition in a normal subgroup
Then you get all the transpositions in that
So it becomes the whole group
@chilly ocean
Oh apologies, I'm not into conjugacy classes yet
You lose me a little on where x and y come from or why prime index is relevant.
But something that would work is to consider [S, S] as a subgroup of S.
This is a lot more complicated then it needs to be though, but that's okay.
Oh I meant g(ab)g^-1 can be any (cd) you like
Hello algebruhists I was doing this problem
and I just couldn't prove the 2nd part of the problem
because it was just so obvious I didn't know where to start 
like obviously the order of (a, b) is the lcm of |a| and |b|
x,y come from S ... because I need to prove that it's abelian
[x,y] is just xyx^-1y^-1
Yeah, so you're looking at the normal subgroup generated by [x, y] ?
Then that would make sense
Yes, that's what you want to prove
So "it's undergroup" means the normal subgroup generated by it?
As S is normal in G we can write a composition series of G including it right?
Yes
So I take that series
N is just the one that's immediately contained in it
It can be {1} too
Okay, so N is an arbitrary maximal subgroup of S
Okay.... 👍
But how do you then know that [x, y] is in N?
Sure, then I follow
So it's okay?
Yes, it checks out
Well firstly (a,1) and (1,b) commute
I agree
Here's the proof I had in mind:
Let t be minimal such that H cap N_t is nontrivial.
Then H cap Nt = (H cap Nt) / (H cap N[t-1]) < Nt/N[t-1]
Ah
I had the same in mind
Yeah this is great
I don't know, when boytjie said sth minimal the most obvious thing i could think of is that set
Maybe cause I am not very fluent in iso thm results
We mentioned the iso theorem & I hinted that you wanted t minimal
Now notice that (a,b)^m is just (a^m,1), (1,b^m) = (a^m,b^m)
If it's the identity then both the coordinates are identity
Now I think you can just verify the definition of LCM
And use the fact that order is minimal
I.e., use the frikking definitions!!!!!!!!!!
that's it?
I guess that's what I did in my head and I just assumed "it's too trivial where do I even begin" 
Just to make sure, in dihedral groups, we have to rotate in the way we have numbered the polygon's vertices (if we visualise rotation)?
Because I get two different results if I compose it with flip
It doesn't matter; we get the same result up to isomorphism
That is: if you construct the dihedral group one way or the other, you get isomorphic groups anyway.
Is there a way to construct a vector space such that the size of its basis is of any arbitrary cardinality?
**
Also if this problem is not suited here I might aswell move it to wherever you guys would recommend
Wow okay maybe it is
Thanks for the heads up
Yes. To elaborate on what Terra was saying, let X be any set and consider the vector space over the field k consisting of functions f : X → k such that f(x) = 0 for all but finitely many x in X. This is a vector space of dimension |X|.
In fact, up to isomorphism of course this is the only vector space of dimension |X|.
Yeah I guess everything is just functions at the end
😅
Or maybe objects and arrows 🤔
Please help me to show this fact, as I've tried and have gotten stuck.
For a positive integer $n$, let $\mathbb{M}_n$ denote the set of $n \times n$ matrices over $\mathbb{C}$, and let $I_n \in \mathbb{M}_n$ be the identity matrix.
Let $n$ and $k$ be positive integers.
Suppose that $B \in \mathbb{M}_{nk}$ commutes with all elements of the form $I_k \otimes A$ for $A \in \mathbb{M}_n$.
I want to show that $B = C \otimes I_n$ for some $C \in \mathbb{M}_k$.
Transience
Pick a basis
v1, ..., vn for C^n and w1, ..., wk for C^k.
Let Eij be the matrix that maps vi to vj and the other vs to 0.
Commutativity with I (x) Eii means
B = sum Bi (x) Eii
Commutativity with Eij means Bi = Bj
I needed some clarification. Let V be normal in G, where G/V is p-solvable for an odd prime p, and V is a non-abelian simple group. is it necessary true that V is the socle of G?
Can't you just take G = V x G/V ?
mm i suppose. what if G acts transitively on V?
Thank you! Let me work this out.
Acts how?
Like it's impossible for a group to act transitively on a subgroup by conjugation. Are you thinking of some other action related to the setup somehow?
no, yes i made a mistake, im trying to think of a base case and confused it for a second
No you didn't
The theory of vector spaces carries over immaculatrly to the division ring case
I was more going for basis-less VS in the absence of choice
If you want MY vector spaces ur gonna have to pay up
To prove (3), it is clear that if $ra + sb = 1$, $a$ and $b$ are relatively prime.
this isnt at all clear to me, but i think i worked out why? is it because if a and b have a common divisor x, then ra + sb = rxm + sxn = 1, therefore 1 in <x> = R, therefore x must be a unit?
esca (@ with reply)
yup
ok great thanks
Think about the solutions to x^|g| = 1
You know what, that was a bad hint. Let me think some more.
& I'll come up with a better one
I think there may be some missing context. Is there perhaps a lemma above that says that the hint holds for Abelian groups? This may be what you're missing here.
Otherwise this is essentially a helpful lemma
Perhaps you could try proving this first: if $g, h \in G$ are elements of an Abelian group such that $\gen g \cap \gen h = \set e$, then the order of $gh$ is the least common multiple of the orders of $g$ and $h$.
here is a hint that you might like better: show that for an abelian group, if $$ |{x\in G: x^n = 1}| < n$$ for all n, then G is cyclic
so the hint is true of abelian groups in general?
ik this
by < i mean leq
Fellow newpx appreciator spotted
Great. Use it to prove the hint.
for h in G, if h = g^a, then |g^a| divides |g|. otherwise, <h> cap <g> = {e} so |hg| = lcm(|g|,|h|). but if g has maximal order, then
|g| = lcm(|g|,|h|) = m |h| so |h| divides |g|
since |g| <= lcm(|g|,|h|) <= |g|
Wdym
This isn't quite right
what’s wrong?
for h in G, if h = g^a, then |g^a| divides |g|. otherwise, <h> cap <g> = {e}
For example <h> could contain <g>
But you have the right general approach
sometimes people use this notation for commutative groups
Should just be a notational difference
Here's how I'd do it: suppose |h| does not divide |g|. Then k := h^{gcd(|h|, |g|)} has order coprime to |g|, ergo <k> n <g> = {e}...
Ah wait in fact I made a mistake, my reasoning isn't correct
It may not have order coprime to |g|.
right
The problem isn't that, it's the otherwise part
oh
These are not the only two options
OK. The lemma is still correct in general, but it's easier if we bring in some extra machinery.
i think this fixes it tho: if <h> cap <g> is non-trivial, then h = g^a for some integer a.
i am missing context are y’all trying to make statements about abelian groups?
Think about the factorisation of the polynomial x^|g| - 1 in Z/pZ
Indeed but I think it's a better idea here to bring in the specifics of this situation
The hint is true in any finite abelian group, as one can see via the classification, but it's harder to prove
it splits into p-1 linear factors
oh
And what are those factors?
OK
i thought this was x^{p-1} - 1
The question has a better setup
x^d = 1 has at most d solutions
So now suppose that g is of maximal order
yea, Z/pZ is a field
What are the solutions to x^|g| = 1?
<g>
That's exactly right. So if x has order dividing |g|, then it is in <g>
That's precisely what this polynomial having the solutions <g> means
So you can use this to make proving the hint less fiddly
i can see how <g> satisfies the equation x^|g| = 1
but if x^|g| = 1, then |x| divides |g|
That's right
but how do you show that x is a power of g
How many elements are in <g>? Now recall that there are at most |g| solutions to x^|g| = 1
So...
So in fact <g> is a complete list of solutions to x^|g| = 1
Any solution x is a member of <g>
We haven't used that yet
The maximality is going to help us prove that |h| divides |g|, which is going to tell us (by what we just proved) that h is in <g>
can you restate what we just showed for clarity?
We proved that if |h| divides |g| then h is in <g>, put simply. (For elements h, g of (Z/pZ)*)
this doesn’t hold for g,h in a more general abelian group?
Most certainly not.
okay
Z/2Z x Z/2Z is a counterexample
this is where we use the fact that Z/pZ is a field
alr cool
That's right
so, the solutions of x^|g| = 1 are <g> for g in Z/pZ
how do we show that |h| divides |g| for all h in Z/pZ?
So now things get a little bit fiddly and we need to use maximality. You're essentially going to do a proof by contradiction, assuming that |g| is maximal and |h| does not divide |g| to get an element of greater order than |g|
No im talking about a zero element
Not just a rebranding of 1
oh it won’t have anything that behaves like multiplication by 0
Maybe include 1 but say there is a zero element too, but bo afdition.
you can prove such a thing
You can prove a group can never have a zero element?
if the size of the group is more than 1
if |g| is maximal and |h| does not divide |g|, then for g^a = h^b, we have (h^b)^|g| = 1, so |h| divides b |g|, and in turn, |h| divides b so g^a = 1 = h^b, and <g>, <h> have trivial intersection
if |G| = 1 then the one element of G behaves like 0
of course
but other than that it’s not possible
How come?
and in turn, |h| divides b
This doesn't follow, you've assumed primality of |h| essentially. But the good news is, you may be able to reduce to this case.
They may not be coprime, yes
dude i miss topology honestly
me too
Here is how I might approach this, in two cases:
- |h| has a prime factor p that is coprime to |g|. Think about h^{|h|/p}.
- |h| has some power p^n not dividing |g| such that p^(n-1) divides |g|. This is a slightly tricker case.
is this at least in the right direction? we want to show that <g> and <h> have trivial intersection in this case
No unfortunately that doesn't follow. You could have, for instance, that <h> contains <g> entirely.
the line that lets you conclude that g = 1 is just that there has to be some other element x such that gx=1,
this is kind of painful
Yes... it is a techical lemma
but gx is also g
Previously I alluded to the fact that this follows fairly immediately from the classification of finitely generated Abelian groups, so if you're happy with using that you can. But it works out.
i was trying to avoid it because i wanted to see how it worked without appealing to it
it seems like an elementary approach
Regarding the 2nd case: if p^m divides |h| then h^(|h|/p^m) has order p^m and g^(p^n-1) has order |g|/p^(n-1) which is not divisible by p.
I've kinda laid it all out here... not doing a great job of hinting.
My bad.
It's honestly just one of these relatively brute force things.
You kinda have to fiddle with the orders and make it work. The good news is, this is a big step towards classifying finite Abelian groups 
okay, so saving the proof of the hint, the rest of the proof would go as follows:
if d <= p-1 is a maximal order of some element g in (Z/pZ)*, then for each x in Z/pZ, |x| divides d, so x^d = 1 has exactly p - 1 solutions, so d = p - 1 and we are done.
does that sound right?
I would add just:
...has exactly p - 1 solutions, namely the elements of <g>, so d = p - 1....
But yes you have the logic right
thanks
i’ll try and fiddle with the orders as you say
topology would never do me like this
is this any easier?
if you want to use the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups then it’s easier
(finite abelian groups )
if you don’t then maybe you’ll just have to do what you’ve been doing
though i’ve only barely been paying attention to the conversation
since i’m at the lake rn
is that notes from the underground
idk what that is
or algebra chapter 0
which book
oh, chapter 0
Dostoyevsky
Lmao
Well that is notes from underground but ye
bruh
is this the correct place to ask for a module theory proof verification?
The problem is if every finitely generated R-module is free show R is a field
solution is as follows
Assume for contradiction R is not a domain, then let x in R be a zero divisor, the ideal (x) is a torsion R module, whereas R^n contains 1_n which implies R^n is necessarily not torsion, hence (x) is not free so R must be a domain
Now let x != 0 be an element of R, it follows that R/(x) is free by assumption, but xf(1+(x)) = f((x)) = 0 implies by the domain property that f(1) = 0, hence R/(x) is isomorphic to R^0 = 0, which implies that (x) = R, i.e. x is invertible
since x was arbitrary we are done
is this correct?
here I write n, but this is abuse of notation it really may be any cardinal (under direct sum not product)
whats f
its the isomorphism
what isomoprhism
this is writing as cosets
where we take the ideal generated by x
and use linearity of module homomorphisms
so that xf(1) = f(x) = f(0)
since (x) is the zero coset
i see
yeah it's gucci ig if you just slightly explain why f(1)= 0 implies that it has no basis
or ig it's whateber
you kinda implied it by saying "field"
if it weren't then it would just be a division ring
bla bla whatever
Why is the module Z2 x Z2 over Z can be written as an internal direct sum?
Something in the book said that its not a free module over Z but it can be written as internal direct sum
Z2+Z2 does not have uniqueness tho? 0 = 0+0=1+1
So Z2xZ2 is not isomorphic to Z2+Z2?
Z2 x Z2 is the internal direct sum of the Z-submodules Z2 x {0} and {0} x Z2
In fact the cartesian product of modules is the (external) direct sum of modules.
It's unclear to me what you mean by Z2+Z2.
@tardy hedge did you look at this
Not really yet im at work
I meant elements n1+n2 such that n1 and n2 are in Z2
I guess you mean Z2 (+) Z2, and the confusino is because by 1+1 you should say (1,0)+(0,1)
I don’t see how this isn’t free maybe I’m being dumb
2Z isomorphic to Z
Oh
You mean it’s not free as a 2Z module?
Z2 means Z/2Z
Zoo wee mama
I'm not sure kiand knows this notation considering he's writing Z2 x Z2
But if and when he sees this, let it be known that this is the more standard notation.
When life gives you finitely generated modules over a PID
You make a direct sum of cyclic modules
and if it is not fg you just write it as a filtered colimit and wlog fg
this is a stupid question, but what's the shortest way here to get from a ∈ bH to a⁻¹b ∈ H, it's kind of confusing to me
I know that a ∈ bH means a = bh for some h ∈ H, but this just means b⁻¹a = h, which is not what we're proving
do I have to reverse it here to show a⁻¹b = h⁻¹ ∈ H because H is a subgroup?
I know it's true, but the way it's presented here is confusing, seems like too much of a leap
Yes
But this is straightforward because (b⁻¹a)⁻¹ = a⁻¹b
I guess you could also show that a = bh, so ah⁻¹ = b, so a⁻¹b = h⁻¹ ∈ H
the only reason I'm asking is that the implication seems a little too non-obvious to me, like I'm not getting something
but maybe it's a stupid thing to be worried about
I'd say instead that aH = bH, so b = be = ah for some h ∈ H, so so a⁻¹b ∈ H
the way this is presented here seems confusing
The point is it's completely equivalent.
@sly frost Honestly tbh that stuff tripped me up too for the same reasons
All the equivalent statements for coset stuf
I had the same feeling of not “getting” something , even though i understood what was happening. Kind of a weird feeling
I think when u work more with it, you start to more easily see how all the statements are equivalent and you wont feel as confused
modules over a field F are vector spaces over F. So, now that our module has its ring multiplication defined by a field, we go back to our old linear algebra language like now theyre called "scalars", now we have "dimension" etc.
What is it about the field F in particular that allows us to interpret linear algebra (vector spaces over F) and their homomorphisms (linear transformations) as geometric, like we are "scaling" and rotating and such ?
Is it because ax = 0 iff x or a is 0? And so, any ax value can be interpreted as a scaling and rotation of the element x? And this is an IFF implication for F a field being the ring over the module?
Forgive if this is obvious, I'm high right now
I just dont think ive thought about this before
When I was first learning linear algebra
You can do linear algebra over a finite field, such as Z_p, and, well you can kind of interpret the linear maps as "scaling" and "rotating" if you draw a picture, but its definitedly not in the same way the reals do it
having a hard time visualizing how a finite field is a vector space
need to think about that again
The important difference is the fact all non zero scalars are invertible, which lets you do gram schmidt, so all vector spaces over F (that are spanned by finite many things, at least) have a basis
over just a ring, modules can have torsion, but over a field, vector spaces are isomorphic iff their dimension is the same
you can think about (Z_5)^2 as like, a 5 x 5 grid of dots
and the linear transformations shear it, rotate it, and stuff, they just wrap around
Wow this is so cool to me rn
its very fascinating to me that the linear algebra machinery still works over finite fields, yes
for instance, you calculate the determinant in the same way, and its still true that a matrix is invertible iff the determinant isnt 0
even though it could be zero because you calculate, like, 1 + 4 = 0 in mod 5 land
Interesting
I think I should go back and study linear algebra in a deeper way now
Because I dont think I appreciated the connection between the algebra and the geometric visualization
I sort of knew it was there but didnt really think about it too much and just accepted those visualizations of the stretching and rotating as just being the way it is
For a cool reference, Module Theory by Blyth does an excellent job of connecting linear algebra to modules to a level I think you might really much enjoy. He starts on an elementary level and then link all of it to linear algebra in the second part of the book.
I really liked how he first motivated the study of modules by expressing how we already, when calculating eigenvalues, extract it from a matrix whose determinant comes from a polynomial ring. Hence, why not start from this general setting? It’s brillant.
thank you!
I would like to verify that a group $G$ with prime order $p$ (which implies it's cyclic) is a subgroup of the center $Z(H)$ for some group $H$, $G \leq H$
This is because take any $a^m \in G$, $m < p$, then
$(a^m)^p = 1$ (by Lagrange)
$\implies za^m = a^mz = (a^{-m})^{p-1}$, $z \in H$
iceball
do you mean proper subgroup? because if you take H to be G then Z(H) = G
perhaps the original question might help
Apologies for the improper wording
iceball
does anyone know any book or any book (or any other resource) in order to get introduced to noetherian rings and algebras?
i would like to learn about it in order to start reading about algebraic geometry (and any other subject that could interest me in the future), but in the courses that my university offers there is no mention (at least, at the moment) about it
so any book on commutative algebra? you could try the one by Atiyah or Clark
okay i’ll go check, thanks!!
Ignore this, idek why did I even ask this wrong question. Apologies.
This might be a stupid question, but I'm a bit confused about the part I underlined. Firstly, \bar{y_i} is an element in G/H, but 0 is an element in G. It seems that it should be \bar{y_i} = \bar{0} here. However, if \bar{y_i} = \bar{0}, it seems to contradict the condition y_i \in \bar{x_i} because \bar{x_i} is a coset of H.
regarding Abstract Algebra could someone tell me the:
- Prerequisites
- Related subjects that can be explored parallely
- Resources
- Topics that are a natural extension
Prereq is really only an intro background in proofs for intro to groups, but some linear algebra is needed for rings and fields
for groups too, since matrix groups are some of the basic examples of groups
although a good introduction to abstract algebra should teach all that
I've covered linear algebra, also think I'm fairly ok with proofs
I see, and what are related topics to abstract algebra
Which can be covered parallely
in general I would also get acquainted with calculus before learning it
not sure what are related subjects, maybe set theory, number theory and topology?
Just find a book on abstract algebra & start reading. I liked Fraleigh when I was starting out.
Fair enough, thanks a lot,
I like Artin (more basic) and Aluffi (more advanced, but also introduces you to category theory which is helpful to many other topics)
Oh yes! I wanted to proceed to category theory as well, is it a natural follow up to a typical first course in abstract algebra?
Ik Dummit and Foote is semi-controversial, but I started that out w/o knowing linear algebra and with only a crash course in proofs for a group theory class (whose lectures I never attended so it works on its own) and things worked out 
in theory category theory can be taught without any abstract algebra, although it would probably seem very abstract and confusing, so it's better to know algebra first to know what it applies to better
Cryptography, number theory, algebraic topology and algebraic geometry are all subjects closely related with algebra. Though I guess for most of them you'd want to cover the basics of algebra before you jump in
It did have stuff on matrix groups iirc but I think it explained that fairly well
yes, algebraic topology follows from abstract algebra, but you also need to know topology to understand it
other topics that follow from abstract algebra are commutative algebra, which precedes algebraic geometry and algebraic number theory, also you might be interested in topological groups after learning topology, and set theory would prepare you for mathematical logic and model theory
Thx a lot
Also noncommutative algebra which broadly studies the nontrivial cases where commutative algebra makes things trivial
Both require about the same level of mathematical maturity
,rotate
I am stuck on 3
Here's a hint.
Think about what you need about s and t to describe how s^-1 t s acts on an element. Then use that the group is abelian and transitive
An I guess you want to frame it as t(a) = a, and then prove that t is the identity
well firstly if they commute then it's just how t acts on the element but in general uhh
We need to know how s and t act individually on A ?
So let's say t(a) = a for some given a
Can you choose s wisely to learn more about t?
And this is where G is transitive comes into play?
uhh
For any a' in A there is a f such that f(a)=a' and now f(t(a))=a'
Wait I need to learn about t
Oh wait is sts^-1 (a) just t(s(a)) or sth
It's not quite that, but you have the right idea
Well, think about what you know.
s maps a to a', so s^-1 maps a' to a. And you know t maps a to a. So how can you put this information together into something useful?
Well almost
Corectomundo
So basically we can get a sts^-1 that fixes some a' in A
As G is transitive
Right?
Now G is also abelian
So that means t fixes everything?
So t is actually in the intersection of no 2
So it's the identity?
I think it works
Indeed, t fixes everything, hence is the identity permutation
Okay thanks I got done with most of it
Now I just need to prove the cardinality part
It seems kind of orbit stabilizer except A is not necessarily finite
Orbit stabilizer also works for infinite sets.
But you can't divide by stuff so you'll have to phrase it as
size of orbit time size of stabilizer equals size of group
Hmmm
Or you can just say the size of the orbit is the index of the stabilizer
Index is defined here?
Number of cosets
Cardinality of cosests?
Yeah, cardinality of the set of cosets
Hmm, but how do I write it
Like I want a bijection from G to A
Oh it's the usual Lagrange theorem?
But wait
I mean if you fix an element a then
g |-> ga
is a bijection
🤯
Okay that's it i guess
Too bad I couldn't see that
Maybe it needs time to "see" these stuff
Thanks @rocky cloak for all the help 🙏
,rotate
👍
right yea