#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 193 of 1
Honestly not many examples. The Z to Q one aaaand …
Because it shows more clearly that Q(D) is really just extending D to include inverses but if it already has inverses then you havent done anything differently
Ill just try more questions ig
I don't think that would help I think at this point you just need more examples lol
like what do you think the field of fractions of Q[x] looks like
Isnt it just rational functions
When u ask a question like that im not totally sure what to say yk
It looks like fractions of polynomials idk
Yes, that's exactly the field of rational functions.
@tardy hedge If you know universal properties, the fact that Q(D) is the "smallest" field that admits an embedding of D can be phrased as, any injective homomorphism from D to a field has to extend the injection D -> Q(D), so generally just take any extension field of Q(D) and you obtain an injection of D into a field that is bigger than Q(D)
Thx
from now on i'll be referring to polynomials as endomorphisms
I used this idea a few weeks ago to help someone out with a finite fields question lol
well, the endomorphism part at least 
if the SOn is a group how come when i move my mouse around in a game and come come back i am not in the same place i were
Because it is not an abelian group.
oh nah i was joking
Also, I'm not sure that mouse movement really corresponds directly to multiplication by elements in SO(3). Then you'd probably have weird holonomy in every game.
wait what game are you referring to
any first person or even 3rd person games
csgo or flight simulation
Not sure if it's related since I'm not sure what mouse motions you mean, but gimbal lock is also an issue in game dev sometimes, because people who don't really care to understand the math can choose inferior systems for representing rotations eg Euler angles instead of quaternions or matrices
My finals are over. Goodbye abstract algebra
get back here at once
bro got traumatized
no algebra is cool
i learnt the other day that pZ is a maximal subgroup of Z
that was quite cool
and I've made 0 progress on the homework you set me wew, so I am now officially giving up
when we say that k[x] is a k-algebra we're just viewing it as a ring with scalar multiplication from k right
so in a way i guess a k-algebra A is just a k-module but instead of A being an abelian group we have A is a ring
a k-ring
!1
🤯
what homework did I set you lol
That's exactly what a k-algebra is yeah
if p divides |G| then there is a subgroup of order p in G. It was a follow up the case p=2 that you helped me with
oh the whole element of order p thing
that bs combinatorial proof
yeah so instead of pairing them up you form p-tuples
A monoid in the category of vector spaces 😉
i had this idea but I didn't find any canonical way of doing it
Oh man like how do i even interpret Dp\M
What does it look like?
Hard to think about
Q13
for any g in G take (g, g^2, ..., g^p)
I think that's how it goes
I'm improvising the details here. You still have to show that this is actually a partition of G into p-tuples still
this sounds like something I'll think about tomorrow
appreciate the hint wew much love my fellow northener
I no longer believe that's the correct choice
is this true because t if alpha is a root of a polynomial with coefficients in K then we can't deduce that all of its coefficients are zero
the canonical proof is you take the set X of p-tuples such that the product of elements in those p-tuples is the identity, which is of size |G|^{p-1}. Then use the fact that this set is closed under the action of (12... p) and then fixed-point theorem your way to concluding that the number of elements with g^p = 1 (the number of diagonal elements in this set, which are the fixed points of the action) has to be a multiple of p, and can't be 0 because 1^p = 1 lol
i didn't read allat only the first sentence but is that Cauchy's Theorem
yur
damn i don't know how somebody could prove that if they haven't seen it before
it involves hella insight doesn' tit
one of my favorite proofs tho
the hard part is coming up with the idea for the tuples
but it is a generalisation of the case for p = 2 where the pairs are (g, g^-1)
Could you explain the sentence from 'the action' and also what is the fixed point theorem
right so you let a cyclic group of order p act on the set X,
Burnside's fixed point lemma states that the number of orbits is a multiple of p, specifically it's 1/|C_p|\sum_{g \in C_p} Fix(g). The fixed point set for each element is either all of X (in the case of g = 1) or just the tuples (x, ..., x), implying x^p = 1. Define Y = {x in G : x^p = 1}. Then the number of orbits is 1/p(|X| + (p-1)|Y|) = 1/p(|G|^{p-1}+(p-1)|Y|), this is an integer so |Y| must be a multiple of p.
I think instead of trying to interpret Dp/M you might want to construct a ring homomorphism Dp -> Q(D/p) with kernel M. Then first iso
sorry you didn't actually need orbit stabiliser (I'm kind of reproving this as I go along)
it's also MUCH harder than I remember it being
many such cases!
Okay. I think this is getting put in the 'revisit much later on' box as I don't know what an orbit is, what a group action is, what a Burneside fixed point lemma is
But I appreciate yoy regardless wew
Yeah i was thinking to do the question would be to use 1st iso thm somehow
But before trying to do that i wanted to interpret what that quotient ring looked like
Its hard to do such a thing tho , i suppose.
I mean it will look like Q(D/P)
Yes lol i guess it says it there
But like what if u didnt know that already
Just trying to think of Dp\M
Would u even bother with that?
Well elements look like
a/b + M
Which in turn looks something like
(a + P)/b
Though that's a little handwavy
Once you define the homomorphism it gets more precise
Thanks. Ill try actually solving the question by finding the map and maybe that will give me the insight im looking for
whats a good way to think about K[X1,...,Xn] / (M) for some finite M subset K[X1,...,Xn]
you're defining a ring generated by x1... xn subject to the relations m = 0 for each m in M
basically the universal property
the vanishing set of the polynomials defines some subspace V of K^n and this can be identified with the set of "polynomial functions" on V
oh yeah you have the alg-geo interpretation of a coordinate ring as well
good quip
whats the vanishing set? M?
It's the set of points of k^n on which all the elements of M vanish
(equivalently, on which all the elements of (M) vanish)
Also note that any ideal of K[X_1,...,X_n] is finitely generated so we can just ask about any subset of K[X_1,...,X_n] or any ideal etc wlog
ah cus K is a field
and noetherian
is this set of points on which (m) vanishes the coordinate ring? nvm
it's basically reducing modulo elements of M; at least this is how I like thinking about it
yeah i kinda lack intuition for this "reduction" when the ideal is not generated by a single element
I wouldn't expect there to be a simple intuition that's much good. A large part of algebraic geometry could be described as laboriously building out the tools for understanding such quotient rings.
more generally a good way of thinking of a quotient is as setting whatever is inside the thing you're quotietning by to 0. Which leads to interpreting a quotient as taking your original object and adding more relations between the elements of that object
the most clear cut example of this is the universal property of free groups and group presentation. When you write G = <X|R> for some set X and some relators R you're actually writing G has a quotient of the free group on X by the smallest normal subgroup containing everything in R
hence why I gave the answer I did. I just find that this is the easiest way to work with quotients intuitively.
yeah, im just kinda bamboozeled by geometric interpretations of this, in our course for example we showed this isomorphism
and i wondered how you see stuff like this if the ideal isn't as obvious as there
What you wrote is the coordinate ring.
of V
Can i do f: Dp -> Q(D/P) by f([a,b])=[a+P,b+P]
Is this not well-defined?
It is well defined, but that's something you should check.
Ok i will check it, but then applying first iso to this shows that Dp\M = Q(D/P) right?
Its onto and kernel is M
Doesn't it bring intuition from geometry?
Yeah, "simple" is the weasel word I'm hiding behind here.
Ahh
Well tbf, I also don't see how geometric interpretation somehow works
Like how can we even differentiate using formal derivatives, and get "approximations" around "a point"
Why does it work, it's like black magic
Even the word "around" there is just handwaving if your base field e.g. happens to be finite. Then there's only the formal similarity and "I can prove the analogous theorems" left.
TIL an R-module M is actually just a ring homomorphism from R to M's endomorphism ring
mind = blown
I guess it is similar to how group action can be characterized as such
the tensor ad homjunction 
What's the point of characteristic subgroups? I.e. why are they an important concept?
is there a useful/iluminating theorem about them? or something like that
They exist and have this strong property, so we're telling you about them. That's "the point" of them.
You can pull a few cute tricks with them. For example, it's not the case in general that a normal subgroup of a normal subgroup is going to be a normal subgroup of the bigger group. However, if the smallest subgroup is characteristic it works.
det hasn't seen any other trick than the one you mentioned 
but det hasn't done much group theory either 
which strong property?
Being characteristic is a strong property
Read: typically there will not be many characteristic subgroups of a group
oh, ok ty
Being invariant under some map is already a nice property, being invariant under all maps must be very nice
if we take an arbitrary ring, at most how many distinct subrings can it contain?
The power set of the cardinality is certainly an upper bound. And I think for example C achieves this.
Or Q for that matter
wow that's way yuckier than my answer
What was your answer gonna be?
"loads"
lol
it was way less precise, I was going to say that you can construct a ring with arbitrarily many subrings
I don't think enumerating subrings is a particularly interesting question anyway, like ideals are more interesting
like I noticed that if V has dimension n as a vector space, then End(V) has at least n subrings given by matrices of the form of "big block" followed by 1x1 blocks
As far as i know this is the best bound one can do in general
kernels > subobjects indeed
Hard to do better than a tight bound I guess, unless you have some bound that depends on more than the size of the ring.
I think i saw that the ring of bounded holomorphic functions on the unit disc even contains 2^c prime ideals ( c= cardinality of continuum)
actually you can get way more than this following a similar idea - there's no reason the other blocks need to be 1x1 so you have at least \sum_{\lambda \in P(n)} #{the conjugacy class in S_n corrisponding to lambda, lol} where P(n) is the partitions of n.
swag.
Now that's pretty crazy. Must be some crazy ideals.
The proof was non-constructive so yeah
Also no reason you have to restrict yourself to a given basis, so you get a subring for any decomposition V = U(+)W
hmm I see
but how do you know that?
C has transcendence degree |C| over Q, so contains the polynomial ring in |C| many variables. Any subset of the invariants gives you a subring, so that's 2^|C| subrings.
I guess Q is an easier example because
Z[1/p : p in P] is a subring for any set of primes P
I feel like it's easier to see for the Q example
yeah there we go
oops internet has died, sorry chat
and we're back
I guess it‘s an obvious estimate, a ring cannot contain more subrings than subsets
Can someone give me a sanity check here? It's a pretty elementary exercise but I have become confuzzled by the different similar operations and having to remember left and rightedness
Also, I feel like there is a one line proof hiding, something something End l (M) = (End r (M)) op but it's not clicking
Proof like good.
I don't know what your definition of End^r(M) is here, but yeah a map R -> S is exactly the same as a map R^op -> S^op, so that could be a one-liner.
Thanks, and End^r(M) is just the ring of "right" endomorphisms aka endomorphisms where multiplication is composition left to right instead of right to left
Ok yeah then the original lambda is also just a map R^op -> End^r(M)
Is the generator of any principle ideal some sort of “minimal” element in the set?
Like in F[x] its the polynomial with minimal degree
It's definitely (weakly) minimal wrt the divisibility ordering.
Thanks
Minimal wrt to some divisibility type of way that makes sense
Tbh instead of going to the chapter about fields i shouldve done most problems in the ring theory section beforehand
For proof of part a), im not sure why it concludes with “the image of phi must in fact be equal to K(u) …”
Oh i think i know why
It says before that the image must be contained in K(u). But the proof shows the image is in fact a field (that contains K and u) which implies its equal to K(u) (since there cant be a smaller field than K(u) that contains K and u, by defn)
Cool?
yur
and it can't be a larger field because then it would have to contain elements in F other than those in K union {u}
For b), why is theta an isomorphism
Why is the field of quotients of K[x] isomorphic to F
The conclusion of the theorem its referring to just says theta is a 1-1 ring homomorphism
In this theorem why cant we immeditely say the image of phi_u is K(u)? The image consists of all a0+a1u+ … an u^n , which should be K(u) right?
But then it doesn’t necessarily contain inverses or smth?
Yes, this is the problem right?
I guess u can equivalently say for part a) K(u) is isomorphic to quotient field of K[x]… but in this case the quotient field of K[x] just turns out to be K[x]/<p(x)>
What does wrt stand for? Please
"with respect to"
artin's exercises are very cool
they really show the power of the theorems presented I think
So isnt writing the elements as fractions kind of an abuse of notation kind of thint
Like … what does 1/(b0+b1u+…bmu^m) even mean here?
Write it as [a, b] if you want but who cares
Where [1,b] is just an element that acts as inverse of b
Right
Ik the answer is yes
I think my confusion with it is thinking it means something more than it is
How is that $x^2+3x+2=(x+1)(x+2)$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{Z}[[x]]$ (formal series)?
RaD0N
waiting
The given polynomial itself isn't a unit?
It is since x+2 is invertible too in Z[[x]]
Wait maybe not
Or so you think……
Real
Minimal polynomial of u over K is the irreducible polynomial that has u as a root right
Defn just said minimal degree but i wanted to make sure its irreducible too
Yea it said monic too
equivalent
Yeah
Because … set of f so that f(u) = 0 is a prime ideal …
Is it: set of f(u)=0 is an ideal. Since K[x] is a pid then its a principle ideal. We can show this ideal is prime and then that implies its generated by an irreducible polynomial
Is all that necessary?
Because prime ideals arent necessarily generated by a single element so the pid part was needed
I mean if you want to be stinky about it yeah that’s all needed
Take a BATH
Maybe its time for one
So, given a Noetherian module M with submodule M', I want to show M/M' is Noetherian. So, given a submodule of M/M', call it I, I need to show I is finitely generated. The elements of I are of the form x + M, so I can create a sort of "pre-image" ideal, which is all the x's. This ideal is finitely generated, let's say by (f1,...,fn), so I is finitely generated by (f1 + M',..., fn+M')
Does this argument make sense
replace "ideal" with submodule, sorry lol
Ye, nice.
This is really a case of a more general phenomenon - if $N$ is a submodule of $M$, then submodules of $M/N$ correspond to submodules of $M$ containing $N$ (one direction is just taking preimage under the projection like you did, and the other is just image under the quotient map)
potato
This is super important! The correspondence theorem.
Using this you can also use the other definition of Noetherian (every ascending chain of submodules stabilises) since you can just pass to M and then stabilise there are pass back
@molten viper
In a sense I'm surprised you're doing stuff with Noetherian modules without having seen this but I'm not sure what context you're learning about modules in aha
Well
Hm it is probably the special case of this when you treat R as an R-module
I'm probably in over my head
There is a similar thing with groups, provided you take N to be normal
I've got a pretty solid groups/rings foundation
(oh and if R is non-commutative then take left modules or right modules; idk if it works for two sided ideals lol)
I'm kind of learning about Noetherian rings and modules at the same time ig
Yah i mean
A lot of the theory is the same since noetherian rings are noetherian modules over themselves lol
I'm working through chapter 1 of Eisenbud, because reasons
(ig i would recommend Atiyah Macdonald for a lot of this stuff if you've not looked at it)
ye noice
I've looked more closely at Atiyah yeah
maybe I should spend more time familiarizing myself with the proofs in the chapter before doing exercises
Unike groups, rings is something you've been learning about your whole life. So maybe just keep those familiar examples in mind, i.e. Z, C, polynomial rings, matrix rings, smooth functions.
I'm not sure I have advice better than just to practice the problems you struggle with
You can define a group action as a homomorphism from G to Sym S, similarly you can define an R-module as simply a homomorphism from R to the ring of endomorphisms of the module. So groups act on sets, rings act on modules
The
need it for smt but my group theory is rusty'
How ist (Z/NZ)* a ring?
Nvm i just made up the word ring homomorphsim in my head sorry
I think finding the case for p^1 is enough to work the rest out
this is what I have and so I want to find an n such that (Z/NZ)* has a subgroup isomorphic to Z/pZ
Ooohh
(Z/NZ)* is abelian of order φ(N)
so all I need is that p | φ(Ν)
by the fundemental theorem of abelian groups right?
and p^2 doesn't (?)
See my post in #advanced-algebra
i might be able to help. if i knew what a group ring was 
lemme see
think the best way to view homomorphisms into automorphism groups is via actions. And to consider Cayley's theorem
R[G] = {f : G -> R | finite support}
group homomorphism into Aug(R[G]) is G acting on R[G]. Maybe its easier to view it as G x R[G] -> R[G] rather than G -> (R[G] -> R[G]) (currying).
They want this action to be constructed by conjugation. To me there's a natural action to try out and see if it works
idk if uve considered this already
(Also, group homomorphism into Sym(R[G]) would also be a group action, so its a special action that respects the group structure of R[G])
the specific action we have here is $z = \sum_{g \in G} r_gg \in R[G]$ gets mapped to $xzx^{-1} = \sum_{g \in G} r_gxgx^{-1}$
W;3w Lads Tbh
you can translate any automorphism of G into an automorphism of the group algebra like this using the functoriality of taking group algebras (aka extending by linearlity lol)
Conjugation by an element is an automorphism, so the map just sends g to "conjugation by g"
so much rep theory recently
almost like people are revising for exams in the new year or something ;)
i felt itchy thinking about this. This surely is the action used for the canonical module structure of the group ring i was thinking
but couldnt get there
gimme a min I'm smoking my pen like an old timey pipe
The cannonical module structure is left multiplication, no?
wait did i mean something else
u have to define a multiplication of elements
for something
lemme look again
the multiplication is standard "polynomial" multiplication
@south patrol kunneth theorem
oh im silly, i meant defining the multiplication in the group ring
Like when you say canonical module structure, you mean viewing R[G] as a G-module?
since a group ring is a ring
theres conjugation in that defn
or what looks like conjugation
yur
I think what shuri means is that there's a natural embedding of G into R[G]
Sure, but I don't see how it "looks like conjugation"
and we're implicitly passing through that embedding when we "move the conjugation" from G into R[G]
it's r_gxgx^-1 I don't see how that can be anything but conjugation
like isnt this directly related to OP's question or am i off the mark
it's much clearer to view them as just formal linear combinations of group elements imo
but maybe that's just the perspective I am far more used to
like the function perspective makes the connection with cohomology easier to see ig
anyway I'm getting distracted
Serre conjecture
upon the
im learning a bit about conjugacy in groups from some yt videos and it definitely helps clear up confusion about normal subgroups and the intuition behind them
in my textbook though it covers that stuff in chapter 7. im still on chapter 6
I refuse to believe you've seen normal subgroups but not conjugation that's bizzare
This guy talked about the parallel with similar matrices in lin alg and that was helpful
Yeah dude ikr
I feel like the grass is always greener on the other side when it comes to which order you learn stuff in
Yeah how this textbook laid out stuff worked for me
it likes to introduce concepts without introducing the concept
Teaching through osmosis
eg: it showed the isomorphism theorem before even really talking about quotient groups
yeah
a lot of the meat and potatoes of group theory it doesnt cover until late in the book
they just never called it that where i was (until we actually were doing conjugations as automorphisms)
iirc
maybe they call it undo do samwich in some places 
opinions?
Hi can anyone explain to me whats going on here? It’s the subchapter in groups and they introduced Sn, but when dmonstrating S3 they somehow chose (123) and transposition withut explaining why, also why did they make that x^3=1 product etc.? Kinda lost, would be nice if someone can guide me through this.
they do explain why, they pick those ones because you can write all of the other permutations by multiplying those two together in different ways
and x and y are defined to satisfy the same relations as (123) and (12) do
Ah i see, and how do they use cancellation law to show that those 6 elements are distinct?
because you can't cancel them down any further
if you set one equal to another and use cancellation law you get something contradicting group axioms, so they are distinct
e.g. sps x and x^2 weren't distinct
then x = 1, a contradiction
as x represents the permutation (123)
does this hold?
I think there is a typo?? surely f is a map from B to A
Just curious, if we had chosen anything other than (123) and (12) would it not have been possible to express others in terms of these? And how did they know to choose these two permutations?
Hi, I've seen different ideal's definition. But is it same?
Let A a ring, I an ideal
There is one which: for all a, b and for all x in I, we have axb in I.
And another version: for all a in A and for all x in I, we have ax in I.
There's lots of different choices that would work, you just have to make a choice.
yep! thanks
Definition 1 is a "two sided ideal", while definition 2 is a "left ideal". There is also a similar definition for "right ideal". These are equivalent if A is commutative, but not in general.
Ah, I see. So my teacher wrote the "two sided ideal" definition.
Is there much to be said on non commutative rings?
Yes, a useful thing to note is that (two sided) ideals are the kernels of ring homomorphisms, while left ideals are the kernels of R-linear maps (aka homomorphisms of R-modules)
Sure
Noncommutative rings can be useful
are there properties of general non commutative rings
Depends what you mean. When people talk about non-commutative rings, they usually mean not-necessarily-commutative rings.
There's a bunch of properties that hold for rings in general. But if you're asking for properties that only hold for non-commutative rings, I don't think you'll find very interesting stuff.
If the ring isn't commutative, we can't even talk about euclidian / factorial / principal domains, right?
I mean
even if the ring is commutative you may not be able to talk about those things
although almost universally "domain" refers to commutative rings
You can certainly extend the definition of UFD and PID to noncommutative rings, and there are examples. Wheter that's a useful thing to do... meh
I guess the easiest examples being that the noncommutative polynomial ring k<x1, ..., xn> is a UFD and that D[x] is a PID for any skew-field D.
Can you make the claim “Za is contained in S” when ur trying to prove S is a subset of Za here?
"is this a legal move"
concerning
but 1 has proven that Za is a subset of S so it's fine
Oh i see okk thankss
If I have two different polynomial rings R[x] and R[y] is it enough to define a map on x alone? So for instance is f:R[x]->R[y] well defined by f(x)=2y for example?
it would be well-defined as an R-algebra homomorphism
you can ask questions anywhere
If you specify the map is a map of R-algebras, yes
oh of course whoops
equivalently, your map restricts to the identity on R
I ended uo doing a #help-11, it's about group theory but it's so basic basic stuff that I don't think it belongs to "advanced mathematics" or even "early university"
Well like
for any R-algebra A, an R-algebra map R[x] -> A is equivalently a choice of element of A
Does specifying f(x)=2y still make a well defined image for elements of the ring? For example how do I tell what is f(5)? If say R is the integers Z?
When you say it’s an algebra map, yes
You can set x to anything you want
Algebra map forces f(r) = r•f(1)=r•1 = r
Oh okay. I'm guessing using f is a map of algebras implies f(1)=1?
Do I get the same thing if I assume f is a map of rings?
maps of rings also have to send 1 to 1
a map of algebras is just a map of rings compatible with the maps from R
Is the map algebra Hom defined by f(x)=2y injective?
depends on the ring?
try and calculate the kernel
How can i go about computing the automorphism group of S_3? I’m imagining i can simply use conjugation, but how do i know i’m “done”?
automorphisms have to preserve the order of elements
Well I guess if my ring was the integers Z and I considered an algebra Hom f:Z[x]->Z[y] given by f(x)=2y and f(1)=1 then this basically induces f(p(x))=p(2y). I'm pretty sure if p(x) has any term with x then the image p(2y) has an indeterminate y as a term and so clearly it is not in the kernel. Therefore only elements of Z are possibly in the kernel yet the map f is the identity on Z and so I think only 0 is in the kernel.
so you have your 6 conjugation maps, and then show that there's only 6 choices of where to send your generators (123) and (12)
AGGH theres something with remainder theorem here isnt there
let f(x) = 2y between R[x], R[y], let p be in R[x]
then f(p) = f(p_0+p_1x+...+p_nx^n) = p_0+p_1f(x)+...p_nf(x^n) = p_0+2p_1y+...+2^np_ny
so if f(p) = 0 then p_0+2p_1y+...+2^np_ny = 0, which is only possible if 2^kp_k = 0 for all k
so if your ring is an integral domain (or more generally 2 isn't a zero divisor), then your kernel will be trivial
Theres always seems to be like 50 different ways of interpreting results
Thank you I see what you mean. Do you think if I considered an algebra Hom over several variables I could come up with an example of an algebra Hom between polynomial rings of several variables with a nontrivial kernel?
well, yeah. Just set one of the variables to 0
R[x1, x2] -> R[y] given by x1 -> 0, x2 -> y has a pretty big kernel lol
All okay and I bet if I sent two of the same variables to an independent variable in the codomain poly ring that mights also work
what we're basically doing here is matrix multiplication, if the matrix of coefficients you send stuff to isn't invertible then it's going to have a non-trivial kernel
it's a simple proof but I just want to be sure if I didn't mess anything up
every group of even order has an order 2 element
well, every element has an inverse, and the inverse can only be the identity if it's the identity itself, so now, if we want no element to have order 2 (that is, to not be its own inverse), we need to pair up all of the 2n - 1 elements with its inverses, but since this is an odd number, you can't pair up every element with a different element, so one has to pair with itself, that is, has order 2
yeah that's correct
yey
it seemed so obvious after thinking about it
looked at the paper for 2 minutes and then it seemed obvious
2 or more idk
(by paper I mean sheet)
(thing you write and/or draw on)
If u algebraic over K show u^-1 algebraic over K. Would it be just the polynomial for f(u)=0 being reversed like a0x^n+ … an to show g(u^-1)=0
Yes nice
also given L/K and a in L, a is algebraic over K iff K(a)/K is finite
And clearly K(a) = K(a^-1)
For q3, i have found a polynomial so that f(u+a)=0, and it is the same degree of the minimal polynomial for u. But how can i argue that the degree of u+a is the same?
So my question is i have a polynomial that has u+a as a root but how do i know its the smallest degree polynomial possible
Well i just found that its the same polynomial for u but you modify the constant term
the f I would have chosen is f(x) := g(x-a) where g is the minimal polynomial for u
Oh yeah. Cool
I don't think this is true btw. Consider the minimal polynomials for i and i+1 over Q
x^2+1 and (x-1)^2+1 = x^2-2x+2
brain struggled to compute (x-1)^2 there
I need some sleep lmfao
Ohhh yeah ok thanks i know where i messed up with that
This type of thing is common isnt it
Some shifting function thing
I think ive seen that sort of tactic used a lot
not telling....
Lol
I think im still not sure why this means u cant have any smaller defree
Degree
write it out lol
u+a is in K(u) and a is in K(u+a), so K(u) = K(u+a)
Did u mean K(u)
not telling.... (yes)
So they must have the same minimal polynomial by this theorem?
this is unnecessary anyway right
lol
i mean if f(x) is a poly killing u then f(x-a) kills u+a
and vice versa
so they have min polys of the same degree
I dont see this part
what are you unsure about w it?
The first part shows that min poly of u+a has degree <= that of u
but then by symmetry the same works the other way round
Hi, I'm stuck on this:
Have to prove that x^{3} -9 is irreductible in Z/31Z[X]
I've seen that a polynom of degree 2 or 3 is irreductible if and only if he doesn't have roots.
So I guess there is another way to solve it. (no way I have to computate 31 times)
well you can also use fermat's little theorem to show there are no roots
Ok thanks
x <= y and y <= x makes x=y
lol
Ye
Hi, can someone explain how you would go about proving this statement
Specifically using the union of orbits thing
Well, which direction do you get stuck on?
Firstly I’m struggling to understand the concept of like
What the orbits would even look like
conjugacy classes
Let x be N (normal), then acting on conjugation just sends it to another element in N. So the whole orbit lies in N
Because I’m used to the concept of like groups acting on sets
But this is a little trippy for me
the orbits are just the conjugacy classes
why lol? G is just a set
Because we have a group that’s acting on something else
the orbit of x is just ${gxg^{-1} : g \in G}$ here
Kerr
Here the domain and co domain are like intermingled
or $g.x$ if you wanna write it more abstractly
Kerr
The group G is acting on a set. That set just happens to be G again
a group acts on itself via left multiplication. And right.
Would the orbits partition the entire group then ?
Which g?
Have you heard of equivalence relations and equivalence classes?
Like, is it possible that $gxg^-1 = g$
Ash
Yes
let x = g?
sure
why wouldn't it be?
just try to be clear about what are the variables and what are particular elements
So as i said before, would the orbits partition the entire group ?
Okay.
- convince yourself equivalence classes partition sets.
- convince yourself orbits are an equivalence class
Or would they only partition the Normal subgroup
Okay, i understand this
You can visualize an action on a group on its cayley graph if that helps
so, is this clear?
We suppose that x lies in a subgroup N
whoopsie, yes
Then conjugation, sends x to another element in N
So for each x, its orbit lies in N
Since orbits partition a set, the orbits partition N
eh, close enough I hope
this needs to be quantified more precisely
A group acts on a set.
You choose a fixed element in that group. g.
So N is the union of the orbits
That’s fine
Why does that imply
That N is a normal subgroup
The orbits with respect to this fixed element partition the set.
no that was the direction of N being normal -> is union of orbits
this holds true for any g you conjugate by. Right?
Yes
So you can send x to any spot in its orbit and it will still be inside N
Yea
So for any element its entire orbit lies in N
Yea yea, I get that part
Where in that argument have we used the assumption that N is normal
In that x gets send to another element in N
gNg^-1 = N, so if n is from N then gng^-1 must be in N
Alr, then you should have everything for the other direction. gl
Make clear what your other statement is and think about why being an union of orbits means that you are normal
Okay so for the opposite direction, its easy then, you assume that N is the union of orbits of G under the conjugacy action of G on itself
a partition?
partition?
Oh right
i dont understand 'a union' either
Then you say that by def of a normal subgroup, N= gNg^-1
nvm im high ignore me
So if all the orbits of elements of N lie inside N
chilling on #groups-rings-fields while on that good shit
Then by def, N is normal…?
I wanna write this out formally, would you mind critiquing it once I’m done?
i am fried for today, so i am not doing anything rly - yeah
Thank youuuuu
man, rereading that last line has me confused now lmao
everything else is ite
why?
okay it misses one assumption. Let N be a group, then N <= G is normal ....
or at least the right side needs it
ah ok happy now
or perhaps...
yeah no
anywas~
???
||If a subgroup is a union of orbits, then that group is invariant under group action?||
of the conjugation action
x^g is conjugation by g?
yes
aight
N is a group and it happens to be the union of some orbits of G
No, x in N
ok, that makes way more sense
yeah
the wording just threw me
"... iff N is the union of orbits for the action of N on G by conjugation" would surely make more sense
I understand it as: let U be a subset of G, let N be the union of G.x for x in U and assume N is a subgroup, then N is normal.
but U can be taken as N, doesnt matter here
uh
then i fail to see where N comes into your statement 
oh ok i do
ok ok
yikes
if N wasn't the union of orbits we could find some g that conjugates some n in N out of N
yup
this "union/sums" of orbits <-> invariant objects is very common
whys it obvious to everyone but me 'union of orbits' refers to orbits of things in N 
yeah, doesnt matter what your action is
i mean, yeah, we know the answer, but i dont see why apriori
an adjacent example is considering all of Aut(G) acting on G, subgroups which are invariant under this are called characteristic. And indeed they are unions of orbits
hm, how does that appear?
centre of a group algebra comes to mind
I cant exactly imagine a scenario where I start checking all elements if their orbits lies in the subgroup
ah
alr
Maybe I'm biased because of how much that idea comes up in my own personal research but I don't care RARRRRGGHHH
based
`N is the union of orbits for the action of $G$ on itself by conjugation'
$$N = \bigcup_{x\in N}G.x$$ vs $$N = \bigcup_{x\in G}G.x$$
im like failing to see how the english reads as the 1st
"of orbits"
what orbits.
so any collection of orbits works
it's a union of conjugacy classes
oh
there is some ${g_1, ..., g_n} \subseteq G$ such that $N = \bigcup_{i=1}^n \text{cl}(g_i)$
it's like saying "an open set is a union of basis elements"
W;3w Lads Tbh
Its a union of elements, which happen to be orbits
ah ok, that had me for a big loop
The union doesnt need to go over all elements (whatever that means in general)
N is not constant
`N is a union of orbits for the action of $G$ on itself by conjugation'
$$N = \bigcup_{x\in S}G.x$$
well you can take you set to be N and it's fine
Wait, finitenes?
the first thing you wrote there wasn't wrong
Sanest wew message
all groups are finite
im happy reading it as this
ah yes my bad
The free groups left math, they couldnt be forced to stay
the other infinite group followed suit
RAAAAARRRRRGHHHHHHHH
ooh look chat. We want to define a quotient? What should the corrispond subobject b- and it's invariant under some set of maps! WOAH!
chat?
Chat is this real
never heard of a fourth person pronoun?
yes
ideals? Unions under the r -> xr orbits WOAH!
"chat" behaves like a fourth person pronoun, just in the category of english
wait it's ACTUALLY a fourth person pronoun?
I was shitposting in discussion homedawg I didn't mean it!
Too late, you made a linguistics reference!
i am little curious. What maps and what are you doing with them?
Morphisms in a category and I'm summing over orbits
"One does not simply walk into Mordor"
c.f.
"Chat does not simply walk into Mordor"
"Chat, do I simply walk into mordor?"
Is this fine …
Ignore the lemma 3.1 that’s specifically from my own notes
Jus a reference point
as long as you make r large enough to cover all of N, yeah
cmon give us both halfs :(
I’m lowkey like struggling to write a conclusion fir the second half
Well? Take one element, what can happen to it under conjugation?
ah, you are kinda walking yourself into a loop there i feel like
Exactly
I think all you need is a "thus the claim is proven" at the end lol
What does it mean to be normal in terms of conjugation here?
no!
ok just to clear up my confusion. this is what we are proving right
,,N\trianglelefteq G\iff \left[,\exists S \subseteq G : N = \bigcup_{x\in S} G.x \leq G,\right]
we got a QEDcel in chat...
Uhh
yur
I write the statement of the proof and then follow it with "thus the claim is proven", a hollow square, a filled square and QED right after
Some might complain that I didnt show anything, but clearly you cant miss that the claim was proven by any of the symbols
Here’s a nicer phrasing if u want
I’m tempted
if N is a disjoint union of orbits, then by the definition of a union, if x is in N, it's in some orbit contained in N
Right
and conjugacy of that element is in...?
Also in N
you dont know that yet
Don’t we ?
So normal means gNg^-1=N aye?
Yea
So we want to show that if x is in N, then gxg^-1 is still in N. Right?
Yes
Doesn’t this show that?
If x is in N then it’s conjugate takes us to the orbit of x which is in N
Because N is the union of orbits
Oof
well?
So HENCE, we have shown that if x is in N then gxg^-1 is in N so by def, N is a normal subgroup of G
ya
Hooray
btw the result is true without the finiteness condition
Yea, I figured
it popped up because all groups are finite
ah, my mistake
ofc its finitely generated, its finite!
Can an infinite group be finitely generated ?
Z
By 1
yeah
There ya go
Z^n
plus any relations you like
here's a fun question for you Kerr
If F(n) is the free group on n variables, is F(3) a subgroup of F(2)
yeah
yeah ur right lol
i like to forgot about my combinatorial group theory class 🥲
ill join your religion, all groups are finite.
the countable free group is a subgroup of F(2)
yur
actually nvm..
I don't remember the algorithm that gives you the generators for F(n)
just add the generators together
so true...
me neither, but we had that as an exercise so I can like kinda pretend i know how to prove it
theoretically
i blame dementia
based
the only proper thing I can remember from my combintorial group theory class two (
) years ago is the presentation of a group extenstion, Nielsen-Schrier, and coset enumeration lol
oh and a couple of cayley graph nonsenseses
oh, it was a mix up with everything
we had an extra dose of cayley graph nonsense
bass-serre theory actually seems kinda cool. We also had a version of nielsen-schreier where you can just draw graphs
I know very little bass-serre theory I must admit
the combinatorial version looks like torture method by the CIA
and I should REALLY learn it considering the connection with coexter groups
the coexter groups?
see uh: The entire representation theory of lie groups/algebras lol (over C)
hmm hm hm
I'm very tired so I can't be bothered going into details but they're also just swag
they're simply swag
cant wait to learn that.... and have forgotten any useful combinatorail/geometric group theory by then
What level of math are y’all at, out of curiosity
I'm 2nd year PhD
Damn , big brain
I wish
What about Kerr
marinating in my undergrad
Omg same
Wait, does building theory ring a bell?
they're related to buildings yeah
I vaguely remember us having a course on it and them hyping it up using coexter groups
I guess i can check that one out, gives points for my degree
seemingly pretty obscure topic tho
they come up in rep theory
and maybe other places? like the more general study of algebraic groups
which is a stupid name btw
as opposed to the non-algebraic groups
ok there are a couple of them but it's still stupid
mfw when algebraic groups arent even regular (read: the english word) groups
you left the finite number of orbits in?
well yeah... there's only 8 planets....
ok I remember know. You used the language of nielsen transformations and nielsen reduced sets. So you play a bit around until you can think of ways to combine x and y into terms which follow N2 and N3
which is just checking a few inequalities
that nielsen guy needs to touch grass...
i hate him
idk he's kinda cool...
although if you really don't like combo group theory that much maybe don't do the buildings stuff lol
okay he is alright
I just didnt like having to do stuff with words for weeks on end
the geometric bits were well appreciated
Plus I still dont understand his proof for generating tuples of F(n) being nielsen equivalent to (x1, ..., x_n , 1 , ... , 1)
I don't recall this proof so ur on ur own boss lol
Nielsen
Hi all. I wrote this disproof of the statement. I used Z[x] as my counterexample ring. However, my proof takes advantage of the fact that Z[x] is an integral domain. Is my proof still valid?
Ye
It doesn't matter if you take a nagata ring lol it's still a counterexample
ok great
2 isn't in (x + 2)
isn't it, since 0x + (2)1 = 2?
Isn't that supposed to be (x,2) the whole time?
oh crap yeah
I wrote it wrong, that's what I meant to write
ideal generated by x and 2
no (x + 2) and (x + 3) works better
?
their elementwise multiplications have degree 2 (or 0)
but you can get degree 1 through subtraction, as shown
Can't you say that x=fg implies either f =ax and g=a^-1 or vice versa directly?
Or is your grader very strict?
oh, you mean without invoking all this stuff about their degree and whatnot
yeah probably, this is very granular
not in a class right now, just studying by myself
I just find it a bit awkward when proofs lose their momentum
ok I think I did learn an important lesson, which is that it's okay that my counterexample has extra structure
It is nevertheless still an example of a ring
I think it's pretty standard example actually, at least I remember seeing sth similar before
Yeah it's funny much style matters in proofwriting. And deciding how much detail to include or exclude
I tend to like having a verbose level of detail, it helps me understand when the individual steps are small
I think the point of the exercise was to show why the product of ideals has to be defined this way
Because the definition of K doesn't always end up being an ideal
I'm not sure, it might. I struggled a lot with this problem and spent a bunch of time trying to find ideals that wouldn't work
It seemed like if one of the ideals is principal, then the set K actually would be an ideal
By cleverly taking differences to get an element that isn't divisible by either
no
Oh? What's the relevant property there?
Oh nvm I see it now...
Channel got moved?
Hmm, right, looks like something got moved around.
#get-advanced-access had ended in the middle of the category, and I've put that back to the top, but I have no reliable memory of what the order of the rest of them should be.
Hey folks, does there exist a surjective homomorphism $\phi: A_4 \to C_3$? And can you verify this without defining such $\phi$?
My prof seems to suggests that there does exist a surjective homomorphism, and it can be checked via the First Isomorphism Theorem of Groups.
So here's my incomplete attempt at it ($C_3$ is a cyclic group of order 3):
If there exists a surjective homomorphism $\phi: A_4 \to C_3$, then, by the First Isomorphism Theorem, $A_4/\ker \phi \cong C_3$. Since $|A_4| = 12$ and $|C_3| = 3$, $\ker \phi = 4$. Now, the Klein four-group $V_4$ is a (in fact, the only) subgroup of $A_4$ with order $4$...
Andrew
Seems the order of proof is inversed
Yea, it certainly feels inversed. I'm just not sure how to use my prof's suggestion of using the First Isomorphism Theorem here
On second thought, I think this is a no: If such a surjective homomorph were to exist, then the kernel must be the Klein 4 group (because it's the only normal subgroup of order 4). However, when we observe the elements of the quotient A4/V4, it is not cyclic (first coset is V4 itself, second coset consists of four 3-cycles, third coset also consists of four 3-cycles). Hence it can't be isomorphic to C3, and no surjective homomorph can exist.
I think what is intended is that you say something like: Because there is a normal subgroup of order 4, the isomorphism theorem says there must be a surjective homomorphism to a group of order 12/4=3. And the only group of order 3 is C3.
However, when we observe the elements of the quotient A4/V4, it is not cyclic (first coset is V4 itself, second coset consists of four 3-cycles, third coset also consists of four 3-cycles).
I don't understand what your argument is here, but the conclusion is false.
That makes a bit more sense than my previous interpretation.
However, I still do not fully understand. The First Isomorphism theorem in my textbook (Aluffi) reads: Let $\phi: G \to H$ be a surjective homomorphism, then $H \cong G / \ker \phi$. Are you suggesting that there's sort of a "reverse" (not converse) interpretation of this? Does it follow naturally from the definition I'm given?
Andrew
TBQH, I can never remember a numbering or exact statement of the isomorphism theorems. (According to the Wikipedia article, different books number them differently anyway).
The property I need here is just that |G| = |G/N|·|N| for a normal subgroup N. In this case, then we have |G|=12 and |N|=4, so |G/N| must be 3.
(Which, now that I look it up, is not generally considered to be one of the isomorphism theorems, but a variant of Lagrange's theorem).
Ah gotcha, thanks! Just to clarify, the only group of order 3 is C3, so, since we found a group G/N with |G/N|=3, then it necessarily means that they isomorphic?
That's cuz it's the only iso. thm
Hello
I have a problem that says: If A is a ring and the set of zero divisors is finite then A is finite.
But I think this is false
For the case where the only zero divisor is 0
Because we only know A is an integral domain
If we have at least one zero divisor ≠0 then the problem is true
Yep if the only zero divisor is 0 you can look at the real numbers as a ring. its not finite but only has 1 zero divisor
If there is more than 0 as the zero divisor but at the same time its finite then A has to be finite.
cause:
I know
ah ok
I did it
I have a question could somebody help me understand the following proof:
I dont understand how they get the formula sum_c\d (psi(c)) = d
I supposed that A is not finite. Then I took a zero divisor ≠0 d1 so it must be d2≠0 zero divisor s.t. d1d2=0 (or d2d1=0 doesnt matter). And then I took the set M={a in A{0} s.t. ad1≠0}. This set is not finite. First suppose there is no a in A{0} s.t. ad1≠0 so ad1=0 for all a in A{0} and this is false because we have a finite set of zero divisors. So M has at least one element. Now if we suppose M is finite, M is in A,but because A is finite we need to have an infinite number of elements a in A\M s.t. ad1=0 and again this is false. So M is not finite and now 0=d1d2=(ad1)d2 with a in M. But because M is not finite we have again an infinite number of zero divisors which is false. So A must be finite.
It is ok?
yep basically you do: there can only be finite zero divisors, if there are finite elements in total we are done. So we assume there are infinite elements with only finite zero divisors. Now you take such a d*b=0 while d=/=0 and b=/=0. you multiply a element that is not a zero divisor (since we have infinite elements and only finite zero divisors we must be able to find such an element). and multiply it by d. Now you have a*d=/=0. but also b=/=0. Now we multiply simply a*d*b. this must be 0 so a*d is a zero divisor. So it follows that we have infinite zero divisors.
Thanks
Is just a ring
I saw too that the problem has some missing information (the case when we have only one zero divisor)
I saw something cool that the number of elements of a finite ring R can be upper bounded by some value which depends on the number of zero divisors
Is it true?
Yep
Imagine you have 2 zero divisors
We already know for every non zero divisor we get another one. At max we have 4 elements. +1 due to the 0
cause let a and b be zero divisors, now your other elements fullfil that ac=b , and bc=a, since those are zerodivisors but we only have 2.
actually it sorta depends on if its abelian
atleast from what im trying to write
but id definetly reckon that there is a way to upper bound it
Yes foe abelian
Finite commutative ring R with n+1 zero divizors.
The ring R doesn't have more than (n+1)^2 elements
Yea
If we take x a nontrivial zero divisor his annulator Ann(x) has at most n+1 elements. Now take phi: R/Ann(x)-->D, where D is the set of zero divisors. phi(r+Ann(x))=rx. And phi is surjective so n+1>= the order of R/Ann(x) and from here we have that the order of R is <= (n+1)^2
Now an example where the equality holds is Z/4Z
But
Can we generalize these type of commutative rings with (n+1)^2 elements?
I think it depends on terminology. Some sources don't consider 0 as a zero-divisor, so chances are that in your problem they meant that the set of non-zero zero divisors is nonempty and finite.
x^d = 1, has d roots. And each root has order dividing d. So there are exactly d elements that have order dividing d.
The elements of Z(G) would be such that they commute with all other elements in G
And the elements of the Kernel are such that the image of g is the identity permutation
So where the image of x is x…?
Don't ping specific users for help
Oh sorry
This question isnt too roundabout; write down all the definitions
He helped me once before with group theory so
if ur stuck, show where ur at
I’m legit just trying to understand what to do
Dp you have a moderation problem?
No …?
Then don't ping.
Sorry, I didn’t know 🥲
It shouldn't take any particular knowlegde to refrain from harassing someone for having helped you once.
if θ(g) is the identity action, what must g be doing via conjugation
Sending x back to x?
wdym?
what do you mean by gxg-1 = x
So the action g * x is defined as the conjugacy action of G on itself
harsh
Hence so I mean $gxg^_1$
Ash
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
admittedly i can't see the deleted messages
i was looking for something else
I wrote “can you take a look at this please “with his @
if θ(g) is the identity action then it must be that the identity gxg-1 = x holds for all x in G
Uhhhh
Yes that’s what I meant but in a badly mathematical written way I guess
being clear helps when you're thinking about ideas you've written
and here it basically gives you the answer
Then gx = xg
For all x in G
By definition that means that all x commute with all other elements in the group so that means all x in G are elements of Z(G)
uh
So the kernel = the centre
no
take your time
So here’s what I mean
you wrote more but not clearer
Which bit needs to be clearer..
actually maybe i shouldn't be so harsh
No pls b harsh
well when you say "Elements of Z(G) are such that xg = gx" what are you referring to
So I’m saying that for some x in Z(G), xg=gx for all g in G
yeah, fully quantify statements
Yes, put another way
now i'm being overly pedantic of course, but they're not the same
its the difference between
And we wanna show that x satisfies a certain condition so we use if ?
exist x in Z(G) : forall g in G : xg = gx
forall x in Z(G) : forall g in G : xg = gx
Those are the 2 statements im seeing, which mean different things
that's what this is
I dont know what u mean though, isnt that the definition of ZG
maybe im under a rock here
unfortunately still not quite
What’s missssinnnnngggggg
We’re tryha show that it’s equal to ker (theta)
Refer to the question again
Part c for reference
Z(G) in #groups-rings-fields and Z[G] in #advanced-algebra very lol
I do remember your overall goal, I was confused by what this meant

