#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 180 of 1
Here's a nice example of a relatively natural operation that is commutative, but isn't associative. The operation is taking the midpoint of two vectors. If your space is at least two dimensional, then this will not be associative despite being commutative.
In fact now that I think of it, I don't think you even need the space to be two-dimensional
The operation is the midpoint of two vectors, as in the position vector of the midpoint ?
In some sense, naturalness to me has to do with functions. categories.

it takes in two vectors and spits out another vector
yes
You do need it to be at least one dimensional :-)
I see. Thanks everybody!
Categories were invented to give a proper meaning to naturality
Roughly speaking
to talk about natural transformations, you needed functors
to talk about functors, you needed categories
Let k be a perfect field of char = p. Is k( t^(1/p) ) a purely inseparable extension of k(t) (the field of rational functions) ?
Yes
Why is that? It's not obvious to me from the definition that requires every element having some pth-power in k(t). It's clear for the base field since k is perfect (forgot to mention), and it's clear for the pth-root of t, since the pth-power is t and so in k(t). I guess one can, from those two facts, show that any other element has some pth-power in k(t)?
In characteristic p you have (f(x)/g(x))^p = f(x^p)/g(x^p)
Because x |-> x^p is a homomorphism
I understand, thank you
(the coefficients will also be raised to the pth power, but you get the idea)
The connection between normal subgroups and homomorphisms
Every homomorphism out of G is given by a normal subgroup of G?
Is that true?
Any homomorphism out of G has ker(phi) as a normal subgroup of G
the kernel of a homomorphism is always normal, yes
So there is a connection between factor groups and homomorphic images?
that's the first isomorphism theorem
Right , i see that
My book did some things out of order that i may want clarification on
My break is over tho (im at work)
The sum of the ideals (x^2-y^2)+(x^2-2y^2) is just (y^2)?
Because we have like a negative copy of the first which sort of gets rid of the x^2 part
But I feel uncomfortable with this answer because I don’t believe (y^2) is the smallest ideal containing both of these ideals
I actually do believe this answer sorry
a good way to check is to just write down what it actually means to add up two ideals, taking all finite sums of elements in those ideals
I thought about that but like r(x^2-y^2) + (r-1)(x^2-2y^2) gives you a term of x^2.
It’s possible I’m thinking about it wrong
what's r here
scalar in the underlying field
Ye
yeah, personally I really cannot see why it should be y^2
The sun should be (x^2, y^2)
yeah that seems a lot more likely
I sort of wanted to say that like ideals are abelian groups, by definition we have 2 sub abelian groups which are the ideals we want to find the sum of, for every element in one of them we can find one in the other that cancels the x squared term
you can get an x^2 by just doing 2(x^2-y^2)-(x^2-2y^2)
I thought it was that but I felt like I was going to get gaslit
Sure, but you can also find stuff that doesn't cancel x^2
I didn't know the sun was an ideal.
True that’s where my confusion was because I thought I was going to get something clean.
Thank you
same I just didn't have the confidence to admit it 
If you throw stuff at the sun, it gets absorbed 
I'm easily gaslit 
The ring of the cosmos
We're all gaslit by the sun
Btw, do we have to move our shitposting here now?
Consequences of no algechill i guess 
Alright, then I will move my shitposting here 
It's just like aa before algechill
Ok wait so what’s the smallest ideal containing (x^2-y^2) + (y), just (y,x^2)
Gotta be true
Yeah i think (I'm gonna get gaslit)
A good test to check if (f, g) equals (h, k) is if h and k are in (f, g) and f and g are in (h, k)
Right thats what I did just want external validation to avoid potential incompetency
Alright, then I will validate you:
Good job, you did it!
:3c is wrong though (even though they agree)
I dont know about self deprecating felt more corporate type beat
never seen jagr like this.. very scary..
I forgot to set my calendar. Currently October 31st for me
,ti jagr2808
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Oh
eternally halloween
Halloween scary
,ti --set halloweentown
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alg-chill gone? 
Lawnmower ran it over 
twasn't lawnmower
I ardly knew 'er!
Wow ryx is fast
Ryx is many things.
How can i show that if H <= G with G finite then n_p(H) <= n_p(G)
What is n_p here?
number of sylow-p subgroups
assume that n_p(H) > n_p(G) and arrive at a contradiction from the fact that there has to be a sylow subgroup of G containing multiple sylow subgroups of H
for a hint, assume T, T' are two sylow subgroups of H contained in a sylow subgroup S of G, then consider the order of <T, T'>, which is both a subgroup of S and H
thank you i’ll try this
so we know that the order of the subgroup generated by T and T’ divides the order is S and H
is there anything else we know
it's a subgroup of S, so it has to be a p-group, but since T and T' are different sylow subgroups <T, T'> is strictly bigger than both of them
but <T, T'> is therefore a p-subgroup of H bigger than sylow subgroups of H.,.... uh oh!!!
are we using the assumption that n_p(H) > n_p(G) to know there are atleast two sylow p subgroups of H
no, we're using that assumption to know that there are at least two sylow p-subgroups of H contained in a particular sylow p-subgroup of G
is there any non-trial and error way to see that $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{3}) \subseteq \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2} + \sqrt{3})$
okeyokay
because i'm trying to hack away at elements in Q(sqrt(2) + sqrt(3))
to get to sqrt(2) or sqrt(3)
i mean i got sqrt(6) in there
In field theory, the primitive element theorem is a result characterizing the finite degree field extensions that can be generated by a single element. Such a generating element is called a primitive element of the field extension, and the extension is called a simple extension in this case. The theorem states that a finite extension is simple ...
just linalg
(3sqrt(2)+3sqrt(3))/sqrt(6) = 1/6(3sqrt(2)+2sqrt(3)) then subtract the correct multiple of sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)
oh ok
can i get a hint for this question pls
think about the splitting field. what does f factorise as
yeah i looked up a hint and they said write f as (x - c)^p and then assume that f is reducible
so that f has a factor (x - c)^r for 1 \leq r < p
ye
so now we want to show that c is in F
and that if f(x) = (x - c)^rg(x) that g(x) splits
well you just need to show c is in F
wait y
you're showing that if f is reducible then it splits
yea
so don't i need to also compose g(x) into linear factors in F
to get the entire thing to be a product of linear factors
oh
nvm
wait f(x) = (x - c)^;p
i just had a startling realization
quotienting a group by its commutators is akin to the construction of the tensor product
🤯
damn
save some for the rest of us right?
in what way
what's an example of a homomorphism which doesn't preserve elements in the centralizer the groups
i.e. f: G --> H g in centralizer of G but f(g) not in centralizer of H
like you quotient by the relations you want to obtain
cuz u wanna make the group abelian in some sense
and for tensor products you want the properties that satisfy bilinear maps
"centralizer of G" you mean the center?
consider the inclusion {id, (1,2)} --> S_3
oh right
aren't they the same thing
Yes
first (general) thought is where G is abelian and H has trivial center (a non-abelian simple group would work)
and where f isn't trivial
even easier take H a group with trivial center, G a cyclic subgroup, and just embed it
oh right lol forgot about trivial centers
Isn’t the centralizer of a subset of a group is the set of elements that commute with it?
Edit: each element of it
yea but i was talking about the centralizer of G and not any particular subset
that’s only if G is abelian
sorry
yeah the centralizer of G is the center of G
yeah
this is sort of misleading
well commute with each element
rather than the whole subset as a thing
oh, right
Suppose that A is a 4×4 matrix with rational entries and whose characteristic polynomial is x^2(x^2 + 1). Produce a finite collection S of explicit matrices and show that, for some B in GL4(Q), BAB^−1 belongs to S.
I know the idea is form someting like this
Look at the definition of diagonalization
right, I want to show that A is diagonalizable right?
what do you mean?
Oh wait no, it's not that simple
I'm used to working over GL(n, C)
If this was over C, these matrices would be a conjugacy class, with the one element of S being a diagonal matrix with entries 0, 0, i, -i
I think we figured it out
Yeah sorry I disappeared for a bit
I have another problem that is in Gln,C)
Let G be a finite subgroup of GLn(C), i.e. the group of invertible n × n matrices with entries in C. Let D be the subgroup of diagonal matrices in GLn(C). Show that if G is abelian then it is conjugate to a subgroup of D. (Hint: feel free to use that every simple C[G]-module is one-dimensional when G is abelian)
I think it has something to do with jordan decomposition of a matrix in Gl(n,C)
and then the hint means that the jordan blocks are 1d
Yeah I'm not seeing the trick to that one, good luck though, someone else here should be able to help
correct, that would be a normaliser
This is about semisimplicity, I guess
Just learned about the concept and this one seems very close
Maybe C[G] itself is semisimple? (Idk)
Q(sq2, sq3) has degree 4, and Q(sq2 + sq3) is a sub extension, so will either have degree 2 or 4. If the degree is 4, there equal.
So you just have to show it's not degree 2. Squaring sq2+sq3 gives something involving sq6, so it can't be in the span of 1 and sq2+sq3. Hence it's not degree 2.
A matrix is determined to to similarity by its invariant factors, so you just have to consider the different ways x^2 (x^2 + 1) can be divided into invariant factors.
Thinking about it through the structure theorem for PIDs can be useful
Fun fact: if G is a finite group and K is a field whose characteristic doesn't divide |G|, then K[G] is semisimple. (This is Maschke's theorem)
here's what I'd do in a kind of general way,
x = sqrt(a)+sqrt(b)
(x^2 - a - b)/2 = sqrt(ab)
now notice if you multiply sqrt(ab) by x, you get a new linear combination,
x(x^2-a-b)/2 = b sqrt(a) + a sqrt(b)
now since the determinant of the 2x2 matrix is a-b !=0 it implies we can solve it.
so Q(sqrt(a), sqrt(b)) is contained in Q(sqrt(a)+sqrt(b))
6 hours late but idc I was sleeping. Take your group of matrices G, which can also be thought of a representation of G, and thus decomposes into a direct sum of 1 dimensional reps. What this decomposition actually looks like on the matrices is simultaneous diagonalisation of the entire group (which is possible because G is abelian, so the matrices commute with one another), hence the entire thing is conjugate to a subgroup of D, cause diagonalisation is just conjugating by a specific matrix
But that does not use the property of C[G]
Also, isn't this problem basically showing that simultaneous diagonalization is possible?
That’s literally what I just said…
Sorry, I forgot to read the above part.
Where does the "it decomposes into a direct sum of 1 dimensional reps" come from?
The hint said you could freely use that the irreducible representations were 1d
Oh. C[G] is the representation 💀
Well, C^n is a representation of C[G]
Sorry for my ignorance, I am yet to properly learn representation theory.
Then maybe don’t comment on a representation theory question
Okay sorry
Quickest way to get an answer to a question is always to post the wrong answer online 
You could use algebra to help understand this projection
Simone Weil called algebra one of the great evils of 20th century life
Does anyone know what the group given by permutation on two-set are called?
I.e. g in S_n acts on { {i, j} | i, j in {1,2,...,n} } by g{i,j} = {gi, gj}
The permutations of a set of cardinality 2 is S_2={e,(12)}
I think I’m misunderstanding the question though
I think in the case of n=2 its just the trivial group
Are you sure? Is the arrangement 12 the same as 21?
No because we’re talking about permutations
it acts on the set {{1,2}}, right?
The group should have cardinality n! and degree n choose 2
No no
S_n is permutations of 1,2,...,n
Right, and 2!=2
And (12)^2=e
and my group acts on all two sets {i, j}
so (1,2,3) acts on {1,2} and gives {2,3}
and (1,3)(2) acts on {1,2} and gives {3,2} = {2,3}
(if my cycle notation is correct (i hate cycles))
Won't it be a subgroup of S_{n choose 2}
Im speaking general n
n = 2 should be the trivial group
Maybe im completly misunderstanding
Oh you mean Sn is a subgroup of S(nC2)?
Well
Shouldn’t it have cardinality 2!
but the set it acts on has 1 element
Which there are 2 of (12 and 21)
I want the representation of $S_n$ thats given as permutation of the indeterminants $x_{{i,j}}$ by the action $g*x_{{i,j}} = x_{{gi,gj}}$
Hibana
no this is from self-study
I’m not as familiar with how Sn is defined that way
yea but idk this isn't really from a book in that way
It's because this action is the same as permuting the edges of graph on n vertices
and i want to do some experimentation on this with sage
but idk how to encode this group or action or whatever it is
I think this is better thought of as the set of bijective functions from a set of cardinality n to itself
Well for example i want to compute the molien series for a given n
and sage has this function
you can view this as S_n acting on vector space with basis x_{i,j} and then generate permutation matices
ok then what's the problem lol
as a permutation group
What is S_n if not a permutation group
Well any group is a permutation group
This source literally defines it in terms of bijective functions
this representation is faithful so you can map the permutation matrices back to the permutations
No??
yes, cayley's theorem
they're not permutation groups apriori though
I thought that said something else nvm
yur the regular rep
I still don't understand what this means
Idk either lol
the map sending permutations to permutation matrices is a group isomorphism, just take the inverse map
You're probably right it's just S_n
But the moliens series i wish to compute is not that of S_n (as given as the example in the link)
embed your group G into S_n for some n, then take the permutation matrices
the image of this composition is isomorphic to G by first iso because everything is injective
Ok looking back at one of the article i was reading i think it's what's confusing me
he calls it a subgroup
well yeah, S_10 does not have order 120
He writes G = TransitiveGroup(10,12)
the english in this extract does not fill me with joy
Yea okay so he considers S_5 within S_10
yur
Hahah no me neither
It's a fr*nch article
Also i don't even think that TransitiveGroup(10,12) is what I want
When i compute the molien series of it with sage i get something much different from my own molien series
(but that's besides the point again)
can someone explain why the orange note is true?
Moliens series depends on the representation, not just the group though. So if you let your group act on a different set you should expect a different series
Yea i think that's my main blunder here. I should've known that by now lol
So I guess what i want is a name (if it exists) to the specific representation i gave here
Or just some way to express it (either as a matrix group or a permutation group (of degree (n choose 2))) in SageMath without having to write down the cycles by hand
There is no orange
Like, which of those colors are you calling orange
Because I don't see anything orange there at all
yeah nothing there is orange
color-shifted? 
there is lmao
i noted with red then i added yellow
yellow+red=orange
the orange note is the last one
That's red
that might be a dark orange on some screens i see now, but fairly red
onto aka, surjective, (being more sensible with naming)
==
"function into A" means A is the codomain
"function onto A" means A is also the image
Another problem that could've been avoided if only people weren't so scared of using the word "surjective"
Also, this isnt #groups-rings-fields but more like #proofs-and-logic
"one-to-one" vs "one-to-one correspondence" moment and more bullshit
But Shuri you don't understand... a word with more than three syllables is just too much for undergrads!!!
then we have people who apparently use range to mean codomain rather than image!
absolutely bananas
“correspondence”

Now wait until you hear about the french who agree with us that the naturals are the positive integers.
Tbh I do like that we can call them positif and not nonnegative. That word is annoying.
But yeah, then we have increasing meaning non-strictly 
Aha, but we can just say monotone 
wait.
i thought monotone means non strictly
it just means your sequence is either all increasing or all decreasing
anyways, that's for the analysts to worry
call them weakly positive
Hiya, if i take an invertible matrix A how can i see that it's in the orbit of diag(det(A),1,1,…,1) the action being left-multiplication by SL(n)??
SL(n) is the kernel of the determinant map, hence GL(n) is partitioned into cosets of SL(n), one for each value of the determinant. These cosets are clearly fixed by left-multiplication by SL(n), and SL(n) acts transitively within each one, hence these are orbits of the action of SL(n) on GL(n). From here it's you can see that because each matrix of determinant x is in the coset diag(x, 1, 1, ..., 1)SL(n) that your result holds.
It includes zero 
Where in the field of fractions construction is the integral domain condition used?
i.e. where does it go wrong for a plain ring with no other guaranteed structure
If R\{0} has zero divisors in it the construction will give you back the 0 ring
Or sorru
Not necessarily the 0 ring
Let me think about the specifics for a minute
it's just not local right, or rather not a field in this case
The point is that inverting zero divisors is not possible
Without fucking stuff up
In particular you'll not get a field
Oh yea sorry, it'll definitely be the 0 ring in this case
Let R be a ring, and let F = R x (R \ {0}).
- Define the equivalence relation
~onFby declaring(a, b) ~ (c, d)iffad = bc. - Define addition on
Fby declaring(a, b) + (c, d) = (ad + bc, bd) - Define multiplication on
Fby declaring(a, b) * (c, d) = (ac, bd) - Declare the additive identity to be
(0, 1) - Declare the multiplicative identity to be
(1, 1) - Define the additive inverse of
(a, b)to be(-a, b) - Define the multiplicative inverse of
(a, b)where(a, b) not ~ to (0, 1)to be(b, a)
So, what happens is, if you have zero divisors, R\{0} is not multiplicativelu closed
So the construction doesn't even go through
Yea
yea that'd be pretty bad
localise at R

Also, if you try and do a similar construction eith a smaller set than R\{0}, and your ring isn't an integral domain, then you need to modify the relation
So that it'll actually be an equivalence relation
You can generally take a "total ring of quotients", which is a similar construction localising (inverting) all nonzerodivisors
And this always works, as long as you modify the equivalence relation
The modification is such: (a,b)~(c,d) if there is n in the set we're localising (so in this case a nonzerodivisor) such that adn=bcn
When your ring is an integral domain this reduces to what we had before since we can just cancel n on both sides
In general, because we can't cancel showing transitivity is not possible unless we add this modification
You can think of this is the fact that you can expand the numerator and denominator by multiplying them by the same element
Or cancel a common element
hm ok I don't know about localization besides what you wrote here and some Wikipedia
But it's saying you can localize wrt any multiplicative set
meaning 0 could be inside that set
so I guess it's fundamentally different than the field of fractions construction
Yes, zero could be in that set, and you'd get the zero ring.
In fact you can show that the natural map from R into the localisation of at some multiplicative set is injective iff the set contains no zero divisors — if I remember correctly at least.
this sounds correct, because if a is a zero divisor you have the unit messing things up in the equivalence relation
It's really not fundamentally different from the field of fractions construction though. With a very small adjustment the construction looks exactly the same, and in fact as mentioned if you localise at a particular prime of an integral domain (i.e. 0) then you just get the field of fractions
And in fact localisations of integral domains are just particular subrings of their fields of fractions
wait I wanna try and do this properly
The map is r → r/1 and r/1 ~ 0/1 iff there is some element s such that s(r - 0) = 0 right
So there you go
some unit s, yeah
If there's a zero divisor s in the set, the map isn't injective.
I think it's a unit

googling...
I misunderstood bc I thought you meant some unit in the original ring
don't make me bring out the 🇺 🇵 🇴 🇳 🇹 🇭 🇪 🇼 ℹ️ ✝️ ♑ 3️⃣ 🇸 💲 🇮 🇳 🗜️
stolen
Indeed I am a thief
Ah so then it doesn't embed?
Oh it could still embed in a fucky way lol that's scary
Well idk maybe
I mean you could do something stupid like take your ring to be R^N then localize with respect to elements where only the first coordinate is 0. Then the localization is again R^N, but the localization map just shifts everything down and kills the first coordinate
that's awful
jagr honourable 
Woopwoop
You can never leave this server just like us 
ryx was wondering when jagr would ascend
Not sure what that entails, but I appreciate it
Still not G+ though
Maybe next year
I imagine the backlog is immense
idk there are fresh accounts with G+
your application probably didn't go through
I rejected it
Should I like toggle the button or...?
Doesn't really matter anyway I guess
fixed it
It's not too bad actually
We have a few small logistics problems to iron out
Alright, now I can enact my secret plan of spamming the graduate lounge with links to my sick pyramid schemes
It was really bad when we opened it up to the public
indeed
Sick like "sick bro!" or sick like "twisted" I NEED to know bc I need money thanks
sick cohomology
Aho-Corasick
the average application was/is "math" or "book" in all three questions
Bet someone spammed it
I have a question here, the $\sigma(\alpha_2)$ is undefined? Maybe $\alpha_2$ is not in $L_1$
WT
Should be sigma(alpha_2^n_2)
Hi, dumb question (don't hit me pls):
Let A a ring, B a subring of A (assuming all conditions are verified).
Can we see B as a ring too? 🤔
thank you!
@blissful zinc B must be a ring in that case. Subring conditions are just those ring properties that one needs to verify because they are not already implied by A (?)
subring is a ring
okay ty for not hitting me because of that question
subobjects are objects yeah
lol i remember struggling with this proof
took me like 5 reads to understand it
I compare different editions and this typo seems is always there
I mean usually you'd expect
sigma(a)^n = sigma(a^n)
So from that perspective it makes sense I guess
does that mean the author wants to extend sigma from G(L1/F) to G(F-bar/F) ? But in this step, he only mentions sigma is in G(L1/F), then sigma(alpha2) is undefined..
there is a chapter?
Nah, I just meant from like a notation perspective
What are the importance of Klien-4 group? Other than elements being self invertable?
it's the only other group with 4 elements
but can we interpret sigma as some automorphism tau in G(Fbar/F) and sigma is hence the restriction of tau in G(L1/F) ? but even by this way, the sigma(alpha2) is still undefined in G(L1/F) , but the value do equals sigma(a)^n = sigma(a^n)
Sigma can be extended to Fbar, but the extension isn't unique, so sigma(alpha_2) still wouldn't really be well defined
Smallest non-cyclic group,
normal subgroup of S4 (thus only non-trivial normal subgroup of Sn that isn't An),
galois group of x^4 + 1
Not sure why it gets a special name though. Think that's just historical reasons
it is just historical iirc
how do I prove, it's the smallest?
Any group G whose cardinality is less than 4 is always cyclic ?
it's small enough you could literally just exhaust every option
or use the fact that 2,3 are prime
say for |G|= 3
do you have lagrange's theorem
G={e,a,b}
not yet
ok fair enough
clearly, a and b must be inverse pair
else it will contradict |G|=3
right?
yeah so you do have lagrange's theorem
and this completely determines the structure of the entire group!
i haven't studied it yet
i just know the statement
you can use the same train of logic to show that any group of order p is cyclic
The order of a subgroup must divide the order of the group
yeah exactly
because only subgroups are {0} and p ?
yup, or since each element is order 1 or p, each element is a generator!
everything non-trivial generates G yeah
is there a cyclic group of 3 elements other than Z3?
it's a very trivial result that all cyclic groups of the same order are isomorphic
when you say not-well defined, can I interpret is as, given two conjugate mappings, $\tau_1$ and $\tau_2$ in Fbar, where $\tau_1(\alpha_2)\neq \tau_2(\alpha_2)$, and the restriction $\tau_1=\tau_2=\sigma$ in $L_1$, but we have $\tau_1(\alpha_2^{n_2})= \tau_2(\alpha_2^{n_2})=\sigma(\alpha_2^{n_2})$
I don't think there is any multiplicative group of order 3, because totient functions are always even
? confusing statement
there are plenty of groups of order 3, they're just all isomorphic
I mean, U(n)
take for example the rotations of a triangle
I think they mean Z/n^x
WT
my point is who cares
this cannot have an group having even order
if it's order 3 it has to be cyclic that's what we've just shown
you mean odd?
yes
^
Ah I see
I would say if not the latter wew can teach you why it should be the latter
all categories are skeletal
There is only one group of order 3 up to isomorphism
It is Z/3
It is never the multiplicative group of Z/n but it is a subgroup of Z/7^*
Generated by 2
hello?
HAI!! :3
Yes, indeed
big big thank you!
you changed name?
I have been called this since 2013 on every platform you can think of
but I remember your mid name seems changed?
Wew lids tbh 
oh yeah that was for halloween
MODS
every platform? Does it include this one?
especially that one
:uponthewitnessing:
oh maybe the reversed? kid nap parent?

Hello! Could someone guide me through the following exercise? Let $M = \mathbb{R}^2$ be considered as an $\mathbb{R}[x]$-module through the linear transformation $T(x, y) = (0, y)$. Find all the submodules of $\mathbb{R}^2$.
Kenny
ok well first do you understand how R[x] is acting on R^2?
How can i interpret the fact that if a group is simple, the only homomorphisms out of the group are either one to one or trivial
all non-trival representations of a simple group are faithful
consider the kernel
or even better, if there's a map from a simple group to anothr group, that map has to be injective
I really don't understand what you're asking tbh
I guess, a way to interpret it
What i said was correct right?
consider the kernel
In a simple way
This is a meaningless question
Are you asking for a proof?
you are a meaningful statement
Like, you could interpret it as viewing simple groups as not being able to be split into any smaller parts?
Yes something like that^ is what i was trying to think of
I’ll let tropo post cause he’s clearly got something in mind
Yeah i was thinking of them as this
Yeah the kernel either all of G or its just e
what about a magnet
which gives u what ur saying
thats it
what reference is this
There definitely are rings whose multiplicative group has order 3: the field with 4 elements is an example. (This can e.g. be constructed as the quotient ring Z[X]/<2, x²+x+1>).
this is how i feel when jagr starts typing
Ok fair, i guess im just trying to have an intuitive sense of things as well
He just meant Z/nZ* tropo
Even there I pointed out n = 2 but it didn’t seem to bother him LOL
Yeah, but it might be interesting to him all the same.
true
Sorry I didn't get up the the later discussion. What was I supposed to be typing? :-)
Some mind bending insight into simple groups 
||not cool||
I'll let you know if I ever understand the Monster.
@delicate orchid i was thinking of something like this fyi
So if i were to ask a question like this again how should i phrase it
I guess to people who have studied it for a while this type of thinking is trivial
But not for someone whos learning for first time
Ok then yes there is an analogue to prime numbers using decomposition series
Thats cool
The slight trouble with that explanation is that even if we know that G/N = H for some normal subgroup N, and we know all about N and H themselves, that is not in itself enough to know which group G is. That situation is different from building the integers from primes.
It is still better than nothing, though.
Cause u dont know still the specific elements and operation that make up G ?
So u dont know G in that sense?
Oh its more than that?
For example suppose I tell you I'm thinking of a group that is "built from" the cyclic groups of order 7 and 2 in the sense that my group has normal subgroup isomorphic to C_7 and its quotient is C_2.
This does tell you something about my group, but it's not enough for you to know if I'm thinking of the cyclic group of order 14, or the dihedral group of order 14.
Figuring out exactly what we can say about a group when we know a normal subgroup and its quotient is the group extension problem, which as far as I know is not yet satisfyingly solved in general.
So i have shown that if G is a finite group of order n and there is some subgroup of G which has index k in G, then if n does not divide k! then G is not simple
how can i adapt the proof so that if n does not divide k!/2 then G is not simple
for the proof i have done, I acted on the left cosets with a permutation representation with a map from G to S_k and considered the kernel of the map
but i guess I can do the same thing but into A_k?
Ermm askchually it's COMPOSITION series not DECOMPOSITION series
I'm pretty sure the extension problem in general is undecidable
Or something to that effect
Hmm, if it is, then at least the Wikipedia article doesn't seem to deign to mention it.
The group-related problem that first comes to mind as undecidable is the word problem for groups, but that's not obviously the same as the extension problem.
I'm trying to find something on it rn because I remember hearing this from a credible source, but I can't seem to find anything
At least, the theory of noncentral extensions is really hard to develop in general because we can't apply regular homological algebra
"Really hard" does match what I believe I've heard. :-)
Wdym?
But even for central extensions the problem is not solved in any satisfying manner
no odd order group is abelian????!?!!!??
What?
All cyclic groups of prime order
wait no sorry
I mean I have no objection to calling it "really hard" rather than calling it "undecidable".
All odd order groups are solvable
Oh I misread does as doesn't
It's interesting tho, I can't find anything about the decidability of this problem
I should maybe do a more thorough literature review
If only I had mathscinet outside of campus
Whether a given finite group is an extension of this group by that group, should be trivially decidable, at least. The infinite case I have no idea about, and I could buy that could be undecidable under some appropriate input encoding.
this may be a weird ass question but is it true that every cyclic group has at max one element other than the identity that is its own inverse?
Yes.
oh shit
I was expecting a no
actually I think I know how to prove it
OH I KNOW
it's true in addition modn
because everytime n is even, n/2 + n/2 = 0modn, when it's odd it's just the identity
and every ciclic group is addition modn in desguise because it's addition modn with the ""exponents""
Yes.
I noticed a pattern suddenly and my heart told me this and now I proved it I love math so much
Does the auther skip some steps here? if $x^n-1=(x-a_1)...(x-a_k)(x-b_1)...(x-b_t)$, and all these $a_i$ are primitive roots, and all $b_j$ are non-primitive roots, since all automorphisms permute primitive roots with primitive roots, hence, all automorphisms permute non-primitive roots with non-primitive roots, this means the product $g(x)=(x-b_1)...(x-b_t)$ is invariant under all automorphisms, so $g(x)$ is in $Q[x]$
WT
I was thinking more given two groups how many extensions are there up to isomorphism
The author says this above, not sure why you're asking if they're skipping steps
the author says the $(x-a_1)...(x-a_k)$ is in $Q[x]$, but why he can immediately claim it is a divisor? we need to show the rest $(x-b_1)...(x-b_t)$ is also in $Q[x]$, right?
WT
He specifically says the cyclotomic polynomial is on Q[x]
The point is that the galois group not only sends roots of unity to roots of unity
It sends primitives to primitives
Ikr
Math is awesome
but he claims the cyclotomic poly is a divisor of x^n-1, that's what I am asking for
if $x^n-1=\Phi(x) g(x)$, and he shows $\Phi(x)$ is in Q[x], but we still need to show g(x) is in Q[x] then it is a divisor
WT
Well, if the galois group permutes all the roots of unity, and it permutes all the primitive roots of unity, where do the nonprimitive roots go?
nonprimitive permute with nonprimitive
yes, so this is what I am asking for, he skips this...
is there an elementary way to prove this? I mean if some poly f, g, h satisfying f=gh, and if we know f and g is in Q[x], then h is in Q[x]
Generally if g,f are in F[x] and f divides g in some extension, then just do division with remainder in the original field, the remainder has to be 0 in the extension so the other divisor is also in F[x]
Another way: gcd is invariant under extensions, so if f|g in some extension then gcd(f,g)=f, but this is also true in the original field, so f|g in the original field
Let E be the extension field, and F be the oringinal field, and f, g are in F, so in E we have f=gh, and also we do the division in E, and get f=gq+r, so we get gh=gq+r, gives g(h-q)=r holds in E, but the degree r< degree g, so h-q=0, hence r=0, but this is still on E, we still need to show h is in F ...
Uh no, do the division with remainder in F
So q is in F
Then use the fact that division with remainder is unique
So f=gq+r with q,r in F, but also f=gh, so over E we have both forms and by uniqueness h=q\in F and r=0
ah, right , i see, that's smart
(You argued this well enough)
It's just one of those standard tricks
hello
Consider a set $X$ equipped with a unary operation $\tau$. We define the equivalence class $[x]:={y\in X \left| \langle y\rangle=\langle x \rangle \right.}$.
huchaney
where $\langle x\rangle$ is the orbit of $x$ under $\tau$
I wish to prove that for orbits with $\langle x \rangle = [x]$, $\tau$ is bijective on $\langle x \rangle$
huchaney
surjectivity is pretty simple
injectivity seems very simple but I can't write a proof
help
it makes so much intuitive sense
I don't know if this is true or not
but it seems like it should
<x> = {t^n(x) | n is a positive integer}?
where t^n is compositoin?
composition*
@next frost
yea
lmfao
literally
whats <x> then
he says notation tau^n is "informal"
ig he is right
yea whats that
as the smallest invariant subset of a $(X,\tau)$
huchaney
all elements y such that t(y) = x or what
containing x
what
ohh
yeah this class seems cool
not for me tho
so its the smallest subset ,<x> such that t(<x>) = <x> ?
whats <x> tho
what are elements of <x>
"tau^n" is formally defined by the unique homomorphism from an initial object of the category of nullary unary structures to the relevant set you are considering

well <x> isn't an element of X so t(<x>) isn't defined
im sorry
it'd be $\tau_* \langle x \rangle \subseteq \langle x \rangle$
i meant whats <x>
woop
huchaney
and $x\in \langle x \rangle$
huchaney
the smallest subset satisfying this property
<x> is the orbit of x under t , so its the set of all y , such that t(y) = x?
whats t_*
direct image function
This @void cosmos?
this prof sounds like a funny guy
once i saw this i knew this isnt for me
lmfaaao
funny indeed
I am about to pull all my hair out
ig too much doxy but seems a nice guy man
I have a midterm tmrw
looks like someone is fucked
lmao an answer to my original question
Restate it pls
hold on
he wants to prove that if <x> =[x] then tau is bijecitive on <x>
where <x> is the orbit of tao
and [x] is = {y in X | <y> = <x>}
<x> the set of things which can be reached by t?
Do we consider anything in <x> as like, y such that ty = x
Consider X = N, t(x) = x+1
Each natural has a different orbit if we don’t including things which map to it, so [x] = <x> is essential
Clearly there exists y in <x> such that ty = x, otherwise y in <x> but not in [x]
sorry for interrupting just curious , what is this course's name?
Garbo complaint btw, just define $\tau^\omega[A] = \bigcup_{n<\omega} \tau^n[A]$ where $\tau^0=$id tbh
Dragonslayer Sharp
it's just introduction to abstract algebra
sad
but we spent half the semester doing category theory
would be cool if it was ilke
advanced algebra or something
or idk maybe u guys already know basic algebra
seems cool tho gl hf
Well, you know it’s surjective ye?
The silly tau thing
For injective, literally just suppose y, z both map to some w, then how does that doom you since functions (tau) are single valued
thank you!
of course!
you have wodzicki as a professor?
Yea this is next level 💀
But can they use the notion "Injectivity"?
damn bro he’s a goner
Well he mentioned it earlier and wants to show it’s bijective so 
Yea he mentioned the prof was extra picky, so I thought maybe prof does not like taking an element
struggling on this one
not sure how to bring the n across k_1 in n_1k_1 nh
since we only have normality of K in H
yeah, but N is normal in G
so kN=Nk for all k in g, a fortiori k in K
but wouldn't that change n to some other n'? don't we want nh NK = NK nh for any n, h
and we would want nh nk = n'k' nh
It would in general, yes.
Here’s a hint:
||Show NK=KN||
proof by multiplication table
every distinct product of elements of order 2 produce an element of order 3, and since the two elements of order 3 are inverses of each other, both must be included. Further, the directional products of any 3-element with a 2-element produce the other 2-elements.
I'm sure there's some symmetry that's more precise here that lets me prove this without being exhaustive about it, but when the group is small enough, sometimes brute force is worth it.
S_3 is rank 2 as a relfection group :pack:
sounds interesting, that'll be cool to get to.
Can we really use nakayama here? It's to show that a semisimple ring is semiprimitive
Nakyama's states that J(R)M = M => M = 0, so yeah
but M is finitely generated no?
R semisimple => R is artinian, so R has a finite length over itself, hence every maximal ideal is f.g, and again because R is artinian their intersections are f.g.
thus J(R) is f.g. by induction
ohh thanks!
no worries
Helloo im the nostalgia critic
question to talk through things:
the group generated by a subset of elements from some group G must be a subgroup, yes?
- it has to be a group, and uses the same operation
- the generators are part of G, and therefore all products of them have to be part of G for G to be a group
- inverses of the generators and their products must also be in G same as 2. (along with identity)
I'm not missing anything special am I?
I'd do lagrange
And that sort of trickery
I'm more asking basically that there's no way to generate a group that is larger than the group from which the generators are taken
Once you have two elements of order 2, you have a subgroup of at least 4 elements, so it must be whole thing
That they form a group is essentially by definition
the group formation is not in question, it's the size and membership, but just typing it up got me there I think
Oh so what is the first line doing then sure
No
Again this often holds by definition
How are you defining the subgroup generated by a subset of a group
if you could, then this immediately contradicts G being closed
yeah, thought so. I don't trust my own head for some reason
but potato is right in that you can see it by the definition as well
I would define it as the intersection over all subgroups of G containing that subset
I'm presuming you're using the "intersection of all subgroups that contain this set"
yeah ok
In which case it is by definition a subset of the group
intersection of all groups that contain the subset 
Intersecting a class of sets 
skill issue if u can't do it
holy smokes that's a lot of inequalities
I'm thinking you can do something similar to this hint
to get a linearly independent wedge product
but I'm not sure where to go from there, and then I don't know if that's actually related because I don't really get out coefficents
Holy moly is that a hint or the entire proof
basically the entire proof
because the only thing that's missing is like show that the two wedge products aren't 0
at the end
is anyone able to help?
this is not really group theory @chilly ocean
you would have more luck in #diff-geo-diff-top or #advanced-algebra
it's not really a #diff-geo-diff-top question but probably is most likely to be answered there
thie channel is fine for it
It's just that I ain't reading all that! (not like I'd be capable of solving it anyway)
the hint isn't relevant
It's just this problem if you have any idea how I should start
so simple means that a wedge a = 0 right? Inferring from context
yea
okay I will bite. So if $\alpha$ is not simple then $\alpha = \beta \wedge \gamma$, write $\beta, \gamma$ as $\sum_{i} b_i e_i, \sum_j c_j e_j$ and write $\alpha = \sum_{i < j} a_{i, j} e_i \wedge e_j$
n-Coskeletal E-Girl
this is always true though
right but you've said that a = b wedge g, which is a way more natural thing to call "non-simple"
good
so a_ij = bi \wedge cj?
no
you can't wedge scalars
the wedge product yes
i have a feeling this is just going to boil down to some annoying swapping of e_i and e_j
so now we forget about $\alpha, \beta, \gamma$ and instead think of $\alpha, \beta$ in terms of a pair of functions $b, c: {1, \dots, n} =: [n] \to K$ and $a: [n] \wedge [n] = {(i, j)|i, j \in [n], i < j} \to K$
woah wtf lol
yeah what the fuck
well the identity is purely combinatorial so i was going to prove it purely combinatorially
i'm just thinking of the $a_{i, j}$ as a function on pairs $1 \leq i < j \leq n$
oh ok
n-Coskeletal E-Girl
uhh
n-Coskeletal E-Girl
what's K? the base field?
wait im actually really confused here
what in the world is your definition of $\wedge^2 V$ if $v \wedge v$ is not always 0
that hint was for a previous problem
n-Coskeletal E-Girl
they're doing proof by contradiction in that hint?
n-Coskeletal E-Girl
like in our class?
This was the first problem we did, I've already done this one
yes okay
I figured the hint from part a would be helpful since it has a similar formulation, but it's not really interesting since we're not necessarily working in Lambda^2 here right?
sorry wew and I were being dumb
I still don't get how we can have alpha \wedge alpha be non-zero
if it's not simple
is there something here that is different to the normal exterior algebra I'm missing?
what
hold on
so the thing is that \wedge^2 \wedge^2 is not \wedge^4
Suppose V is 4-dimensional, and consider alpha = (e1 wedge e2) + (e3 wedge e4)
I'm stuff
so true
yeah the only relation is that you have wedges of odd degree things with themselves have to vanish
even degree is fine
these were fun to do at least!
Anyway okay
problem 1 made a lot more sense to me lol
let's get back to the original problem
okie
So we have $\alpha = \sum_{i < j} a_{i, j} e_i \wedge e_j$
n-Coskeletal E-Girl
right
So then $\alpha$ defines a nxn matric where $V$ has dimension $n$
n-Coskeletal E-Girl
specifically, it is the skew symmetric matrix with coefficients $a_{i, j}$ above the diagonal
I agree, although I have a feeling this might turn into what question 3 is trying to show
kinda
n-Coskeletal E-Girl
what is question 3?
wait, why is this true?
yeah this looks like the same thing
this is the other direction
this is saying if you are reducible then you have rank < 2
or no maybe it is the same
ugh okay
this question is an if and only if?
yeah ok
ah i didn't see the question
wedge product is alternating so the matrix has to be skew symmetric right?
well also we cannot really define the a_{j, i} in a sensible way besides that
ah fair
Okay well I will explain how problem 3 implies problem 2
then do problem 3 with linear algebra
So $A = (a_{i, j})$ defines a matrix $A: V \to V$, and the equation $\alpha \wedge \alpha = 0$, worked out in coordinates, says that the 3x3 minors of this matrix all vanish, or that $A$ defines the $0$ map $\Lambda^3V \to \Lambda^3 V$
where the map is induced by taking $A(e_i \wedge e_j) = (Ae_i) \wedge (Ae_j)$
n-Coskeletal E-Girl
this is equivalent to this matrix having rank <= 2
by usual linear algbera
So in this case we can choose a basis in which the image of $A$ is contained within the span of the first two basis vectors $e_1, e_2$
n-Coskeletal E-Girl
what 2x2 minors does alpha wedge alpha mean? Like why specifically are we working in Lambda2?
oh
n-Coskeletal E-Girl
so the mxm minors of a matrix are the determinants of the $mxm$ matrix obtained by deleting some k rows and k columns
n-Coskeletal E-Girl
where k = n-m
right right
uhhh
I guess specifically where does 3 come from in the formulation of this question?
okay so this comes from some linear algebra, but I didn't know this was unfamiliar to you
ah
it is definitely not always part of a linear algebra class
I've taken an elementary linear algebra course, this course I'm taking now is abstract algebra so we don't really touch that much on like proof based LA
so like we only did computational eigenvalues, determinants, etc stuff
not actually theory
ok haha, I was questioning it for a second. I think I can prove that
okay
great
so there are some vectors $e_1, \dots, e_r, f_1, \dots, f_r$ such that the $e_i, f_i$ span the image of our matrix $A$
n-Coskeletal E-Girl
wait is k characteristic 0?
This effects the ammount of work we have to do
all I have is the dimension of k, it's not necessarily finite so idk
okay then
hmm this is hard to do without algebra
what I want to say is that if we base change to the algebraic closure then A^2 is symmetric
k is characteristic 2 :thecosmoshumswithatunemostsweet:
I managed to prove the hint 
So it can be diagonalized
base change
found the alg geometer
then if A^2 is diagonal [possibly non scalar] we see that A is block diagonal with 2x2 blocks
so we can find vectors $e_1, \dots, e_r, f_1, \dots, f_r, g_1, \dots, g_k$ where $Ae_i = \lambda f_i$ and $A g_i = 0$
n-Coskeletal E-Girl
but there must be a better argument for this using just combinatorics
Another way to do it is to use the theory of the pfaffian but i doubt this makes sense if minors are too confusing
sorry, I have to go to class real quick. Thanks for the help! I'll look back and see if I can understand what you're suggesting better afterwards
I should really be doing research but this has properly nerdsniped me 
if you do decide to write up your answer tteg can you put it in spoilers it for me
nceg?
?
ok I think I've got it
let $\alpha = \sum_{i < j} c_{ij}e_i \wedge e_j$, then $\alpha \wedge \alpha = \sum_{i < j}\sum_{k < \ell} c_{ij}c_{k\ell}(e_i \wedge e_j \wedge e_k \wedge e_{\ell})$, we want to write this sum in the basis $e_i \wedge e_j \wedge e_k \wedge e_{\ell}$ with $i < j < k < \ell$, so if we have $k < j < \ell$ we need to swap $k$ and $j$ around, and if we have $j > \ell$ we need to permute $j \mapsto k \mapsto \ell \mapsto j$. Note the first permutation is odd and the second is even, so
$ \sum_{i < j}\sum_{k < \ell} c_{ij}c_{k\ell}(e_i \wedge e_j \wedge e_k \wedge e_{\ell}) = \sum_{i < j < k < \ell} (c_{ij}c_{k\ell}-c_{ik}c_{j\ell}+c_{i\ell}c_{jk})(e_i \wedge e_j \wedge e_k \wedge e_{\ell})$, if $\alpha$ is simple then this sum must be 0, but since the $e_i \wedge ... \wedge e_{\ell}$ are linearly independant, this sum is zero if and only if all of the $c_{ij}c_{k\ell}-c_{ik}c_{j\ell}+c_{i\ell}c_{jk}$ are zero, QED.
Wew Lads Tbh
But this just shows that that relation holds! You need to show why that relation implies that the matrix has vanishing 3x3 minors now
But even for 2, did you show that this means that the tensor is not simple?
I'm piggy backing off of the previous question. I'm taking that as granted
So is the symmetric group Sn the maximum amount of symmetries possible on an entity defined by n “axes” or degrees of freedom?
Or smth like that?
bit of a weird way of thinking about it
it's just the group of n points with no conditions about them, so yeah I guess it's the "most symmetry possible"
Ok thx
Are there any good youtube channels for studying group theory from the basics? Need it for a undergrad course
Why not use a textbook?
I will do that, but I just want to watch some introductory videos before that to get some motivation and basics in lol the textbook is really tedious
I see
https://youtube.com/playlist?list=PLztBpqftvzxVvdVmBMSM4PVeOsE5w1NnN&si=a2E_s1EVfKChD7Hd Any idea if this seems good?
I haven't watched it, so I don't know
what does lang mean by this?
namely can somebody explain more how we can always find a polynomial with nonzero constant term if alpha is algebraic over F
because α is nonzero
so $a_1\alpha + \cdots + a_n\alpha^n = 0$ implies $a_1 + \cdots + a_n\alpha^{n-1} = 0$
quasi_semi_group
Mathemaniac has a series similar to 3b1b
if a1 is zero you keep factoring α out
