#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 179 of 1
The bilinearity relations might give you different relations in the tensor product over R than if you just consider them as abelian groups. For instance, Z/2 (x) Z/4 = Z/2 as Z-modules, but viewed as Z/2-modules, the tensor product is Z/4
Explicitly, as abelian groups we have the relation (1, 3) ~ (3, 1) = (1, 1) whereas when we view them as Z/2-modules we can't write (1, 3) ~ (3, 1) since we don't have as many scalars in Z/2
My example might not be correct bc I'm sleepy but it seems like you've got the right idea anyway
I think you'll struggle to make Z/4 a Z/2 module
But for example if R = Z[x], then R tensor R over R is just R, but R tensor R over Z is Z[x, y]
Wow new wew pfp
yeah I lost no nostalgia novemeber
i mean
R tensor R over R is just R, but R tensor R
And if Z -> R is an epimorphism of rings, then the tensor products should coincide
could i take $(a6, b) - (a, 6b) = 0 \in A \otimes_{\mathbb{Z}} B$ and just take any ring $R$ not equal to $\mathbb{Z}$ and say that $(a6, b) - (a, 6b) \neq 0 \in A \otimes_R B$ or na
okeyokay
because while every R-module is a Z-module we don't have $R \subseteq \mathbb{Z}$ for every ring $R$
okeyokay
Question, is there always a homomorphism from N, a free A-module, to N' , a submodule of N, such that on N' the homomorphism acts as identity? (here A is commutative and has 1, if it matters)
because i'm a bit confused. if we fix R-modules A and B, don't we write A tensor_R B to signify that we're quotienting by the (ar, b) - (a, rb) relation?
Consider A=Z, N=Z, and N'=2Z
Oops yes, my example does not make sense
For A a field, I think this should be true?
like i'm not sure understand. if A is a right R-module and B a left R-module, don't we by definition also quotient by (ar, b) - (a, rb) in the tensor product A tensor_Z B?
just considering the first paragraph of this definition
like what the modules are over determines the relations we quotient by
so if they're both over R then for both of them we're gonna quotient by all elements of the form (ar, b) - (a, rb)
hence they have to be equal
for A semisimple it should be true
Have I misunderstood something then, or is this exercise plain wrong? Use A=N=Z, and N'=2Z like you said.
take the projection map from N to N' setting the appropriate simple modules to 0
Yeah well I don't know what that word means so it doesn't exist
No, only if r is in Z. The R in tensor_R is indicating which ring we pick the rs in (ar, b) = (a, rb) from
i see, i guess that makes sense
so this would work then
Do they give any limitations on A? Otherwise yeah I question that exercise since I'm pretty sure my example worka
no, only that A is commutative and with identity
can you not form a SES 0 -> N' -> N and then use universal property of N to get a map going backwards?
hmm
Let $M$ and $N$ be normal subgroups of a group $G$ and let $N \le M$. Then $M/N \lhd G/N$ and $(G/N)/(M/N) \cong G/M$.
Gev
sorry for being late
ah no, I'm assuming submodule of free is free I think
why is it that the typical element of $A \otimes_R B$ is not of the form $a \otimes b$ with $(a, b) \in F$? sure i understand, the typical element is of the form $\sum_{i = 1}^r n_i(a_i, b_i)$ but then don't we get that this element is in $F$ by closure?
okeyokay
A consequence is that we understand the quotients of quotients
there ya go
you literally just said "sure I understand" and then stated the answer to the question you're asking
LMAO
nah i'm wondering why $\sum_{i = 1}^r n_i(a_i, b_i) \neq a \otimes b$
okeyokay
or is not of the form $a \otimes b$
okeyokay
get 2 (x)_Z 1 + 1 (x)_Z 3 into an elementary tensor and i'll pay pal you 10 quid
for example the second Isomorphism theorem is used to prove that any subgroup of a metabelian group is metabelian, I'm looking for similar use cases of the third one for proving other facts
what's the conversion rate to dollars again
lemme just make it explicit
,w 10 quid to usd
oh bug off
thank you wolfram alpha, very cool!
I saw what you deleted.
ok guys i just got 2 (x)_Z_1 + 1 (x) _z_3 into elementary tensor
point is you can't write shit as elementary tensors all of the time
no way! it's almost like i'm asking why that's true! 🤯
elegantly put. correct!
I'm not entirely sure what you're doing in that example, but 6 is an integer. You'd want to look for a ring R where not all the elements can be expressed as some combination of integers
alternatively think about a vector space tensored with it's dual
even more specific, R^2 (x) R^2*
In general if S -> R is an epimorphism of rings, then tensoring over R gives the same as tensoring over S
you can't get something like
(1, 2)
(3, 4) as a multiple of an elementary tensor
for group theory, is there an example of a non cyclic group G such that Aut(G) is cylic?
if Aut(G) is cyclic then so is Inn(G), meaning Inn(G) must be trivial so G is abelian. Then we use the structure theorem to conclude that G must also be cyclic
important to note that the other implication doesn't hold, there are cyclic groups with Aut(G) non-cyclic
wdym the structure theorem?
the structure theorem of finitely generated abelian groups
there might be a way to do it without but I'm not going to think that hard
oh ok
just we havent covered that
and one of the practice problems is to show it is impossible or give an example
can you argue that if one element generated the automorphism group, then every automorphism is of the form g maps to g^a, so the group is cyclic?
I guess this still leaves the case of G abelian infinitely generated
what if Inn(G) is trivial (which it is if Aut(G) is cyclic as I said before)
fair point
maybe it doesn't hold for infinite groups actually
focusing on finite groups for now, if G is abelian non-cyclic then it has to have some C_p x C_p in it for some prime p, meaning GL_2(F_p) is a subgroup of Aut(G), hence Aut(G) isn't abelian
that's what I was getting at using the structure theorem
apparently it need not even be infinitely generated
I think this is a pretty challenging problem. Are you sure there isn't more assumptions on G, like it being finite abelian or something?
or just finite
I guess just ||ZxZ/2||
If G is finite and Aut(G) is cyclic then G is cyclic
No, just G
Then I guess maybe they want you to look for an example like this
I actually figured this out a few weeks ago in response to another person's questions, it's basically what Wew noted. But yeah for infinite groups it can fail
Damn, didn't notice that was Wew, thought there was a new person here
(Here is the full solution, but spoilers ofc if you want to do it yourself)
are they not equal because for instance, (x^2x, x^3) - (x^2, xx^3) = 0 in R tensor R over R but is not equal to zero in the tensor product over Z
are you sure?, ||we have the (1,0) -> (-1,0) map in Z but also the map (-1, 0) -> (1, 1) right||?
Hmm, yeah I guess the automorphism group is C2xC2.
I'm confused actually. If the group is rank 2, surely the endomorphism ring has nontrivial idempotents, so can't be Z
what I'm picturing in my head is two copies of Z ontop of eachother two copies of Z on opposite sides of a cylinder
we can swap the copies over, or spin one of them, or both of them, around
Thank you so much!
I really appreciate it
b-b-b-b-but this is what I said 
I had it lying around
glad it came in handy a second time
I said it first :^)
:o)
Maybe some day I will have answered every mathcord question and can just reference back to previous answers for everything
this does happen eventually I'm sure of it
can somebody give me a hint for b pls
Seems rank 2 doesn't mean finitely generated
strange but good. Because it should absolutely be true for finitely generated
can I pick A, B, R?
like you just want some dudes right
i think i'm still confused on the notion of having a free abelian group generated by the product of two modules. maybe i need to review but i don't see why it would just be equal to A x B by closure
oh wel
no homo but yea
half homo
It's like that joke:
A time traveler walks into an open mic. He sits down and hears the person on the stage, "13!" Everyone erupts into laughter. He continues, "32!", again everyone laughs. He leans over to the person next to him and asks what's going on, the person replies "we've heard the same jokes so many times we decided to just give them numbers". The time traveller decides to try it out and goes up to the stage. He yells into the mic "72!" And the crowd erupts into laughter lasting minutes. After he gets off the stage and the laughter dies down, he asks the person what the joke was that it was so funny. He goes "we:ve never heard that one before!"
so just let R be your favourite field, A = B = R^2 with basis {e_1, e_2}, then {e_i (x) e_j : i, j = 1 or 2} is a basis of A (x)_R B, so just take e_1 (x) e_2 + e_2 (x) e_1
if this was an elementary tensor it would imply a linear relation between elements of a basis which is a contradiction
That's a stupid joke tho the world building makes no sense
i dont get the joke at all
oh so the free abelian group on A x B would just be A x B again
what does having to be a time traveler have anything to do with that
no?
i'm confused
Nothing in that joke makes any sense
so we're considering A = R^2 and B = R^2
someone said72 and they laughed so then they went back in time and made that joke?
the free abelian group is all formal sums of elements of (A, B)
as R-modules
do you not have the theorem about the basis or something
No?
The joke is that no one ever said that number before
yeah but then wouldn't that give you back elements of (A, B)
formal sums
i probably need to review free abelian groups lol
well ok so like someone said "72" for the first time and they laughed so then the time traveller heard that, went back in time, then said "72" and the crowd burst into tears because he was the first one to say 72
The dissonance in the payoff against the established rules of the universe is part of the joke
we're not actually adding them in AxB, the "+"s are just a formality
you could write it as an infinite vector of coefficients if you wanted
No the time traveller is in the future
oh
I thought I said that, oops
oh ok it's starting to make sense
chat this joke isn't really that hard to get
basically every joke was made
so now they're just stating numbers
no this joke is mind boggling
reading comprehension issue
Ok we can keep discussing my impeccable humour in one of the discussion channels
Does this kind of make sense?
I was talking with friend about how to interpret cosets, normal subgroups, quotient groups
ok sorry i'm still a bit confused; (1, 0) (x) (0, 1) + (0, 1) (x) (1, 0) = (1, 1) (x) (1, 1) which is a elementary tensor, where am i off
A quotient subgroup is one of the factors 'on top' of the group
You can only obtain some of the factors in the composition series via quotients
damn this shit's hard
Right , “on top” does make more sense
:)
To justify the terminology a bit, if we think of subgroups as a lattice, we can see the structure of quotient groups as upper portions of the lattice
Normal subgroups are inside tho so can u sort of think of them as being factors in some sense?
This is the subgroup correspondence theorem, at least it might be called something like that to you
Can u get G’s overall structure by looking at all its normal subgrps?
Okay
There are plenty of groups with no nontrivial normal subgroups
Oh yeah
thanks
Anyway this justifies why we might think of certain factors being 'on top' vs 'on the bottom' of the group
They're almost literally on the top or on the bottom of the lattice structure
Wow this sounds weird
Quotients view the top, and subgroups view the bottom
Dont know tbat stuff yet lol
OK well
Sounds fun though
Im new to group theory
You know how subgroups can contain each other? If we draw all the subgroups with arrows from one to another if the first contains the second, we get a picture of what the subgroup structure of the group looks like
We'll put bigger subgroups near the top, and smaller subgroups near the bottom.
Oh yeah i have seen that
If you choose a subgroup, then the subgroups of that subgroup just looks like the same picture, but where we forget about all the points that don't have an arrow going into the subgroup we chose.
Similarly if you take a quotient by a normal subgroup, the picture we get there looks like everything above the normal subgroup we quotient by.
This would be easier with drawings but hey ho.
Lol ur pic
Q_8
Wew's grand artistry 🙏
Is that quaternions or someth
I tried to show how you can see the subgroup lattice for C_2 x C_2 in here as well
I've never thought of the correspondence theorem as taking upper/lower closures in the subgroup lattice
ah closures isn't the right word
I think I want to say ideals/filters
filter specifically
since it's upward closed, nonempty, and closed under intersections (since if A and B contain N, then so does AnB)
just chop everything underneath off nerds
or uhh i guess it's kinda trivially a filter. It's the upward closure of {N}
to expand $v_1e_1 + v_2e_2 \otimes w_1e_1 + w_2e_2$, would you just "multiply them" together to get something like $(v_1e_1 \otimes w_1e_1 + w_2e_2) + v_2e_2 \otimes w_1e_1 + w_2e_2$?
okeyokay
You are missing some important brackets lol
what helped me get them
$(v_1 e_1 + v_2 e_2) \otimes (w_1 e_1 + w_2 e_2)$
potato
is idk if youve done the 1st isomorphism theorem yet
and then yes, just use linearity
if not dw you will sson
but normal subgroups come from the idea of kernels of homorphisms
and the quotients are an extension of this
becuase one of the best uses of quotiengts
is they let you reduce a surjection into a isomorphism
you can think of it as surjections have a 1 to 1 correlation to quotiengts
(ofc surjective homorphisms not just set theoretic ones)
thats how I think of it
sorta
i'm not really sure what system to get to tho. i mean i expanded $(v_1e_1 + v_2e_2) \otimes (w_1e_1 + w_2e_2) = (v_1e_1 \otimes w_1e_1) + (v_2e_2 \otimes w_1e_1) + (v_1e_1 \otimes w_2e_2) + (v_2e_2 \otimes w_2e_2)$ all the way
okeyokay
well you can take out coefficients
the vectors e1 (x) e1, e2 (x) e2, e1 (x) e2 etc form a basis
so put it as a linear combiantion of those
oh so like for example $v_1e_1 \otimes w_1e_1 = (v_1 \otimes w_1)e_1$
okeyokay
no
v_1e_1 (x) w_1e_1 = v_1w_1 (e_1 (x) e_1)
oh
? why are you trying to tensor coefficients
idk
ok now i'm confused as to why for example $v_1e_1 \otimes w_2e_2 = v_1w_2(e_1 \otimes e_2)$
okeyokay
$va \otimes b = v(a \otimes b)$, agreed?
review the basic properties of the tensor product
SCARY Boytjie
or even bilinear maps
tensoring is bilinear
these were the properties my book listed:
they're the only things you can pull out?
well that's idiotic
Does there exist a non cyclic group G such that Aut(G) is cyclic?
Are you having R be a non-commutative ring?
they didn't specify it's commutative
It just depends on the definition of the module structure right – it makes sense
OK
are you in the same class as the other guy from earlier
no. f(ra, b) = rf(a, b) for all bilinear maps, that's the definition
Yes but we don't necessarily say it's R-bilinear
oh this is in the context of middle linear maps
if we're working with noncommutative stuff it would be different
it's the tensor product? what else could possibly be factoring through it
Remember the hom-tensor adjunction there is different:
incomprehensible cringe
ugh I'm not gonna write it out let me just find it
Anyway, to get back to what okey was struggling with.
ok i'm lost how does $v_1w_2e_1 \otimes v_1w_2e_2 = v_1e_1 \otimes w_2e_2$
okeyokay
If R is a commutative ring, we typically define A (x) B to have an R-module structure given by r(a (x) b) = ra (x) b.
Got it?
yeah
So without a definition, we don't have an R-module structure necessarily and it's not meaningful to talk about pulling out scalars like so.
This is what wew presumed you were doing, but because you didn't mention noncommutativity this wasn't clear
oh nvm i misread
Cool
so $v_1w_2(e_1 \otimes e_2) = v_1w_2e_1 \otimes e_2$ correct?
okeyokay
okeyokay
because doesn't $w_2e_1 = 0$
okeyokay
why would a multiple, of a basis vector of R^2, be 0
Why would this be true
i think i'm losing track of what things are
use (8)
No
and we're considering it over itself
Our module is R (x) R which is not R^2
Oh my bad you are talking about the right thing
I got ahead of myself
What
fuck it
never mind
You'd consider R x R as a module over R, not over itself
R x R is the module, R is the ring
R^2 (x) R^2 in fact but nvm
Wh
as in (0, w_2)
but didn't we agree these were scalars
wait but doesn't this imply that it's a scalar
multiple = scalar
WHAT???
What no
huh
w_2 is a scalar you JUST SAID THAT
oh wait i misread boytjie's comment
You know what I'm just gonna stop talking
gimme a min
assume towards a contradiction that $e_1 \otimes e_2 + e_2 \otimes e_1 = v \otimes w$, we can decompose $w, v \in \bR^2$ into our basis vectors $e_1, e_2$ giving $w = w_1e_1+w_2e_2$ and likewise for $v$. Hence
\begin{align*}
v \otimes w &= (v_1e_1+v_2e_2) \otimes (w_1e_1+w_2e_2) \
&= (v_1e_1) \otimes (w_1e_1+w_2e_2) + (v_2e_2) \otimes (w_1e_1+w_2e_2) \
&= (v_1e_1) \otimes (w_1e_1) + (v_1e_1) \otimes (w_2e_2) + (v_2e_2) \otimes (w_1e_1) + (v_2e_2) \otimes (w_2e_2) \
&= v_1w_1 (e_1 \otimes e_1) + v_1w_2 (e_1 \otimes e_2) + v_2w_1 (e_2 \otimes e_1) + v_2w_2 (e_2 \otimes e_2)
\end{align*}
we want this last line to be $(e_1 \otimes e_2) + (e_2 \otimes e_1) $, hence we have to have $v_1w_1 = v_2w_2 = 0$ and $v_1w_2 = v_2w_1 = 1$, but this system is inconsitent so it's impossible
WewGhostTbh
I still don't buy this non-commutative tensor-hom adjunction bullshit btw u get right back here

you tellign me that r(a (x) b) isn't ar (x) b
So because we need to worry about sidedness, when R is noncommutative we define the tensor product on a left R-module A and a right R-module B
yeah, that's fine
so we can still move scalars inside we just have to be careful about sidedness
Yeah
ok, maybe say that instead of posting THIS 
So now we need to think about the R-module structure right
And so we need to define that carefully
mfw all modules are (R,R)-bimodules :thecosmoshumswithatunemostsweet:
bc we can't define a left structure by r(a (x) b) = ar (x) b bc that would need the ring to be commutative
so that's what we need to think about
wait give me a minute
Sure, I'll write something else quickly
sorry I had to hold my hands up in "L" shapes to figure out why that broke
LOL
we'd need r(a (x) b) = (ra) (x) b
br surely
_ _
Whoops! I wrote it the wrong way around
ok we good then
I want it to look like ar (x) b = a (x) rb
yurrrr
I'm so glad this is always the case in my research
mb I think that does work lmao lol even
But yeah you get the gist
anyway
@white oxide does this make sense?
remoduled
no worries
eventually we stop caring about tensor products like this and just think of them as regular products in R-Alg, because they are
ok they're coproducts but w/e
i don't know what that is but i look forward to when i can struggle with that
thank god for exam replacement policy in my class
actually that perspective made them way easier for me to work with 
second midterm today on tensor products flat modules and category theory and i don't know shit about em
😹
all torsion free modules are flat and I won't hear anyone tell me otherwise
Not sure. I would guess dedekind domains work but that's just a hunch
like I know PID is projective => free
actually wha's the one for flat => projective
local?
googling...
I bet the definition of perfect ring is flat => projective
close!
Look at Bass' theorem, that's sick
(Bass' Theorem P) R satisfies the descending chain condition on principal right ideals. (There is no mistake; this condition on right principal ideals is equivalent to the ring being left perfect.)
wild
I hate rings so much
I guess it makes sense if a ring is perfect iff flat implies projective. Since wheter a left module is flat is about how it interacts with right modules
Ooh cool observation
Really
So how do you find the discriminant of (\mathbb{Z}[x]) when (x^3 + ax + b = 0)
StarvinPig
I just found out what a colimit exists today on my midterm
Previously I’ve never heard of that word
I think I got the solution tho, here’s my work:
homeslice that is the question
We have an option to not turn it in
fuck it
So it doesn’t count
fun exercises
What
Suppose M is a free R-module of finite rank and let phi be a R-bilinear map phi: M x M --> R. Let A = (a_ij) be the matrix corresponding to phi with respect to a basis (e_1,...,e_n) of M, so a_ij = phi(e_i, e_j).
I'm supposed to show that phi is non-degenerate (here, my book defines this as when the induced maps M --> M* are injective) iff det A is non-zero.
But my book has shown that a matrix with coefficients in some ring has non-zero determinant iff the corresponding linear transformation is injective. So could I just cheat and use the iso M to M* to make my argument?
this is our prof's policy
You do not have to take any of these tests except for the Final; and if you take the test, you do not have to turn it in. If you turn it in, it counts. If you do not turn in a midterm, it's weight will be added to the weight of the final exam.
Oh so now if you fuck up the final you're screwed
yup
isnt this literally the problem?
ut my book has shown that a matrix with coefficients in some ring has non-zero determinant iff the corresponding linear transformation is injective.
No, you only need to assume that all three indices are finite
Or in fact you can assume any two are finite, but that's kinda what you have to prove.
E.g. G = Z, K = 2Z, H = 4Z. Note K is infinite here.
I mean you could have G infinite and H infinite but G : H to be infinite as well
You certainly could but the question is probably not asking you to consider cardinal arithmetic, so just assume the indices are finite like I said.
sorry by indices you mean the orders?
No.
I mean |G : H|. That is the index of H in G.
If you're feeling like a big kid who can do big kid math then show there's a bijection G/H <-> (G/K) x (K/H) always.
oh ok
strange how the question states no such assumption
but it makes sense why you would
also one last question, do I need to assume |G : K| is finite specifically, since that's the larger group?
.
As I said, just assume they're all finite.
alright sweet! thanks for the patience
Assuming that |G : K| is finite is woefully insufficient
yeah I just realized now if K is larger group than the index would actually be smaller anyway 😄
So if I have a ring where addition is defined as x(+)y = (x+y-1) and I want to verify that the distributive laws hold, is the following the correct way to do it? ```
x(y(+)z) = x(y+z-1) = xy + xz -x?
I know I need to check the other way, as well. But I am slightly sussed out by the -x term on if I am checking correctly.
well what’s xy (+) xz
regular addition, in this case
I tried to separate (+) and + as the former is the addition for the ring
No I mean, write it out
OH, I see what you mean now. I think I fundamentally got the definition confused. In this case, ```
xy(+)xz = xy+xz - 1
Well, I suppose this should really be using this field's multiplication?
Well no it’s just not a ring lol
Okay, I think I am just being really dumb.
Take your original ring to be Z, x = 2, y = z = 1
Okay so, I should have been trying to show $x \odot(y \oplus z) = x \odot y \oplus x\odot z$
Dot the the multiplication here
mistyped
statsbro
$x \odot (y \oplus z) = x \odot (y + z -1) = x + y + z - 1 - (xy + xz - x)$
statsbro
then $x \odot y \oplus x\odot z = (x + y - xy) \oplus (x + z - xz) = (x+y - xy) + (x + z - xz) -1$
Looks good to me
statsbro
Yeah I think so too, there may be a missing x term but I want to move on. Thanks for helping me, I feel like I understand where I can go wrong a lot better now.
No I think you nailed it, those two expressions are equal to one another
I'm just wondering how you go about solving the last 3 questions/3b (This was a take home that was due 12 hours ago and already submitted, just curious)
what'd you submit
3 pages of latex with my name on it, I'll go see if I can Screencast the submission page on canvas to prove it if that's the issue
just curious what we're working with here to start with
Ahh
Well for 7, I determined what the ring of integers was. That's it
6 I something something somethinged Chinese remainder theorem though we didn't cover when there's more than 2 ideals
For 8 I definition hopped, determined it had to be 2 ideals in (\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{6})) and then got it to like, (p = xyac + 6xybd)
StarvinPig
For 6 my initial idea might be to try and show that O is a UFD since a Dedekind domain is a UFD iff it's a PID
Ahh
We did not discuss that
It's one of the exercises in our textbook and the hint there is CRT
7 basically asks you to factor 7 in Q[sqrt{-3}]
This is a problem in Neukirch as well and I don't remember what the hint there is it's something with prime elements
Yea its basically what I did, and what our lecturer told us to do as well
I showed 5 was a field
Ye that works
I mean the fact you knew what textbook I was working off based on that kinda says it
Would you be surprised if our lecturer didn't define what splits completely is
Lol
It means that your ideal factors into the most possible prime ideals
i.e. into [L:K] of them when L/K is a separable extension
I learned that 1 hour before this was due
The only time we covered them was the last lecture where he worked through last years exam but didn't even tell us what the question was asking for until like an hour in
But Neukirch is a good book
It has a lot of info
Sucks that ur lecturer is kinda ass tho
Kinda is a bold statement. This is also his field
Like I know for one of my classmates who he was supervising, he didn't define fuck all properly
Dw I had a very famous topologist as my AT prof and he was a very very shit lecturer
For us his definition of fractional ideal was an ideal that was a product of primes and inverses
That's pretty close to a quote
Well
That's good intuition in NT ig lmao
He also didn't define unramified
Like didn't even try
@wraith cargo I'm also probably the nicest towards this lecturer out of the bunch if you want some extra context
Here's a fun example
For 6, the way that I know how to do it is to use the Forster-Swan theorem lmao
Lmao the fuck is that
Basically tells you an upper bound on the minimal # of generators for a module M based on the minimal # of generators of M_p over p in the support of M, and then the dimension of MSpec A
the finitely many primes tells you that MSpec is 0-dimensional
(Really it's this JSpec thing)
and I_p is always principal cuz the localizations of a Dedekind domain are a PID
and so 1 + 0 = 1
so it's generated by a single thing
The only thing in this were meant to know is PID @next obsidian
What was the assignment here?
If a_n
X^n + ... + a_0 is irreducible, show a_0x^n + ... + a_0 is irreducible
I see. ax would be the only exception though
Yea thats what I found but like, that's not a trivial exception
Hi guys, does anyone know where I can find the proven correspondence theorem?
I would frankly suggest you try proving it yourself – it's a good exercise and not too long either.
But for a reference, if I assume you're talking about groups then this should be either proven or an exercise in any group theory textbook
I believe Fraleigh does it
No, it is rings
The proof for rings and for groups are basically the same. But anyway here is the first result that comes up when you Google it
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1290711/306319
hello, can someone explain what's the difference between mapping and relation?
#proofs-and-logic but a relation is just any subset R of X x Y
a mapping f is a relation that’s also a function
a mapping is a function. We say that a relation is a function if, and only if, for all elements of the relation, the primary element of each ordered pair appears precisely once.
(at least according to ZFC set theory)
Also, don't cross-post your question in multiple channels.
is there a standard notation for a free abelian group
like if F is a free abelian group with A as a basis
ive seen Z[a : a in A] used in algebraic topology but does this apply to just any free abliean group
That’s pretty standard yeah
sick thanks
Z^(A) is pretty common for A-fold direct sum
You could also just say Z^n assuming your set is finite ofc
so like if i had A x B would i say Z^(A x B)
as in, free abelian group generated by ordered pairs (a,b)
"prove that if A is a subset of B, then <A> is a subgroup of <B>"
- A being a subset of B implies A is a subset of <B>
- for all elements a, b in A, ab^-1 is in <B> (because a,b are in <B> and <B> is a group)
- Given any subset H of group G, <H> is a subgroup of G by the intersection definition of a generated subgroup
Therefore, because A is a subset of group <B>, <A> must be a subgroup of <B>
right?
at least, I think so. This notation is a bit confusing to parse
"the intersection of all H such that A is a subset of H, and H is a subgroup of G" right?
Sure that works. You can also just note that <A> is a subset of <B> through the intersection formula
Since <B> contains B, <B> contains A, hence is part of the intersection
yeh
seems like that's saying the same thing I did but starting at the largest object
i know there exists advanced technique to prove this but we haven't learn, so my way is denote |<a>|=|H|=15, |<b>|=|K|=2, b\notin H, and try to show |ab|=30, by langrange the possiblities of |ab| is 1,2,3,5,6,10,15,30, by the condition given we can rule out 1,2,15, and by |<ab>H|=(|<ab>||H|/|<ab>|\cap H|) i can rule out 3,5,6, because |<ab>|\cap H| need to divide both |<ab>| and |H| and <ab> cannot be contained in H, but for 10, the above equation fails, because we could have |<ab|\cap H|=5 which divides both 10 and 15, any idea about how to rule out |ab|=10?
so since this definition doesn't really distinguish between things like <s,r,sr> and just <s,r> do we have a term for something to the effect of the minimal generators of a group?
Notice (ab)^10 = a^10 b^10 = a^10 which isn't the identity.
we don't know G is abelian
Just think about what could aba^(-1) possibly equal
it should equal b right bc it's obviously abelian but i couldn't find how to show it based on the given condition
What is the order of aba^(-1) ?
Hint: ||multiply it by itself||
oh it's 2 so aba^(-1) must equal to b cuz only one subgroup of order 2
Bingo
thank you so much
gotta find an example of some abelian subgroup H of some group G such that <H,C_G(H)> is not abelian. This is hard XD
Can't you just pick H to be the trivial subgroup?
.... you ever see a solution staring you in the face and laughing at your stupidity for twenty minutes?
like, that seems a valid solution given the parameters of the problem
seems a bit cheeky, but otherwise yeah
Seems the problem is trying to trick you into thinking it's harder than it is
So I'd say the problem is the cheeky one, not the solution
trivial groups are groups. trivial groups are groups. trivial groups are groups.
"prove that if H is a subgroup of G, <H-{1}>=H"
uh... H-{1} is a group with the identity removed, which means that for all elements a,b which are not inverses, ab is still there. the group generated by that set must provide closure, and since inverses are present, 1 must then be part of that group, but since no other new elements are generated, that's just H without 1, with 1, i.e. H.
these questions be weirding me out with how easy they are.
you mean H is a subgroup of G, I hope
I do, brain going faster than my fingies
I was wondering if anyone knew any applications to group theory that uses the second isomorphism theorem? I'm having a hard time gaining intuition for why we even care about the "product" of subgroups like AB
How would you prove that if phi is a surjective homomorphism then the image under phi of any Sylow p-subgroup is a Sylow p-subgroup?
conjugate
thanks moamen, very cool
actual answer, the homomorphic image of a p-element is a p-element as the order of the image must be a divisor of the order of whatever
thus, phi maps sylow subgroups into sylow subgroups, which then in turn must be onto because surjective
Why does it send sylow subgroups to sylow subgroups?
Why cant it send Sylow subgroups to p-subgroups
because every p-element is contained in a sylow subgroup by definition
I said into, not onto
onto comes from the fact that it's surjective
lets start naming things
ok nevermind my proof requires knowing that you can split group elements into p' and p-parts
might be a bit too advanced
do you have the result that S in Syl_p(G) => Sker(f)/ker(f) in Syl_p(f(G))?
just conjugate dude
One small application is to show for a normal solvable subgroup N and a solvable subgroup H we have H.N is solvable
I'll assume you don't: Let f : G -> H be surjective with kernel K, S in Syl_p(G), then f(S) = {sK : s \in S} = SK/K. Since |S| = |G|_p, ([G : S], p) = 1, and so we can conclude that ([G : SK], p) = 1 as well because SK contains S. Therefore [H : SK/K] = [G/K : SK/K] = [G : SK] is also coprime to p, so SK/K must be in Syl_p(G/K) = Syl_p(H), thus f(S) is in Syl_p(H)
oh and f(S) is a p-group by this discussion
put that at the start 
What are solvable groups
solvable means different things to different people, but in most contexts it means you can decompose the group with abelian groups
this'll matter when you learn about jordan holder
good examples outside of the prior one about solvable groups having a nice decomposition are like the one wikipedia mentions, where 2nd iso can let you identify two groups where one might contain the other obviously, but an isomorphism would seem unattainable until you find a good normal subgroup
i meant conjugate , the powerlifting program developed by louie simmons
thanks moamen, very cool
Sorry im high again and was thinking about this stuff
And got mind blown
Thinking about how group theory is the study of symmetries and how that makes sense
And i was thinking about some results in group theory and how its really saying something about symmetry
Has anyone else had moments like that when first studying this stuff?
Anyone
so based
Group theory is the study of how you can permute structures, because all the cool questions are about actions 
group theory is representation theory etc. etc.
Yeaah
And the group in its entirety is like the “structure” u are preserving
That corresponds to some real life structure or pattern or something
Ok well how im thinking of it makes sense to me but verbalizing things is weird
All Polish Roelcke precompact groups are Aut(M) for some separably categorical structure

With the topology lifted from pointwise convergence stuff
It goes deep
I dont think im ready its like too much
This + some stable independence stuff & Hilbert space independence -> all Polish Roelcke precompact groups have Kazhdan property T
baby steps 
Which this is like zigzagging from a dynamics-y topological group property back to a dynamics-y topological group property
j o i n u s
You don’t have to jump straight into the abyss like I did
Yeah this course has convinced me
Ive never been this engaged with thinking about the concepts in a math course before this
we start forming groups out of groups
I want to
I need to stop comparing myself to others though
I do it too much and get motivated to demotivated back and forth
I think im just always trying to gauge how im "doing" and if im able to do it or no
not
hopefully what matters most is just the desire to keep trying to learn and understand
Wasn't group theory originally the study of permutations
Infinitely deep
How did it become representation
just do what’s fun 
permutation matices
Ah everything is matrices somehow 
everything is matrices except matrices, they're an additive category.
I think groups first arose in Galois theory as permutation groups of roots yes
You mean permutation was not among the focus of research before Galois theory?
Well depends how sharply you define Galois theory. But the origins of groups is as permutations of roots of a polynomial to attack problems like the (in)solvability of the quintic
People loved to solve polynomials, didn't they
Its cool how in like {0,1,2} integers mod 3 the elements themselves are literally symmetries
Because you can think of them corresponding to a function (permutation)
I personally understand that as giving numbers to rotations
Like you have a circle and 1 represents the rotation by 360 by 120 deg?
*by 120 degrees
Like is thay what u mean or is it more complicated
Yes, I mean this
Cool
see: cayley's thm 🙂
Yas^
Thats good
Well we didn't do that in our galois theory course
You didn't consider how groups can act on the roots of polynomials?!
We did but we didn't get to the quintic bit
Well sure, but problems "like" that
Sure, but like that's the famous one
We stopped our galois theory at solvable iff solutions by radicals
But then you're basically at the finish line. The last part is just fiddleing a bit to show that A5 isn't solvable, and that there is a polynomial with that Galois group
Ahh, we didn't do that bit. Fair though
You did not learn that A5 is not solvable?
Nope
At least I don't think so, we might have mentioned it
This lecturer does not like proofs though
Can Anyone help me with the formal proof of this problem. Or tell me where can i find it
Sorry but I am not very well acquainted with this part of ring theory .So as a proof to the above problem should I write the whole of what's there in your shared link. Basically , are both problems exactly the same?
oh I see ,basically I need to just proceed the same way with for the special case of n=2
yeah
it’s actually enough to just prove n = 2 case then use induction to conclude it for all n
Well, the groups I usually see are acting on a structure that isn’t necessarily a vector space, so not necessarily representation stuff insofar as G = Aut(A)
Why is the symbol for this article a bike chain? lol
idk lol
Thanks for that visual. I think i will be thinking about that a lot now when I see Zn
crt is like gear ratios
so true
is anyone awake
Yeah the groups you see are the groups that act on, like, models of logic, and shit like that. Which is insane.

i just need this proof written
can you ask a better question
that isnt even a question
anyone want to help me with this? the context is btw that r divides m
I actually think this is bs oof, like I cant think of a way to do this that doesnt fundementally depend on like
phi(m)/m
and this can get arbritarily small
so I feel like certainly with only one b I should not be able to find r with probability 1/2
(if I had 2 b's I could with 6/pi^2)
Is the algorithm supposed to be probabilistic or deterministic?
If it’s deterministic it’s kind of a stupid problem
it can be probabilistic
Also do you actually know that r divides m or just that they are not coprime?
yes I know r|m
hmm so I think actually this problem might require a quantum algorithm, I initially dismissed the idea but the more I think about it the more it makes sense oof.
Are you allowed to have a quantum algorithm?
Aha
this is kind of a classical post-processing of a different quantum algorithm
or so i thought atleast oof
I mean you can certainly look at the poset of factors d of m and say that P(d = m/r|sample) = 0 if gcd(d, b) != d for some b in the sample, and otherwise use Bayes’ theorem to compute the MLE for d. That’s the only thing you can really do
Then it’s a basic task in statistics to see how many samples you need to be sure within 5% that you’ve found d for instance
The naive thing I guess would just be to take r to be m/gcd(m, b). Seems plausible that would have a succes probability more than 1/2
see thats the issue, I am only allowed 1 sample (atleast thats what the question makes me think)
Oh I thought we were assuming you wanted to find the minimum number of samples
if I could for instance be allowed even 2 samples, I could guess r with 6/pi^2 probability
Hmm
I think this is probably some phase estimation quantum algo stuff, cause its kinda what u said about classical algos
theres only so much that can be done
N is a normal subgroup of G, H is a subgroup of G. Prove that H ∩ N is a normal subgroup of H.
Im gonna show it by showing that if a and b are in H, aVbV = abV, V = H ∩ N
an element in aVbV is of the form av1bv2, since v1 is in N then v1b = bv1'. Then b^(-1)v1b = v1', all of the left hand side are elements of H and since H is a subgroup then v1' is also in H, so v1' is in V
so av1bv2 = abv1'v2 so aVbV subset of abV
is that fine so far
It's probably quicker to show directly that it's closed under conjugation.
yeah am i doing like more steps than necessary sort of thing
yeah i actually forgot that was how normal subgroups were defined in the first place lol
When does F_p(x) have a nth root of unity?
I'm particularly interested in the case of F_p(x), where p is not 2, and a 2nd root of unity?
A 2nd root of unity meaning -1?
If so, always
In general I guess it will have a primitive nth root of unity iff n divides p-1
(assuming Fp(x) means rational functions, if x is some algebraic element it will depend on x)
[ this is just that the multiplicative group of finite fields is cyclic btw. (F_q)^\times ~= Z/(q-1) ]
Thanks yeah i made the solution quicker doing it that way
Also i was super stuck on this for a long time because i was trying to show H intersect N is normal in G, not H
You guys do algebra problems, how much are you thinking in an intuitive sense, like thinking about how the problem relates to a problem about symmetries etc, vs thinking in a sense of just symbol pushing and how it works in that way
I never think of groups in terms of symmetries.
I actually kinda hate that interpretation.
Whys that?
I mean yeah like i guess this problem is pretty easy so you dont even really need your thinking to go further than just symbol pushing and set theory stuff
But are all problems like thay?
Or does one need a certain intuitive sense in order to make sense of problems?
does this agree with the definition of character in representation theory?
uhm
well if you take the trace of a 1d rep then sure
but for higher dimensional representations it need not agree right?
disclaimer: I dont really know representation theory
yes it does
all irreducible reps of abelian groups are 1 dimensional
so there's no contention here
ohh ok
but you could take the trace of a reducible representation, no? 
yeah but who cares
idk
the character of that is the sum of irreducible characters
right
so this agrees with \emph{irreducible characters} ?
idk why I went latex mode
so when people say "the characters" of a group they mean either the set of irreducibles (95% chance) or the ring the characters generate (5% chance)
thank you
is this statement equivalent to the following?: The matrices of a finite abelian group H in GL_n(C) are mutually diagonalizable?
if mutually diagonalizable means simulationously diagonalisable then that's actually how you prove it!
very impressive
yes I meant that
I just reformulated the problem, idk how to prove that, but sounds fun
||every set of diagonalisable matrices that commute with one another is simultaniously diagonalisble||
yes, that's what I came up with
If N is normal in G, show that the order of aN in G\N is a divisor of order of a in G, when ord(a) is finite.
Order of aN is smallest j so that (aN)^j = N
Smallest j that a^j is in N. since a has finite order, we know that a^j is e in N so aN does have finite order. Call the order j.
So now we must ask if a^j has finite order. If it does, then order of aN is a divisor of order of a.
And a^j does have finite order cause a does
So is that all?
Of course a^j has finite order , <a> generates finite cyclic group and so every element in the finite group has finite order
Good?
we know that a^j is e in N
no, you just know that it's in N
but I don't think you use this fact
Ok wait
you've shown that aN has finite order, which is obvious because ord(a) is finite, you haven't shown that it divides the order of a in G I don't think
ah no, you have - by applying lagrange to <a>
alternatively, the map a -> aN is a group homomorphism, so the order of the image aN divides the order of a
could you explain ?
Yeah nice
if the order of aN is j, then (aN)^j = (a^jN) = N, Then because a^j is an element of <a>, o(a^j) divides |<a>| = o(a)
and (aN)^j = a^jN because... it just does ok??!! trust the science!!!
have faith in the quotient
why "the order of aN is the order of a^j" ?
sorry, you're right - it just divides the order of a^j
which is still fine for our purposes
because a^j is the smallest power of a in N, and e in N, so a^k = e in N => j | k right ?
I have algebra 1 midterms on Tuesday
I'm screwed
I rephrased it to be much more readable
but much less detailed
no actually I think I have more detail now 
this is more detailed
I think this also works
it's not more detailed it's just different
than just stating it
I like questions with cyclic groups and orders
they're simple enough for my smooth brain to work them out in finite time
Basically
If you have this with K<L<M all Galois and pi the canonical projection Gal(M/K)-->Gal(L/K), when is it the case that M^ker(rho_1)=L^ker(rho_2) ?
what do we mean here by "extension"?
is it always true? Im unsure
an extenstion G of a group K by H is a short exact sequence 0 -> H -> G -> K -> 0
if you don't know what this means you can think of it as "If G has a normal solvable subgroup H such that the quotient G/H is solvable, then G is solvable"
which makes it a bit clearer why we should expect it to be true as well
so if for every x in M not in L there eixsts sigma doing something to x but not doing anything to L then it is certainly in the kernel and it's true
which follows by Galois I think
Why are some subgroups normal and some arent
In an intuitive sense
Chat gpt is helpful with this tho lol
conjugation
What does that mean thoufh
conjugation in math refers to the relationship between two things that are opposite yet behave similarly
like x + iy and x - iy form conjugate pairs
honestly i understand "normal subgroup" as "the thing that makes quotient groups work"
my prof gave a different derivation for normal -> quotient but i don't remember how it went
bit like how measurable functions just exist to make lebesgue integration work 
I understand it in that way too but like … im not satisfied or something? Lol idk
i think of them as kernels
true
Kernel of homo
sanity (?) check: a basis of $\mathbb{Z}_3[x]/\langle x^2 + x + 2 \rangle$ would just be ${1, x}$ right?
okeyokay
indeed for F[x]/(irreducible polynomial of degree n) an F-basis is given by 1,x,...,x^(n-1)
it's a good exercise
That looks like it would probably be more at home in #advanced-algebra.
oops sorry
If I have questions from my algebra 1 course should I post here or in another section?
What is the channel description?
Depending on what "algebra 1" means in your location it could also easily be something that belongs in #prealg-and-algebra.
Yes, I guess I should post it here then lol. Just wanted to make sure
yea post it
u guys should make a bot
listening on this channel 24/7
if it sees 3x+2y = 2
it removes it
and dms the person the right channel
tbf it doesn't really make sense to ask pre-algebra stuff in this channel anymore now that it's been renamed
wonder what the folks at #advanced-algebra are getting tho
Actually the question I have is from my algebra 1 course but it doesn't involve rings/fields/groups, it's about proving the irrationality of sqrt(n) if n =/= +-1 is not a square free integer
lol sorry
What I don't understand is the last sentence, I just copied it from the notes
What do they mean by "looking at the prime factorization of p on both sides"
And also, if I have more questions of this type where do I post it? Since it's not exactly ring/field/group theory, more like the precursors to it I guess
well ig u could throw this into #proofs-and-logic
since this looks like an intro to proof course
Oh right, I didn't see that one
if ur using a textbook
then the name of the textbook is prob a good indiciator
indicator*
yeah
hey I have that 
its really a great text
u should be proud
it prob is but it looks scary
Lots of stuff that doesn’t belong there
the only textbook i had in my entire life was brezis functional analysis
and i gave it to a friend
but also the only reason i have it was because my prof was throwing away her old books and decided i could use them since i was sitting right there
yeah its great man

ig just forget about it, make ur own proof
do u see how this and that implie p|t
and hence there is a common divisor > 1 which is a contradiction?
So far no, I'll try again though
yes, p | n bc we assmed it and the part where I showed p|s I wrote it on my own
yea gj
so p is a prime factor of n , and of also s. and u have s^2 = t^2*n
now
n is square-free
Once the question has been identifed as not on topic here, please take further discussion to #elementary-number-theory where Oolong re-asked it.
okay electric bogaloo
just realized this was cross posted, or something lol
let me post a cute algebra problem
so it gets back to on topic
ugh cant find
prove that the sum of two left nil ideals is nil ( this is an open problem )
I'll be back soon with questions on rings, so don't worry lol
A coworker and I were surprised to discover we have opposite conceptions of what t_a_b means for an isometry. Somehow our code is able to interact with each other but when he talks about isometries it just sounds like gibberish to me. I did a bit of googling and it seems like most academic literature takes his conception, not mine.
To me, the isometry represented by the matrix:
[ cos30 -sin30 3
sin30 cos30 2
0 0 1 ]
most definitely means go forward 3 steps, step to your left 2 steps and then rotate counterclockwise 30 degrees
Thus, if we call this t_a_b, then this expresses how you get from pose a to pose b
If I then were to go forward 2 steps from there, I would express this as
[ cos30 -sin30 3 [ 1 0 2
sin30 cos30 2 * 0 1 0
0 0 1 ] 0 0 1 ]
We can call this second matrix t_b_c as it takes you two steps forward from pose b to pose c
Taken altogether t_a_b * t_b_c tells you how to get from pose a to pose c
My coworker insists I have it backwards and that t_b_c is a matrix expressing how frame b somehow operates on point c when you multiply by it and that t_a_b then operates on that frame. But I have absolutely no intuition or conception of what that means and the moment we dig into details, his description sounds a lot like he's saying the exact opposite of what I'm saying in a way that, if it were true, would mean our code wouldn't work together because we're using the same notation to express different things. But somehow our code does work together and despite the gibberish that comes out of his mouth, the code he eventually writes makes sense to me when I can put it through my mental model.
I'm a smart guy. I should be able to understand his mental model too, but so far I can't. Someone please help me
Not sure how this fits in this channel.
SE2 is a group and I didn't see anywhere else it fit better
Some people ended up trying to answer in #help-9 but mostly asked questions that didn't seem to me to go anywhere. I'm still missing something
Left multiplication by that matrix for sure is rotation then translation. Right multiplication by that matrix is for sure translation then rotation.
Really in 3 dimensions it's not an isometry, the translation is shearing. But like then you can project to the top 2 coordinates.
But yeah maybe you're confused about left vs right multiplication.
I always think of left multiplication as row operations (or column-wise action) and right multiplication as column operations (or row-wise action)
So your matrix as row operations is adding 3 times the third row to the first and 2 times the third row to the second, and then do a rotation.
@eager willow Please see the discussion that ensued in the help channel. It's not what you think. The confusion was all about what "do a rotation" means. In my conception you rotate "about yourself" when you move which means you track your heading. In standard conception, points don't have a heading and rotations are "about the origin". It turns out that if you flip the order in which you sequence operations, these are dual operations and both are valid interpretations of multiplying isometry matrices
In other words, I was using a mental model where if I (a character standing on the fixed infinite cartesian grid) start at (x,y) = (0, 0) facing along the positive x axis, then step to the left one increment, then turn to my right 45 degrees (which is not at all the same thing as changing my coordinates by rotating myself about the origin point; in this model my coordinates stay the same, only my heading changes), then step forward 2 increments (along my new heading), I'll end at
(x, y) = (sqrt(2), sqrt(2) - 1) with a heading 45 degrees off to the right of positive x
This can be expressed as:
[ 1 0 0 [ 1/sqrt(2) 1/sqrt(2) 0 [ 1 0 2 [ 1/sqrt(2) 1/sqrt(2) sqrt(2)
0 1 1 x -1/sqrt(2) 1/sqrt(2) 0 x 0 1 0 = -1/sqrt(2) 1/sqrt(2) sqrt(2) - 1
0 0 1 ] 0 0 1 ] 0 0 1 ] 0 0 1 ]
Notice how the matrices representing each of these actions are sequenced in time from left to right, not from right to left
@gentle trellis In a simpler case of exactly the same concept, the confusion is if someone draws the graph y=f(x) and then asks how do you make y=f(x-1)? There are two ways of interpreting this. We can either move the graph of the function to the right by 1 or we can move the whole coordinate grid to the left by 1.
Your coworker's is the first interpretation which is more common, and your interpretation is the second, since it keeps the perspective of the graph. Both are equivalent.
Hello! Exposure to abstract algebra made me question the intuition behind a basic property that I once took for granted - associativity. Can anyone provide me a quick intuition (or way to think about it), besides its algebraic definition ? That it "allows members to be "grouped" in any way" still doesn't feel intuitive enough for me.
Thanks in advance for any help!
Translation is an isometry, because it is distance-preserving.
So it's transformation of a point vs. transformation of a coordinate frame. One is the inverse of the other for a given isometry.
So any possible homomorphism out of G is already “encoded” in the normal subgroups of G?
You can apply the operations in any order (which is not the same as saying the operations are commutative).
Thats pretty cool
Hmmm, I can see where this is coming from, and it is good enough. But, just out of curiosity, is there something else other than this ? It's completely fine if not.
It's hard to think of any other conceptions of it
I guess intuitively it's just like addition or multiplication, but those have more properties than just associativity.
Note that subtraction is not associative though.
Im a bit confused about this excerpt in my book on power series, it says the following "Almost always B(x) itself will be a polynomial, but its inverse B(x)^-1 is neccesarily a power series, rather than a polynomial"
I can think of a counter example, for example any given quadratic polynomial in a ring will have an inverse that is also a polynomial.
The inverse if x² is sqrt(x), which is not a polynomial.
is 1/f(x) or undo f meant here....
(Unless the ring is characteristic 2, quadratic polynomials can't even have inverses unless you restrict their domain first -- as I implicitly did here).
Sorry yeash because it doesn't have the constant term
I meant quadratics with constant terms
The inverse of x²+1 is sqrt(x-1), which is not a polynomial either.
You need to clarify what "inverse" means
Surely it means the multiplicative inverse rather than the function inverse else I dont find sense in the context
But even so, the reciprocal of a quadratic will not be a polynomial.
So Im talking about the ring F[[x]], and the inverse is just an element of the set such that given a the inverse of a aa^-1 = 1
Thats the multiplicative inverse for the ring of polynomials
So x^-2 is the inverse of x^2 which is not a polynomial
its the ring for power series*
here’s another way to look at integers that you may not have noticed
you probably think of the number 5 as expressing a number of objects: 5 apples, 5 pencils, 5 bunnies
but you can also think of it as an operation, namely the act of adding 5 to something
so 5 + x may mean “add 5 bunnies to x”
if you have just 5 by itself, you can conceptualize this as “add 5 to 0”
then 10 + 5 would mean “add 5, then 10,” or in other words combining the operations of adding 5 and adding 10; this is of course the same thing as adding 15
now you can interpret the associative property differently: it’s saying that (a + b) + c is equal as an operation to a + (b + c)
for example, take 1 + 4 + 9
if you combine this as 5 + 9, you get the (single) operation of adding 9 followed by adding 5
but if you combine it as 1 + 13, the operation becomes adding 13 followed by adding 1
and associativity claims that these two functions are the same
if you compare this to commutativity, that would say that adding 2 then 3 is the same thing as adding 3 then 2
maybe this can help you think about associativity
x^-2 will be an infinite series yes
Ok so it's always the case that the inverse of a polynomial is going to be a power series?
You can't have two polynomials whose product is 1 unless they are both degree 0.
... or unless the coefficient ring has zero divisors.
But if you say F[[x]], that seems to indicate the coefficients come from a field.
Ok yeah that makes sense.
mhm
Aha, makes sense! I guess I'll have to think a little bit more about it, but it definitely helps. Thanks as well!
A general note. Algebraic expressions with binary operations cannot be formally parsed without proper parenthesizing
The usual convention is a # b ? c = (a # b) ? c
Something something Polish notation.
in terms of implicit notation
But, associativity means either interpretation works (they are equal)
a # b ? c = (a # b) ? c = a # (b ? c)
So I can think about associativity as allowing the operation to take an arbitrary list (without parentheses), without leading to ambiguities ?
I believe so, more or less.
👍
If you take this convention theres also no ambiguities but tbh, we don't quite take this convention in practice anyways
but also, ive forgotten --- associativity means u are referring to the same operator
# and ? will be the same
but what I meant was, we read 1 + 2 * 3 as 1 + (2 * 3)
because.
So if there are no conventions to follow for parenthesizing --- yes.
A useful example of associativity that always holds
thats a bit surprising to me tbh
is function composition
this is associative, generally
I agree actually
f o g o h = (f o g) o h = f o (g o h) = f(g(h(x)))
like, this is very general. but turns out to be associative
And to me, this is a big motivating reason to care about associativity
most nice things will be associative because of this in some way or other. I think.
Yup.
Thanks to all the answers, I feel as if I am one step closer to finding the intuition!
Commutativity allows us to not care about the order of the elements, meanwhile associativity allows us to not care about the way the elements are grouped (parentheses). All there is left is just to make a proper difference between order and grouping, since my intuition yet cannot really do this. I mean, it works, but I feel like I can do better at this.
Yeah if you have commutativity without associativity
you get. quite stuck
i would say
There's not too much you can do with this expression
a * (b * c)
Associativity is a 'default' that you will assume in almost all contexts
There are few natural things that aren't I think.
The vector cross product is one 
